CHAPTER : 1

CHAPTER : 2

CHAPTER :3

MCQ PRACTICE QUESTIONS AS PER NEW CBSE SYLLABUS

MAHENDRA KALRA

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 CHAPTER 1 SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY
1. Which of the following terms are unitless?
(a) Molality (b) Molarity (c) Mole fraction (d) Normality
2. 16 g of oxygen has same number of molecules as in
(a) 16 g of CO (b) 28 g of N2 (c) 14 g of N2 (d) 16.0 g of H2
3. Number of significant Figures in the number 1.065
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1
4. How many moles of atom are contained in 32.7 g of Zn
(a) .200 (b) .500 (c) 1.50 (d) .0118
5. What will be the molality of the solution containing 18.25 g of HCl gas in 500 g of water? (a) 0.1 m (b) 1 M (c) 0.5
m (d) 1 m
6. Calculate the number of Moles of Cu(C2H3O2)2 present in 200 g
(a) 1.1 mol (b) 1 mol (c) .9 mol (d) 1.2 mol
7. The percentage of Carbon is Ca(HCO3)2 is
(a) 15% (b) 1.8% (c) 14.8% (d) 15.2%
8. Which of the following statements about a compound is incorrect?
(a) A molecule of a compound has atoms of different elements.
(b) A compound cannot be separated into its constituent elements by physical methods of separation.
(c) A compound retains the physical properties of its constituent elements.
(d) The ratio of atoms of different elements in a compound is fixed
9. Calculate the standard molar volume of oxygen gas. The density of O2 gas at NTP is 1.429g/L. (a) 22.39litres (b)
21.2 Litres (c) 24 Litres (d) None of the above
10. Calculate the number of oxygen atoms in 50 g of CaCO3
(a) 6.033×1023 atoms (b) 9.033×1023atoms (c) 8.033×1023atoms (d) 3.033×1023atoms
11. What will be the molarity of a solution, which contains 5.85 g of NaCl(s) per 500 mL?
(a) 4 mol/L (b) 20 mol/L (c) 0.2 mol/L (d) 2 mol/L
12. The mass of 2.044×1023 carbon atoms. (a) 12 g (b) 36 g (c) 24 g (d) 48 g
13. How many gram of solute is required to prepare 1.0 L of 1 M CaCl2.6H2O?
(a) 200 g (b) 216 g (c) 219 g (d) None of the above
14. Which of the following reactions is not correct according to the law of conservation of mass.
(a) 2Mg(s)+O2(g)→2MgO(s)
(b) C3H8(g)+O2(g)→CO2(g)+H2O(g)
(c) P4(s)+5O2(g)→P4O10(s)
(d) CH4(g) + 2O2(g)→CO2(g)+2H2O(g)
15. How many mL of water must be added to 200 mL of .65 M HCL to dilute the solution to .20 M (a) 450 mL (b) 400
mL (c) 350 mL (d) 500 mL
16. The number of Gram molecules of oxygen in 6.02×1024 CO molecules is
(a) 10 gm-molecules (b) 5 gm-molecules (c) 1 gm -molecules (d) .5 gm-molecules
17. Which of the following has the largest number of atoms
(a)0.5 g-atoms of Cu (b)0.635 g Cu(c) 0.25moles of Cu atoms (d)1g of Cu
18. A measured temperature on Fahrenheit scale is 200 °F. What will this reading be on Celsius scale? (a) 40 °C (b) 94
°C (c) 93.3 °C (d) 30 °C
19. 1 Mole of CH4 contains
(a) 6.02×1023 atoms of H (b) 4 gm-atoms of hydrogen (c) 1.81×1023 molecules of CH4
(d) 3g of Carbon
20. Which of the following pairs have the same number of atoms?
(a) 16 g of O2(g) and 4 g of H2 (g) (b) 16 g of O2 and 44 g of CO2
(c) 28 g of N2 and 32 g of O2 (d) 12 g of C(s) and 24 g of Na(s)
21. An organic compound contains carbon , hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.71% and H, 9.67%.
The empirical formula of the compound would be
(a) CHO (b) CH4O (c) CH3O (d) CH2O

