Technical questions

Q.1. What is integrated circuit (IC)?

Answer: Integrated circuit means that all the components in each circuit are fabricated on the same
chip.
Q.2. What are linear ICs?
Answer: A linear integrated circuit is a solid state analog device characterized by a theoretically
infinite number of possible operating states. It operates over a continuous range of input levels. Within
a certain input range, the amplification curve of a linear IC is a straight line i.e. the input and output
voltages are directly proportional. The best known and most common linear IC is the operational
amplifier or op amp.
Q.3. What is an operational amplifier?
Answer: An operational amplifier is a directly coupled high gain amplifier consisting of one or more
differential amplifiers, usually followed by a level translator and an output stage. The output stage is
generally a push pull amplifier. It can be used to amplify DC as well as AC input signals.
Q.4. What is the use of level translators?
Answer: Because of direct coupling, dc level at the emitters rises from stage to stage. This increase dc
level tends to shift the operating point of the succeeding stage and therefore limits the output voltage
swing a may even distort the output signal. So to increase this dc level, level translator circuits are
used.
Q.5. What is differential amplifier and its significance?
Answer: A differential amplifier is an amplifier which is used to amplify the difference between the
two input signals. It suppresses the unwanted disturbances that might be amplified with the desired
signal.
Q.6. What are the important features of differential amplifier?
Answer: The important features of differential amplifier areHigh differential gain and low common
mode gain.
High common mode rejection ratio (CMRR).
High input impedance.
Low output impedance.
High gain.
Large bandwidth.
Q.7. How differential amplifiers can be configured and what are they?
Answer: A differential amplifier consists of two transistors. Depending on the way of connecting the
input to them and
depending on the way of measuring output, there are four configurations of differential amplifier, they
are:
Dual input balanced output differential amplifier.
Dual input unbalanced output differential amplifier.
Single input balanced output differential amplifier.
Single input unbalanced output differential amplifier.
Q.8. What is common mode rejection ratio (CMRR)?
Answer: Common mode rejection ratio is the ability of a differential amplifier to reject the common
mode signals successfully. It is called as a figure of merit of a differential amplifier. Ideally, the
CMRR should be infinite and practically it should be as high as possible.
Q.9. How CMRR can be improved?
Answer: CMRR is the ratio of differential voltage gain (Ad) to the common mode voltage gain (Ac),
so we can improve the CMRR by either increasing differential voltage gain or by decreasing common
mode voltage gain. To increase CMRR, emitter resistance RE should be increased. Higher the value of
RE , more is the negative feedback and less is the common mode gain. Thus with the increase in RE,
common mode voltage gain decreases and CMRR increases.
Q.10. What is the drawback of op amp IC 741?
Answer: The drawback of IC 741 is its low slew rate (0.5v/µs), which limits its use in relatively high
frequency applications, especially in oscillators, comparators and filters.
Q.11. What is current mirror?
Answer: A current mirror is a circuit designed to copy a current through one active device by
controlling the current in another device of a circuit, keeping the output current constant regardless of
loading.
Q.12. What is the advantage of using a current mirror circuit?
Answer: The advantage of using current mirror circuit is that it requires less number of components
than the constant current bias circuit. It is simple and easy to fabricate. Therefore the current mirror
circuit is widely used in the integrated amplifiers.
Q.13. What is the advantage of using a constant current bias circuit?
Answer: Constant current bias circuit supplies constant emitter current. It also provides very high
source resistance
since the AC equivalent of the DC current source is ideally an open circuit.
Q.14. How ICs are classified?
Answer: ICs are classified according to the number of components or gates in the case of digital ICs
integrated on the same chip as follows:
Small scale integration (SSI) < 10 components.
Medium scale integration (MSI) < 100 components.
Large scale integration (LSI) > 100 components.
Very large scale integration (VSSI) > 1000 components.
Q.15. What are the important characteristics of an ideal op amp?
Answer: The important characteristics of an ideal op amp are as followsInfinite open loop voltage
gain.
Infinite input resistance.
Zero output resistance.
Zero offset voltage.
Infinite bandwidth.
Infinite CMRR.
Infinite slew rate.
Zero power supply rejection ratio.
Q.16. Define slew rate.
Answer: Slew rate is defined as the maximum rate of change of output per unit time and it is
expressed in volts/microsecond.
Q.17. What is the importance of slew rate?
Answer: Slew rate decides the capability of op amp to change its output rapidly; hence it decides the
highest frequency of operation of a given op-amp.
Q.18. What are the features of IC 741?
Answer: The features of IC 741 areNo frequency compensation required.
Short circuit protection.
Offset voltage null capability.
Large common mode and differential voltage ranges.
No latch ups.
Q.19. Why op-amp is not used as an amplifier in the open loop configuration?
Answer: In practice the open loop op-amp is not used due to the following reasonsDue to very large
open loop gain, distortion is introduced in the amplified output signal. The open loop gain does not
remain constant. It varies with changes in temperature and power supply. The bandwidth of an op-
amp in the open loop mode is very small almost zero. For this reason the open loop opamp Is not used
in practice as an amplifier. However the op-amp in open loop configuration is used in applications
such as comparators (both inverting and non inverting comparators).
Q.20. What are the advantages of negative feedback?
Answer: Negative feedback is used in the amplifier circuits as they provide the following
improvements in the operation of an amplifierIt reduces and stabilizes the gain.
Reduces the distortion.
Increases the bandwidth.
Changes the value of input and output resistances.
Reduces the effect of variations in temperature and supply voltage on the output of the op-amp.
Q.21. What is the difference between positive feedback and negative feedback?
Answer: If the feedback signal and the original input signal are in phase with each other then it is

∘ out of phase, then it is called as the negative feedback.

called as the positive feedback. If the signal feedback to the input and the original input signal are 180

Q.22. What is the virtual short or virtual ground concept?

Answer: According to the virtual short concept, the potential difference between the two input
terminals of an op-amp is almost zero. In other words both the input terminals are approximately at
the same potential.
Q.23. What is input offset voltage?
Answer: Input offset voltage is the voltage that must be applied between the two input terminals of an
op-amp to null the output.
Q.24. What is input offset current?
Answer: The algebraic difference between the currents into the inverting and non inverting terminals
is referred to as input offset current.
Q.25. What is input bias current?
Answer: Input bias current is the average of the currents that flow into the inverting and non inverting
terminals of the op-amp.
Q.26. What are the features of a voltage follower circuit and what is its application?
Answer: The important features of the voltage follower circuit are as followsClosed loop voltage gain
is equal to 1, i.e output is equal to input with no phase shift.
Very high input impedance.
Very low output impedance.
Large bandwidth.
Application- Voltage followers are placed between two networks to reduce the loading on the first
network. This is due to the high input impedance offered by the voltage follower.
Q.27. What are op-amp characteristics and its significance?
Answer: Op-amp characteristics are classified into two categories namely dc characteristics and ac
characteristics.
DC characteristics includesInput bias current.
Input offset current.
Input offset voltage.
Thermal drift.
Ac characteristics includesFrequency response.
Stability.
Frequency compensation.
Slew rate.
The op-amp characteristics are important in practice because we can use them to compare the
performance of various op-amp ICs and select the best suitable from them for the required
application.
Q.28. What is the output resistance of op-amp IC 741?
Answer: Output resistance is the equivalent resistance that can be measured between the output
terminal of the op-amp and ground. It is 75 ohm or IC 741.
Q.29. What is input capacitance of op-amp?
Answer: Input capacitance is the equivalent capacitance, measured at either the inverting or non
inverting terminal with the other terminal connected to ground.
Q.30. What is power supply rejection ratio (PSRR)?
Answer: The change in an op-amp input offset voltage caused by the variation in the supply voltage is
called as power supply rejection ratio (PSRR).
Q.31. What is gain bandwidth (GB) product?
Answer: The gain bandwidth product is the bandwidth of the op-amp when the voltage gain is 1.
Q.32. What are the parameters that should be considered for AC applications?
Answer: The parameters that should be considered for AC applications areInput and output resistance.
Output voltage swing.
Slew rate.
Gain bandwidth product.
Input offset voltage and current.
Equivalent noise voltage and current.
Q.33. What are the parameters that should be considered for DC applications?
Answer: The parameters that should be considered for DC applications areInput and output resistance.
Output voltage swing.
Input offset voltage and current.
Large signal voltage gain.
Q.34. Define frequency response of an op-amp.
Answer: The frequency response of an op-amp is the graph of its open loop gain versus frequency.
The open loop gain is generally expressed in dB and frequency is plotted on the logarithmic scale.
Ideally the open loop gain of the op-amp is expected to remain constant irrespective of frequency.
That means ideally the bandwidth of op-amp should be infinite but practically it is not so.
Q.35. What is transient response?
Answer: It is that portion of the complete response before attaining some fixed value at the output.
Q.36. What is steady state response?
Answer: The response of the network after it attains a fixed value is called as steady state response.
Q.37. Define full power bandwidth.
