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VP AIR Test Series - 06 _ Test Paper

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565 views9 pages

VP AIR Test Series - 06 _ Test Paper

Uploaded by

Parth Bhati
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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JEE

MAIN
VP AIR Test Series - 06

DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 29/12/2024 M.MARKS : 300

Topics Covered
Physics: Full Syllabus
Chemistry: Full Syllabus
Mathematics: Full Syllabus

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Mathematics) and having 25 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are of
Objective Type and Last 5 questions are integers type and all 25 questions are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area
may create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

[1]
SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions (1-20):
1. The SI unit of a physical quantity is pascal-second.
The dimensional formula of this quantity will be:
(1) [ML–1 T–1] (2) [ML–1 T–2]
(3) [ML2 T–1] (4) [M–1 L3 T0]
Gm
(1) − [(4 + 2)m + 4 2M]
2. The distance of the Sun from earth is 1.5 × 1011 m d
and its angular diameter is (2000) s when observed Gm
from the earth. The diameter of the Sun will be: (2) − [(4 + 2)M + 4 2 m]
d
(1) 2.45  1010 m (2) 1.45 × 1010 m Gm  2
(3) − 3m + 4 2M
(3) 1.45 × 109 m (4) 0.14 × 109 m d  
Gm  2
(4) − 6 m + 4 2M 
3. When a ball is dropped into a lake from a height 4.9 d  
m above the water level, it hits the water with a
velocity v and then sinks to the bottom with the 7. For a perfect gas, two pressures P1 and P2 are shown
constant velocity v. It reaches the bottom of the lake in figure. The graph shows
4.0 s after it is dropped. The approximate depth of
the lake is:
(1) 19.6 m (2) 29.4 m
(3) 39.2 m (4) 73.5 m

4. One end of a massless spring of spring constant k


and natural length 0 is fixed while the other end is (1) P1 > P2 (2) P1 < P2
(3) P1 = P2 (4) Insufficient data to
connected to a small object of mass m lying on a
draw any conclusion
frictionless table. The spring remains horizontal on
the table. If the object is made to rotate at an angular 8. According to kinetic theory of gases,
velocity  about an axis passing through fixed end, A. The motion of the gas molecules freezes at
then the elongation of the spring will be: 0ºC.
B. The mean free path of gas molecules
k − m2 0 m2 0
(1) (2) decreases if the density of molecules is
m 2
k + m 2
increased.
m2 0 k + m2 0
C. The mean free path of gas molecules increases if
(3) (4) temperature is increased keeping pressure
k − m 2
m 2
constant.
D. Average kinetic energy per molecule per degree
5. A stone tide to a string of length L is whirled in a
3
vertical circle with the other end of the string at the of freedom is k BT (for monoatomic gases).
2
centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
lowest position and has a speed u. The magnitude
options given below:
of change in its velocity as it reaches a position
(1) A and C only (2) B and C only
where the string is horizontal, is ( )
x u 2 − gL . The (3) A and B only (4) C and D only

value of x is: 9. A lead bullet penetrates into a solid object and


(1) 3 (2) 2 melts. Assuming that 40% of its kinetic energy is
(3) 1 (4) 5 used to heat it, the initial speed of bullet is:
(Given, initial temperature of the bullet = 127°C,
6. Four spheres each of mass m form a square of side Melting point of the bullet = 327ºC,
d (as shown in figure). A fifth sphere of mass M is Latent heat of fusion of lead = 2.5 × 104 J kg–1,
situated at the centre of square. The total Specific heat capacity of lead = 125 J/kg K)
gravitational potential energy of the system is: (1) 125 ms–1 (2) 500 ms–1
(3) 250 ms–1 (4) 600 ms–1