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22. The number of moles present in 6 gms of carbon is:
(a) 2 (b) 0.5 (c) 5 (d) 1
23. The percentage of nitrogen in urea is about
(a) 46 (b) 85 (c) 18 (d) 28
24. Which has maximum number of atoms?
(a) 24 g of C (12) (b) 56 g of Fe (56) (c) 27 g of Al (27) (d) 108 g of Ag (108)
25. 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is
(a) NO (b) N2O (c) CO (d) CO2
26. Boron exists as two stable isotopes; 10B(19%) and 11B(81%). Find out the average atomic weight of boron in the
periodic table (a) 10.0 (b) 11.2 (c) 10.2 (d) 10.8
27. What will be the molarity of a solution, which contains 5.85 g of NaCl(s) per 500 mL? (a) 4 mol L -1 (b) 20 molL-1 (c)
0.2 molL-1 (d) 2molL-1
28. If 500 mL of a 5M solution is diluted to 1500 mL, what will be the molarity of the solution obtained? (a) 1.5 M (b)
1.66 M (c) 0.017 M (d) 1.59 M
29. The number of atoms present in one mole of an element is equal to Avogadro number. Which of the following
element contains the greatest number of atoms? (a) 4g He (b) 46g Na (c) 0.40g Ca (d) 12g He Solution
30. If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in the blood is 0.9 g L-1, what will be the molarity of glucose in the blood?
(a) 5 M (b) 50 M (c) 0.005 M (d) 0.5 M.
31. What will be the molality of the solution containing 18.25 g of HCl gas in 500 g of water? (a)0.1 m (b) 1 M (c) 0.5
m (c) 1 m
32. What is the mass per cent of carbon in carbon dioxide? (a) 0.034% (b) 27.27% (c) 3.4% (d) 28.7%
33. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound are CH2O and 180 g respectively. What will be the
molecular formula of the compound? (a) C9H18O9 (b) CH2O (c) C6H12O6 (d) C2H4O2
34. The reactant which is entirely consumed in the reaction is known as limiting reagent. In the reaction 2A + 4B → 3C
+ 4D, when 5 moles of A react with 6 moles of B, then which is the limiting reagent? (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
35. Match The Following Type

(i) 88 g of CO2 (a) 0.25 mol

(ii) 6.022 ×1023 molecules of H2O (b) 2 mol
(iii) 5.6 litres of O2 at STP (c) 1 mol
(iv) 96 g of O2 (d) 6.022 × 1023 molecules
(v) 1 mol of any gas (e) 3 mol

36. Match The Following Type

Physical quantity Unit

(i) Molarity (a) g mL–1

(ii) Mole fraction (b) mol
(iii) Mole (c) Pascal
(iv) Molality (d) Unitless
(v) Pressure (e) mol L–1
(vi) Luminous intensity (f) Candela
(vii) Density (g) mol kg–1
(viii) Mass (h) Nm–1
(i) kg

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In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct
option out of the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
37. Assertion (A): The empirical mass of ethene is half of its molecular mass.
Reason (R): The empirical formula represents the simplest whole-number
38. Assertion (A): One atomic mass unit is defined as one-twelfth of the mass of one carbon-12 atom.
Reason (R): Carbon-12 isotope is the most abundant isotope of carbon and has been chosen as the standard.
39. Assertion (A): Combustion of 16 g of methane gives 18 g of water.
Reason (R): In the combustion of methane, water is one of the products.
40. A hydrocarbon is composed of 75% carbon. The empirical formula of the compound is (a) CH 2 (b) CH3 (c) C2H5 (d)
CH4
41. With increase of temperature, which of these changes? (a) Molality (b) Weight fraction of solute (c) Molarity (d)
Mole fraction
42. 20.0 kg of N2(g) and 3.0 kg of H2(g) are mixed to produce NH3(g). The amount of NH3(g) formed is (a) 17 kg (b) 34
kg (c) 20 kg (d) 3 kg
43. 20.0 kg of H2(g) and 32 kg of O2(g) are reacted to produce H2O(l). The amount of H2O (l) formed after completion
of reaction is (a) 62 kg (b) 36 kg (c) 42 kg (d) 72 kg

