CHAPTER 1

What is data?

● A. Processed information
● B. Raw facts
● C. Metadata
● D. Information used for decision making

What is information?

● A. Raw facts
● B. Unprocessed data
● C. Data processed to reveal meaning
● D. Metadata

What is a database?

● A. A collection of programs that manage data

● B. A shared, integrated computer structure that stores data
● C. Data processed to reveal meaning
● D. Raw facts

What is a DBMS?

● A. Raw data
● B. Data processed to reveal meaning
● C. A collection of programs that manage database structure
● D. Metadata

Which of the following is a type of single-user database?

● A. Desktop
● B. Workgroup
● C. Enterprise
● D. Distributed

Which type of database supports multiple users at the same time?

● A. Desktop
● B. Single-user
● C. Multi-user
● D. Centralized
Which type of database supports a small group of users or a single department?

● A. Enterprise
● B. Desktop
● C. Workgroup
● D. Distributed

Which type of database supports data located at a single site?

● A. Centralized
● B. Distributed
● C. Workgroup
● D. Enterprise

Which type of database supports data distributed across several sites?

● A. Centralized
● B. Distributed
● C. Workgroup
● D. Enterprise

Which type of database is used for a company's day-to-day operations?

● A. Data warehouse
● B. Transactional (or production)
● C. Centralized
● D. Distributed

Which type of database stores data used to generate information for tactical or strategic
decisions?

● A. Transactional (or production)

● B. Centralized
● C. Data warehouse
● D. Distributed

What is metadata?

● A. Raw facts
● B. Data about data
● C. Processed information
● D. Data used for decision making
Which of the following is NOT a function of a DBMS?

● A. Managing database structure

● B. Controlling access to data
● C. Storing raw facts
● D. Allowing data sharing among multiple applications

What is the key to good decision making?

● A. Raw data
● B. Metadata
● C. Accurate, relevant, and timely information
● D. Integrated database structure

What does a database management system (DBMS) do?

● A. Stores raw data only

● B. Processes data to reveal meaning
● C. Manages database structure and controls access to data
● D. Acts as a file system

Which of the following is NOT a type of database by location?

● A. Centralized
● B. Distributed
● C. Workgroup
● D. Desktop

Which of the following is a multi-user database that supports a large group of users or an
entire organization?

● A. Desktop
● B. Workgroup
● C. Enterprise
● D. Centralized

Which is an advantage of using a DBMS?

● A. Increased data inconsistency

● B. Reduced access to data
● C. Integrated view of operations
● D. Manual data management
What is the main purpose of transforming raw data into information?

● A. To store data
● B. To reveal data meaning
● C. To create raw facts
● D. To generate metadata

Which of the following is an example of metadata?

● A. End user data

● B. Raw facts
● C. Data types, tables, columns
● D. Processed information

================================================================

CHAPTER 2

What is one primary problem associated with file systems?

● A. High initial cost

● B. Data redundancy
● C. Limited data types
● D. Lack of user interface

Which term describes the existence of duplicate data in multiple places?

● A. Data anomaly
● B. Data redundancy
● C. Data inconsistency
● D. Data normalization

Which component of a database environment is responsible for defining data elements and
their relationships?

● A. Application programs
● B. Data dictionary management
● C. Security management
● D. Data presentation

Which type of data anomaly occurs when changes must be made to existing records?

● A. Insertion anomaly
 ● B. Update anomaly
● C. Deletion anomaly
● D. Retrieval anomaly

What is one major disadvantage of using manual file systems?

● A. High cost of maintenance

● B. Inefficient for small amounts of data
● C. Time-consuming and cumbersome for large data collections
● D. Lack of data security

In a file system, who typically owns the individual files?

● A. Database administrators
● B. Individual users or departments
● C. System administrators
● D. Application developers

Which DBMS function ensures that multiple users can access the database concurrently
without compromising its integrity?

● A. Backup and recovery management

● B. Data transformation and presentation
● C. Multiuser access control
● D. Data storage management

What is one key reason why database design is critical for organizations?

● A. It increases the cost of database management

● B. Poor design can lead to organizational failure
● C. It reduces the need for data backups
● D. It eliminates the need for data redundancy

Which DBMS function is responsible for translating logical requests into commands to
retrieve data?

● A. Data dictionary management

● B. Data transformation and presentation
● C. Security management
● D. Backup and recovery management

Why is understanding file system characteristics important for database design?

 ● A. It helps in developing new file systems
● B. It makes database design more complex
● C. It helps in avoiding similar problems in DBMS
● D. It reduces the need for database normalization

What problem arises from having different and conflicting versions of the same data?

● A. Data redundancy
● B. Data inconsistency
● C. Data normalization
● D. Data integrity

Which historical root of file systems involved organizing data in file folders based on its
expected use?

● A. Computer file systems

● B. Manual file systems
● C. Database file systems
● D. Integrated file systems

Which type of data anomaly occurs when entering new records into a database?

● A. Deletion anomaly
● B. Update anomaly
● C. Insertion anomaly
● D. Retrieval anomaly

What is one advantage of using a database system over a file system?

● A. Increased data redundancy

● B. Centralized data management
● C. Simplified data access languages
● D. Reduced initial costs

Which component of a database environment includes the physical devices used to store
data?

● A. Software
● B. Hardware
● C. People
● D. Procedures

What does the term 'data anomaly' refer to in the context of database management?
 ● A. Redundant data entries
● B. Inconsistent data updates
● C. Data security breaches
● D. Errors in data retrieval

Which function of a DBMS is responsible for providing backup and data recovery
procedures?

● A. Data dictionary management

● B. Data storage management
● C. Backup and recovery management
● D. Multiuser access control

Which type of database environment component involves end users, system administrators,
and database designers?

● A. Hardware
● B. Software
● C. People
● D. Procedures

Why are security features often omitted in file systems?

● A. They are too costly to implement

● B. They are hard to program
● C. They are not necessary
● D. They reduce system performance

Which DBMS function enforces user security and data privacy within a database?

● A. Data dictionary management

● B. Data transformation and presentation
● C. Security management
● D. Multiuser access control

What is the impact of poorly designed databases on an organization?

● A. Enhanced data integrity

● B. Reduced data redundancy
● C. Increased errors and bad decisions
● D. Improved decision-making processes
Which historical problem with file systems involved requiring modifications in all
programs that use data in a changed file?

● A. Data redundancy
● B. Complex system administration
● C. High-level time-consuming activity
● D. Difficulty in changing file structures

What type of database environment component includes operating system software and
DBMS software?

● A. Hardware
● B. Software
● C. Procedures
● D. Data

What is one function of the data dictionary management within a DBMS?

● A. Backup and recovery procedures

● B. Defines data elements and their relationships
● C. Enforces user security
● D. Translates logical requests into commands

What does the term 'multiuser access control' in DBMS refer to?

● A. Ensuring only one user can access the database at a time

● B. Allowing multiple users to access the database concurrently without compromising its
integrity
● C. Restricting data access based on user roles
● D. Backing up data for multiple users

Which historical root of file systems resulted in 'home-grown' systems being created due to
technical complexity?

● A. Manual file systems

● B. Early computer file systems
● C. Database systems
● D. Integrated file systems

What is the role of the database communication interfaces in a DBMS?

● A. Manage data storage

● B. Enforce security measures
 ● C. Provide data access through a query language
● D. Allow database to accept end-user requests via multiple network environments

What is the main advantage of using a database system compared to a file system?

● A. Increased programming requirements

● B. Simplified data management
● C. Separate and unrelated files
● D. Manual data processing

Which data anomaly is most likely to occur when records are deleted from a database?

● A. Update anomaly
● B. Deletion anomaly
● C. Insertion anomaly
● D. Retrieval anomaly

Why is knowledge of file systems important when converting to a DBMS?

● A. It increases the cost of conversion

● B. It helps prevent similar problems in the DBMS
● C. It makes the conversion process more complex
● D. It eliminates the need for data backup

================================================================

CHAPTER 3

What is the primary purpose of data models in database design?

● A. To store data efficiently

● B. To provide graphical representations of complex data structures
● C. To ensure data security
● D. To generate reports

Which data model is known for being introduced by Chen in 1976?