[2]
10. The equation of a particle executing simple
 1
harmonic motion is given by x = sin   t +  m.
 3
At t = 1s, the speed of particle will be
(Given:  = 3.14)
(1) 0 cm s–1 (2) 157 cm s–1
(3) 272 cm s–1 (4) 314 cm s–1 (1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) –3
11. If a charge q is placed at the centre of a closed
hemispherical non-conducting surface, the total 14. If L, C and R are the self inductance, capacitance
flux passing through the flat surface would be : and resistance respectively, which of the following
does not have the dimension of time?
L
(1) RC (2)
R
L
(3) LC (4)
q q C
(1) (2)
0 20 15. Given below are two statements:
q q Statement I: A time varying electric field is a
(3) (4)
40 20 source of changing magnetic field and vice-versa.
Thus a disturbance in electric or magnetic field
12. Three identical charged balls each of charge 2 C are creates EM waves.
suspended from a common point P by silk threads Statement II: In a material medium, the EM wave
of 2 m each (as shown in figure). They form an 1
travels with speed v = . In the light of the
equilateral triangle of side 1 m. The ratio of net µ0 0
electrostatic force on a charged ball to the force above statements, choose the correct answer from
between any two charged balls will be: the options given below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

16. A convex lens has power P. It is cut into two halves


along its principal axis. Further one piece (out of
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
the two halves) is cut into two halves perpendicular
(3) 3:2 (4) 3 :1
to the principal axis (as shown in figures). Choose
the incorrect option for the reported pieces.
13. Two long parallel conductors S1 and S2 are
separated by a distance 10 cm and carrying currents
of 4A and 2A respectively. The conductors are
placed along x-axis in X-Y plane. There is a point P
located between the conductors (as shown in figure).
A charge particle of 3 coulomb is passing through P
(1) Power of L1 =
the point P with velocity v = (2iˆ + 3j)
ˆ m/s; where 2
ˆi and ˆj represents unit vector along x & y axis P
(2) Power of L2 =
respectively. 2
The force acting on the charge particle is P
(3) Power of L3 =
410−5 (−xiˆ + 2j)N.
ˆ The value of x is: 2
(4) Power of L1 = P.

[3]
17. If a wave gets refracted into a denser medium, then 22. A parallel plate capacitor is made up of stair like
which of the following is true? structure with a plate area A of each stair and that
(1) wavelength, speed and frequency decreases. is connected with a wire of length b, as shown in
(2) wavelength increases, speed decreases and the figure.
frequency remains constant. x 0 A
(3) wavelength and speed decreases but The capacitance of the arrangement is ,
15 b
frequency remains constant.
the value of x is ……
(4) wavelength, speed and frequency increases.

18. Given below are two statements:


Statement I: In hydrogen atom, the frequency of
radiation emitted when an electron jumps from
lower energy orbit (E1) to higher energy orbit (E2),
is given as hf = E1– E2.
Statement II: The jumping of electron from higher
energy orbit (E2) to lower energy orbit (E1) is
associated with frequency of radiation given as
f = (E2 – E1) / h
This condition is Bohr’s frequency condition.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
23. The current density in a cylindrical wire of radius r
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false.
= 4.0 mm is 1.0 × 106 A/m2. The current through
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is false.
the outer portion of the wire between radial
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
r
distances and r is x A; where x is …...
19. A mass of 10 kg is suspended vertically by a rope 2
of length 5 m from the roof. A force of 30 N is
applied at the middle point of rope in horizontal 24. A deuteron and a proton moving with equal kinetic
direction. The angle made by upper half of the rope energy enter into a uniform magnetic field at right
with vertical is (Given, g = 10 m/s2) angle to the field. If rd and rp are the radii of their
(1) tan–1(2) (2) tan–1(0.6) rd
circular paths respectively, then the ratio will
(3) tan–1(0.2) (4) tan–1(0.3) rp

20. A diatomic gas ( = 1.4) does 400 J of work when be x :1 where x is ……...
it is expanded isobarically. The heat given to the
gas in the process is………… J. 25. The cut-off voltage of the diodes (shown in figure)
(1) 1400 (2) 2800 in forward bias is 0.6 V. The current through the
(3) 3600 (4) 700 resister of 40 is ……. mA.

Integer Type Questions (21-25):


21. A particle executives simple harmonic motion. Its
amplitude is 8 cm and time period is 6 s. The time
it will take to travel from its position of maximum
displacement to the point corresponding to half of
its amplitude, is……… s.