CHAPTER -1 ANSWERS : 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16.
(b) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (c) 21 (c) 22 (b) 23 (a) 24 (d) 25 (a) 26 (d) 27(c) 28 (b)29(d) (d)30 (c)31(d) 32 (b)33(c) 34 (b) 35b
(i) → b (ii)→ c (iii)→ a (iv) → e (v) → d 36. (i → e) (ii → d) (iii → b) (iv → g) (v → c) (vi → f) (vii → a) (viii → i) 37(a) 38 (b) 39
(d) 40 (d) 41(c) 42(a) 43 (b)

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 CHAPTER 2 STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. Which of the following statements do not form a part of Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom? (a)Energy of the
electrons in the orbits are quantized (b)The electron in the orbit nearest the nucleus has the lowest energy
(c)Electrons revolve in different orbits around the nucleus (d)The position and velocity of the electrons in the orbit
cannot be determined simultaneously.
2. Bohr’s theory can be applied to which of the following ions. (a)Na + (b) Be2+ (c) Li+ (d) Li2+
3. Bohr’s model is not able to account for which of the following. (a) Stability of atom. (b) Spectrum of neutral
helium atom (c)Energy of free electron at rest. (d)Calculation of radii of the stationary states.
4. If electron, hydrogen, helium and neon nuclei are all moving with the velocity of light, then the wavelength
associated with these particles are in the order (a)Electron > hydrogen > helium > neon (b)Electron > helium >
hydrogen > neon (c)Electron < hydrogen < helium < neon (d)Neon < hydrogen < helium < electron
5. The mass of a photon with a wavelength equal to 1.54 × 10 –8 cm is (a) 0.8268 × 10–34 kg (b) 1.2876 × 10–33 kg (c)
1.4285 × 10–32 kg (d) 1.8884 × 10–32 kg
6. The de Broglie wavelength of a car of mass 1000 kg and velocity 36 km/hr is : (a) 6.626 × l0 –34 m (b) 6.626 × 10–38 m
(c) 6.626 × 10–31 m (d) 6.626 × 10– 30 m
7. The de Broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10 metres per second is
approximately (a) 10–31 metres (b) 10–16 metres (c)10–25 metres (d) 10–33 metres Planck’s constant, h = 6.63 × 10–34
Js
8. Heisenberg's uncertainity principle is applicable to (a) atoms only (b) electron only (c) nucleus only (d) any moving
object
9. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by (a)Spin quantum number (b)Magnetic quantum number
(c)Principal quantum number (d) Azimuthal quantum number
10. For which one of the following sets of four quantum numbers, an electron will have the heighest energy n l
ml ms
(a) 3 2 1 1/2
(b) 4 2 –1 1/2
(c) 4 1 0 –1/2
(d) 5 0 0 –1/2
11. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct for an electron in 4f orbital? (a) n = 4, 𝑙 = 3, m = + 1, s =
+ ½ (b) n = 4, 𝑙 = 4, m = – 4, s = – ½ (c) n = 4, 𝑙 = 3, m = + 4, s = + ½ (d) n = 3, 𝑙 = 2, m = – 2, s = + ½
12. What is the correct orbital designation of an electron with the quantum number, n = 4, 𝑙 = 3, m = – 2, s = 1/2 ?
(a)3s (b) 4 f (c) 5p (d) 6s
13. Which of the following represents correct set of the four quantum numbers for an electron in a 4d subshell ? (a) 4,
2, 1, 0 (b) 4, 2, 1, – 1/2 (c) 4, 3, 2, + 1/2 (d) 4, 3, – 2, – ½
14. The total number of electrons that can be accommodated in all orbitals having principal quantum number 2 and
azimuthal quantum number 1 is (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
15. For azimuthal quantum number 𝑙 = 3, the maximum number of electrons will be (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 0 (d) 14
16. Which of the following is not permissible arrangement of electrons in an atom? (a) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = + 1/2 (b) n
= 3, l = 2, m = – 3, s = – 1/2 (c) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = – 1/2 (d) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = – 1/2
17. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an atom? (a) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s