Answer: It is defined as the maximum frequency at which the op-amp will yield an undistorted ac
output with the largest possible signal amplitude. The amplitude is dependent on the type of op-amp
and the power supplies.
Q.38. What is unity gain bandwidth (UGB)?
Answer: The frequency at which the gain equals one is known as the unity gain bandwidth. For an op-
amp with a single break frequency, the gain bandwidth (GB) product is constant and equal to unity
gain bandwidth (UGB).
Q.39. What is the corner or break frequency?
Answer: It is the frequency at which gain A is 3 dB down from its value at 0 Hz.
Q.40. Define bandwidth of an amplifier.
Answer: Bandwidth of an amplifier is the range or band of frequencies for which the gain remains
constant.
Q.41. What is the difference between inverting and non inverting amplifier?

inverting (-) terminal of the op-amp. The amplified output signal will be 180 ∘ out of phase with the
Answer: Inverting amplifier is an amplifier in which the signal which is to amplified is applied at the

input signal. In other words the output signal is inverted. Non inverting amplifier is an amplifier in
which the signal which is to be amplified is applied to the Non inverting (+) terminal of the op-amp.
The input and output voltages are in phase with each other.
Q.42. Which type of feedback is used in Non inverting amplifier?
Answer: Voltage series feedback is used in Non inverting amplifier.
Q.43. Which type of feedback is used in inverting amplifier?
Answer: Voltage shunt feedback is used in inverting amplifier.
Q.44. What is Instrumentation amplifier?
Answer: An instrumentation amplifier is basically a difference amplifier which must satisfy the
following requirementsPrecise low level signal amplification.
Low noise.
Low thermal drift.
High input resistance.
Low power dissipation.
High CMRR.
High slew rate.
This amplifier amplifies the low level output signal of the transducer to such a level that it can drive
the indicator or display.
Q.45. What is transducer?
Answer: Transducer is a device which is used to convert one from of energy into another.
Q.46. What will be the output of an integrator if sine wave is applied at the input?
Answer: The output of the integrator is a cosine wave when the input is a sine wave.
Q.47. What are the applications of an Integrator?
Answer: Some of the important applications of an integrator areIn the triangular wave or ramp
generators.
In the analog to digital converters.
In the integral type controllers used in a closed loop control system.
In analog computers to solve differential equations.
Q.48. What will be the output of a differentiator for a square wave input?
Answer: The output voltage is in the form of a spikes corresponding to the rising and falling edges of
the square wave and the output voltage is zero when the input is constant.
Q.49. What will be the output of a differentiator for a sine wave input?
Answer: The output voltage will be an inverse cosine wave.
Q.50. What are the applications of a differentiator?
Answer: The applications of a differentiator areIn the PID controllers.
As a high pass filter. In the wave shaping circuits to generate narrow pulses corresponding to any
sharp change in the input signal.
Q.51. What is thermal voltage drift?
Answer: The average rate of change of input offset voltage per unit change in temperature is called as
thermal voltage drift.
Q.52. What is an oscillator?
Answer: An oscillator is basically an amplifier which does not have any ac input but it operates on the
principle of positive feedback to generate an ac signal at its output.
Q.53. How does an oscillator operate without an input signal?
Answer: Due to random movement of electrons inside any electronic device such as resistor, a voltage
is generated which is called as noise voltage. This noise voltage is amplified by the amplifier and
feedback. If the Barkhausen criterion is satisfied then, sustained oscillations will be obtained at the
output. Thus noise voltage acts as the starting voltage and oscillators can operate without an input
signal.
Q.54. What is Barkhausen criterion?
Answer: The Barkhausen criterion states thatAn oscillator will operate at that frequency for which the

feedback network and back again to the input is precisely 0 ∘ or 360 ∘ or integral multiple of 360
total phase shift introduced, as the signal proceeds from the input terminals, through the amplifier and

∘ .At the oscillator frequency, the magnitude of the product of open loop gain of the amplifier ‘A’ and
the feedback factor ‘β’ is equal to or greater than unity. i.e. I Aβ I ≥ 1.
Q.55. What is frequency stability?
Answer: The ability of a oscillator circuit to oscillate at one exact frequency is called frequency
stability.
Q.56. Wein bridge oscillator acts as which type of feedback network?
Answer: Wein bridge acts as the lead-lag RC feedback network.
Q.57. What is the range of oscillator frequency of a wein bridge oscillator?
Answer: Wein bridge oscillator is basically an RC oscillator. It is suitable for operation in the low
frequency region from 20 Hz to 100 KHz.
Q.58. What is Filter?
Answer: A filter is basically a frequency selective circuit. It is designed to pass a specific band of
frequencies and block or attenuate input signals of frequencies outside this band.
Q.59. What is Pass band?
Answer: It is the band or range of frequencies which are allowed to pass through to the output by the
filter without any attenuation.
Q.60. What is Stop band?
Answer: It is the band or range of frequencies which are not allowed to pass through to the output by
the filter.
Q.61. What is transition band?
Answer: Band of frequencies between the pass band and stop band is defined as transition band.
Q.62. What are Passive filters?
Answer: The filter configurations using only passive components such as resistors, capacitors and
inductors are called as passive filters. The passive filters do not use any active device such as FET or
transistors or op-amps. Passive filters have low efficiency and their frequency response characteristics
are not very sharp.
Q.63. What are Active filters?
Answer: The active filters use active devices such as an op-amp or transistors along with the passive
components. Active filters have more sharp frequency response characteristics and many other
advantages over the passive filters.
Q.64. What are the advantages of active filters?
Answer: The advantages of active filters areFlexibility in gain and frequency adjustment.
No loading problem.
Low cost.
No insertion loss.
Interstage isolation and control of impedance.
Small component size.
Use of inductors can be avoided.
Q.65. What is Notch filter?
Answer: The narrow band reject filter is also called as the notch filter. The Q of such filters is higher
than that of the wide band reject filter (Q>10). Such filters therefore have very sharp frequency
response characteristics. They are used for rejecting a single frequency such as 50 Hz power line
frequency hum.
Q.66. What is all pass filter?
Answer: It is a special type of filter which passes all the frequency components of the input signal to
output without any attenuation. But it introduces a predictable phase shift for different frequencies of
the input signal. The all pass filters are also called as delay equalizers or phase correctors.
Q.67. What is zero crossing detector?
Answer: Zero crossing detectors is nothing but the basic comparator circuit with a zero reference
voltage applied to the non inverting terminal. The zero crossing detectors switch its output from one
state to the other every time when the input voltage crosses the zero. Zero crossing detectors are also
known as sine wave to square wave converter.
Q.68. What are the applications of comparator?
Answer: Some of the important applications of a comparator areIn signal generation and transmission.
Automatic control and measurement.
A/D converter.
Level detector and window comparator.
Voltage to frequency converter.
Switching regulator.
Q.69. What is Schmitt trigger or regenerative comparator?
Answer: The Schmitt trigger is a comparator with positive feedback that converts an irregular
waveform to a square or pulse waveform. In Schmitt trigger the input voltage triggers the output every
time it exceeds certain voltage levels called upper threshold and lower threshold.
Q.70. What is Hysteresis or backlash for a comparator?
Answer: The Hysteresis or backlash for a comparator comes into existence when positive feedback is
used. It is defined as the difference between the ‘turn –on’ and ‘turn-off’ input voltage. Due to
hysteresis, the comparator output makes transitions at different points when it changes its state from
low to high and high to low state.
Q.71. What are the effects of hysteresis?
Answer: The effects of Hysteresis areHysteresis improves the noise immunity.
It reduces the response time.
Increased hysteresis will make the sensitivity poor.
Hysteresis reduces the possibility of false triggering produced by noise.
Q.72. What is the use of precision rectifiers?
Answer: It is not possible to use the conventional rectifier circuits to rectify ac voltages below 0.6
volts because the minimum voltage required to forward bias a silicon diode is 0.6 volt. The precision
rectifiers will make it possible to rectify input voltages of very small magnitudes even less than 0.6
volts.
Q.73. Why the diode op-amp combination is referred to as a super diode?
Answer: Placing the diode in the feedback loop eliminates any error that would have otherwise raised
due to the forward voltage drop of the diode. Hence the diode op-amp combination is referred to as a
super diode.
Q.74. What is peak detector?
Answer: The peak detector circuit is one of the non linear applications of op-amp. It is used to detect
and hold the peak value of the input signal. Output of this circuit will follow the peak value of the
input signal and store the maximum value, infinitely.
Q.75. What is sample and hold amplifier?
Answer: The sample and hold amplifier is a circuit which captures the value of input signal
instantaneously and holds it in between the sampling instants.
Q.76. What are the applications of sample and hold circuit?
Answer: The applications of sample and hold circuit areIn the pulse modulation systems.
In the analog to digital converter.
In digital interfacing.
In the analog demultiplexers.
Q.77. What is the difference between clipper and clamper circuits?
Answer: Clipper circuit is a circuit which is used for clipping off (removal) a certain portion of the
signal whereas a clamper circuit is used to shift the dc level of the input signal. It adds a desired dc
level to the ac input voltage.
