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KPSC Sta Nurse

KPSC Sta Nurse 2020 (English)

75 mins 100 marks 100 questions

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KPSC Previous Year Paper

Staff Nurse 2020
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Question Booklet Sl. No.

Question Booklet Alpha Code

A
Total Number of Questions : 100 Time : 75 Minutes

Maximum Marks : 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. The Question Paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four
versions of Question Booklets with Question Booklet Alpha Code viz. A, B, C & D.
2. The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet
of the Question Booklet.
3. The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in your seating position in
the Examination Hall.
4. If you get a Question Booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha
code in the seating position, please draw the attention of the Invigilator IMMEDIATELY.
5. The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If your
Question Booklet is un-numbered, please get it replaced by new Question Booklet with same
alpha code.
6. The Question Booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should
not open the Question Booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
7. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that
the Question Booklet supplied to him/her contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The
Question Booklet does not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should
bring it to the notice of the Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha
code. This is most important.
8. A blank sheet of paper is attached to the Question Booklet. This may be used for rough
work.
9. Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before
marking your answers.
10. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer.
Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number
using Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.
11. Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be
deducted. No negative mark for unattended questions.
12. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and
without handing over his/her Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure
that the Invigilator has verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and
that the Invigilator has affixed his/her signature in the space provided.
13. Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any
kind of malpractice in the Examination will result in the disqualification of the candidate.

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A -2-

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1. Drug-kit B is given at
A) PHC B) Sub center
C) CHC D) FRU

2. International AIDS day is celebrated on ____________ every year.

A) 1 May B) 7 April
C) 11 April D) 1 December

3. Who is the Chairman of Health Survey and Planning Committee ?

A) A. L. Mudaliar B) M. S. Chadha
C) A. K. Mukherji D) Joseph Bore

4. Principles of health education include all Except

A) Participation B) Motivation
C) Punishment D) Reinforcement

5. Census is conducted in every ____________ years in India.

A) 25 B) 15
C) 10 D) 20

6. ASHA is recruited under

A) NRHM
B) National Urban Health Mission
C) ICDS
D) Village Health System

7. The most common side effect of IUD insertion is

A) Pain B) Bleeding
C) Pelvic infection D) Ectopic pregnancy

8. MMR vaccine is given at

A) Birth B) 9 months
C) 5 years D) 18 months

9. Diagnosis of TB according to DOTS is

A) 2 out of 3 samples positive
B) 3 out of 4 samples positive
C) 1 out of 2 samples positive
D) None of the above

A -3-

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10. According to Maternal Health Programme, the daily dose of folic acid for pregnant
woman should be
A) 100 mcg B) 200 mcg
C) 300 mcg D) 400 mcg

11. Which of the following vaccine is not administered at birth ?

A) Hib B) OPV
C) BCG D) Hepatitis B

12. DMPA is an injectable contraceptive given every

A) 3 weeks B) 3 months
C) 2 months D) 2 years

13. Toxic shock syndrome is due to which vaccine ?

A) Mumps B) Tetanus
C) Salk D) Measles

14. Minimum gap that should be allowed in between to administer two live vaccines is
A) 2 weeks B) 2 months
C) 4 weeks D) 4 months

15. GOBI Campaign of the UNICEF includes all Except

A) Observation
B) Breast feeding
C) Immunization
D) Growth monitoring

16. Which is the best determinant of the health status of a community ?

A) Crude death rate
B) Infant mortality rate
C) Maternal mortality rate
D) Early neonatal deaths

17. Zero incidence is

A) Elimination of disease
B) Eradication of disease
C) Elimination of infection
D) Eradication of infection

A -4-

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18. Micro nutrients includes

A) Proteins B) Minerals
C) Fats D) Water

19. Pellagra is due to the deficiency of

A) Niacin
B) Pyridoxine
C) Riboflavin
D) Thiamine

20. A person with Body Mass Index of 18.5 – 25 belongs to the category of
A) Normal weight B) Under weight
C) Over weight D) Obese

