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QA
Algebra - 1
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1. It is given that F(x) = x4 – 2x3 + kx2 – 11, where k is an unknown integer. If F(x) divided by (x – 2) has a remainder of 1, then find the value

of k.

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2. If (x – 2) and (x – 3) are factors of f(x) = x4 – 10x3 + px2 – 50x + q, then find the value of p and q.

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(1) p = 35, q = 24

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(2) p = 24, q = 35
(3) p = 25, q = 12
(4) p = 12, q = 25

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3. Find an equation of a polynomial function with real coefficients having roots –1, 3 and i.

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(1) x4 – 3x3 – 2x2 + 2x – 3

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(2) x4 – 2x3 – 2x2 – 2x – 3
(3) x4 + 3x3 + 2x2
(4) x4 + 2x3 – 2x2 + 2x – 3
+ 2x – 3

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4. Find the remainder if p(x) = x5 + 2x4 + x3 – x2 – 22x + 15 is divided by x2 + 2x – 3.

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(1) 8x + 4

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(2) 4x + 12
(3) 3x – 5
(4) 8x – 12

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5. If the equation x3 + ax2 + bx + 20 has three distinct negative integer roots, then what could be the possible values of a and b?

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(1) a = 13, b = 29

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(2) a = 10, b = 32
(3) a = 10, b = 29
(4) a = 13, b = 27

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6. If (x + 2) is a factor of x4 – 4x2 + 2ax + 3, then find the value of ‘a’, where, a is a real constant and ‘x’ is a real number.

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3
(1)

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4

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4
(2)
3

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4
(3)
3
(4) 3
4

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(5) None of these

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(2065  1965 )
7. If M = , then

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(2064  1964 )

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(1) 0 < M  0.1

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(2) 0.1 < M  0.5
(3) 0.5 < M  1.0
(4) M > 1.0

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8. G(y) is a fourth order polynomial with integer coefficients and with no common factor. The roots of G(y) are –2, –1, 1, 2. If n is a prime

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number greater than 97, then the largest integer that divides G(n) for all values of n is:

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(XAT)

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(1) 72
(2) 120
(3) 240
(4) 360
(5) None of the above

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9. Gopi gives Rs. 90 plus one turban as salary to his servant for one year. The servant leaves after 9 months and receives Rs. 65 and the

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turban. Find the price of the turban.

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(1) Rs. 12

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(2) Rs. 15
(3) Rs. 8
(4) Rs. 10
(5) Rs. 16

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10. Triplets (p, q, r) exist such that p, q, r  (1, 2, 3, 4), and qx + py = r and px + ry = q.

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(a) How many triplets have a unique solution for x and y?

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(1) 64
(2) 58
(3) 118
(4) 16

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(5) None of these
(b) How many triplets have infinite solution?

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11. If the system of equations 3x + 2y + 4z = –1, –4x + 3y – pz = 3 and 12x + qy – 13z = –14 have infinite solutions, where x, y and z are real

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numbers, then find the value of pq.
(1) – 13
(2) – 12
(3) – 11

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(4) – 10
(5) – 9

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12. If 2x + y + z = 15 and x – 2y – 2z = 6, then find the value of x + 8y + 8z, where, x, y and z are real numbers.

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(1) 10

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(2) 11
(3) 12
(4) 13
(5) 14

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13. Find the value of x + y + z if 2x + 5y + 3z = 4, 4x + 3y = – 1 and 2y + 5z = 19.

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(1) 3

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(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 10

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14. At a certain fast food restaurant, Amit can buy 3 burgers, 7 shakes, and one order of fries for Rs. 125 exactly. At the same place it would

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cost Rs. 164.5 for 4 burgers, 10 shakes, and one order of fries. How much would it cost for an ordinary meal of one burger, one shake, and
one order of fries?

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15. Rahuls’s mother asks him to buy 100 chocolates worth Rs. 100. The chocolate shop has 3 kinds of chocolates: Munch, Eclairs and Coffee

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byte. Munch costs Rs. 10 per chocolate, Eclairs costs Rs. 3 per chocolate and Coffee byte costs 50 paise per chocolate. If Rahul decides
to buy at least one chocolate of each type, how many Eclairs should he buy?

(1) 1

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(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

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(5) 5

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16. Find the number of positive integral solutions for the equation 7x + 3y = 123, such that x is always less than y.

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(1) 5

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(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 2
(5) 4

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17. If x and y are integers, then the equation 5x + 18y = 63 has (CAT)

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(1) no solution for x < 300 and y < 0

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(2) no solution for x > 250 and y > – 100
(3) solution for 250 < x < 300
(4) solution for – 59 < y < – 56

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18. The number of solutions of the equation 2x + y = 30, where both x and y are positive integers and x  y is: (CAT)

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19. The number of positive integer valued pairs (p, q) satisfying 4p – 17q = 1 and p  500 is (CAT)

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20. A confused bank teller transposed the rupees and paise when he cashed a cheque for Riya giving her rupees instead of paise and paise

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instead of rupees. After buying a chocolate for 50 paise, Riya noticed that she was left with exactly three times as much as the amount on
the cheque. Which of the following is a valid statement about the cheque amount? (CAT)
(1) Over Rupees 7 but less than Rupees 8
(2) Over Rupees 22 but less than Rupees 23

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(3) Over Rupees 18 but less than Rupees 19
(4) Over Rupees 4 but less than Rupees 5
(5) Over Rupees 13 but less than Rupees 14

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21. A test has 100 questions. A student scores 1 mark for a correct answer, –1/3 for a wrong answer, and – 1/6 for not attempting a question. If

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the net score of a student is 32, the number of questions answered wrongly by that student cannot be less than (CAT)

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(1) 9

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(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 2

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 For questions 22 and 23

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Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

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In a test comprising of 100 questions, four marks are awarded for every question answered correctly. The marks
deducted for every question answered wrongly and for every question left unattempted are 2 and 1 respectively.