Q.78.What are hybrid IC’s?
Answer: In hybrid IC’s, passive components (such as resistors and capacitors) and the
interconnections between them are formed on an insulating substrate. Active components such as
transistors and diodes, as well as monolithic integrated circuits are then connected to form a complete
circuit.
Q.79. What is monolithic ICs?
Answer: In monolithic ICs, all active and passive components are fabricated on a single piece of
semiconductor material, usually silicon. These ICs exhibit good thermal stability because all the
components are integrated on the same chip very close to each other.
Q.80. Why square wave generator is called as free running or astable multivibrator?
Answer: If output is not stable then multivibrator is called as astable or free running multivibrator and
since square wave is not stable, therefore square wave generator is called as free running or astable
multivibrator.
Q.81. What is the use of wave shaping circuits?
Answer: Wave shaping circuits are used in digital computers and communications such as TV and FM
receivers.
Q.82. For the analysis of binary weighted resistor network, we use Millman’s theorem what is it?
Answer: Millman’s theorem states that the voltage appearing at any node of resistive network is equal
to the summation of the conductances connected to that node.
Q.83. Define accuracy.
Answer: Accuracy indicates how close the analog output voltage is to its theoretical value. In short it
indicates the deviation of actual output from the theoretical value.
Q.84. What is the disadvantage of dual slope ADC?
Answer: The only major drawback of a dual slope type ADC is its longer conversion time as
compared to other ADCs.
Q.85. What are the applications of analog to digital converter?
Answer: The applications of analog to digital converter areMicroprocessor interfacing.
Data printing and recording.
Control of LED and LCD displays.
In digital voltmeters.
Q.86. What are the applications of digital to analog converter?
Answer: The applications of digital to analog converter areCRT graphics generation.
Microcomputer interfacing.
Programmable power supplies.
Digital filters.
Q.87. What is IC 555 timer?
Answer: The IC 555 timer is a monolithic timing circuit that can produce accurate and highly stable
delays or oscillations. It can be operated as a monostable multivibrator or as an astable multivibrator.
Q.88. Why IC 555 timer is called so?
Answer: IC 55 timer is called so because in this 3 resistors of 5k ohm each are used.
Q.89. What are the features of IC 555 timer?
Answer: The features of IC 555 timer areSupply voltage range is from 5 to 18 volt.
High temperature stability.
Timing can be adjusted from microseconds to hours.
Duty cycle of the output is adjustable.
Output is compatible with CMOS and TTL.
Good timing stability against supply voltage variations.
Low cost.
Q.90. What is monostable multivibrator?
Answer: Monostable multivibrator has only one stable state and the output of the monostable
multivibrator is normally low.
Q.91. What are the applications of a monostable multivibrator?
Answer: A monostable multivibrator can be used in the following applicationsFrequency divider.
Missing pulse detector.
Pulse width modulator.
Q.92. What is astable multivibrator?
Answer: Astable multivibrator is a multivibrator which is not having any stable state. This does not
require any external trigger to change the state of the output. Astable multivibrator is also known as
free running multivibrator.
Q.93. What is duty cycle?
Answer: It is ratio of the time during which the output is high to the total time period.
Q.94. What are the applications of IC 555 timer?
Answer: The applications of IC 555 timer areMonostable and astable multivibrators.
Waveform generators.
Temperature measurement of control.
Voltage regulators.
Analog frequency meters.
Q.95. What is PLL (phase locked loop)?
Answer: The phase locked loop (PLL) is basically a closed loop system. Its application is to lock its
output frequency and phase to the frequency and phase of the input signal.
Q.96. Explain the operation of PLL circuit?
Answer: The operation of PLL circuit is as followsThe PLL circuit is basically used for tracking a
particular system. It synchronizes its output with the input signal (also called as the reference signal)
in terms of frequency and phase. The state of synchronization between the input and output is called
as the locked state. In the locked state the phase error between the input and output is minimum. If the
error tries to creep in, then the PLL system will work automatically to minimize the phase. Thus the
phase of the output signal is locked to that of the input signal. Hence the name phase locked loop.
Q.97. Where the principle of PLL is used?
Answer: The PLL principle is used in applications such as FM demodulation, FSK demodulation,
motor speed control, frequency multiplication and division etc.
Q.98. What is the role of low pass filter in the PLL?
Answer: The low pass filter which is also called as the loop filter is used for removing the difference
frequency components produced at the phase detector output by the unwanted interfering signals.
Q.99. What is lock range and capture range of PLL?
Answer: Lock Range- The lock range of a PLL is the range of the input frequencies about the centre
frequency for which the loop maintains a lock. The lock range is always symmetrically located with
respect to the centre frequency of the voltage controlled oscillator (VCO).
Capture Range- The capture range is the range of input frequencies for which the initially unlocked
loop will lock on an input signal. The capture range is always less than the lock range. The capture
range denotes the transient condition. The capture range also is symmetrically located with respect to
the centre frequency of the voltage controlled oscillator (VCO).
Q.100. What is voltage controlled oscillator (VCO) and what are its use?
Answer: The voltage controlled oscillator is an oscillator, the output frequency of which is
proportional to the dc input voltage. Voltage controlled oscillator is used in frequency modulation,
tone generators and in frequency shift keying where frequency needs to be controlled by means of an
input voltage called control voltage.
Q.1. What do you mean by word ‘digital’?
Answer: Digital means sequence of numbers having finite precision.
Q.2. What is the difference between digital system and analog system?
Answer: A digital system is a combination of devices designed to manipulate logical information
or physical quantities that are represented in digital form that is the quantities can take only discrete
values. Example of digital systems includes digital computers and calculators, digital audio and video
equipments etc.
An analog system contains devices that manipulate physical quantities that are represented in analog
forms. In an analog system, the quantities can vary over a continuous range of values.
Q.3. What is the difference between digital signal and binary signal?
Answer: A digital signal is defined as a signal which has only a finite number of distinct values.
Digital signals are not continuous signal, they are discrete signals.
If a digital signal has only two distinct values, i.e. 0 and 1 then it is called as a binary signal.
Q.4. What are the advantages of digital signal?
Answer: Advantages of digital signal are:
Digital signals can be processed and transmitted more efficiently and reliably than analog signals.
It is possible to store the digital data.
Play back or further processing of the digital data is possible.
The effect of noise (unwanted voltage fluctuations) is less. So digital data does not get corrupt.
Q.5. Define number system.
Answer: A number system defines a set of values used to represent quantity. Examples of number
system are binary, octal, decimal, duodecimal, hexadecimal etc.
Q.6. How the resolution can be increased in floating point
representation of numbers?
Answer: More the number of bits used in fraction part better will be the resolution.
Q.7. What is the size of bit, nibble, byte, word and double word in terms
of number of bits?
Answer: Bit = 1 bits, Nibble = 4 bits, Byte = 8 bits, word = 16 bits, double word = 32 bits.
Q.8. Which code is called as minimum change code and why?
Answer: Gray code is called as minimum change code because it has a very special feature that
only one bit will change, each time the decimal number is incremented.
Q.9. What is a INHIBIT gate?
Answer: It is basically an AND gate with one of its input negated by an inverter. In INHIBIT
operation output is zero when blocking input is one.
Q.10. What is the advantage of fixed point representation compared to
floating point representation?
Answer: Complexity and the cost of algorithm is less in fixed point representation, so it is suitable
for time domain filtering.
Q.11. What is the advantage of floating point representation compared
to fixed point representation?
Answer: Quantization error is small and dynamic range is high for floating point representation so
it is suitable for frequency domain algorithm.
Q.12. What are ASCII codes?
Answer: ASCII is the abbreviation of American Standard Code for Information Interchange. It is a
universally accepted alphanumeric code.
It is used in most computers and other electronic equipment. Most computer keyboards are
standardized with ASCII. When we press a key, the corresponding ASCII code is generated which
goes in to the computer.
ASCII has 128 characters and symbols. We need 7 bits to represent 128 characters. So ASCII is a 7
bit code.
Q.13. Which gate is known as coincidence detector?
Answer: XNOR gate is known as coincidence detector.
Q.14. Which gates are used in parity checking and parity generation of
binary numbers?
Answer: XOR and XNOR gates.
Q.15. What are degenerated functions?
Answer: Degenerated functions are those which generate single operation.
Q.16. What do you mean by sampling jitter?
Answer: Sampling jitter is the error in placement of each block edge controlling the point when
sampling begins.
Q.17. What do you mean by aperture jitter?
Answer: The RMS variation in time of the sampling instant caused by jitter in the sample-hold
command signal is known as aperture jitter. It is associated with sample and hold circuit.
Q.18. What are universal gates?
Answer: Universal gates are those gates with the help of which any gates can be designed. NAND
and NOR gates are universal gates.
Q.19. What is the difference between static logic circuits and dynamic
logic circuits?
Answer: Static logic circuits perform the logical operations with voltage levels while dynamic
logic circuits are based on the capacitive nature of input of MOSFET, working by transferring stored
charges corresponding to logic levels from one circuit to another with the help of clock signals.