[4]
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Question (26-45) 31. The product formed in the following multistep
26. For silver, Cp (Jk–1 mol–1) = 23 + 0.01 T. If the reaction is:
temperature (T) of 3 moles of silver is raised from (i)B2H6
(ii)H2O2 ,NaOH
300 K to 1000 K at 1 atm pressure, the value of H CH 3 − CH = CH 2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(iii)PCC
will be close to; (iv)CH3MgBr

(1) 62 kJ O
(2) 16 kJ
(3) 21 kJ (1) CH3 − CH2 − C− OCH3
(4) 13 kJ (2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH

27. Identify the incorrect statement for PCl5 from the (3)
following
(1) In this molecule, orbitals of phosphorous are
assumed to undergo sp3d hybridization
(2) The geometry of PCl5 is trigonal bipyramidal (4)
(3) PCl5 has two axial bonds stronger than three
equatorial bonds 32. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(4) The three equatorial bonds of PCl5 lie in a plane Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Flourine forms one oxoacid.
28. The major product in given the reaction is Reason R: Flourine has smallest size amongst all
halogens and is highly electronegative.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A
(1) (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.
(2)
33. In 3d series, the metal having the highest M2+ / M
standard electrode potential is
(1) Cr (2) Fe
(3) (3) Cu (4) Zn

34. The ‘f’ orbitals are half and completely filled,


respectively in lanthanide ions
(4) [Given: Atomic no. Eu, 63; Sm,62; Tm, 69; Tb, 65;
Yb,70; Dy, 66]
(1) Eu2+ and Tm2+ (2) Sm2+ and Tm3+
4+ 2+
(3) Tb and Yb (4) Dy3+ and Yb3+
29. The correct order of increasing intermolecular
hydrogen bond strength is
35. Arrange the following coordination compounds in
(1) HCN < H2O< NH3 (2) HCN < CH4< NH3
the increasing order of magnetic moments (Atomic
(3) CH4 < HCN < NH3 (4) CH4 < NH3 < HCN
numbers: Mn = 25; Fe= 26)
(A) [FeF6]3– (B) [Fe(CN)6]3–
30. The correct order of increasing ionic radii is
(C) [MnCl6]3– (high spin) (D) [Mn(CN)6]3–
(1) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2– < N3–
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) N3– < O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+
below
(3) F– < Na+ < O2– < Mg2+ < N3–
(1) A < B < D < C (2) B < D < C < A
(4) Na+ < F– < Mg2+ < O2– < N3–
(3) A < C < D < B (4) B < D < A < C

[5]
36. Number of stereo-centres present in Linear and 40. Match List I with List II
cyclic structures of glucose are respectively. List I List II
(1) 4 and 5 (2) 4 and 4 A. I. Br2 in CS2
(3) 5 and 4 (4) 5 and 5

37. Which of the following is most stable? B. II. Na2Cr2O7/H2SO4

(1) (2)
C. III. Zn

(3) (4)

38. What will be the major product of following


sequence of reactions? D. IV. CHCl3/NaOH
(i)n −BuLi
n −C5H11Cl
n − Bu −  ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(ii)Lindlar catalyst H2

(1) (2)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(3) (4)
(2) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
(3) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
(4) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
39. Product ‘A’ of following sequence of reaction is
( a )Br2 ,Fe 41. Decarboxylation of all six possible forms of
Ethylbenzene ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → 'A '
( b) Cl2 , Major Pr oduct diaminobenzoic acids C6H3(NH2)2COOH yields
( c) alc.KOH three product A, B and C. Three acids give a
products ‘A’ two acids gives a products ‘B’ and one
acids give a products ‘C’. The melting point of
product ‘C’ is:
(1) 63oC (2) 90oC
(1) o
(3) 104 C (4) 142oC

42. The pH of a 0.02 M NH4Cl solution will be;


[Given kb NH4OH = 10–5]
(1) 4.65 (2) 2.65
(2) (3) 5.35 (4) 4.35

43. Given below are two statements.


Statements I: Maltose has two α-D- glucose units
linked at C1 and C4 and is a reducing sugar
Statements II: Maltose has two monosaccharides:
(3) α-D- glucose and β-D- glucose linked at C1 and C6
and it is a non- reducing sugar.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