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22. If a student got 64 marks in the test, then which of the following can be the number of questions solved wrongly by the student?

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(1) 12

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(2) 25
(3) 44
(4) 56
(5) 61

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23. If the total number of questions left unattempted by a student in the test is 60, then which of the following cannot be the total marks

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obtained by the student in the test?
(1) – 2
(2) 10
(3) 40

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(4) – 26
(5) – 18

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24. In an examination, there are 50 questions. 1 mark is given for each correct answer and 0.25 is deducted for every incorrect answer. Swati

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attempted all the questions and scored 13.75. How many questions did she answer incorrectly? (XAT)

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25. In an examination, two types of questions are asked: one mark questions and two marks questions.

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For each wrong answer, of one mark question, the deduction is 1/4 of a mark and for each wrong answer, of two marks question, the

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deduction is 1/3 of a mark. Moreover, 1/2 a mark is deducted for any unanswered question. The question paper has 10 one mark questions

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and 10 two marks questions. In the examination, students got all possible marks between 25 and 30 and every student had different marks.
What would be the rank of a student, who scores a total of 27.5 marks? (XAT)

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(1) 5
(2) 6

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(3) 7
(4) 8

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(5) None of the above

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26. The cost of 6 desks is equal to the aggregate cost of 6 chairs and 1 table. The aggregate cost of 6 desks and 3 tables is equal to the cost of

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12 chairs. Which of the following statements is false?

Assume that the cost of all the chairs is the same. The same holds true for the desks as well as the tables.
(1) The cost of 5 tables is equal to the aggregate cost of 5 chairs and 2 desks.

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(2) The cost of 5 chairs is equal to the cost of 4 desks.

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(3) The cost of 2 desks is equal to the aggregate cost of 1 chair and 1 table.
(4) The cost of 3 desks is equal to the aggregate cost of 2 chairs and 1 table.

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 For questions 27 and 28

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In an examination, there are 100 questions divided into three groups A, B and C such that each group contains
at least one question. Each question in group A carries 1 mark, each question in group B carries 2 marks and

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each question in group C carries 3 marks. It is known that the questions in group A together carry at least 60%

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of the total marks.
(CAT)

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27. If group B contains 23 questions, then how many questions are there in group C?

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(1) 1

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(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) Cannot be determined

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28. If group C contains 8 questions and group B carries at least 20% of the total marks, which of the following best describes the number of

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questions in group B?

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(1) 11 or 12

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(2) 12 or 13
(3) 13 or 14
(4) 14 or 15

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 For questions 29 and 30

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Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

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There are three different types of printers A, B and C that are used for printing documents. A shop hires the mentioned
types of printers to print 1500 documents in a day. One printer each of types A, B and C can print 40, 60 and 75

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documents in a day respectively. The fixed cost of hiring one printer each of types A, B and C is Rs. 100, Rs. 150 and
Rs. 180 respectively. In addition, for every document printed by the printer of types A, B and C an extra cost of Rs. 4, Rs.

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5 and Rs. 3 is levied respectively.

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29. If the shop hired 10 printers of type B, then how many printers of type C must the shop hire in order to minimize the cost?

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(1) 4

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(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 16
(5) 10

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30. If the total number of printers hired by the shop is 25, then what is the least amount the shop should pay for printing 1500 documents?

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(1) Rs. 10,000

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(2) Rs. 10,500
(3) Rs. 9,750
(4) Rs. 9,345
(5) Rs. 9,000

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31. Two men, A and B play a match of two games on the condition: if A wins, B will pay him one rupee more than half the money B has, and if

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B wins, A will pay him one rupee less than half the money A has. If A wins the first game and B the second, then the difference in the
amounts with A and B becomes Rs. 16. The initial amount with ‘A’ and ‘B’in that order could be
(1) Rs. 35, Rs. 38
(2) Rs. 20, Rs. 35

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(3) Rs. 20, Rs. 38
(4) Either (1) or (3)

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 For questions 32 to 35

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Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

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XYZ Ltd. produces silicon chips, 1,000 at a time in a batch. The company has to ensure that it does not supply defective
chips, as they are critical to the functioning of computer. If a buyer receives a defective chip, XYZ has to pay a penalty of

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Rs. 150 per chip. XYZ wants to test the quality of its chips before shipping them to its buyers. It can use any or both of
two tests for quality control. Test 1 costs Rs. 6 per chip but it detects only 80% of all defective chips. Test 2 costs Rs. 9

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per chip and can detect all defective chips. XYZ can rework upon defective chips at a cost of Rs. 75 per chip to ensure
that the buyer does not receive any defective chip. Minimizing cost is the only purpose of XYZ Ltd. In the following

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questions ‘n’ is the number of defective chips per batch.

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32. XYZ Ltd. should not use any quality control test, if it is expected that

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(1) n < 50

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(2) n < 100
(3) 100 < n < 200
(4) n > 200
(5) n > 400

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33. If 200 < n < 400, then

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(1) XYZ Ltd. should not use any Test

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(2) XYZ Ltd. should use Test 1
(3) XYZ Ltd. should use Test 2
(4) XYZ Ltd. can use either Test 1 or Test 2
(5) None of the above

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34. If n = 100, XYZ Ltd. should use

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(1) Test 1

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(2) Test 2
(3) Either Test 1 or no Test
(4) Either Test 1 or Test 2
(5) No test

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35. What should be the value of n, so that XYZ Ltd. can use either Test 1 or Test 2?

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(1) 100

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(2) 175
(3) 200
(4) 300
(5) 400

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Thanks!
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