Q.20. Why look ahead carry adder is faster than ripple adder?
Answer: Look ahead carry adder is faster; since carry is generated in parallel at all the stages of
addition rather than sequentially as in ripple adder.
Q.21. What will be the number of possible combinations with n
variables?
Answer: The number of possible combinations with n variables is 2n.
Q.22. What will be the number of possible Boolean function with n
variables?
Answer: The number of possible Boolean function with n variables is 22n.
Q.23. What is the difference between compiler and interpreter?
Answer: Compiler- Programs that converts English like words of a high level language into the
machine language of a computer. It needs a given program called source code and translates the
program into the machine language, called object code.
Interpreter- It translates one statement at a time from a source code to an object code.
Q.24. What is the difference between simulator and emulator?
Answer: Simulator is just software which acts like hardware inside which we can see all electronic
components and connect them in different manner to get the output while emulator is actual hardware.
Q.25. What is the difference between assembler and cross assembler?
Answer: Assembler- The program that translates an assembly language program from
mnemonics to the binary machine code of the computer is called Assembler.
Cross Assembler- The program that translates the mnemonics of a particular microprocessor
into the mnemonics of other microprocessor is called a Cross Assembler.
Q.26. How microprocessor works without internal memory?
Answer: Microprocessor consists of address, data and control buses with some internal registers to
process the task through external memory.
Q.27. Define memory word.
Answer: Memory word is a group of bits in a memory that represents instructions of some type.
For example, a register consisting of 8 flip flops can be used as a memory for storing an 8 bit word.
Q.28. What is direct memory access (DMA)?
Answer: DMA interface is used for transferring data directly between an external device and memory.
The bus buffers in the microprocessor are disabled and go into a high impedance state during DMA
transfer.
Q.29. What is PLD?
Answer: Programmable logic device (PLD) is an IC that contains a large number of interconnected
logic functions. The user can program the IC for a specific function by selective breaking the
appropriate interconnections.
Q.30. Define PAL and PLA.
Answer: Programmable array logic (PAL) - It is a class of programmable logic
devices. Its AND array is programmable while its OR array is hard wired.
Programmable logic array (PLA) - It is a class of programmable logic devices. Both its
AND and OR arrays are programmable. It is also called as field programmable logic array (FLPA).
Q.31. What are the requirements of a logic family? Answer: The requirements
of a logic family arePropagation delay time is minimum.
Losses should be minimum.
It should be highly immune to noise.
The size should be minimum.
Q.32. What are the characteristics of Resistor Transistor logic (RTL)?
Answer: The characteristics of Resistor Transistor logic (RTL)areVery much compatible with
other logic families.
It is very economical. Its design is easy.
It has poor noise immunity. Its speed is low.
Power dissipation is low.
It has low threshold and fan out is also less.
Q.33. What are the characteristics of Diode Transistor logic (DTL)?
Answer: The characteristics of Diode Transistor logic (DTL) areIn this transistor acts as inverting
amplifier. It possesses high speed.
It has low power dissipation. Logic is performed by diodes. Noise immunity and fan out is poor.
Q.34. What are the characteristics of Integrated Injection logic (IIL)?
Answer: The characteristics of Integrated Injection logic (IIL) areIts power consumption is low. It
has only one output per gate. It has good packing density. Speed is low.
Noise margin is poor. One transistor is grown for each gate.
Q.35. What are the characteristics of Transistor Transistor logic (TTL)?
Answer: The characteristics of Transistor Transistor logic (TTL) areIt has good current capability.
It is very economical. Its switching speed is good.
It is compatible with DTL and CMOS.
Schottky type has very high switching speed and low power consumption.
Q.36. What are the characteristics of Emitter Coupled logic (ECL)?
Answer: The characteristics of Emitter Coupled logic (ECL) areIt has low noise.
It has got fastest speed among all logic devices. It needs good heat sinking.
Its cost is high.
Both normal and inverted outputs are obtained. Its power consumption is high.
Q.37. What are the characteristics of Metal Oxide Semiconductor logic
(MOS)? Answer: The characteristics of Metal Oxide Semiconductor logic (MOS) are
MOS family uses negative logic for its operation.
It is very economical.
It is easier to make large complex chips. It needs both positive and negative supplies. Its speed is very
low.
Q.38. What are the characteristics of complementary metal oxide
semiconductor (CMOS)? Answer: The characteristics of complementary metal oxide
semiconductor (CMOS) areNoise margin is high. Its power dissipation is very low. Area used is more
than MOS. Processing is very complicated. Its speed is very low.
Q.39. What do you mean by current hogging and which logic family has
this problem?
Answer: Current hogging problem is due to different characteristics of transistor. Owing to these
differences, the saturation voltages of the load transistors may be different. So when one transistor
enters into saturation it will not allow other transistors to enter saturation and will take whole of the
current supplied from the driver gate. This is known as current hogging. DCTL has the problem of
current hogging.
Q.40. What is Fanout?
Answer: It is the maximum number of similar logic gate input that can be driven by a logic gate
output without affecting the logic gate performance. High fanout is advantageous because it reduces
the need for additional drivers to drive more gates.
Q.41. What are combinational circuits?
Answer: A combinational circuit is a logic circuit the output of which depends only on the
combination of the inputs. The output does not depend on the past values of inputs or outputs. Hence
combinational circuits do not require any memory.
Q.42. What is magnitude comparator?
Answer: A magnitude comparator is a combinational circuit that compares two numbers A and B
and determines their relative magnitudes. The outcome of comparison is specified by three variables
that indicates whether A>B, A<B or A=B.
Q.43. What is the range of temperature over which logic families works
satisfactorily? Answer:The temperature range is 0 to 70 ∘ c.
Q.44. Which saturated logic family is suitable for large scale integration
(LSI)?
Answer: Integrated Injection logic (IIL) is the only saturated bipolar logic suitable for large scale
integration because of small silicon chip area required and low power consumption.
Q.45. What is the use of schottky TTL?
Answer: Schottky TTL removes the storage time of transistors by preventing them from going into
saturation. This version increases the speed of operation without an excessive increase in power
dissipation. This is the most popular version in new designs.
Q.46. What is the advantage of using open collector output in TTL logic
gates rather than using totem pole
output?
Answer: With Totem pole output wired-And operation is not possible in TTL gates which may
lead to transistor burning. With open collector output wired-AND operation is possible.
Q.47. What are sequential circuits?
Answer: In the sequential circuit, the timing parameter comes into picture. The output of a
sequential circuit depends on the present time inputs, the previous output and the sequence in which
the inputs are applied. In order to provide the previous input or output, a memory element is required
to be used. Thus a sequential circuit needs a memory element.
Q.48. How will you define the present state and next state of sequential
circuit?
Answer: Present state- The data stored by the memory element at any given instant of time
is called as the present state of the sequential circuit.
Next state- The combinational circuit operates on the external inputs and the present state to
produce new outputs. Some of these new outputs are stored in the memory element and called as the
next state of the sequential circuit.
Q.49. Define clock skew.
Answer: Clock skew is defined as the difference in time between the clock edges arriving at a pair
of clock inputs. Q.50. What is a flip flop?
Answer: Flip flop is also known as the basic digital memory circuit or in other words it is the basic
memory element. It has two stable states namely logic 1 state and logic 0 state. It can store one bit of
digital information therefore it is also called as 1-bit memory cell. We can design it by using NOR
gates or NAND gates.
Q.51. What is the difference between Flip flop and Latch?
Answer: While gates had to be built directly from transistors, Latches can be built from gates and
Flip flops can be built from latches. This fact will make it somewhat easier to understand Latches and
Flip flops.
The difference between them are:
Latch is a combinational logic device while Flip flop is a sequential device.
Flip flop is a synchronous device while Latch is asynchronous device. Latch does not have a clock
signal whereas a Flip flop always does. Latch is faster than Flip flop.
Q.52. A Flip flop is which type of Multivibrator: Astable, Monostable or
Bistable?
Answer: A Flip flop is a bistable multivibrator because it has two stable states logic 1 state and
logic 0 state. Q.53. What is the setup time and hold time in Flip flop?
Answer: Setup time is the minimum time required to keep input at proper level before applying
clock and hold time is the minimum time required to keep input at same level after applying clock.
Q.54. What is Master Slave Flip flop?
Answer: The master slave flip flop eliminates all the timing problems by using two SR Flip flops
connected together in series configuration. One flip flop acts as the ‘Master’ circuit, which triggers on
the leading edge of the clock pulse while the other acts as the ‘Slave’ circuit, which triggers on the
falling edge of the clock pulse. This results in the two sections, the master section and the slave
section being enabled during opposite half-cycles of the clock signal. In this the output of the master
will be transferred to the output of slave.
Q.55. What is Race around condition?
Answer: Race around condition occurs in JK flip flop and T flip flop to store 2-bits of information.
Race around condition always arises in asynchronous circuits.
Q.56. Which flip flop is called as universal flip flop?