= +1/2 (b) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +1/2 (c) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +1/2 (d) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
18. .Which set of quantum numbers are not possible? n ,l, m, s (a) 3, 2, 0, +1/2 (b) 2, 2, 1 ,+1/2 (c) 1. 0. 0, –1/2 (d) 3,
2 ,–2, +1/2
19. What will be the sum of all possible values of l and m for n = 5 ? (a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 4 (d) 9
20. The following quantum numbers are possible for how many orbital(s) n = 3, l = 2, m = +2 ? (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
21. The orbitals are called degenerate when (a) they have the same wave functions (b)they have the same wave
functions but different energies (c)they have different wave functions but same energy (d)they have the same
energy
22. The number of spherical nodes in 3p orbitals are (a)one (b) three (c) two (d) None of these
23. If there are five radial nodes, then what can be the correct representation of the orbital for n = 8. (a) 8d (b) 8s(c)
8p (d) 8f
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24. The number of orbitals present in the fifth shell will be (a) 25 (b) 10 (c) 50 (d) 20
25. Arrange the orbital of same shell in the increasing order of shielding strength of the outer shell of electrons s, f, d, p
(a) s < p < d < f (b) ) s < p > d < f (c) ) s > p > d < f (d) ) s > p > d > f
26. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (Atomic number 64) is (a) [Xe] 4f8 5d0 6s2 (b) [Xe] 4f3 5d5 6s2 (c) [Xe] 4f6
5d2 6s2 (d) [Xe] 4f 75d16s2
27. The order of filling of electrons in the orbitals of an atom will be (a) 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d, 5s (b) 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d (c) 5s,
4p, 3d, 4d, 5s (d) 3d, 4p, 4s, 4d, 5s
28. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe2+ (At. no. of Fe = 26) ion is (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3
29. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d 5, 4s1. This represents its (a)excited state (b)
ground state (c) cationic form (d) anionic form
30. Number of unpaired electrons in N2+ is (a) 2 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 3
31. In a given atom no two electrons can have the same values for all the four quantum numbers. This is called
(a)Hund’s Rule (b) Aufbau principle (c) Uncertainty principle (d) Pauli’s exclusion principle
32. The electronic configuration of Cu (atomic number 29) is (a) 1s2 ,2s2 2p6 ,3s2 3p6 , 4s2 3d9 (b) 1s2 ,2s2 2p6 ,3s2 3p6 ,
3d10 4s1 (c)1s2 , 2s2 2 p6,3p23p6, 4s2 4p6 ,5s25p1 (d) 1s2 , 2s2 2p6 , 3p23p6 , 4s24p6 3d3
33. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom is determined by the following: (a) 2 l + 1 (b) 4 l – 2 (c) 2n2
(d) 4 l + 2
34. The correct order of increasing energy of atomic orbitals is (a) 5 p < 4 f < 6 s < 5 d (b) 5 p < 6 s < 4 f < 5 d (c) 5 p < 5
d < 4 f < 6 s (d) None of these
35. For which element, the valence electron will be present in the highest energy orbital. (a) 3Li (b) 16S (c) 20Ca (d) 21Sc
36. An electron has principal quantum number 3. The number of its (i) subshells and (ii) orbitals would be respectively
(a) 3 and 5 (b) 3 and 7 (c) 3 and 9 (d) 2 and 5
37. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and 𝑙 : (A) n = 4, 𝑙 = 1 (B) n = 4, 𝑙 = 0 (C) n = 3, 𝑙 = 2 (D) n = 3, 𝑙 = 1
can be placed in order of increasing energy as : (a) (C) < (D) < (B) < (A) (b) (D) < (B) < (C) < (A) (c) (B) < (D) < (A) <
(C) (d) (A) < (C) < (B) < (D)
38. The five d-orbitals are designated as dxy , dyz , dxz , dx2- y2 and dz2. Choose the correct statement. (a)The shapes of
the first three orbitals are similar but that of the fourth and fifth orbitals are different (b)The shapes of all five d-
orbitals are similar (c)The shapes of the first four orbitals are similar but that of the fifth orbital is different (d)The
shapes of all five d-orbitals are different
39. Match the following :

40.

