Chapter 4: Basic concepts of bacteriology

1. Prolonged storage of viruses can be done by:

a) Storage at -70°C
b) Freeze-drying
c) Lyophilisation
d) Both (b) and (c)

2. The following virus CANNOT withstand freeze-drying:

a) Varicella
b) Rabies virus
c) Poliovirus
d) CMV

3. Viruses are inactivated by:

a) Chlorination
b) Acidic pH
c) Ionising radiation
d) Organic iodine compounds

4. Which of the following is a receptor-destroying enzyme?

a) Neuraminidase
b) Transcriptase c
c) Reverse transcriptase
d) Hemagglutinin

5. Elution is the characteristic feature of which one of the following virus groups?
a) Poliovirus
b) Arbovirus
c) Myxovirus
d) Poxvirus

6. The von Magnus phenomenon refers to:

a) Incomplete virus assembly
b) Eclipse phase
c) Elution
d) Abortive infection

7. Pock-forming viruses belong to which of the following groups?

a) Influenza
b) Vaccinia
c) Yellow fever
d) Paramyxo

8. Cytoplasmic vacuolation is the characteristic feature of:

a) Herpes virus
b) SV40 virus
c) Influenza virus
d) Parainfluenza virus
9. Hemadsorption test uses RBCs of:
a) Sheep
b) Mouse
c) Guinea pig
d) Hamster

10. RBCs used for the estimation of viral hemagglutination titre are taken from:
a) Chicken
b) Sheep
c) Rabbits
d) Male mice

11. When the genome of a virus is covered by the entire capsid of the other virus it is called:
a) Stable variation
b) Transcapsidation
c) Complementation
d) Interference

12. Which of the following is a single-stranded DNA virus?

a) Pox
b) Papova
c) Paramyxo
d) Parvo

13. Which of the following groups of viruses belongs to the Picornaviridae family?
a) HAV, Polio, Echo
b) Denso, Polio, Rhino
c) Rhino, Nairo, Lassa
d) Rubi, Coxsackie, Echo

14. The process of viral uncoating is favoured by:

a) RDE enzyme
b) Neuraminidase
c) Transcriptase
d) Lysosomes

15. Which of the following is FALSE regarding inclusion bodies?

a) They are crystalline aggregates of virions
b) They represent degenerative changes produced by viral infections
c) They can be demonstrated under an electron microscope
d) They can be acidophilic or basophilic

16. Bollinger bodies are associated with which of the following diseases?
a) Fowl pox
b) Rabies
c) Polio
d) Measles
17. Which of the following inclusion bodies is intracytoplasmic?
a) Bollinger
b) Negri
c) Cowdry type A
d) Cowdry type B

18. Guarnieri bodies are seen in which viral infection?

a) Rabies
b) Polio
c) Vaccinia
d) Herpes

19. Which of the following viruses is inactivated by gastric pH?

a) Poliovirus
b) Hepatitis virus
c) Rotavirus
d) Rhinovirus

20. Enveloped viruses are inactivated by:

a) Gastric pH
b) Bile
c) Saliva
d) Tears

21. The mode of infection in murine mammary tumour virus is:

a) Congenital
b) Sexual
c) Insect bite
d) Breast milk

22. The common route of entry for all the following viruses is through the alimentary tract
EXCEPT in:
a) Adenoviruses
b) Reoviruses
c) Hepatitis C virus
d) Poliovirus

23. The important initial response of a human body to a viral infection is:
a) B cell stimulation
b) Antibody production
c) Interferon production
d) T cell stimulation

24. Seller’s stain is used for the demonstration of which of the following viruses?
a) CMV
b) Rabies virus
c) Measles virus
d) Herpes virus
25. Which of the following agents was developed as an antiparasitic but is presently used as
an antiviral?
a) Amantadine
b) Acyclovir
c) Suramine
d) Virazole

26. All of the following viruses produce lesions at the site of entry EXCEPT:
a) Orf virus
b) Vaccinia virus
c) Papillomavirus
d) Adenovirus

27. Fever blisters or herpes febrilis are seen in all of the following infections EXCEPT:
a) Pneumococcal infection
b) Herpes
c) Malaria
d) Influenza

28. HBV vaccine is an example of which type of vaccine?

a) Live
b) Killed
c) Live-attenuated
d) Cloned subunit

29. The type of vaccine used against Japanese encephalitis is:

a) Killed
b) Live-attenuated
c) Live
d) Subunit

30. Which of the following is FALSE regarding bacteriophages?

a) They have no role in genetic manipulations
b) They confer certain properties to bacteria
c) They are used for bacterial typing
d) They control the total number of bacteria in natural environments

31. Phage typing is NOT useful for:

a) Tracing the carrier during an epidemic
b) Identification of bacteria
c) Differentiating classical V. cholera from the El Tor type
d) Pathogenicity testing

32. The process of transmission of genes between bacteria through bacteriophages is called:
a) Transduction
b) Eclipse
c) Conjugation
d) Transformation
33. Which of the following event/s occur/s in the temperate cycle of a bacteriophage life
cycle?
a) Intracellular multiplication
b) Intracellular multiplication and host cell death
c) Multiplication, incorporation into host DNA and cell death
d) Incorporation in host DNA and no harm to host cell

34. The interval between the entry of phage into the cell and appearance of the first infectious
intracellular phage particle is called:
a) Latent period
b) Eclipse phase
c) Rise period
d) Burst phase

35. Beta prophage is associated with:

a) E. coli
b) Classical vibrios
c) El Tor vibrios
d) C. diphtheriae

36. Superinfection immunity is seen in the case of:

a) MRSA
b) El Tor vibrios
c) Bacteriophage
d) E. coli

37. The highest dilution of the phage preparation that produces confluent lysis is called:
a) Routine test dose
b) Prophage beta
c) Eclipse phase
d) Latent phase