● A. Relational Model
● B. Network Model
● C. Hierarchical Model
● D. Entity Relationship Model

What do business rules primarily describe within an organization?

 ● A. Data storage procedures
● B. Database security protocols
● C. Policies, procedures, or principles
● D. Data retrieval methods

In data modeling, what does an entity represent?

● A. A characteristic of data
● B. A relationship between tables
● C. Anything about which data is collected and stored
● D. A constraint on data

Which of the following is a characteristic of the Relational Model developed by Codd in

1970?

● A. Hierarchical data organization

● B. Data stored in a network structure
● C. Data represented in tables (relations)
● D. Data stored in flat files

How do business rules influence database design?

● A. By defining security protocols

● B. By determining data storage capacity
● C. By establishing data relationships and constraints
● D. By optimizing query performance

What is a key benefit of using data models in database design?

● A. Increased data redundancy

● B. Simplified interaction among designers, programmers, and users
● C. Enhanced data encryption
● D. Faster data processing

Which type of relationship describes an association where a single entity instance in one
entity class is related to multiple entity instances in another entity class?

● A. One-to-one (1:1)
● B. One-to-many (1
)
● C. Many-to-many (M
)
● D. Many-to-one (M:1)
What role do attributes play in a data model?

● A. They represent entities

● B. They describe characteristics of entities
● C. They define relationships between entities
● D. They impose constraints on data

Which data model organizes data using a tree-like structure?

● A. Relational Model
● B. Network Model
● C. Hierarchical Model
● D. Entity Relationship Model

How are business rules typically discovered within an organization?

● A. By examining database schemas

● B. Through direct interviews with end users
● C. By analyzing system logs
● D. Through automated software tools

Which statement accurately describes a relational table?

● A. It stores a collection of related entities and is a logical structure

● B. It physically organizes data on disk
● C. It only allows one-to-one relationships
● D. It does not support data integrity constraints

What is the primary advantage of the relational model over hierarchical and network
models?

● A. Simplicity and flexibility in data representation

● B. Faster data retrieval
● C. Better support for complex data types
● D. Reduced storage requirements

Which component of a data model specifies a restriction placed on the data?

● A. Entity
● B. Attribute
● C. Relationship
● D. Constraint
What is the significance of the relational diagram in database design?

● A. It defines the physical storage structure

● B. It shows the relational database's entities, attributes, and relationships
● C. It outlines the database security measures
● D. It provides a detailed data processing algorithm

What is an entity instance in the context of an entity relationship diagram (ERD)?

● A. A collection of like entities

● B. A row in a relational table
● C. A graphical representation of a relationship
● D. A unique constraint on data

What is a common source of business rules within an organization?

● A. System logs
● B. Database schemas
● C. Company managers and policy makers
● D. Automated discovery tools

What aspect of the relational model contributed to its revolutionary impact on database
design?

● A. Its complex structure

● B. Its purely logical organization
● C. Its focus on physical storage
● D. Its use of hierarchical relationships

In an ERD, how is connectivity between entities typically labeled?

● A. With numeric identifiers

● B. With descriptive names
● C. Using diamonds and relationship lines
● D. By color-coding entities

What was a major limitation of early implementations of the relational model?

● A. Lack of theoretical foundation

● B. Complexity of data representation
● C. Insufficient computational power to implement the model
● D. Incompatibility with existing file systems
How does a relational table differ from a traditional file in a file system?

● A. It is a physical storage structure

● B. It organizes data in a hierarchical manner
● C. It is a purely logical structure
● D. It supports only one-to-one relationships

What is a key feature of the Entity Relationship Model (ERM) introduced by Chen?

● A. It uses a tree-like structure to organize data

● B. It represents data in tables
● C. It provides a graphical representation of entities and their relationships
● D. It focuses on network data structures

What does the term "entity set" refer to in the context of an ERD?

● A. A single instance of an entity

● B. A collection of like entities
● C. A relationship between entities
● D. A constraint on data attributes

What characteristic of business rules makes them essential for database design?

● A. They are often ambiguous and flexible

● B. They provide detailed procedural code
● C. They offer precise and unambiguous descriptions of policies and principles
● D. They focus primarily on data security

Which data model is described as having evolved from the limitations of hierarchical and
network models?

● A. Flat File Model

● B. Relational Model
● C. Object-Oriented Model
● D. NoSQL Model

What is one of the main purposes of using constraints in a data model?

● A. To enhance data redundancy

● B. To restrict the physical storage of data
● C. To enforce rules on the data
● D. To define data types
Which relationship type is characterized by each entity in the relationship having only one
corresponding entity?

● A. One-to-many (1)
● B. Many-to-one (M:1)
● C. One-to-one (1:1)
● D. Many-to-many (M)

What does the relational model use to represent the relationships between tables?

● A. Indexes
● B. Keys
● C. Files
● D. Network links

What is a primary function of an entity relationship diagram (ERD)?

● A. To store data physically

● B. To graphically model database components
● C. To provide data security
● D. To optimize data retrieval

Which of the following best describes the evolution of data models in database design?

● A. Flat File > Hierarchical > Network > Relational > Entity Relationship
● B. Hierarchical > Flat File > Network > Relational > Entity Relationship
● C. Flat File > Network > Hierarchical > Relational > Entity Relationship
● D. Hierarchical > Network > Relational > Entity Relationship

================================================================

CHAPTER 4

What is the primary advantage of the relational model over its hierarchical and network
predecessors?

● A. Data integrity
● B. Structural and data independence
● C. Increased data redundancy
● D. Enhanced security

Which key uniquely identifies any given entity (row) in a table?

 ● A. Foreign key
● B. Candidate key
● C. Primary key
● D. Secondary key

Which of the following best describes a relational table?

● A. A collection of unrelated entities

● B. A multi-dimensional structure
● C. A two-dimensional structure composed of rows and columns
● D. A single-dimensional structure

What is an attribute in the context of a relational table?

● A. A unique identifier for a row

● B. A characteristic of an entity
● C. A relationship between tables
● D. A restriction placed on data

Which key is used strictly for data retrieval purposes?

● A. Primary key
● B. Foreign key
● C. Candidate key
● D. Secondary key

What does a foreign key in a relational table do?

● A. It uniquely identifies a row within the same table

● B. It contains values that match primary key values in a related table
● C. It serves as a secondary key for data retrieval
● D. It defines constraints on data

What is the role of a candidate key in a relational database?

● A. It is used for indexing

● B. It can qualify as a unique key and potentially become a primary key
● C. It enforces data integrity
● D. It contains null values

Why are null values generally avoided in primary keys?

● A. They are not unique

 ● B. They can create logical problems and are not permitted in primary keys
● C. They enhance data redundancy
● D. They improve query performance

What is referential integrity in the context of relational databases?

● A. Ensuring that all data entries are unique

● B. Maintaining data consistency across different tables
● C. Restricting data access to authorized users
● D. Eliminating data redundancy

What does controlled redundancy mean in a relational database?

● A. Completely eliminating duplicate data

● B. Allowing multiple occurrences of values to enable relationships between tables
● C. Storing redundant data to improve query performance
● D. Reducing data duplication to a minimum

What are the components of the relational model's basic structure?

● A. Entities, attributes, relationships, and constraints

● B. Nodes, edges, and properties
● C. Objects, classes, and methods
● D. Files, folders, and metadata

What is the main purpose of the data dictionary in a relational database?

● A. To store user passwords

● B. To provide detailed accounting of all tables and their attributes
● C. To manage data access permissions
● D. To optimize query performance

How is a table defined in the context of a relational database?

● A. As a dynamic data structure

● B. As a set of procedures and triggers
● C. As a persistent relation with rows and columns
● D. As an unstructured collection of data

What is entity integrity in relational databases?

● A. Ensuring all data entries are encrypted

● B. Ensuring that each row has a unique, non-null primary key
 ● C. Maintaining consistent data formatting
● D. Restricting access to specific users

What is the significance of keys in relational tables?

● A. They determine storage location

● B. They establish relationships and ensure data integrity
● C. They encrypt data
● D. They serve as backup identifiers

Which type of key can contain null values but should be avoided to prevent issues?