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 41. Match the following

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given
below.
a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
42. Assertion : The position of an electron can be determined exactly with the help of an electron microscope. Reason
: The product of uncertainty in the measurement of its momentum and the uncertainty in the measurement of the
position cannot be less than a finite limit.
43. Assertion : The radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.529Å.
Reason : Radius of each circular orbit (rn) - 0.529Å (n2/Z), where n = 1, 2, 3 and Z = atomic number.
44. Assertion : All isotopes of a given element show the same type of chemical behaviour.
Reason : The chemical properties of an atom are controlled by the number of electrons in the atom.
45. Assertion : Black body is an ideal body that emits and absorbs radiations of all frequencies.
Reason : The frequency of radiation emitted by a body goes from a lower frequency to higher frequency with an
increase in temperature.
46. Assertion : It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact momentum of an electron simultaneously.
Reason : The path of an electron in an atom is clearly defined.

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 CHAPTER 3 : CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS AND PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES
1. Which of the scientists given below discovered that periodic table should be based on the atomic number ? (a)
Mendeleev (b) Newlands (c) Moseley (d) Lothar Meyer
2. How many elements are there in 6th period of periodic table? (a) 18 (b) 8 (c) 30 (d) 32
3. Modern periodic table is based on the atomic number of the elements. The experiment which proved the
significance of the atomic number was (a)Mulliken’s oil drop experiment (b)Mosley’s work on X-ray spectra
(c)Bragg’s work on X-ray diffraction (d)Discovery of X-rays by Rontgen
4. The period number in the periodic table corresponds to the ...A... principal quantum number (n) of the elements.
Here, A refers to (a) lowest (b) highest (c) middle (d) None of these
5. The symbol and IUPAC name for the element with atomic number 120, respectively are (a)Ubn and unbinilium (b)
Ubn and unbiunium (c) Ubn and unnibium (d) Ubn and unnilium
6. Element with which of the following atomic number was named by American Society as Rutherfordium, while by
Soviet Society it was named as Kurchatovium? (a) 108 (b) 104 (c) 114 (d) 110
7. What is the IUPAC name of the element with atomic number in the modern periodic table one of the following
does not have appropriate position – (a) transition elements (b) inert gases (c)inner transition elements
(d)halogens
8. If the atomic number of an element is 33, it will be placed in the periodic table in the (a)First group (b) Third group
(c) Fifth group (d) Seventh group.
9. An atom has electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 4s2, you will place it in which group? (a)Fifth (b)
Fifteenth (c) Second (d) Third
10. Which of the following is not an actinoid ? (a) Curium (Z = 96) (b) Californium (Z = 98) (c) Uranium (Z = 92) (d)
Terbium (Z = 65)
11. The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to (a) magnetic quantum number of any element
of the period. (b) atomic number of any element of the period. (c) maximum Principal quantum number of any
element of the period. (d)maximum Azimuthal quantum number of any element of the period.
12. Element with electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6 4d10 5s2 5p3 belongs to the following
group of the periodic table (a)2nd (b) 5th (c) 3rd (d) 7th
13. The long form of periodic table consists of (a)seven periods and eight groups (b)seven periods and eighteen groups
(c)eight periods and eighteen groups (d)eighteen periods and eight groups
14. Elements of which group form anions most readily? (a)Oxygen family (b) Nitrogen family (c) Halogens (d) Alkali
metals
15. Element having atomic no. of 56 belongs to which of the following block of periodic table? (a)p- block (b) d-block
(c) f- block (d) s-block
16. The elements with atomic numbers 9, 17, 35, 53 and 85 belong to (a)alkali metals (b) alkaline earth metals (c)
halogens (d) noble gases
17. Which of the following pairs has both members from the same period of the periodic table. (a)Na – Ca (b) Na – Cl
(c) Ca – Cl (d) Cl – Br
18. The elements which are characterized by the outer electronic configuration ns1 to ns2 np6 are collectively called
(a)Transition elements (b)Representative elements (c)Lanthanides (d)Inner transition elements
19. .Arrange the following elements in the order of their increasing non-metallic character Li, O, C, Be, F (a)F < O < C <
Be < Li (b) Li < Be < C < O< F (c) F < O < C < Be < Li (d) F < O < Be < C < Li
20. Which is the correct order of ionic sizes (At. No. : Ce = 58, Sn = 50, Yb = 70 and Lu = 71) ? (a)Ce > Sn > Yb > Lu (b) Sn