Answer: JK flip flop is called as universal flip flop because the flip flops like D-FFs, SR-FFs and
T-FF can be derived from it.
Q.57. Explain what are preset and clear inputs of flip flops?
Answer: In the flip flops, when the power switch is turned on, the state of outputs is uncertain. But
this uncertainty cannot be tolerated in certain applications. In some applications it is necessary to
initially set or reset the flip flops.
This can be practically achieved by adding two more inputs to a flip flop, called preset (PR) and Clear
(CLR) inputs. These inputs are called as direct or asynchronous inputs because we can apply them any
time between clock pulses without thinking about their synchronization with the clock.
Q.58. What are the applications of flip flops? Answer: The important
applications of the flip flops areElimination of keyboard debounce.
As a memory element. In various types of registers. In counters/timers.
As a delay element.
Q.59. What is the difference between synchronous and asynchronous
sequential circuits?
Answer: In the synchronous sequential circuits, the contents of memory elements can be changed
only at rising or falling edges of clock signal while in the asynchronous sequential circuit, the contents
of memory elements can be changed at any instant of time.
Q.60. What is the difference between Moore and Mealy circuit?
Answer: The synchronous sequential circuit is called as a Moore circuit if the output depends only on
the present state of flip flops.
The circuit is called as a Mealy circuit if the output is dependent on the present state of flip flops and
the external inputs.
Q.61. What are Registers?
Answer: To increase the storage capacity in terms of number of bits, we have to use a group of flip
flops. Such a group of flip flops is known as Register. The n-bit register will consist of ‘n’ number of
flip flops and it is capable of storing an ‘n’ bit word.
Q.62. How Registers can be classified?
Answer: Registers are classified based on the way in which data are entered and taken out from a
register. There are four possible modes as followsSerial in serial out (SISO). Serial in parallel out
(SIPO). Parallel in serial out (PISO). Parallel in parallel out ( PIPO).
Q.63. What are shift registers?
Answer: The binary data in a register can be moved within the register from one flip flop to the
other or outside it with application of clock pulses. The registers that allow such data transfers are
called as shift registers. Shift registers are used for data storage, data transfer and certain arithmetic
and logic operations.
Q.64. What are Bidirectional shift register?
Answer: If a binary number is shifted left by one position then it is equivalent to multiplying the
original number by 2. Similarly if a binary number is shifted right by one position then it is equivalent
to dividing the original number by 2.
Hence if we want to use the shift register to multiply and divide the given binary number, then we
should be able to move the data in either left or right direction. Such a register is called as a
Bidirectional register.
Q.65. What are the applications of shift registers? Answer: The common
applications of a shift register areFor temporary data storage.
For multiplication and division.
As a delay line.
Serial to parallel converter. Parallel to serial converter.
Twisted ring counter or Johnson counter.
Q.66. Which shift register is used to convert temporal code into spatial
code and vice versa?
Answer: To convert temporal code into spatial code, we use SIPO register while to convert spatial
code to temporal code , we use PISO register.
Q.67. What are counters?
Answer: The digital circuit used for counting pulses is known as counter. It is a sequential circuit.
Counters are the widest application of flip flops. It is a group of flip flops with a clock signal applied.
Counters count the number of clock pulses. Hence with some modifications it can be used for
measuring frequency or time period.
Q.68. What is the difference between synchronous and asynchronous or
ripple counters?
Answer: Synchronous counters- In synchronous counters all the flip flops receive the
external clock pulse simultaneously. Ring counter and Johnson counter are the examples of
synchronous counters.
Asynchronous or ripple counters- For these counters the external clock signal is applied
to one flip flop and then the output of preceding flip flop is connected to the clock of next flip flop.
Q.69. What are Glitches?
Answer: Glitch is a short duration pulse or spike that appears in the outputs of a counter with mod
number less than 2n.
Glitches are the appearance of spikes in the output when the input changes. It is due to different turn
on and turn off times of transistors. Glitches are present in asynchronous counters.
Q.70. What is MOD number?
Answer: The MOD number indicates the number of states in counting sequence. It indicates the
frequency division obtained from the last flip flop.
Q.71. What is lock out condition in counters?
Answer: A counter is supposed to follow the sequence of only the desired states. If it enters into an
unused or unwanted state, then it is expected to return back to a desired state. Instead if the next state
of an unwanted state is again an unwanted state then the counter is said to be in the lockout
conditions.
Q.72. What are the problems faced by the Ripple counters?
Answer: The two major problems associated with the Ripple counters are as followsGeneration of
unwanted short duration pulses called glitch.
Propagation delay.
Q.73. What is Bushless circuit?
Answer: The sequential circuit which enters into the lockout condition is called as the Bushless
circuit. Q.74. What are the applications of counters?
Answer: Some of the applications of counters areIn digital clock.
In the frequency counters. In time measurement. In digital voltmeters.
In the counter type A to D converter. In the digital triangular wave generator. In the frequency divider
circuits.
Q.75. What are the characteristics of Johnson counter or switch tail ring
counter?
Answer: The characteristics of Johnson counter or switch tail ring counter areWith n flip flops
there are 2n states in this counter.
With n flip flops the maximum count by this counter is ( 2n -1 ).
In normal Johnson counter, with n flip flops and the input frequency is ‘f’ then output frequency of
flip-flops is “f/2n”.
In Johnson counter to decode each state one two input AND or NOR gate is used. Lockout may occur
when counter enter into unused state.
Q.76. What are the characteristics of Ring counter? Answer: The
characteristics of Ring counter areWith n flip flops, there are n-states present in ring counter.
With n flip flops, maximum count possible in Ring counter is (2n-1). Decoding is very easy in Ring
counter, because there is no aid of extra circuit.
Q.77. Which flip flop is free from race around problem? Answer: Master
slave flip flop is free from race around problem. Q.78. What is the use of T flip flop?
Answer: T flip flop is commonly used as digital counter and frequency divider. Q.79. What is
the output frequency of T flip flop?
Answer: The frequency is halved at the output of T flip flop.
Q.80. Which diode is used in HTL logic circuit to increase noise
immunity?
Answer: HTL possesses highest noise immunity. In HTL logic circuit zener diode is used in place
of normal diode to increase noise immunity.
Q.81. What are the advantages of semiconductor memory?
Answer: Earlier the memory used to be of magnetic type. But now days we use semiconductor
memories of various types and size due to some of the advantages of semiconductor memories such
asSmall size.
High speed. Better reliability. Low cost.
Ease of expansion of memory size.
Q.82. What are the parameters on which memories can be classified?
Answer: The parameters used as basis of classification are as followsPrinciple of operation.
Physical characteristics. Mode of access.
Technology used for fabrication.
Q.83. What is the difference between volatile memory and non volatile
memory?
Answer: Volatile memory- If the information stored in a memory chip is lost when the
electrical power is switched OFF, then the memory is called as volatile memory. RAM is a volatile
memory.
Non volatile memory- If the information once stored in memory chip does not change unless
altered deliberately are called as non volatile memory. Such memories can hold the information even
after switching off the power supply. Read only memories (ROM’s) of all types are examples of non
volatile memory.
Q.84. Why Flash type of memories are preferred over EEPROM?
Answer: EEPROM memories are slow as compared to flash memories because in EEPROM, a
single read or write of memory location can be done in single operation whereas in flash memory
multiple memory locations can be erased or written in one programming operation.
Q.85. What is Random access memory (RAM)?
Answer: Random access memory is also called as read write memory (RWM). The memory
locations in this type of memory are organized in such a way that the access time required for
accessing any location is the same. This is the advantage of using RAM over the sequential memories.
RAMs can also be further classified into two types namely the static RAM and dynamic RAM. RAMs
can be fabricated using either bipolar technology or unipolar technology.
Q.86. What are Read only memories (ROM)?
Answer: These memories are designed only for reading the information which is already stored on
them. The users cannot write any new information on them. These are similar to the prerecorded
cassettes.
A manufacturer or someone else can write ROMs, but the writing process is much more complicated
as compared to that of a RAM. ROM is used to store fixed information’s such as look up tables,
instructions, fixed data etc.
Q.87. What is CAM?
Answer: CAM is called as content accessible memories. It is a special type of RAM. It can
perform association operation in addition to the read/write operations performed by the conventional
memories.
Q.88. What are the characteristics of Flash memory? Answer: The
characteristics of Flash memory are
It is a special type of RAM.
It is a non volatile memory which is powered continuously.
The erasing and programming of this memory takes place block by block.
Due to this process, the flash memories are faster than EEPROMs which erase and write new data at
byte level.
Important features of a flash memory are high speed, low operating voltages. Low power
consumption and durability.
Q.89. What are Hazards?
Answer: The term specifies the unwanted switching transients or false outputs or glitches which
appear at the output of a circuit. These transient false outputs are due to finite propagation delay times
of the components along different paths within the network.
Q.90. What are parity bits and what is its use?