● A. Primary key
● B. Foreign key
● C. Candidate key
● D. Secondary key

What is the primary function of a primary key in a table?

● A. To store metadata
● B. To uniquely identify each row in the table
● C. To link to external databases
● D. To provide a default value

Why is structural independence an advantage of the relational model?

● A. It simplifies data encryption

● B. It allows data structures to change without affecting access
● C. It increases data redundancy
● D. It ensures data integrity

What is the domain of an attribute in a relational database?

● A. The relationship type

● B. The set of allowable values for the attribute
● C. The data retrieval method
● D. The foreign key constraints

Which integrity rule ensures that a foreign key must match a primary key value in another
table?

● A. Entity integrity
● B. Domain integrity
 ● C. Referential integrity
● D. User integrity

Which component of a relational model is a persistent relation that can be saved for future
use?

● A. Attribute
● B. Constraint
● C. Table
● D. Relationship

How does the relational model handle data redundancy?

● A. By eliminating all duplicate data

● B. By allowing controlled redundancy to enable relationships between tables
● C. By storing data in flat files
● D. By using encryption to hide redundant data

Which key should be unique, not contain null values, and should not change?

● A. Foreign key
● B. Primary key
● C. Candidate key
● D. Secondary key

What is the primary advantage of using a secondary key?

● A. To enforce data integrity

● B. To link related tables
● C. To optimize data retrieval
● D. To define attribute domains

What is the consequence of having null values in a primary key?

● A. It can lead to data redundancy

● B. It can create logical problems and is not permitted
● C. It can improve query performance
● D. It can increase data security

Which integrity rule states that all primary key values must be unique and not null?

● A. Referential integrity
● B. Entity integrity
 ● C. Domain integrity
● D. Data integrity

What is the role of the system catalog in a relational database?

● A. To store user data

● B. To provide information about database objects and their structures
● C. To manage user access permissions
● D. To optimize query performance

What is the relationship between a primary key and a foreign key in a relational database?

● A. Primary keys are always derived from foreign keys

● B. Foreign keys refer to primary key values in another table to maintain referential
integrity
● C. Primary keys and foreign keys are interchangeable
● D. Foreign keys are always unique and primary keys are not

Why is the relational model easier to understand compared to its hierarchical and network
predecessors?

● A. Because of its use of complex data structures

● B. Because it uses a logical rather than physical view of data
● C. Because it enforces strict data constraints
● D. Because it eliminates data redundancy

What is the significance of a candidate key in a relational database?

● A. It can serve as a backup identifier for primary keys

● B. It can qualify as a primary key and ensures each row is unique
● C. It is used for data retrieval purposes only
● D. It defines relationships between different tables

================================================================

CHAPTER 5

Which relationship type is considered the norm in relational database design?

● A. One-to-One (1:1)
● B. One-to-Many (1)
● C. Many-to-Many (M)
● D. None of the above
How is a Many-to-Many (M) relationship typically resolved in a relational database?

● A. By creating a composite entity or bridge table

● B. By merging the related tables
● C. By using secondary keys
● D. By creating a unique index

What does a 1:1 relationship indicate in a relational database design?

● A. One entity is related to many entities

● B. Many entities are related to many entities
● C. One entity is related to only one other entity
● D. One entity is related to a subset of entities

Why should 1:1 relationships be rare in a relational database design?

● A. They often indicate that entity components were not defined properly
● B. They increase data redundancy
● C. They simplify database design
● D. They are more complex to implement

What is a composite entity?

● A. An entity composed of multiple attributes

● B. An entity created to resolve a Many-to-Many (M) relationship
● C. An entity with a single attribute
● D. An entity that serves as a primary key

Which relationship type requires the use of a foreign key to maintain referential integrity?

● A. One-to-One (1:1)
● B. One-to-Many (1)
● C. Many-to-Many (M)
● D. None of the above

What is the primary role of a foreign key in a relational database?

● A. To enforce primary key constraints

● B. To link tables together
● C. To act as a secondary key
● D. To store metadata
How does a composite entity table help in resolving M
relationships?

● A. By containing the primary keys of the original tables

● B. By reducing data redundancy
● C. By simplifying query execution
● D. By enforcing entity integrity

What is the main consequence of data redundancy in a database?

● A. Improved data retrieval performance

● B. Increased data integrity
● C. Data anomalies and reduced effectiveness
● D. Simplified database design

Which of the following is NOT a type of relationship in relational databases?

● A. One-to-One (1:1)
● B. One-to-Many (1)
● C. Many-to-Many (M)
● D. One-to-Subset (1)

What is the significance of resolving M

relationships in a relational model?

● A. It eliminates the need for foreign keys

● B. It simplifies data entry
● C. It ensures data integrity and reduces redundancy
● D. It increases the complexity of the database

How are M relationships typically represented after normalization?

● A. As 1:1 relationships
● B. As two 1:N relationships with a bridge table
● C. As hierarchical relationships
● D. As entity-attribute relationships

Which of the following is a key characteristic of a One-to-Many (1) relationship?

● A. Each entity in one table can relate to only one entity in another table
● B. Each entity in one table can relate to multiple entities in another table
● C. Each entity in one table can relate to multiple entities in the same table
● D. Each entity in one table cannot relate to any entity in another table
What is a bridge table in the context of relational databases?

● A. A table that contains only primary keys

● B. A table that facilitates Many-to-Many (M) relationships
● C. A table used for storing backup data
● D. A table used to enforce domain integrity

Why is it important to use primary keys in relational tables?

● A. To enforce referential integrity

● B. To ensure that each row can be uniquely identified
● C. To simplify data retrieval
● D. To reduce storage requirements

What problem can arise from improper handling of 1:1 relationships?

● A. Data redundancy
● B. Inaccurate entity definitions
● C. Complicated query execution
● D. Increased data integrity

In the context of relational databases, what does the term "data anomaly" refer to?

● A. A unique data value

● B. A data retrieval method
● C. An inconsistency or error in the data
● D. A type of relationship between tables

Which type of key is crucial for maintaining relationships between tables in a relational
database?

● A. Primary key
● B. Foreign key
● C. Candidate key
● D. Secondary key

How can you avoid data anomalies in a relational database?

● A. By using composite keys

● B. By ensuring proper normalization and foreign key usage
● C. By creating more tables
● D. By reducing the number of attributes
What does "referential integrity" ensure in a relational database?

● A. Each primary key value is unique and non-null

● B. Foreign key values match primary key values in related tables
● C. Data redundancy is maximized
● D. Data retrieval is faster

Which relational model component helps control data redundancy by sharing common
attributes?

● A. Entity integrity
● B. Foreign keys
● C. Composite keys
● D. Primary keys

What is the function of a linking table in an M relationship?

● A. To store backup data

● B. To facilitate the conversion of M to 1 relationships
● C. To define primary keys
● D. To enforce data encryption

Which type of relationship is often an indication of improper entity definition in relational

databases?

● A. One-to-One (1:1)
● B. One-to-Many (1)
● C. Many-to-Many (M)
● D. One-to-Subset (1)

What is the main purpose of using a composite entity in relational databases?

● A. To reduce storage requirements

● B. To resolve Many-to-Many (M) relationships
● C. To simplify data encryption
● D. To enhance query performance

How can foreign keys help control data redundancy?

● A. By using common attributes shared by tables

● B. By enforcing entity integrity
● C. By simplifying table creation
● D. By increasing data redundancy
What type of attribute is used to uniquely identify a row in a relational table?

● A. Composite key
● B. Foreign key
● C. Primary key
● D. Secondary key

Which of the following is an example of a 1:M relationship?

● A. Each employee has one employee ID

● B. Each student has multiple courses
● C. Each book is published by one publisher
● D. Each department has many employees

Which problem is most directly associated with data redundancy in databases?

● A. Faster data retrieval

● B. Enhanced data security
● C. Data anomalies
● D. Simplified data entry

How does a relational database handle 1:1 relationships to improve design efficiency?

● A. By merging related entities into a single table if appropriate

● B. By using multiple foreign keys
● C. By creating more bridge tables
● D. By avoiding normalization

What is the main benefit of resolving M relationships into 1 relationships using a composite
entity?