21. Which of the following is an example for food adulteration ?

A) Mixing of folic acid with bread
B) Mixing of iodine with salt
C) Mixing of papaya seeds with pepper
D) Mixing of iron in wheat flour

22. Smallest bone situated in the middle ear is

A) Stapes B) Malleus
C) Atlas D) Incus

23. Inflammation of gum is called

A) Stomatitis B) Gingivitis
C) Glossitis D) Uveitis

24. Total number of canines in human oral cavity

A) Eight B) Ten
C) Six D) Four

25. Outer layer of the heart wall is

A) Myocardium B) Perichondrium
C) Pericardium D) Periosteum

26. Type of mosquito transmitting malaria

A) Anopheles B) Aedes
C) Culicine D) Mansonia

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27. Instrument used to calculate the amount of bleaching powder for disinfection of
well
A) Sphygmomanometer
B) Boyel’s apparatus
C) Lactometer
D) Horrock’s apparatus

28. Hormone secreted by posterior pituitary gland

A) Follicle stimulating hormone
B) Oxytocin
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Prolactin

29. Minimum distance between septic tank and source of water

A) 50 meters
B) 30 meters
C) 15 meters
D) 5 meters

30. The ability to understand self is termed as

A) Attention B) Judgement
C) Perception D) Insight

31. Defence mechanism in which unacceptable desires are redirected into socially
desirable channels
A) Projection B) Sublimation
C) Displacement D) Rationalisation

32. False fixed belief that cannot be corrected by reasoning is called

A) Delusion B) Hallucination
C) Illusion D) Compulsion

33. Science dealing with ageing process

A) Oncology B) Cytology
C) Gerontology D) Pathology

34. The term for fear of height

A) Agoraphobia B) Algophobia
C) Arachnophobia D) Acrophobia

A -6-

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35. Rabies is caused by

A) Arbovirus B) Adenovirus
C) Lyssavirus D) Rotavirus

36. Population covered by an Anganwadi worker is

A) 2000 B) 3000
C) 2500 D) 1000

37. “Flag sign” is a characteristic feature of which disease ?

A) Kwashiorkor B) Rickets
C) Marasmus D) Poliomyelitis

38. Universal Immunisation Programme was launched in India in

A) 1975 B) 1980
C) 1985 D) 1990

39. Under Vitamin A prophylaxis programme, children between 1 to 6 years are given
A) 1 lakh IU of Vit. A B) 2 lakhs IU of Vit. A
C) 2.5 lakhs IU of Vit. A D) 1.5 lakhs IU of Vit. A

40. Sabin vaccine is given for the prevention of

A) Measles B) Typhoid fever
C) Poliomyelitis D) Diphtheria

41. One subcentre is for a population of

A) 30,000 B) 5,000
C) 15,000 D) 10,000

42. The most appropriate time to collect sputum specimen from a patient is
A) Before meals B) After meals
C) Early morning D) At bedtime

43. Immunity transferred to fetus from the mother through placenta is

A) Active natural immunity B) Active artificial immunity
C) Passive natural immunity D) Passive artificial immunity

44. The simplest method of prevent cross infection is

A) Disinfection B) Sterilization
C) Handwashing D) Fumigation

A -7-

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45. Immunization is a method of

A) Primary prevention B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention D) Barrier prevention

46. Pap Smear Examination is done to diagnose

A) Ca breast B) Ca cervix
C) Ca bladder D) Ca rectum

47. Root of administration of measles vaccine is

A) Intradermal B) Subcutaneous
C) Intramuscular D) Oral

48. Which of the following is a live vaccine ?

A) TT B) DPT
C) BCG D) DT

49. Constant presence of a disease within a geographic area

A) Endemic B) Epidemic
C) Pandemic D) Outbreak

50. A person who harbours pathogenic organisms without showing the manifestations
of the disease
A) Agent B) Host
C) Carrier D) Patient

51. Five teaspoon is equivalent to how many milliliters ?

A) 30 ml B) 25 ml
C) 12 ml D) 20 ml

52. Which pulse should the nurse palpate during rapid assessment of an adult unconscious
patient ?
A) Radial B) Brachial
C) Femoral D) Carotid

53. The following are the standard tuberculosis drug Except

A) Streptomycin B) Chloromycin
C) INH D) Rifampicin

54. ___________ is a water soluble Vitamin.