> Ce > Yb > Lu (c) Lu > Yb > Sn > Ce (d) Sn > Yb > Ce > Lu
21. The order of increasing sizes of atomic radii among the elements O, S, Se and As is : (a)As < S < O < Se (b) Se < S <
As < O (c) O < S < As < Se (d) O < S < Se < As
22. In the ions P3–, S2– and Cl–, the increasing order of size is (a) Cl–, S2–, P3– (b) P3–, S2–, Cl– (c) S2–, Cl–, P3– (d) S2–, P3–, Cl–
23. Which of the following is correct ? (a)Isoelectronic ions have same nuclear charge (b)Isoelectronic ions have same
neutrons (b)Isoelectronic ions have same number of electrons (d)All are correct
24. On going down a main sub-group in the periodic table (example Li to Cs in I or Be to Ra in II), the expected trend of
changes in atomic radius is a (a)continuous increase (b)continuous decrease (c)periodic one, an increase followed
by a decrease (d)decrease followed by increase
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25. Why the size of an anion is larger than the parent atom? (a)Due to increased repulsion among the electrons.
(b)Due to decrease in effective nuclear charge. (c)Due to increased in effective nuclear charge. (d)Both (a) and (b)
26. Which ionisation enthalpy in the following equations involves the greatest amount of energy? (a)Na →Na+ + e- (b)
K+→ K2+ + e- (c)C2+ → C3+ + e- (d)Ca+ → Ca2+ + e-
27. Arrange S, P, As in order of increasing ionisation energy (a)S < P < As (b) P < S < As (c) As < S < P (d) As < P < S
28. The statement that is not correct for periodic classification of elements is : (a)The properties of elements are
periodic function of their atomic numbers. (b)Non-metallic elements are less in number than metallic elements.
(c)For transition elements, the 3d-orbitals are filled with electrons after 3p-orbitals and before 4s-orbitals. (d)The
first ionisation enthalpies of elements generally increase with increase in atomic number as we go along a period.
29. Consider the following changes A →A+ + e- : E1 and A+→ A2+ + e- : E2 The energy required to pull out the two
electrons are E1 and E2 respectively. The correct relationship between two energies would be (a) E1 < E2 (b) E1 =
E2 (c) E1 > E2 (d) E1 > E2
30. Of the given electronic configurations for the elements, which electronic configuration indicates that there will be
abnormally high difference in the second and third ionization energy for the element? (a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 (b) 1s2
2s2 2p6 3s1 (c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1 (d) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
31. Alkali metals are powerful reducing agents because (a) these are metals (b)their ionic radii are large (c)these are
monovalent (d)their ionisation potential is low
32. Which of the following metals requires the radiation of highest frequency to cause the emission of electrons ?
(a)Na (b) Mg (c) K (d) Ca
33. Halogens and chalcogens family have highly ...P.. electron gain enthalpy. Here, P refers to (a)negative (b) positive
(c) zero (d) infinity
34. Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with negative sign for the
elements O, S, F and Cl ? (a)Cl < F < O < S (b) O < S < F < Cl (c) F < S < O < Cl (d) S < O < Cl < F
35. The electron gain entalpy for the inert gases is – (a)zero (b) high (c) negative (d) positive
36. The element with positive electron gain enthalpy is (a)hydrogen (b) sodium (c) oxygen (d) neon
37. Arrange the following elements in the order of their increasing non-metallic character Li, O, C, Be, F (a)F < O < C <
Be < Li (b) Li < Be < C < O< F (c) F < O < C < Be < Li (d) F < O < Be < C < Li
38. Which is a metalloid? (a)Pb (b) Sb (c) Bi (d) Zn
39. Which of the following is non-metallic ? (a)B (b) Be (c) Mg (d) Al
40. Which of the following will have the least negative electron gain enthalpy? (a) P (b) S (c) Cl (d) F
41. Which is the correct order of electronegativity ? (a)F > N < O > C (b) F > N > O > C (c) F > N > O < C (d) F < N < O =C
42. The correct order of decreasing electronegativity values among the elements I-beryllium, II-oxygen, III-nitrogen and
IV-magnesium is (a) II > III > I > IV (b) III > IV > II > I (c) I > II > III > IV (d) I > II > IV > III
43. An element having electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 forms (a) Acidic oxide (b) Basic oxide (c)
Amphoteric oxide (d) Neutral oxide
44. Diagonal relationship is shown by (a)All elements with their diagonally downward elements towards right (b)Most
of the elements of second period (c) All 3d series elements (d)None of the above
45. Match the columns.
Column-I (Name of element) Column-II(Group of element)
A. Nitrogen (p) 15
B. Aluminium (q) 16
C. Chlorine (r) 17
D. Oxygen (s) 13
E. Copper (t) 11
(a) A – (p), B – (s), C – (r), D – (q), E – (t) (b) A – (s), B – (p). C – (r), D – (q), E – (t)
(c) A – (p), B–(s), C – (q), D – (r), E – (t) (d) A – (p), B – (s), C – (r), D – (t), E – (q)
46. Match the columns.
Column-I (Name of element) Column-II (Period of element)
A Hydrogen (p) 3
B Sodium (q) 4
C Calcium (r) 6