● A. Reduced data redundancy

● B. Simplified database queries
● C. Enhanced data integrity and normalization
● D. Faster data retrieval

=====================================================================

CHAPTER 6

What is an entity in the context of an ER model?

● A. A single occurrence of data

 ● B. A table in a relational database
● C. A characteristic of an attribute
● D. A constraint on data

How are attributes represented in the Chen ER model?

● A. By rectangles
● B. By ovals connected to entity rectangles with a line
● C. By diamonds
● D. By squares

What is a domain in the context of attributes in an ER model?

● A. A unique identifier for an entity

● B. A set of possible values for an attribute
● C. A relationship between entities
● D. A composite key

Which attribute type cannot be subdivided into smaller components?

● A. Composite attribute
● B. Derived attribute
● C. Simple attribute
● D. Multivalued attribute

What is a composite primary key?

● A. A primary key composed of a single attribute

● B. A primary key composed of more than one attribute
● C. A primary key that includes a foreign key
● D. A primary key that cannot contain null values

Which attribute type can have many values?

● A. Single-valued attribute
● B. Multivalued attribute
● C. Composite attribute
● D. Derived attribute

How are derived attributes represented in an ER diagram?

● A. By ovals with dashed lines

● B. By rectangles
 ● C. By diamonds
● D. By solid lines

What is the purpose of resolving multivalued attribute problems in database design?

● A. To simplify the database schema

● B. To improve query performance
● C. To ensure data integrity and normalization
● D. To increase data redundancy

What does the term "connectivity" refer to in an ER model?

● A. The physical connection between tables

● B. The classification of relationships between entities
● C. The maximum number of entity occurrences
● D. The constraints on attribute values

What is cardinality in the context of ER models?

● A. The total number of attributes in an entity

● B. The minimum and maximum number of entity occurrences associated with one
occurrence of a related entity
● C. The unique identifier for a relationship
● D. The type of key used in the entity

What is a weak entity in an ER model?

● A. An entity that does not have any attributes

● B. An entity that is existence-dependent on another entity
● C. An entity that cannot have a composite key
● D. An entity that has a multivalued attribute

How is a weak entity represented in an ER diagram?

● A. By a rectangle with double lines

● B. By an oval with dashed lines
● C. By a diamond with double lines
● D. By a rectangle with dashed lines

What is the primary key of a weak entity typically derived from?

● A. Its own attributes

● B. The parent entity in the relationship
 ● C. A composite key
● D. A multivalued attribute

What is the role of business rules in determining connectivity and cardinality in ER

models?

● A. To establish data encryption protocols

● B. To express the minimum and maximum number of entity occurrences
● C. To define primary keys
● D. To ensure data redundancy

How are relationships between entities represented in the Chen ER model?

● A. By rectangles
● B. By ovals
● C. By diamonds
● D. By lines

What characteristic of a derived attribute makes it different from other attribute types?

● A. It is physically stored within the database

● B. It is calculated from other attributes
● C. It is always a composite key
● D. It is used to establish relationships

Which type of attribute can be subdivided into smaller components?

● A. Simple attribute
● B. Multivalued attribute
● C. Derived attribute
● D. Composite attribute

What does a single-valued attribute represent?

● A. An attribute that can have only one value for a given entity instance
● B. An attribute that can have multiple values for a given entity instance
● C. An attribute that is derived from another attribute
● D. An attribute that is used as a foreign key

Which ER model component is crucial for depicting how entities interact with each other?

● A. Attributes
● B. Relationships
 ● C. Domains
● D. Composite keys

What does a relationship's connectivity define in an ER model?

● A. The data types of attributes

● B. The classification of the relationship (e.g., 1, M)
● C. The primary key constraints
● D. The entity integrity rules

In an ER diagram, what does a diamond symbol represent?

● A. An entity
● B. An attribute
● C. A relationship
● D. A primary key

How is a multivalued attribute typically resolved in an ER model?

● A. By creating a composite entity

● B. By storing the attribute in a separate table
● C. By using a derived attribute
● D. By merging entities

What is the significance of the entity relationship diagram (ERD) in database design?

● A. It physically stores the database

● B. It provides a conceptual representation of the database structure
● C. It ensures data redundancy
● D. It simplifies data retrieval

Which of the following is an example of a weak entity?

● A. Employee
● B. Department
● C. Dependent
● D. Product

How does the ER model handle the concept of a derived attribute?

● A. By storing the calculated value in the database

● B. By not physically storing it but deriving it using an algorithm
● C. By using it as a primary key
 ● D. By treating it as a composite key

What is the main purpose of an ERD in database design?

● A. To define data storage requirements

● B. To provide a detailed blueprint of the database schema
● C. To implement data encryption methods
● D. To outline user access permissions

How are composite attributes represented in the Crow’s Foot model?

● A. As rectangles with a split line

● B. As ovals with connecting lines
● C. In an attribute box below the entity rectangle
● D. As diamonds with connecting lines

Which type of relationship is more difficult to establish if only one side of the relationship is
known?

● A. One-to-One (1:1)
● B. One-to-Many (1)
● C. Many-to-Many (M)
● D. Derived relationship

What characteristic of a weak entity’s primary key distinguishes it from other entities?

● A. It is always a composite key

● B. It is derived from the parent entity's primary key
● C. It cannot contain null values
● D. It must be a single attribute

=====================================================================

CHAPTER 7

What does ERD stand for in database design?

● A. Entity Relational Database

● B. Entity Relationship Diagram
● C. Entity Reference Diagram
● D. Entity Resource Database
Which ERD notation is represented by rectangles connected by lines to represent
relationships?

● A. Crow’s Foot
● B. Chen’s model
● C. UML
● D. Barker’s notation

What does a unary relationship indicate in an ER model?

● A. Association between two entities

● B. Association within a single entity
● C. Association between three entities
● D. Association between four entities

In the context of ER models, what is a recursive relationship?

● A. A relationship between different entities

● B. A relationship between occurrences of the same entity set
● C. A relationship that involves derived attributes
● D. A relationship that cannot be represented in an ERD

What is the main difference between mandatory and optional participation in a

relationship?

● A. Mandatory participation requires corresponding entity occurrence; optional does

not
● B. Optional participation requires corresponding entity occurrence; mandatory does not
● C. Both require corresponding entity occurrences
● D. Neither require corresponding entity occurrences

What is the degree of a relationship?

● A. The number of attributes in a relationship

● B. The number of entities or participants associated with a relationship
● C. The number of primary keys in a relationship
● D. The complexity of the relationship

Which relationship degree involves three entities?

● A. Unary
● B. Binary
● C. Ternary
 ● D. Quaternary

Which type of relationship is represented by a single entity associated with itself?

● A. Unary
● B. Binary
● C. Ternary
● D. Quaternary

What type of relationship is depicted if a PROFESSOR can teach multiple CLASSES, but
each CLASS is taught by only one PROFESSOR?

● A. One-to-One
● B. One-to-Many
● C. Many-to-Many
● D. Many-to-One

How are composite entities used in resolving Many-to-Many relationships?

● A. By combining attributes from related entities

● B. By serving as bridge entities that connect the related entities
● C. By eliminating redundancy in the database
● D. By simplifying the database schema

What is a binary relationship in an ER model?

● A. A relationship involving only one entity

● B. A relationship involving two entities
● C. A relationship involving three entities
● D. A relationship involving four entities

In Crow’s Foot notation, how is a One-to-Many relationship typically represented?

● A. By a single line connecting entities

● B. By a line ending in a crow’s foot at one end
● C. By a diamond symbol
● D. By a dashed line

What does the term "relationship participation" describe in an ER model?

● A. The total number of entities in a relationship

● B. Whether an entity’s participation in a relationship is optional or mandatory
● C. The number of attributes involved in a relationship
 ● D. The data types of the attributes in a relationship

What is the purpose of using a ternary relationship in an ER model?

● A. To relate two entities

● B. To represent a recursive relationship
● C. To relate three entities simultaneously
● D. To enforce referential integrity

What does the cardinality constraint specify in a relationship?

● A. The number of attributes in a relationship

● B. The minimum and maximum number of entity occurrences involved in a
relationship
● C. The primary key constraints
● D. The data types of the attributes

How is a quaternary relationship defined in an ER model?