A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin B D) Vitamin D

A -8-

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55. The infant sit alone at the age of

A) 1 month B) 2 months
C) 6 months D) 12 months

56. The Child Labour Protection and Regulation Act prohibit employment of children in
factories below the age of
A) 10 years B) 14 years
C) 18 years D) 21 years

57. Psychosocial development of adolescence is

A) Industry Vs Inferiority
B) Trust Vs mistrust
C) Identity Vs role confusion
D) Autonomy Vs Shame and doubt

58. A protein deficiency syndrome in which weight below 60%, growth retardation and
generalised oedema
A) Marasmus
B) Kwashiorkor
C) Pellagra
D) Rickets

59. Damage to the upper brachial plexus involving the 5th and 6th cervical nerve roots
result in
A) ERB’s palsy
B) Klumpke’s palsy
C) Torticollis
D) Meningocele

60. Which vaccine prevent both Measles and Rubella ?

A) Measles B) OPV
C) DPT D) MR

61. Surgical management of undescended testis

A) Orchiopexy
B) TURP
C) Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy
D) Duhamel’s operation

A -9-

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62. Congenital X linked recessive bleeding disorder caused by deficiency of coagulation

factor VIII or IX
A) Thalassemia
B) Hemophilia
C) Sickle cell disease
D) ITP

63. Which of the following worm larvae is transmitted by penetrating skin on barefooted
individual ?
A) Round worm
B) Pin worm
C) Hook worm
D) Round worm

64. A commonly found eating disorder in adolescent girl by reducing food intake mostly
carbohydrate and fat or by refusing food or by inducing vomiting
A) Anorexia nervosa
B) Bulimia nervosa
C) Pica
D) Dyslexia

65. The dose of PPD used in Mantoux test is

A) .5 ml B) 0.5 ml
C) 1 ml D) 0.1 ml

66. Projectile non bilious vomiting visible peristalsis in the upper abdomen, palpable olive
shaped mass, weight loss are clinical manifestation of
A) Hirschsprung’s disease
B) Oesophageal atesia
C) Intestinal obstruction
D) Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

67. The exclusive breast feeding recommended up to the age of

A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 1 year
D) 2 years

A -10-

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68. The type of pelvis commonly known as male pelvis is

A) Gynecoid pelvis
B) Anthropoid pelvis
C) Android pelvis
D) Platypelloid pelvis

69. Anterior fontanelle normally closes by the age of

A) 8 months B) 6 months
C) 12 months D) 18 months

70. Normal fetal heart rate

A) 100 – 120 beats/minute
B) 120 – 160 beats/minute
C) 60 – 100 beats/minute
D) 160 – 200 beats/minute

71. Name given to the endometrium during pregnancy

A) Endometriosis B) Decidua
C) Myometrium D) Corpus luteum

72. A woman who has not carried a pregnancy to the point of viability
A) Multipara B) Nullipara
C) Nulligravida D) None of the above

73. Partograph is a tool for

A) Treating complications of delivery
B) Observing the progress of labour
C) Monitoring woman with eclampsia
D) For finding gestational age

74. A complete or full dilated cervix measures

A) 8 cm B) 9 cm
C) 10 cm D) 15 cm

75. Normal blood glucose level of new born

A) 40 – 50 mg /100 ml
B) 50 – 60 mg/100 ml
C) 60 – 80 mg/100 ml
D) 70 – 110 mg/100 ml