[6]
44. The (C – C) bond length is maximum in; 47. When 5 moles of He gas expand isothermally and
(1) Graphite (2) C70 reversibly at 300 K from 10 litre to 20 litre, the
(3) C60 (4) Diamond magnitude of the maximum work obtained is ‘x’ J
45. Match List I with List II x
(nearest integer). Then is
List I List II (gas evolved on reaction with 10
(Anion) dil. H2SO4) [Given: R= 8.3 JK–1 mol–1 and log2 = 0.3010]
A. CO2− I. Colourless gas which turns lead
3
acetate paper black
48. A solution containing 2.5 × 10–3 kg of solute
B. S2– II. Colourless gas which turns acidified
potassium dichromate solution green dissolved in 75 × 10–3 kg of water boils at 373.535 K.
The molar mass of the solute is _________ g mol–1
C. SO32− III. Brown fumes which turns acidified KI
solution containing starch blue [Given Kb(H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol–1
D. NO−2 IV. Colourless gas evolved with brisk and boiling point of water = 373.15 K)
effervescence, which turns lime
water milky
Choose the correct answer from the option given below: 49. For the reaction taking place in the cell
(1) A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV Pt(s) |H2(g)|H+(aq)||Ag+(aq)|Ag(s)
(2) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III E0cell = +0.5332 V.
(3) A–IV, B–I, C–III, D–II
(4) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III The value of f G is_________kJ mol–1

Integer Type Question (46-50):


46. Consider the following set of quantum numbers 50. It has been found that for a chemical reaction with
rise in temperature by 9K the rate constant gets
n  m
doubled. Assuming a reaction to be occurring at
A. 3 3 –3 300 K, the value of activation energy is found to
B. 3 2 –2 be_________ kJ mol–1
C. 2 1 +1
(Given: In 10 = 2.3,
D. 2 2 +2
The number of correct sets of quantum numbers R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1,
log2 = 0.30)

[7]
SECTION-III (MATHEMATICS)

Single Correct Type Questions (51 – 70) 58. If the solution curve of the differential equation
51. The number of points of intersection of ((tan−1y) − x)dy = (1 + y2) dx passes through the
z − ( 4 + 3i ) = 2 and |z| + |z − 4| = 6, zC, is point (1, 0), then the abscissa of the point on the
(1) 0 (2) 1 curve whose ordinate is tan (1), is:
(3) 2 (4) 3 (1) 2e (2) 2/e
(3) 2 (4) 1/e
a −1 0
59. If the equation of the parabola, whose vertex is at
52. Let f (x) = ax a −1 , aR. Then the sum of
(5, 4) and the directrix is 3x + y − 29 = 0, is x2 + ay2
ax 2 ax a + bxy + cx + dy + k = 0, then a + b + c + d + k is
the squares of all the values of a, for which equal to
2f  (10) − f  (5) + 100 = 0, is (1) 575 (2) −575
(1) 117 (2) 106 (3) 576 (4) −576
(3) 125 (4) 136
60. The set of values of k, for which the circle
53. Let for some real numbers  and , a =  − i. If C : 4x2 + 4y2 − 12x + 8y + k = 0 lies inside the
the system of equations 4ix + (1 + i) y = 0 and
 1
 2 2  fourth quadrant and the point 1, −  lies on or
8  cos + isin  x + ay = 0 has more than one  3
 3 3 
inside the circle C, is

solution, then is equal to  65 
 (1) an empty set (2)  6, 
 9
(1) −2 + 3 (2) 2 − 3
 80   92 
(3) 2 + 3 (4) −2 − 3 (3)  ,10  (4)  9, 
9   9
54. Let A and B be two 3 × 3 matrices such that AB = I
61. The shortest distance between the lines
and |A| = . Then adj( B adj ( 2A ) ) is equal to
1
x − 3 y − 2 z −1
8 = =
2 3 −1
(1) 16 (2) 32
(3) 64 (4) 128 x +3 y−6 z −5
and = = , is
2 1 3
55. If a1, a2, a3… and b1, b2, b3…… are A.P., and a1 = 2, 18 22
a10 = 3, a1b1 = 1−a10 b10, then a4b4 is equal to (1) (2)
5 3 5
35
(1) (2) 1 46
27 (3) (4) 6 3
27 28 3 5
(3) (4)
28 27
62. Let a and b be the vectors along the diagonals of a
56. If m and n respectively are the number of local parallelogram having area 2 2 . Let the angle
maximum and local minimum points of the
between a and b be acute, a = 1, and a . b =
x2 2
t − 5t + 4
function f (x) = 
2 + et
dt, then the ordered ( )
a  b . If c = 2 2 a  b − 2b , then an angle
0
pair (m, n) is equal to between b and c is:
(1) (3, 2) (2) (2, 3) 
(1)
(3) (2, 2) (4) (3, 4) 4