● A. As a relationship involving two entities

● B. As a relationship involving three entities
● C. As a relationship involving four entities
● D. As a relationship involving recursive entities

In an ER diagram, what does a crow’s foot at the end of a relationship line indicate?

● A. A One-to-One relationship
● B. A Many-to-Many relationship
● C. A One-to-Many relationship
● D. A Ternary relationship

In an ER diagram, how is an optional participation constraint typically represented?

● A. By a solid line
● B. By a dashed line
● C. By a double line
● D. By a dotted line

Which ERD notation uses diamonds to represent relationships?

● A. Crow’s Foot
● B. Chen’s model
● C. UML
 ● D. Barker’s notation

How is a mandatory participation constraint depicted in an ER diagram?

● A. By a solid line
● B. By a dashed line
● C. By a double line
● D. By a dotted line

What does the degree of a relationship in an ER model indicate?

● A. The complexity of the relationship

● B. The number of entities involved in the relationship
● C. The number of attributes in the relationship
● D. The type of key used in the relationship

Which relationship degree is most commonly used in ER models?

● A. Unary
● B. Binary
● C. Ternary
● D. Quaternary

What type of relationship involves four entities?

● A. Unary
● B. Binary
● C. Ternary
● D. Quaternary

In an ER model, what does a unary relationship often indicate?

● A. A relationship within a single entity

● B. A relationship between two entities
● C. A relationship between three entities
● D. A recursive relationship

What type of relationship involves entities such as STUDENT, COURSE, and

INSTRUCTOR?

● A. Unary
● B. Binary
● C. Ternary
 ● D. Quaternary

How are recursive relationships typically represented in ER diagrams?

● A. By a single line connecting two different entities

● B. By a line that loops back to the same entity
● C. By a diamond symbol
● D. By a double line connecting multiple entities

What is the significance of a ternary relationship in database design?

● A. It simplifies data retrieval

● B. It represents a recursive relationship
● C. It allows three entities to be related simultaneously
● D. It enforces domain integrity

===================================================

CHAPTER 8

What is the primary goal of database normalization?

● A. To increase data redundancy

● B. To minimize data anomalies
● C. To simplify query processing
● D. To maximize storage space

Which normal form is characterized by the absence of repeating groups?

● A. UNF
● B. 1NF
● C. 2NF
● D. 3NF

What is a functional dependency?

● A. A relationship between two tables

● B. A constraint between two attributes in which one attribute determines the other
● C. A type of primary key
● D. A method for indexing tables

In which normal form are all non-key attributes fully functionally dependent on the
primary key?
 ● A. UNF
● B. 1NF
● C. 2NF
● D. 3NF

What is a partial dependency?

● A. When an attribute depends only on part of a composite primary key

● B. When an attribute depends on another attribute
● C. When an attribute depends on the entire primary key
● D. When an attribute depends on a foreign key

Which normal form eliminates partial dependencies?

● A. UNF
● B. 1NF
● C. 2NF
● D. 3NF

What is a transitive dependency?

● A. When an attribute depends on another attribute through a third attribute

● B. When an attribute depends directly on the primary key
● C. When an attribute is dependent on itself
● D. When an attribute depends on a foreign key

Which normal form eliminates transitive dependencies?

● A. UNF
● B. 1NF
● C. 2NF
● D. 3NF

What is the first step in converting a table to First Normal Form (1NF)?

● A. Identifying all dependencies

● B. Eliminating repeating groups
● C. Creating a composite key
● D. Assigning dependent attributes

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a table in First Normal Form (1NF)?

● A. All key attributes are defined

 ● B. There are no repeating groups in the table
● C. All attributes are dependent on the primary key
● D. The table has no partial dependencies

What is the second step in converting a table to Second Normal Form (2NF)?

● A. Writing each key component on a separate line

● B. Identifying the primary key
● C. Assigning corresponding dependent attributes
● D. Eliminating transitive dependencies

Which of the following statements is true about a table in Second Normal Form (2NF)?

● A. It is in 1NF and has no repeating groups

● B. It is in 1NF and has no partial dependencies
● C. It is in 2NF and has no transitive dependencies
● D. It is in 3NF and has no transitive dependencies

What is the first step in converting a table to Third Normal Form (3NF)?

● A. Identifying each new determinant

● B. Assigning corresponding dependent attributes
● C. Removing repeating groups
● D. Writing each key component on a separate line

What is a determinant in the context of database normalization?

● A. A foreign key
● B. A composite key
● C. Any attribute whose value determines other values within a row
● D. An attribute that depends on another attribute

What must be true for a table to be in Third Normal Form (3NF)?

● A. It must be in 1NF and have no partial dependencies

● B. It must be in 1NF and have no repeating groups
● C. It must be in 2NF and have no transitive dependencies
● D. It must be in 3NF and have no composite keys

Which normal form is most commonly sufficient for business database design purposes?

● A. 1NF
● B. 2NF
 ● C. 3NF
● D. BCNF

What is the main benefit of performing database normalization?

● A. Increased query performance

● B. Reduced storage space
● C. Minimized data redundancies and anomalies
● D. Simplified table structure

What does the dependency diagram depict in the normalization process?

● A. The relationships between different tables

● B. All dependencies found within a given table structure
● C. The foreign key constraints in a database
● D. The primary keys of all tables

What type of anomalies does normalization aim to reduce or eliminate?

● A. Data retrieval anomalies

● B. Data insertion, update, and deletion anomalies
● C. Data indexing anomalies
● D. Data encryption anomalies

Which of the following is NOT a step in the normalization process?

● A. Eliminating repeating groups

● B. Identifying the primary key
● C. Assigning foreign keys
● D. Identifying and removing dependencies

Why might the highest level of normalization not always be the most desirable?

● A. It increases data redundancy

● B. It can lead to performance issues
● C. It simplifies database design
● D. It reduces data integrity

Which step in the normalization process involves presenting data in tabular format without
repeating groups?

● A. Conversion to 1NF
● B. Conversion to 2NF
 ● C. Conversion to 3NF
● D. Conversion to BCNF

Which of the following best describes the Third Normal Form (3NF)?

● A. A table that is in 2NF and has no partial dependencies

● B. A table that is in 2NF and has no transitive dependencies
● C. A table that is in 1NF and has no repeating groups
● D. A table that is in BCNF and has no candidate keys

Which normal form is typically used to ensure that no attribute is dependent on only a
portion of the primary key?

● A. 1NF
● B. 2NF
● C. 3NF
● D. BCNF

What is the result of a table having transitive dependencies?

● A. Increased data redundancy

● B. Improved query performance
● C. Simplified table structure
● D. Reduced data anomalies

What is the purpose of identifying each new determinant in the conversion to 3NF?

● A. To assign primary keys

● B. To eliminate partial dependencies
● C. To remove repeating groups
● D. To handle transitive dependencies

How does the normalization process improve database design?

● A. By increasing data redundancy

● B. By reducing the number of tables
● C. By ensuring all attributes are dependent on the primary key
● D. By simplifying the indexing process

What must be true for a table to be in Second Normal Form (2NF)?

● A. It must be in 1NF and have no partial dependencies

● B. It must be in 1NF and have no transitive dependencies
 ● C. It must be in 2NF and have no transitive dependencies
● D. It must be in 3NF and have no partial dependencies

Why is the dependency diagram helpful in the normalization process?

● A. It shows the relationships between tables

● B. It depicts all dependencies within a table structure
● C. It identifies the primary keys of all tables
● D. It simplifies the creation of composite keys

===============================================================

CHAPTER 9

What is the primary function of SQL in database management?

● A. To define the physical structure of the database

● B. To manipulate and retrieve data from the database
● C. To handle network communications
● D. To create programming scripts

What does DDL stand for in SQL terminology?

● A. Data Description Language

● B. Data Definition Language
● C. Data Derivation Language
● D. Data Direction Language

Which SQL command is used to create a new table in a database?

● A. INSERT
● B. UPDATE
● C. CREATE
● D. SELECT

What is the purpose of the INSERT command in SQL?