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 D Barium (s) 1
E Iodine (t) 5
(a) A – (p), B – (s), C – (q), D – (r), E – (t) (b) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r), E – (t)
(c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r), E – (t) (d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (t), E – (r)
47. Match the columns.
Column-I Column-II
A s’ block elements (p) Cr
B ‘p’ block elements (q) Na
C ‘d’ block elements (r) Ce

D‘f’ block elements (s) Si

(a) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r) (b) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)
(c) A – (q), B – (p), C – (s), D – (r) (d) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
48. Match the columns.
Column-I Column-II
A Element with largest size in second period (p) Boron

B Element with smallest size in group 13 (q) Fluorine

C Element with maximum non-metallic character (r) Bromine
D Element with smallest size in fourth period (s) Lithium
E. Element with most metallic in group 14 (t) Lead character
(a) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (t), E – (r) (b) A – (p), B – (s), C – (q), D – (r), E – (t)
(c) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r), E – (t) (d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r), E – (t)
49. Match the columns
Column-I Column-II
A Electronegativity (p) Isotopes
B Lanthanides (q) increases along a period
C Transition elements (r) f-group of elements
D Ionisation energy (s) d-group of elements
E. Elements of same atomic number but different mass number (t) decreases along a group
(a)A– (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (p), E – (t) (b) A – (r), B – (q), C – (s), D – (t), E – (p)
(c) A – (q), B – (r), C – (s), D – (t), E – (p) (d) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (t), E – (q)
50. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer by the given codes
Column-I Column-II (Properties)
(Atoms)
A He (p) High electronegative

. B F (q) Most electropositive

C Rb (r) Strongest reducing agent
D Li (s) Highest ionisation energy

(a) A – (s), B – (q), C – (r), D – (p) (b) A – (p), B – (s), C – (q), D – (r)
(c) A – (s), B – (p), C – (r), D – (q) (d) A – (s), B – (p), C – (q), D – (r)