38. Which of the following is TRUE about lysogenisation?

a) Inhibits bacterial multiplication
b) Abolishes toxigenicity of bacteria
c) Does not interfere with bacterial metabolism
d) Interferes with bacterial motility

39. Bacteriophages CANNOT be used for:

a) Tracing the disease carrier
b) Identification of bacteria
c) Prophylaxis of bacterial infections
d) Differentiating classical V. cholera from the El Tor type

40. Yolk sac inoculation technique is used for cultivation of:

a) Influenza virus
b) Smallpox virus
c) Chlamydia
d) Mycoplasma
41. Which of the following is an example of primary cell lines?
a) HeLa
b) HEp-2
c) KB
d) Monkey kidney

42. Which continuous cell line is now permitted to be used for vaccine production?
a) Vero cell lines
b) HeLa
c) HEp-2
d) KB

43. Which virus results in syncytium formation in cell lines?

a) Adenovirus
b) Herpesvirus
c) Enterovirus
d) Measles virus

44. The hemagglutination inhibition test is used to detect and assay which virus?
a) Influenza virus
b) Herpes virus
c) Enterovirus
d) Rubella virus

45. Warthin–Finkeldey cell is an

a) Acidophilic intracytoplasmic and intranuclear inclusion body seen in measles
b) Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic and intranuclear inclusion body seen in rabies
c) Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic and intranuclear inclusion body seen in measles
d) Acidophilic intracytoplasmic and intranuclear inclusion body seen in vaccinia
 Chapter 5: Basic concepts of mycology

1. Which of the following statement is NOT correct regarding yeasts?

a) These are unicellular fungi that do not produce germ tubes or pseudo-hyphae
b) They reproduce by budding
c) Filamentous (hyphae-like) structures are seen in tissues or in culture
d) In culture, the colonies are pasty, resembling bacterial colonies

2. The cytoplasmic membrane of fungi contains

a) Carbohydrate
b) Protein
c) Sterol
d) Mannan

3. The rigidity of fungal cell walls is due to presence of:

a) Protein
b) Chitin
c) Teichoic acid
d) Lipopolysaccharide

4. Which of the following is a subcutaneous mycosis?

a) Favus
b) Pityriasis versicolor
c) Tinea capitis
d) Chromomycosis

5. Which of the following is a superficial fungal infection?

a) Favus
b) Pityriasis versicolor
c) Tinea capitis
d) Chromomycosis

6. Which one of the following fungi is NOT a mould?

a) Rhizopus
b) Cryptococcus
c) Aspergillus
d) Penicillium

7. Which of the following is the morphological characteristic that refers to fungi imperfecti?
a) Lack of cell wall
b) Lack of septate hyphae
c) Unidentified sexual phases
d) Unidentified microconidia

8. Which of the following is NOT a fungal stain?

a) Leishman
b) Calcofluor white
c) Periodic acid Schiff
d) Gomori’s methenamine silver
9. All the following media are used for identifying fungi EXCEPT:
a) Cornmeal
b) Czapek–Dox medium
c) Bird seed
d) Horse serum agar

10. The function of cycloheximide in Sabouraud dextrose agar is to prevent the growth of
which of the following contaminants:
a) Gram-positive bacteria
b) Gram-negative bacteria
c) Moulds
d) Yeasts

11. Which of the following is correct regarding Sabouraud dextrose agar?

a) Yeast do not grow on this medium.
b) It has a high concentration of either glucose or maltose
c) The pH of the medium is high (8.4)
d) It is prepared in petri dishes

12. The most common direct microscopy method to visualise fungal elements from clinical
samples is:
a) KOH preparation
b) LPCB staining
c) Iodine mount
d) Albert stain

13. Yeasts can be identified based on carbohydrate fermentation tests. Which of the following
is correct regarding fermentation test?
a) Fermentation test is performed in a medium containing 10% yeast extract and 2% test
carbohydrate in distilled water
b) Fermentation test is performed in a medium containing 10% yeast extract and 2% test
carbohydrate in thioglycolate broth
c) Fermentation test is performed in a medium containing 1% yeast extract and 20% test
carbohydrate in distilled water
d) Fermentation test is performed in a medium containing 1% yeast extract and 2% test
carbohydrate in distilled water

14. Which of the following is not a medium to cultivate fungi from clinical samples?
a) Czapek–Dox medium
b) Bird seed agar
c) MacConkey’s agar
d) Brain–heart infusion agar

15. Which of the following is NOT a prerequisite for the growth of fungi in the laboratory?
a) Most fungi are grown at a low pH (5.4–6)
b) All fungi require oxygen for growth
c) Fungi grow best at 50°C
d) They are usually incubated in biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) incubators
16. Which stain can be used to visualise fungi from culture?
a) Lactophenol cotton blue
b) KOH
c) ZN stain
d) Methenamine silver stain

17. Which stain can be used to visualise fungi from tissues?

a) Lactophenol cotton blue
b) KOH
c) ZN stain
d) Methenamine silver stain

18. Reynolds-Braude phenomenon refers to the formation of:

a) Chlamydospores
b) Germ tubes
c) Rhizoids
d) Chains of conidia

19. Which of the following fungus is capsulated?

a) Candida
b) Rhodotorula
c) Pneumocystis
d) Cryptococcus

20. Which statement is NOT TRUE regarding Cryptococcus neoformans?

a) Grows at 37°C
b) Grows on SDA
c) Possesses polysaccharide capsule
d) Negative urease test