● A. To create a new database

● B. To retrieve data from a database
● C. To insert new rows into a table
● D. To update existing data in a table

Which command would you use to modify existing data in a SQL table?
 ● A. DELETE
● B. INSERT
● C. UPDATE
● D. CREATE

What does the SELECT command do in SQL?

● A. Deletes data from a table

● B. Updates data in a table
● C. Retrieves data from a table
● D. Inserts data into a table

Which command is used to permanently save changes made to a database?

● A. ROLLBACK
● B. COMMIT
● C. SAVE
● D. APPLY

What is the syntax for inserting data into a table in SQL?

● A. INSERT INTO tablename (columns) VALUES (values);

● B. ADD INTO tablename (columns) VALUES (values);
● C. INSERT INTO tablename (values) COLUMNS (columns);
● D. ADD TO tablename VALUES (columns);

How can you remove a specific row from a table in SQL?

● A. DROP ROW FROM tablename WHERE condition;

● B. DELETE FROM tablename WHERE condition;
● C. REMOVE ROW FROM tablename WHERE condition;
● D. ERASE ROW FROM tablename WHERE condition;

Which SQL command is used to restore a database to its previous state if changes were not
yet committed?

● A. RESTORE
● B. ROLLBACK
● C. UNDO
● D. REVERT

What is the purpose of the UNIQUE constraint in SQL?

 ● A. To ensure that all values in a column are unique
● B. To assign a default value to a column
● C. To validate data when an attribute value is entered
● D. To ensure that a column does not accept null values

How do you select all columns from a table named 'Employees' in SQL?

● A. SELECT * FROM Employees;

● B. SELECT ALL FROM Employees;
● C. SELECT ALL COLUMNS FROM Employees;
● D. GET ALL FROM Employees;

Which operator would you use to check if a value is within a specific range in SQL?

● A. LIKE
● B. BETWEEN
● C. IN
● D. EXISTS

What is the role of the WHERE clause in a SELECT statement?

● A. To specify the table to query

● B. To define conditions for filtering rows
● C. To list the columns to be retrieved
● D. To group the query results

Which SQL command is used to change the structure of an existing table?

● A. MODIFY TABLE
● B. UPDATE TABLE
● C. ALTER TABLE
● D. CHANGE TABLE

How do you ensure that a column in a SQL table cannot have null values?

● A. Use the UNIQUE constraint

● B. Use the CHECK constraint
● C. Use the NOT NULL constraint
● D. Use the DEFAULT constraint

What does the LIKE operator do in a SQL query?

● A. It checks if a value matches a specified pattern

 ● B. It checks if a value is null
● C. It checks if a value is within a range
● D. It checks if a value exists in a subquery

Which command is used to remove a table from a database in SQL?

● A. DELETE TABLE
● B. REMOVE TABLE
● C. DROP TABLE
● D. ERASE TABLE

What is the purpose of the CHECK constraint in SQL?

● A. To ensure that a column has unique values

● B. To ensure that a column does not accept null values
● C. To assign a default value to a column
● D. To validate data based on a condition when it is entered

How do you retrieve unique values from a column in SQL?

● A. SELECT UNIQUE column FROM tablename;

● B. SELECT DISTINCT column FROM tablename;
● C. SELECT column FROM tablename WHERE UNIQUE;
● D. SELECT column FROM tablename WHERE DISTINCT;

What does the JOIN operation do in SQL?

● A. Combines rows from two or more tables based on a related column

● B. Retrieves unique rows from a table
● C. Sorts rows in a table
● D. Aggregates data in a table

Which command would you use to change the name of an existing table in SQL?

● A. RENAME TABLE oldname TO newname;

● B. MODIFY TABLE oldname TO newname;
● C. CHANGE TABLE oldname TO newname;
● D. ALTER TABLE oldname RENAME TO newname;

How do you select rows from a table that satisfy multiple conditions in SQL?

● A. Use the AND operator in the WHERE clause

● B. Use the OR operator in the WHERE clause
 ● C. Use the BETWEEN operator in the WHERE clause
● D. Use the IN operator in the WHERE clause

What is the purpose of the DEFAULT constraint in SQL?

● A. To ensure that a column has unique values

● B. To ensure that a column does not accept null values
● C. To assign a default value to a column when a new row is added
● D. To validate data based on a condition when it is entered

How do you retrieve all rows from a table named 'Orders' where the order amount is
greater than 1000?

● A. SELECT * FROM Orders WHERE order_amount > 1000;

● B. SELECT ALL FROM Orders WHERE order_amount > 1000;
● C. SELECT * FROM Orders HAVING order_amount > 1000;
● D. SELECT ALL FROM Orders HAVING order_amount > 1000;

Which logical operator is used to combine multiple conditions in a SQL query?

● A. IF
● B. AND
● C. WHEN
● D. CASE

What does the IS NULL operator do in a SQL query?

● A. Checks if a column has a null value

● B. Checks if a column has a unique value
● C. Checks if a column has a default value
● D. Checks if a column has a non-null value

Which SQL command is used to update the structure of an existing table by adding a new
column?

● A. MODIFY TABLE tablename ADD columnname datatype;

● B. ALTER TABLE tablename ADD columnname datatype;
● C. UPDATE TABLE tablename ADD columnname datatype;
● D. INSERT INTO tablename ADD columnname datatype;

How do you delete all rows from a table named 'Customers' without removing the table
itself?
 ● A. DELETE FROM Customers;
● B. DROP TABLE Customers;
● C. REMOVE FROM Customers;
● D. ERASE TABLE Customers;

Which SQL keyword is used to sort the result-set in ascending or descending order?

● A. SORT BY
● B. ORDER
● C. ORDER BY
● D. SORT

=====================================================================

CHAPTER 10

What is the primary use of the ALTER command in SQL?

● A. To change the physical location of the database

● B. To modify the structure of an existing database object
● C. To retrieve data from the database
● D. To delete rows from a table

Which SQL command would you use to change the data type of an existing column?

● A. MODIFY TABLE
● B. ALTER COLUMN
● C. CHANGE TYPE
● D. ALTER TABLE

What does the ADD keyword in the ALTER TABLE command do?

● A. Adds a new row to the table

● B. Adds a new column to the table
● C. Adds a new constraint to the table
● D. Adds a new index to the table

In SQL, what does the DROP command do when used with the ALTER TABLE statement?

● A. Drops the entire table

● B. Drops a specified column from the table
● C. Drops all rows from the table
● D. Drops a specified row from the table
Which SQL clause is used to group rows that have the same values in specified columns?

● A. ORDER BY
● B. GROUP BY
● C. HAVING
● D. WHERE

What is the purpose of the HAVING clause in SQL?

● A. To filter rows before grouping

● B. To filter rows after grouping
● C. To specify the sort order of the result set
● D. To define a condition for the JOIN operation

Which SQL function is used to calculate the average value of a numeric column?

● A. AVG()
● B. COUNT()
● C. SUM()
● D. MIN()

How do you ensure that a SQL query only returns unique results?

● A. Use the DISTINCT keyword

● B. Use the UNIQUE keyword
● C. Use the DIFFERENT keyword
● D. Use the ONLY keyword

Which SQL command is used to permanently remove a table from the database?

● A. DELETE TABLE
● B. REMOVE TABLE
● C. DROP TABLE
● D. ERASE TABLE

What is the role of the JOIN operation in SQL?

● A. To merge columns from the same table

● B. To combine rows from two or more tables based on a related column
● C. To delete duplicate rows from a table
● D. To update rows in a table

What is an INNER JOIN in SQL?

 ● A. A join that returns all rows from both tables, even if there are no matches
● B. A join that returns only the matching rows from both tables
● C. A join that returns all rows from the left table, and the matched rows from the right
table
● D. A join that returns all rows from the right table, and the matched rows from the left
table

Which SQL keyword is used to sort the result-set of a query?

● A. SORT BY
● B. ORDER BY
● C. GROUP BY
● D. HAVING

How do you change the name of a table in SQL?

● A. RENAME TABLE oldname TO newname;

● B. MODIFY TABLE oldname RENAME TO newname;
● C. ALTER TABLE oldname RENAME TO newname;
● D. CHANGE TABLE oldname TO newname;

Which clause in SQL is used to filter the result set to include only rows where a specified
condition is true?