Answer: A parity bit is an additional bit which is added to a binary word in order to make the
number of 1’s in the new word formed, even (even parity) or odd (odd parity). Parity bits are added in
order to detect any error occurred in the process of transmission.
Q.91. What do you mean by cross compiler?
Answer: A program runs on one machine and executes on another is known as cross compiler.
Q.92. What is the difference between parallel port and serial port?
Answer: Parallel ports are easy to program and faster than serial port. But main disadvantage is
that it needs more number of transmission lines so they are used for long distance communication.
Q.93. What is the main difference between Harvard architecture and
Van-Newmen architecture of computer?
Answer: In Harvard architecture model, separate data and instruction memory was used which
makes it faster whereas in Van-newmen architecture, model instructions and data were stored in
single memory. So this model was simple but slow.
Q.94. How many addressing modes are there in 8085 microprocessor?
Answer: The addressing modes of 8085 microprocessor areDirect addressing. Register addressing.
Register indirect addressing. Immediate addressing. Implicit addressing.
Q.95. Which is the faster addressing mode in 8085 microprocessor?
Answer: Register indirect addressing mode is fastest.
Q.96. What do you mean by jitter?
Answer: The short term variations of a signal with respect to its ideal position in time. It is also
defined as variation of clock period from edge to edge.
Q.97. What is the difference between bit, nibble, byte and word?
Answer: A bit is a single binary digit, a nibble is a combination of 4 binary digits, a byte is a
combination of 8 binary digits while a word is made up of several bytes.
Q.98. Which interrupts are level triggering interrupts in 8085
microprocessor? Answer: RST 5.5 and RST 6.5 are level triggering interrupts.
Q.99. Is it possible to alter the instruction set of a microprocessor?
Answer: No, instruction set of a microprocessor cannot be altered because it is stored in its read
only memory at the time of chip manufacturing.
Q.100. Which segment can be used to sore interrupt and subroutine
return address in 8086 microprocessor? Answer: Stack segment is used to sore
interrupt and subroutine return address in 8086 microprocessor.
ELECTRONIC DEVICES INTERVIEW QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
Q.1. What are the characteristics of semiconductor? Answer: The
characteristics of semiconductor are as followsSemiconductors have negative temperature coefficient
of resistance.
At very low temperatures, the resistivity of semiconductors matches with that of insulators. They
don’t follow ohms law.
The electrical conductivity is very much affected by even a very minute amount of other substances
called impurities.
Q.2. What is the difference between direct and indirect band gap
semiconductors?
Answer: In direct band gap semiconductor minimum of conduction band and maximum of valence
band occurs for same K value (K is known as wave vector or propagation constant) while in indirect
band gap semiconductors the minimum of conduction band and maximum of valence band occurs for
different values of K. Direct band gap semiconductors are GaAs, GaSb, ZnS etc whereas Si and Ge
are indirect band gap semiconductors.
Q.3. Define Fermi level.
Answer: Fermi level in a semiconductor can be defined as the maximum energy that an electron in
an semiconductor have at zero degree Kelvin.
Q.4. What is a degenerate semiconductor?
Answer: A heavily doped semiconductor, in which the Fermi level lies in the conduction or
valence band so that material behaves as a metal is known as degenerate semiconductor.
Q.5. What will be the direction of electrons and holes when an electric
field is applied across the semiconductor?
Answer: when an electric field is applied across the semiconductor, direction of holes is same as
the direction of electric field and direction of electrons is opposite to that of electric field.
Q.6. What is recombination and also tell what is used in semiconductor
to increase the recombination rate?
Answer: Recombination is a process of merging a free electron and hole. Gold is used in
semiconductor to increase the recombination rate.
Q.7. What will be the effect on the conductivity of metals, silicon and
germanium semiconductor upon per degree rise in temperature?
Answer: Conductivity of metals is decreased by 0.4% per degree rise in temperature. Conductivity
of silicon semiconductor is increased by 8% per degree rise in temperature. Conductivity of
germanium semiconductor is increased by 6% per degree rise in temperature.
Q.8. What is mass action law?
Answer: Under thermal equilibrium, the product of concentration of free electrons (n) and the
concentration of holes (p) is constant and is independent of the amount of doping by donor and
acceptor impurities. This is known as mass action law. Thus, n.p = ni2. Where ni is the intrinsic
concentration and is a function of temperature.
Q.9. How electrons and holes will move when an electric field is applied
to an intrinsic semiconductor from left to right?
Answer: Electrons move to the left while holes drift to the left. Q.10. What is Hall effect
and its use?
Answer: When a specimen (metal or semiconductor) carrying a current ‘I’ is placed in a transverse
magnetic field ‘B’, then an electric field ‘E’ is induced in the direction perpendicular to both ‘I’ and
‘B’. This phenomenon is called Hall effect. The Hall effect may be used forWhether a semiconductor
is N type or P type.
Finding the carrier concentration.
In calculating the mobility by measuring the conductivity.
Q.11. Which band gap materials are used for the fabrication of Laser?
Answer: Direct band gap materials having high carrier life time are used for fabrication of laser.
Q.12. Which type of semiconductor is not applicable to Einstein
formula?
Answer: Degenerate semiconductors are not applicable to Einstein formula because in this type of
semiconductor the Fermi level is with-in the valence band and conduction band.
Q.13. What are the properties of an ideal diode?
Answer: An ideal diode is a two terminal device which has the following propertiesConducts with
zero resistance when forward biased.
Offers an infinite resistance when reverse biased.
Q.14. What is the difference between static and dynamic resistance of a
diode?
Answer: Static resistance is defined as the ratio of dc voltage across the diode to the dc current
flowing through it.
The dynamic or ac resistance of a diode at a particular dc voltage is defined as the reciprocal of the
slope of the forward characteristics.
Q.15. What is the difference between drift current and diffusion
current?
Answer: Drift current is the current which flows due to electric field applied whereas diffusion
current flows due to concentration gradient.
Q.16. When consider together, what will be the combination when an
ideal constant voltage source is connected in series with an ideal
constant current source?
Answer: The combination will be a constant current source. Q.17. What is the
difference between transducer and sensor?
Answer: In transducer the input is some physical quantity like temperature, water level etc and
output is either some electrical signal or may be some other physical quantity while in sensor the
input may be a physical quantity or electrical signal while output is always electrical quantity.
Q.18. Which diode capacitance is higher in forward and reverse biased?
Answer: In forward biased diffusion capacitance is higher than transition capacitance whereas in
reverse biased transition capacitance is higher than diffusion capacitance.
Q.19. What is zener breakdown?
Answer: When the PN junction diode is heavily doped the depletion layer is very thin, therefore a
small reverse potential difference causes a high electric field at the junction. When field becomes
sufficiently high, it may break the covalent bonds and reduce new electron hole pairs. Then the
reverse current increases rapidly and the breakdown is known as zener breakdown.
Q.20. What is Avalanche breakdown?
Answer: The Avalanche breakdown occurs in those junctions which are lightly doped (means wide
depletion layer). In
this case, the minority carriers gain a large amount of kinetic energy from the applied reverse voltage
to collide with the covalent bonds of the atom.
So due to head on collision between the covalent bonds and the minority carriers, bonds are broken
and a new pairs of electrons and holes are generated. This process will continue and number of free
electrons and holes are generated and therefore produces a rapid multiplication of reverse current.
This phenomenon is known as Avalanche breakdown.
Q.21. What are the applications of zener diode? Answer: The applications of
zener diode areAs a voltage regulator.
As a fixed reference voltage in transistor biasing. As a limiter in wave shaping circuits.
For a meter protection.
Q.22. What is the temperature coefficient of resistance for zener and
Avalanche diode?
Answer: Temperature coefficient of resistance of zener diode is negative whereas the temperature
coefficient of resistance of Avalanche diode is positive.
Q.23. Whether diode is a linear or non-linear device? Answer: A diode is a
non-linear device.
Q.24. Which diode is used to generate harmonics? Answer: Step recovery
diode is used to generate harmonics. Q.25. What Einstein’s equation relates?
Answer: Einstein’s equation relates diffusion constant with mobility. Q.26. What is the
difference between thermistor and sensistors?
Answer: Thermistor is a bulk semiconductor device which has negative temperature coefficient of
resistivity i.e., the resistance decreases exponentially with increasing temperature whereas sensistors
is a heavily doped bulk semiconductor which has positive temperature coefficient of resistance
because heavily doped semiconductor acquires the properties of a metal.
Q.27. Does the thickness of the depletion region ever become zero as
the applied forward biased to a p-n junction is increased?
Answer: No because as the applied voltage is increased, less and less voltage is dropped across it
due to a progressive fall in its resistance.
Q.28. What is photo diode?
Answer: Photo diode is a two terminal device which operates on reverse bias. It has a small
transparent window which allows light to strike the PN junction. When there is a dark current it
means no radiation.
In reverse bias condition in the absence of light the reverse current through diode is very small, but as
soon as light is made to fall on the junction a large amount of current flows and the diode is forward
biased.
Q.29. What are the applications of photo diode? Answer: Some important
applications arePhoto detection. Demodulation. Logic circuits.