1
1 (2) −
57. The integral  1
dx , where [.] denotes the
5
4
0 x
7  (3)
6
greatest integer function, is equal to
3
6 6 (4)
(1) 1 + 6loge   (2) 1 − 6loge   4
7 7
7 6
(3) loge   (4) 1 − 7loge  
6 7
[8]
63. The mean and variance of the data 4, 5, 6, 6, 7, 8, 69. Let A be a matrix of order 2 × 2, whose entries are
9 from the set {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. If the sum of all the
x, y, where x < y, are 6 and respectively. Then entries of A is a prime number p, 2 < p < 8, then the
4
x4 + y2 is equal to: number of such matrices A is:
(1) 162 (2) 320 (1) 180 (2) 191
(3) 674 (4) 420 (3) 237 (4) 321
64. If a point A(x, y) lies in the region bounded by the
y-axis, straight lines 2y + x = 6 and 5x − 6y = 30, 70. If the sum of the coefficients of all the positive
then the probability that y < 1 is powers of x, in the Binomial expansion of
7
1 5  n 2
(1) (2)  x + 5  is 939, then the sum of all the possible
6 6  x 
2 6 integral values of n is ______
(3) (4) (1) 36 (2) 48
3 7
(3) 57 (4) 64
 50  1  Integer Type Questions (71 – 75)
65. The value of cot   tan −1  2 
is
  + +   71. Let [t] denote the greatest integer ≤ t and {t} denote
 n =1 1 n n 
the fractional part of t. The integral value of  for
26 25 which the left hand limit of the function
(1) (2)
     + x −1
25 26 2x+ x
50 52 f (x) = [1 + x] + at x = 0 is equal
(3) (4) 2 x  + x
51 51
4
to  − , is:
66.  = sin 36 is a root of which of the following 3
equation?
(1) 16x4 − 10x2 − 5 = 0 (2) 16x4 + 20x2 − 5 = 0 x x
d2x
(3) 16x4 − 20x2 + 5 = 0 (4) 16x4 − 10x2 + 5 = 0 72. If y(x) = (x ) , x > 0, then + 20 at x = 1 is equal
dy 2
to______
67. Let S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}.
Define f : S → S as 73. If the area of the region
 2n , if n = 1,2,3,4,5  2 2 
f (n) =   
( x, y ) : x + y 3  1, x + y  0, y  0 is A, then
. 3
2n −11 , if n = 6,7,8,9,10

 

Let g : S → S be a function such that
n + 1 , if n is odd 256A
fog (n) =  is equal to ____
, Then g (10) 
n − 1 , if n is even
(g(1) + g(2) + g(3) + g(4) + g(5)) is equal to.... 74. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
(1) 160
(3) 180
(2) 170
(4) 190 ( ( )
equation (1 − x2 )dy = xy + x3 + 2 1 − x 2 dx, )
−1 < x < 1, and y (0) = 0.
68. Let ,  be the roots of the equation x2 − 4λx + 5 = 0 1/2
and , γ be the roots of the equation If  1 − x 2 y(x)dx = k, then k−1 is equal to ___
( )
x2 − 3 2 + 2 3 x + 7 + 3 3 = 0, λ > 0. −1/2

If  + γ = 3 2 , then ( + 2 + γ)2 is equal to: 75. Let S = {E1, E2, ……, E8} be a sample space of a
(1) 49 (2) 84 n
random experiment such that P(En) = for every
(3) 98 (4) 118 36
n = 1, 2, …., 8. Then the number of elements in the
 4
set A  S: P ( A )   is ______
 5

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