A -11-

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76. The liberal administration of high concentration of oxygen to preterm babies for a
prolonged period of period may lead to
A) Asphyxia
B) Retrolental fibroplasia
C) Cerebral hemorrhage
D) Hypothermia

77. An abortion in which the conceptus, placenta and membranes are expelled completely
from the uterus
A) Inevitable abortion
B) Habitual abortion
C) Spontaneous abortion
D) Complete abortion

78. A mild, benign and transient mood change during puerperal period is termed as
A) Postpartum depression
B) Puerperal psychosis
C) Postpartum blues
D) AII of the above

79. Indications of emergency cesarean section not include

A) Cord prolapse
B) Cephalopelvic disproportion diagnosed in labor
C) Preterm baby
D) Eclampsia

80. An average life of the human being which is coming in the next years is
A) Life cycle approach
B) Life expectancy
C) Holistic approach of life
D) Quality of life

81. A woman whose husband does not want to continue as a life partner with her is
A) Widow
B) Divorced woman
C) Single woman
D) Deserted woman

A -12-

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82. Causative organism of syphilis is

A) Wuchereria bancrofti
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Hemophilus influenza
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

83. A test to assess the patency of fallopian tube

A) Rubin’s test B) Sickling test
C) Shick test D) Widal test

84. VCTC stands for

A) Voluntary Counselling and Testing Centre
B) Vocational Counselling and Testing Centre
C) Voluntary Counselling and Treating Centre
D) Various Counselling and Therapy Centre

85. Following are 3 P’s of normal labour Except

A) Pelvis
B) Powers
C) Passenger
D) Parity

86. Janani Suraksha Yojana was launched on

A) 10th May 006
B) 1 th April 005
C) 5th April 008
D) 1st December 006

87. An investigation to identify women at the risk of having a baby with neural tube
defect
A) Amnioscopy
B) Alpha – Fetoprotein test
C) Fetal blood sampling
D) USG
88. The term given to reduction in fundal height after 38th weeks of gestation is
A) Quickening B) Moulding
C) Lightening D) None of the above

A -13-

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89. An abnormality of the placenta in which the umbilical cord is inserted at the edge or
margin of the placenta ?
A) Velamentous insertion
B) Vasa previa
C) Battledore placenta
D) Circumvalleate placenta

90. During post partum period, deep vein thrombosis can be assessed by
A) Hegar’s sign
B) Osiander’s sign
C) Goodell’s sign
D) Homan’s sign

91. Which hormone is responsible for stimulating milk production ?

A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Prolactin
D) Oxytocin

92. According to MTP Act, medical termination of pregnancy is to deliberate induction

of abortion prior to
A) 16 weeks
B) 18 weeks
C) 24 weeks
D) 20 weeks

93. The ratio of infant deaths registered in a given year to the number of live births per
1000 live births is
A) Infant mortality rate
B) Perinatal mortality rate
C) Neonatal mortality rate
D) Maternal mortality rate

94. The name given to the lochia which occurs 4 – 10 days after delivery
A) Lochia serosa
B) Lochia rubra
C) Lochia alba
D) None of the above

A -14-

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95. Population covered by one sub centre in hilly, tribal and backward areas
A) 1500
B) 3000
C) 5000
D) 7000

96. A health worker should have better co-ordination with which of the following sectors ?
A) Grama panchayath
B) Religious representatives
C) Non-Governmental organizations
D) All of the above

97. National programme for control of blindness was launched in the year
A) 1976
B) 1962
C) 1982
D) 1995

98. National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme is implemented for the prevention
and control of the following diseases Except
A) Kala-azar
B) Japanese encephalitis
C) Leptospirosis
D) Malaria

99. The approaches that can be used for providing Information Education and
Communication are
A) Public education
B) Broadcasting
C) Social marketing
D) All of the above

100. Registers maintained in a sub centre includes all of the below Except
A) Family planning register
B) In patient register
C) U I P master register
D) M C H master register

A -15-

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Space for Rough Work

A -16-

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