● A. WHERE
● B. HAVING
● C. GROUP BY
● D. ORDER BY

What does the COUNT() function do in SQL?

● A. Counts the number of characters in a column

● B. Counts the number of rows in a table
● C. Counts the number of columns in a table
● D. Counts the number of unique values in a column

Which command would you use to remove a column from an existing table in SQL?

● A. ALTER TABLE tablename DROP COLUMN columnname;

● B. REMOVE COLUMN columnname FROM tablename;
● C. DELETE COLUMN columnname FROM tablename;
● D. DROP COLUMN columnname FROM tablename;
What is the purpose of the ORDER BY clause in SQL?

● A. To filter rows before grouping

● B. To specify the sort order of the result set
● C. To define a condition for the JOIN operation
● D. To group rows that have the same values in specified columns

Which SQL function is used to find the minimum value in a column?

● A. MIN()
● B. MAX()
● C. LEAST()
● D. LOWEST()

What does the LEFT JOIN operation do in SQL?

● A. Returns all rows from the left table and the matched rows from the right table
● B. Returns all rows from the right table and the matched rows from the left table
● C. Returns only the matching rows from both tables
● D. Returns all rows from both tables, even if there are no matches

Which SQL keyword is used to create an alias for a table?

● A. ALIAS
● B. AS
● C. RENAME
● D. NAME

What is a CROSS JOIN in SQL?

● A. A join that returns all possible combinations of rows from two tables
● B. A join that returns only the matching rows from both tables
● C. A join that returns all rows from the left table and the matched rows from the right
table
● D. A join that returns all rows from the right table and the matched rows from the left
table

Which command would you use to add a primary key to an existing table in SQL?

● A. ALTER TABLE tablename ADD PRIMARY KEY (columnname);

● B. MODIFY TABLE tablename ADD PRIMARY KEY (columnname);
● C. ADD PRIMARY KEY (columnname) TO tablename;
● D. SET PRIMARY KEY (columnname) ON tablename;
What is the purpose of the GROUP BY clause in SQL?

● A. To filter rows before grouping

● B. To specify the sort order of the result set
● C. To group rows that have the same values in specified columns
● D. To define a condition for the JOIN operation

Which SQL function is used to find the maximum value in a column?

● A. MAX()
● B. MIN()
● C. GREATEST()
● D. HIGHEST()

What does the RIGHT JOIN operation do in SQL?

● A. Returns all rows from the right table and the matched rows from the left table
● B. Returns all rows from the left table and the matched rows from the right table
● C. Returns only the matching rows from both tables
● D. Returns all rows from both tables, even if there are no matches

How do you create a view in SQL?

● A. CREATE VIEW viewname AS SELECT statement;

● B. ALTER VIEW viewname AS SELECT statement;
● C. SET VIEW viewname AS SELECT statement;
● D. DEFINE VIEW viewname AS SELECT statement;

What is the purpose of a recursive join in SQL?

● A. To join a table with itself

● B. To join two tables based on a condition
● C. To join more than two tables at once
● D. To create a hierarchical query

Which SQL function is used to sum the values in a numeric column?

● A. SUM()
● B. TOTAL()
● C. ADD()
● D. COUNT()

What does the FULL JOIN operation do in SQL?

 ● A. Returns all rows when there is a match in either left or right table
● B. Returns only the matching rows from both tables
● C. Returns all rows from the left table and the matched rows from the right table
● D. Returns all rows from the right table and the matched rows from the left table

How do you remove a view from the database in SQL?

● A. DROP VIEW viewname;

● B. REMOVE VIEW viewname;
● C. DELETE VIEW viewname;
● D. ERASE VIEW viewname;

=====================================================================

CHAPTER 11

What are the three levels of data abstraction defined by the ANSI SPARC framework?

● A. Physical, Logical, and Conceptual

● B. External, Conceptual, and Internal
● C. General, Specific, and Detailed
● D. Abstract, Detailed, and Physical

What is an entity supertype in the EER model?

● A. A type of entity that contains only unique characteristics

● B. A generic entity type related to one or more subtypes
● C. An entity that does not participate in any relationships
● D. An entity with no attributes

Which term describes a specific type of entity that contains unique characteristics?

● A. Entity supertype
● B. Entity subtype
● C. Entity instance
● D. Entity cluster

What does the term 'disjoint subtypes' mean in the context of EERM?

● A. Subtypes that do not overlap and contain unique subsets of the supertype entity
set
● B. Subtypes that overlap and share subsets of the supertype entity set
● C. Subtypes that are not related to any supertype
 ● D. Subtypes that contain the same attributes as the supertype

What is the role of the specialization hierarchy in EERM?

● A. To represent the physical storage of data

● B. To depict the arrangement of higher-level supertypes and lower-level subtypes
● C. To define the relationships between unrelated entities
● D. To manage database transactions

Which attribute in the supertype entity determines to which subtype each supertype
occurrence is related?

● A. Primary key
● B. Foreign key
● C. Subtype discriminator
● D. Composite key

What does the completeness constraint specify in the EER model?

● A. Whether each subtype occurrence must also be a member of the supertype

● B. Whether each supertype occurrence must also be a member of at least one subtype
● C. Whether each attribute is mandatory
● D. Whether each relationship is mandatory

What is a partial completeness constraint?

● A. When every supertype occurrence must be a member of at least one subtype

● B. When some but not all supertype occurrences are members of a subtype
● C. When every subtype occurrence must be a member of the supertype
● D. When some but not all attributes are required

What is specialization in the context of EERM?

● A. A bottom-up process of identifying higher-level generic supertypes from lower-level

subtypes
● B. A top-down process of identifying lower-level specific subtypes from higher-level
supertypes
● C. A process of combining multiple entities into a single entity
● D. A method for defining relationships between unrelated entities

What is generalization in the context of EERM?

 ● A. A bottom-up process of identifying higher-level generic supertypes from
lower-level subtypes
● B. A top-down process of identifying lower-level specific subtypes from higher-level
supertypes
● C. A process of combining multiple entities into a single entity
● D. A method for defining relationships between unrelated entities

Which term refers to the ability of a subtype to inherit attributes and relationships from its
supertype?

● A. Specialization
● B. Generalization
● C. Inheritance
● D. Aggregation

What is the primary purpose of an EER diagram (EERD)?

● A. To represent the physical layout of a database

● B. To visually represent the extended entity relationships in a database
● C. To define database security constraints
● D. To optimize database queries

In an EER model, what type of constraint specifies that an entity instance must belong to at
least one subtype?

● A. Disjoint constraint
● B. Overlapping constraint
● C. Completeness constraint
● D. Referential integrity constraint

Which characteristic is NOT a feature of the internal model in the EER framework?

● A. It maps the conceptual model to the DBMS

● B. It is independent of the DBMS software
● C. It represents the database as seen by the DBMS
● D. It includes the internal schema

What distinguishes an overlapping constraint from a disjoint constraint?

● A. Overlapping constraints allow subtypes to share supertype occurrences, while

disjoint constraints do not
● B. Disjoint constraints allow subtypes to share supertype occurrences, while overlapping
constraints do not
 ● C. Both overlapping and disjoint constraints allow subtypes to share supertype
occurrences
● D. Neither overlapping nor disjoint constraints allow subtypes to share supertype
occurrences

Which of the following best describes a specialization hierarchy in an EER model?

● A. A hierarchy that shows the levels of data abstraction

● B. A hierarchy that depicts the arrangement and relationships between entity
supertypes and subtypes
● C. A hierarchy that outlines the steps of database normalization
● D. A hierarchy that lists all the attributes of an entity

What is the purpose of the internal schema in the EER framework?

● A. To represent the physical storage of data

● B. To map the conceptual model to the DBMS
● C. To define user views of the data
● D. To ensure data security

Which type of entity contains common characteristics shared by one or more entity
subtypes?

● A. Entity instance
● B. Entity cluster
● C. Entity supertype
● D. Entity subtype

How does the EER model extend the original ER model?

● A. By adding more semantic constructs such as supertypes, subtypes, and

specialization hierarchies
● B. By simplifying the representation of data relationships
● C. By removing the concept of entity relationships
● D. By focusing solely on physical data storage

What is a subtype discriminator in an EER model?