Directions : Each of these questions contain two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these questions also has four
alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given
below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
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(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
51. Assertion : Atomic number of the element ununbium is 112.
Reason : Name for digits 1 and 2 is un- and bi-respectively in latin words.
52. Assertion : Second period consists of 8 elements. Reason : Number of elements in each period is four times the
number of atomic orbitals available in the energy level that is being filled.
53. Assertion : Helium is placed in group 18 along with p-block elements.
Reason : It shows properties similar to p-block elements.
54. Assertion : Hydrogen can be placed in group 1.
Reason : Hydrogen can gain an electron to achieve a noble gas arrangement.
55. Assertion : Atomic size increases along a period. Reason : Effective nuclear charge increases as the atomic number
increases resulting in the increased attraction of electrons to the nucleus.
56. Assertion : Second ionization enthalpy will be higher the first ionization enthalpy. Reason : Ionization enthalpy is a
quantitative measure of the tendency of an element to lose electron.
57. Assertion : Alkali metals have least value of ionization energy within a period. Reason : They precede alkaline
earth metals in periodic table.
58. Assertion : Electron gain enthalpy can be exothermic or endothermic. Reason : Electron gain enthalpy provides a
measure of the ease with which an atom adds an electron to form anion.
59. Assertion : Smaller the size of an atom greater is the electronegativity. Reason : Electronegativity refers to the
tendency of atom so share electrons with other atom.
60. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2 2s2 2p63s2 3p3. What is the atomic number of the element, which
is just below the above element in the periodic table? (a) 33 (b) 34 (c) 36 (d) 49
61. Which of the given elements A, B, C, D and E with atomic number 2, 3, 7, 10 and 30 respectively belong to the same
period? (a) A, B, C (b) B, C, D (c) A, D, E (d) B, D, E
62. The ionic radii (Å) of C4– and O2– respectively are 2.60 and 1.40. The ionic radius of the isoelectronic ion N3– would
be (a) 2.6 (b) 1.71 (c) 1.4 (d) 0.95
63. Which of the following species will have the smallest and the largest size? Cl, Na, Cl–, Al3+, Mg2+, Na+
(a) Smallest = Na+, Largest = Cl– (b) Smallest = Al3+, Largest = Cl– (c) Smallest = Al3+, Largest = Cl (d) Smallest = Na,
Largest = Cl
64. Covalent radii of atoms varies in range of 72 pm to 133 pm from F to I while that of noble gases He to Xe varies
from 120pm to 220pm. This is because in case of noble gases (a) covalent radius is very large (b)van der Waal
radius is considered (c)metallic radii is considered (d)None of these
65. Arrange the following in increasing order of ionic radii? C4–,N3–,F–,O2– (a) C4– < N3– < O2– < F– (b) N3– < C4– < O2– < F–
(c) F–< O2– < N3– < C4– (d) O2– < F– < N3– < C4–
66. .As we move across the second period from C to F ionisation enthalpy increases but the trend from C to F for
ionisation enthalpy is C < O < N < F why it is not C < N < O < F. This is because (a)atomic radii of O > atomic radii of
N (b)electronic configuration of N is more stable than electronic configuration of O (c) atomic radii of N > atomic
radii of O (d)None of these
67. In which of the following arrangements, the order is NOT according to the property indicated against it? (a)Li < Na
< K < Rb : (Increasing metallic radius ) (b)I < Br < F < Cl : Increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign)
(c)B < C < N < O Increasing first ionization enthalpy (d) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F- Increasing ionic size
68. Which is not the correct order for the stated property. (a)Ba > Sr > Mg ; atomic radius (b) F > O > N ; first ionization
enthalpy (c)Cl > F > I ; electron gain enthalpy (d) O > Se > Te ; electronegativity
69. The correct sequence which shows decreasing order of the ionic radii of the elements is

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