Switching.
Optical communication system
Photo voltaic cell is a special application of photo diode.
Q.30. What is the difference between LED and PN junction diode?
Answer: PN junction which emits light when forward biased are called light emitting diode. Only
difference between LED and PN junction diode is of the material used for manufacturing LEDs.
Examples areGallium arsenide (GaAs) emits infrared radiation.
Gallium arsenide phosphide (GaAsP) emits red or yellow light. Gallium phosphide (GaP) emits red or
green light.
Gallium nitride emits blue light.
Q.31. What is schottky diode?
Answer: It is formed by joining a doped semiconductor region with a metal such as gold, silver or
platinum. Few important points about schottky diode areSchottky diode is a metal to semiconductor
junction. Schottky diode only operates with majority carriers. Semiconductor used is usually N type.
It does not have any charge storage, therefore it is very fast. Semiconductor region is lightly doped.
Q.32. What is the use of Rectifier circuit?
Answer: Rectifier circuit is used to convert an ac voltage into dc voltage.
Q.33. What is the output frequency of full wave rectifier as compared to
half wave rectifier? Answer: The output frequency of the full wave rectifier will be
doubled as compared to half wave rectifier. Q.34. What is transistor?
Answer: A transistor is a three layer semiconductor device consisting of either two ‘n’ and one ‘p’
layer of material or two ‘p’ and one ‘n’ type layer of material to form npn and pnp transistor
respectively.
The word ‘TRANSISTOR’ means transfer + resistor. It means transfer of signal from low resistance
circuit to a high resistance circuit i.e, from input to output.
A transistor has a very important property that it can raise the strength of a weak signal, which is
called amplification.
Q.35. Can any device acts as an amplifier?
Answer: Since no device can generate energy, so no one can act as an amplifier. Actually all the
amplifying devices works as an energy converter.
Q.36. What is the difference between amplifier and transformer?
Answer: An amplifier changes the power level of a signal by changing either current or voltage or
both whereas in a transformer if the voltage increases the current decreases and vice-versa. No change
in the power level of the signal takes place. So we can say that transformer cannot be treated as an
amplifier.
Q.37. What is Early effect or base width modulation effect in BJT?
Answer: In a BJT area of collector is largest while that of base is smallest so when reverse bias is
applied to collector
base junction, the depletion layer widens more in lightly doped base region than in collector region. A
stage is reached when reverse bias voltage is made so large that effective base width becomes
negligible and electrons flow directly from collector to emitter. This is known as Early effect or base
width modulation effect in BJT.
Q.38. Which transistor configuration is most widely used and its
application?
Answer: Common emitter configuration is most widely used configuration because it provides
voltage as well as current gain. CE configuration is used in audio frequency applications.
Q.39. What is the application of common base configuration?
Answer: Common base (CB) configuration is used for high frequency applications. Q.40.
What is the application of common collector (CC) configuration?
Answer: Because of high input resistance and low output resistance, this circuit is used for
impedance matching. Q.41. What are the effects of fixed emitter bias
configuration circuit?
Answer: When emitter resistance R E is introduced in fixed bias circuit is called emitter bias. It’s
effects areIt improves stability by negative feedback.
Input impedance increases due to resistance RE in the emitter. Emitter bias circuit is less sensitive for
variation in β.
Q.42. What is thermal runaway?
Answer: Because of I2R losses, temperature of transistor increases which in turn further increases
IC. This increase in IC will further increase the temperature and this process is cumulative which
ultimately lead to very high value of IC at very high temperature. Because of this high temperature
thermal breakdown in transistor is observed which is called thermal runaway.
To avoid the thermal runaway, VCE < VCC / 2.
Q.43. Is it possible to measure the built in potential of a PN junction
with the help of voltmeter?
Answer: Voltmeter cannot be used for measurement because the contact potential established at
the points of connection of the voltmeter will give wrong measurements.
Q.44. What are the advantages of FET over conventional transistors?
Answer: The advantages of FET over conventional transistors are as followsThe FET is a unipolar
device, depending only upon majority carriers. Vacuum tube is also an example of unipolar device.
The conventional transistor is a bipolar device (operation depends on both the majority and minority
carriers).
FET has high input resistance. Thus , FET is a voltage controlled device like a vacuum tube and not
current controlled like a conventional transistor.
FET is less noisy than a vacuum tube or bipolar transistor because no junctions are present like BJT.
so, the partition noise is absent.
FET is relatively less affected by radiation. It has better thermal stability.
In integrated form, the fabrication of FET is simpler and it occupies less space. FET has smaller size,
longer life and high efficiency.
FET has very high power gain.
Q.45. What are the disadvantages of FET over conventional transistor?
Answer: The disadvantages of FET over conventional transistor are as followsTransconductance is
low and hence the voltage gain is low. In case of transistor, Transconductance is high, so
the voltage gain is high.
They are more costly than junction transistors. FET has relatively small gain bandwidth product.
Q.46. Many FET devices can be connected in parallel increase the
current and power capability. Is the same true for BJT’s?
Answer: No, it is not possible in BJT’s because the collector current in a BJT increases rapidly
with temperature leading to second breakdown.
Q.47. Describe how an FET can be used as a voltage variable resistor
(VVR)?
Answer: In most of the linear applications of FET the device is operated in the constant current
portion of its output characteristics that is in saturation region. FET can also be used in the region
before pinch-off VDS is small. FET when used in region before pinch-off, it works as variable
resistance device i.e., the channel resistance is controlled by the gate bias voltage (VGS). In such an
application the FET is referred as voltage variable or voltage dependent resistor.
Q.48. Why n-channel MOSFETS are preferred over p-channel MOSFETS
in integrated circuits?
Answer: The n-channel MOSFETS are preferred over p-channel MOSFETS in integrated circuits
due o following reasonsNMOS has faster operation than PMOS because the mobility of electrons is
greater than mobility of holes. P-channel MOSFETS are very bulky and hence difficult to fabricate in
integrated circuits.
N-channel MOSFETs is equally suitable for both depletion and enhancement mode operation while P-
channel MOSFET is suitable only for enhancement mode operation.
N-channel MOSFETs have higher packing density than that of p-channel MOSFETs.
Q.49. What is channel length modulation?
Answer: Channel length modulation is present in MOSFET and it is similar to early effect in BJT.
When the drain voltage is increased beyond the onset of saturation, the pinch-off point begins to shift
towards the source. This displacement is called as channel length modulation.
Q.50. Which type of amplifier has feedback BJT or FE or both?
Answer: Due to component hre there is feedback from output to input in BJT while there is no
feedback in FET. Q.51. What is the application of voltage variable resistor
(VVR)?
Answer: The VVR can be used to vary the voltage gain (AV) of a multistage amplifier as the
signal level is increased. This action is called “Automatic gain control (AGC)”.
Q.52. Why are enhancement mode MOSFETs preferred over the
depletion mode ones in the fabrication of integrated circuits?
Answer: The enhancement mode MOSFETs preferred over the depletion mode ones in the
fabrication of integrated circuits due to some of the following reasonsThe enhancement FET is very
popular in MOS systems because it is much easier to produce than the depletion type device.
Most of the contaminants in ICs fabrications are mobile ions which are positively charged and are
trapped in the oxide layer (sio2-layer) between the gate and substrate.
As we know in an enhancement mode MOSFETs the gate is normally positive with respect to the
substrate and
hence the positively charged contaminants collect along the interface between the sio2-layer and the
Si substrate.
The positive charge from this layer of ions attracts free electrons in the channel which tends to make
the
transistor turn ON prematurely.
Q.53. In addition to avoiding damage from heat, MOSFET and MOS ICs
has to be protected from which important factor?
Answer: MOSFET and MOS ICs have to be protected from electrostatic charge. This is the
discharge of the static voltage stored in the capacitance of out body which occurs when we pick up a
device. This voltage can cause a breakdown of the gate dielectric, damaging the device.
Q.54. What is the use of sio2-layer in an integrated circuit? Answer: The s
io2-layer is used or providing isolation.
Q.55. Can hybrid π-model of a transistor can be reduced to its h-
parameter model and vice-versa?
Answer: Yes because hybrid π and h-parameter models are inter-related as both of them describe
the same transistor. Q.56. Why a bipolar junction transistor has high gain,
high emitter efficiency and high speed?
Answer: A bipolar junction transistor has high gain, high emitter efficiency and high speed
because the transistor has heavy emitter doping and narrow base width.
Q.57. What are the advantages of ICs over discrete assembly? Answer:
The advantages of ICs over discrete assembly are as followsLow cost (due to large quantities
processed). Small size.
High reliability (all components are fabricated simultaneously, and there are no soldered joints).
Improved performance (because of the low cost, more complex circuitry may be used to obtain better
functional characteristics).
Q.58. What are the disadvantages of ICs over discrete assembly?
Answer: The disadvantages of ICs over discrete assembly are as followsA restricted range of
values exists for resistors and capacitors.
Poor tolerances are obtained in fabricating resistors and capacitors of specific magnitudes. The
technology is very costly for small quantity production.