● A. A unique identifier for each entity instance

● B. An attribute in the supertype that determines the target subtype
● C. A method for combining multiple subtypes
● D. A constraint that enforces entity integrity
What does the term 'attribute inheritance' mean in the context of EERM?

● A. An entity subtype inherits the attributes of its entity supertype

● B. An entity subtype inherits the attributes of other subtypes
● C. An entity supertype inherits the attributes of its subtypes
● D. An entity instance inherits the attributes of other instances

What is the main purpose of defining a specialization hierarchy?

● A. To reduce data redundancy

● B. To enforce database security
● C. To organize entities based on shared characteristics and relationships
● D. To optimize query performance

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the external model in data abstraction?

● A. Easy identification of specific data required by business units

● B. Simplifies application program development
● C. Provides a global view of the entire database
● D. Ensures security constraints are considered in database design

What type of completeness constraint specifies that every instance of the supertype must be
a member of some subtype?

● A. Total completeness
● B. Partial completeness
● C. Complete participation
● D. Partial participation

How does the conceptual model differ from the internal model in the EER framework?

● A. The conceptual model represents the global view of the database, while the
internal model represents the database as seen by the DBMS
● B. The conceptual model is DBMS-specific, while the internal model is independent of
the DBMS
● C. The conceptual model deals with physical storage, while the internal model deals with
user views
● D. The conceptual model is detailed, while the internal model is abstract

What does the term 'entity cluster' refer to in the EER model?

● A. A collection of entities that share the same primary key

● B. A set of related entities grouped together for simplicity
 ● C. A single entity with multiple attributes
● D. A specialized entity that does not participate in relationships

Which of the following is true about entity subtypes in the EER model?

● A. They inherit attributes from their supertypes

● B. They can exist independently of supertypes
● C. They always have unique attributes not found in supertypes
● D. They do not participate in specialization hierarchies

What is the function of the external schema in the ANSI SPARC framework?

● A. To define user-specific views of the data

● B. To map the conceptual model to the DBMS
● C. To describe the physical storage of data
● D. To ensure data integrity and security

How does generalization benefit the design of an EER model?

● A. By creating more specific subtypes from generic supertypes

● B. By combining multiple supertypes into a single subtype
● C. By reducing the number of attributes required for each entity
● D. By organizing common characteristics and relationships into a higher-level
supertype

What type of constraint specifies that subtypes in a specialization hierarchy must be

disjoint?

● A. Completeness constraint
● B. Overlapping constraint
● C. Disjoint constraint
● D. Referential integrity constraint

========================================
CHAPTER 12

What is the primary purpose of the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?

● A. To develop a marketing strategy

● B. To trace the history of information system development
● C. To create a physical database
● D. To evaluate software vendors
Which phase of the SDLC involves the creation of logical system designs?

● A. Planning
● B. Analysis
● C. Detailed systems design
● D. Implementation

What is the main objective of the Database Life Cycle (DBLC)?

● A. To create an initial study of the database

● B. To ensure data security
● C. To develop a complete, normalized, non-redundant, and fully integrated database
● D. To establish user interfaces

Which process establishes the need for and extent of an information system?

● A. Systems development
● B. Systems analysis
● C. Database design
● D. Database implementation

In the context of DBLC, what does the term 'initial study' refer to?

● A. The final phase of database development

● B. Analyzing the company's situation, defining problems, constraints, objectives,
and scope
● C. Implementing the database design
● D. Testing the database

What are the three main components of an information system's performance?

● A. Database design, application design, and administrative procedures

● B. Hardware, software, and users
● C. Security, efficiency, and reliability
● D. Speed, storage, and cost

What does the planning phase of the SDLC primarily involve?

● A. Conducting a detailed system audit

● B. Providing a general overview of the company and its objectives
● C. Designing user interfaces
● D. Debugging the system
Which phase of the SDLC includes the cycle of coding, testing, and debugging?

● A. Planning
● B. Analysis
● C. Implementation
● D. Maintenance

What is the main goal of the analysis phase in the SDLC?

● A. To create technical specifications

● B. To identify and define problems in greater detail
● C. To install hardware and software
● D. To perform routine maintenance

Which phase of the SDLC focuses on creating technical specifications and conversion
steps?

● A. Planning
● B. Analysis
● C. Detailed systems design
● D. Implementation

What is the primary focus of the maintenance phase in the SDLC?

● A. Developing new systems

● B. Corrective, adaptive, and perfective maintenance activities
● C. Conducting user training
● D. Analyzing system requirements

What is the role of data flow diagrams (DFDs) in the analysis phase?

● A. To document technical specifications

● B. To represent the flow of data within the system
● C. To design user interfaces
● D. To implement the database

Which SDLC phase involves an initial assessment of information flow and requirements?

● A. Planning
● B. Analysis
● C. Detailed systems design
● D. Implementation
What is the purpose of defining scope and boundaries during the DBLC's initial study
phase?

● A. To specify the physical size of the database

● B. To limit the extent of the database design according to operational requirements
● C. To identify user training needs
● D. To establish database security protocols

What are the iterative processes required for completing the first phase of DBLC?

● A. Testing and debugging

● B. Analyzing, defining problems and constraints, objectives, scope, and boundaries
● C. Creating technical specifications
● D. Installing hardware and software

What is the primary objective of the detailed systems design phase in the SDLC?

● A. To conduct an initial assessment of information requirements

● B. To complete the design of the system’s processes and technical specifications
● C. To perform corrective maintenance
● D. To analyze user requirements

Which type of maintenance is performed in response to changes in the business

environment?

● A. Corrective maintenance
● B. Adaptive maintenance
● C. Perfective maintenance
● D. Preventive maintenance

What is the primary focus of the database design and implementation process in DBLC?

● A. To create physical storage structures

● B. To develop conceptual, logical, and physical database models
● C. To train users
● D. To maintain existing systems

What is a key outcome of the planning phase in the SDLC?

● A. A functional description of the system’s components

● B. A general overview of the company and its objectives
● C. Installation of hardware and software
● D. Completion of user training
Which phase of the DBLC involves defining objectives and ensuring they align with user
expectations?

● A. Analysis
● B. Initial study
● C. Implementation
● D. Maintenance

What is the significance of the conceptual data model created during the analysis phase?

● A. It specifies the physical storage requirements

● B. It outlines the database’s logical structure
● C. It provides user training guidelines
● D. It sets the system’s technical specifications

Which phase of the SDLC is characterized by the evaluation of alternate solutions and
system cost?

● A. Planning
● B. Analysis
● C. Detailed systems design
● D. Implementation

What does the detailed systems design phase yield for each process within the database
environment?

● A. User training schedules

● B. Functional descriptions of system’s components (modules)
● C. Technical specifications for hardware
● D. Cost-benefit analysis

Which phase of the DBLC includes a thorough audit of user requirements and existing
systems?

● A. Initial study
● B. Analysis
● C. Implementation
● D. Maintenance

In the DBLC, what is the purpose of defining the company's operational components and
their interactions?

● A. To specify hardware requirements

 ● B. To understand the company situation for better system design
● C. To implement security measures
● D. To create user manuals

Which type of maintenance is aimed at enhancing the system's performance?

● A. Corrective maintenance
● B. Adaptive maintenance
● C. Perfective maintenance
● D. Preventive maintenance

What is a major activity during the implementation phase of the DBLC?

● A. Creating and customizing the database by creating tables and views

● B. Defining the company’s operational components
● C. Conducting an initial study
● D. Performing a cost-benefit analysis

Which phase of the DBLC is characterized by analyzing the company situation and
defining problems and constraints?

● A. Initial study
● B. Analysis
● C. Implementation
● D. Maintenance

What is the significance of defining the scope and boundaries during the DBLC?

● A. To ensure the database design meets all technical specifications

● B. To determine the extent and limits of the database design
● C. To conduct user training
● D. To perform maintenance activities

What is the key outcome of the detailed systems design phase in the SDLC?

● A. Technical specifications for system conversion and user training methodologies

● B. General overview of the company’s objectives
● C. Audit of user requirements
● D. Database maintenance schedules