No practical inductors or transformers can be integrated.
Q.59. How can you change an n-channel depletion mode MOSFET into
an enhancement mode?
Answer: This change can be done by applying backgate bias that is by applying few volts to the p-
substrate we can shift the threshold voltage for enhancement mode operation. This method requires an
extra power supply.
Q.60. How mobility of the minority carriers can be determined?
Answer: The mobility of the minority carriers can be determined by Haynes-Shockley experiment.
Q.61. In switching diode fabrication which dopant is introduced into
silicon which introduces additional trap levels in the material thereby
reducing the mean life time of carriers?
Answer: Gold is used.
Q.62. Why the light emitting diode (LED) emits light of a particular
color?
Answer: Light emitting diode (LED) emits light of a particular color because the band gap of the
semiconductor material used in the fabrication of the diode is equal to the energy of the light photon.
Q.63. Between CMOS and bipolar switching circuits, which one has
faster switching speed and why?
Answer: In CMOS and bipolar switching circuit, bipolar switching circuit has faster switching
speed, in case of CMOS due to charging and discharging of MOS capacitor delays are more.
Q.64. What are the advantages of CMOS inverter as the basic building
block of VLSI circuit? Answer: The advantages of CMOS inverter as the basic building
block of VLSI circuit are as followsDue to smaller components, packing density of CMOS devices is
very high so they are very useful in designing
of VLSI circuits.
In case of both logic ‘1’ or ‘0’ resistance offered by CMOS inverters is very high, so power
dissipation is very less.
Manufacturing of CMOS inverter circuits is much simpler.
Fan out of VLSI circuit designed using CMOS inverter is very high compare to bipolar device.
Q.65. What are power amplifiers?
Answer: The power amplifiers are large signal amplifiers which raise the power level of the
signals. The power amplifier may also be defined as a device which converts dc power to ac power
and whose action is controlled by the input signal.
Q.66. What are class A power amplifiers?
Answer: When the collector current flows at all times during the full cycle of the input signal, the
power amplifier is known as class A power amplifiers.
Q.67. What are class B power amplifiers?
Answer: When the collector current flows only during the positive half cycle of the input signal,
the power amplifier is known as class B power amplifiers.
Q.68. What are class C power amplifiers?
Answer: When the collector current flows for less than half cycle of the input signal, the power
amplifier is known as class C power amplifiers.
Q.69. Which amplifier suffers from cross over distortion and how it can
be minimize?
Answer: The class B amplifier suffers from cross over distortion due to non-linearity in the input
characteristics. To minimize the cross over distortion, the transistor should operate in class AB mode.
In this mode biasing is made just above the cut-off and the efficiency in class AB is less than class B
amplifier.
Q.70. What are class D amplifiers?
Answer: Class D amplifiers are the special amplifiers design to operate with digital pulse signal,
which are ‘ON’ for a short interval and ‘OFF’ for a long interval. Efficiency of class D operation is
above 90%.
Q.71. What is hot-carrier effect in MOSFET?
Answer: When large operating voltages are applied to a MOSFET the electrons in the channel
acquire high energies become hot. It causes MOS Transconductance degradation and threshold
voltage shift.
Q.72. Which amplifier has maximum bandwidth?
Answer: Direct coupled amplifier has maximum bandwidth. Q.73. Why X-rays are used
for lithography in IC technology?
Answer: X-rays are used for lithography in IC technology because high resolution is achievable
and scatting effects are small.
Q.74. What is Ion implantation?
Answer: In Ion implantation, ions of dopant like phosphorous or boron are accelerated to high
energy about 300,000 ev and is bombarded with silicon wafer target. The energy of the ions
determines the depth of penetration of target.
Q.75. What are the steps of IC fabrication? Answer: The steps of IC fabrication
are as followsCrystal growth of a substrate.
Formation of epitaxial layer.
S iO2 layer growth. Photo etching. Diffusion.
Evaporation of aluminum.
Q.76. What is the basic function of buried n+ layer in n-p-n transistor in
IC?
Answer: The basic function of buried n+ layer in n-p-n transistor in IC is to reduce the collector
series resistance. Q.77. Why an IC is more reliable as compared to its discrete
circuit equivalent?
Answer: An IC is more reliable as compared to its discrete circuit equivalent because all the joints
in an IC are soldered simultaneously.
Q.78. Why the resistors and capacitors fabricated using IC technology
have poor tolerances with respect to their absolute values?
Answer: The resistors and capacitors fabricated using IC technology have poor tolerances with
respect to their absolute values because in IC fabrication all the components are fabricated
simultaneously therefore their ratio of tolerances is very low.
Q.79. Why a graded base BJTs exhibit high frequency response
characteristic as compared to their uniform base counterparts?
Answer: The graded base BJTs exhibit high frequency response characteristic as compared to their
uniform base counterparts because there exists a built-in electric field in the base region of the graded
base BJTs which is absent in case of uniform base counterparts.
Q.80. Why is silicon dioxide (SiO2) layer used in ICs?
Answer: silicon dioxide (SiO2) layer is used in ICs to protect the surface of the chip from external
contaminants and to allow for selective formation of the n and p regions by diffusion.
Q.81. Why silicon is mainly used for making ICs and not germanium?
Answer: Because in silicon, silicon dioxide (SiO2) layer which acts as an insulator can be formed
for isolation purposes. Corresponding oxide layer cannot be formed in germanium.
Q.82. Why RF input impedance of a MOSFET is low?
Answer: RF input impedance of a MOSFET is low because of the inter-electrode capacitances
which provide a low reactance shunting path at the high frequencies.
Q.83. What is a snubber circuit?
Answer: Snubber circuit is a protection circuit, usually an R-C circuit connected across a thyristor
to limit the dv/dt rise
below the manufacturer’s specifications.
Q.84. With the help of which experiment one can able to determine the
mobility of minority carriers? Answer: Haynes-Shockley experiment.
Q.85. What are opto-isolators and where do they find application?
Answer: The opto-isolators which is also called opto-coupler are the device which are optically
coupled but electrically isolated that incorporate many characteristics. These are widely used in
industrial applications, where a very good DC isolation better than the transformer is required. Due to
its small response time it can be used to transmit data in megahertz range.
Q.86. What is the drawback of MOS ICs or unipolar ICs?
Answer: The major drawback of MOS ICs is their operating speed. The operating speed of MOS
ICs is comparatively low and hence they are not suitable for ultra high speed applications.
Q.87. What are the limitations of an IC? Answer: An IC has the following
limitationsThe inductors and transformers cannot be fabricated.
Capacitors and resistors are limited in maximum value.
It is not possible to produce high power ICs.
Low noise and high voltage operation are not easily obtained. High frequency response is limited.
If any component of the IC goes out of order, the whole IC has to be replaced by new one.
Q.88. In current shunt feedback amplifier which parameter is stabilized?
Answer: In current shunt feedback amplifier the current at the output is sampled and mixing at the
input is done in shunt. So the parameter that is stabilized is current gain.
Q.89. In voltage shunt feedback amplifier which parameter is
stabilized?
Answer: In voltage shunt feedback amplifier voltage is sampled and added in shunt to the input so
the parameter that is stabilized is transresistance.
Q.90. What are the features of power MOSFET? Answer: The features of power
MOSFET are as followsPower MOSFET has lower switching losses but its on-resistance and
conduction losses are more. So at high frequency applications, power MOSFET is the obvious choice.
Power MOSFET is a voltage controlled device.
Power MOSFET has positive temperature coefficient of resistance. Power MOSFET is a unipolar
device.
Power MOSFETs in higher voltage ratings have more conduction loss. Power MOSFETs have much
more linear transfer functions.
Q.91. In current series feedback amplifier which is the parameter that is
stabilized?
Answer: In current series feedback amplifier the current at output is sampled and is added in series
with the input so the parameter that is stabilized is Transconductance.
Q.92. Indicate whether β-value of the BJT increases or decreases with
increase in the value of base width?
Answer: With increase in base width, the recombination in the base region will increase and
therefore base current increases and collector current decreases so β = IC/IB decreases.
Q.93. Indicate whether β-value of the BJT increases or decreases with
increase in the value of minority carrier life time in base region?
Answer: As carrier (minority) life time in base region increases the number of recombination in
base region decreases and more and more carriers reach to collector, therefore IB decreases and IC
increases and as a result β = IC/IB increases.
Q.94. Indicate whether β-value of the BJT increases or decreases with
increase in the value of temperature?
Answer: With increase in temperature, minority carrier life time increases in base region and this
tend to increase β while on the other hand due o increase in temperature, transit time increases which
tend to decrease β, but the effect of increasing lifetime with temperature dominates so β increases
with temperature.
Q.95. Indicate whether β-value of the BJT increases or decreases with
increase in the value of collector current?
Answer: With increase in collector current, β will remain same, as collector current will increase
when base current increases, as base current is controlling current on which collector current depends.
Q.96. Indicate whether β-value of the BJT increases or decreases with
increase in the value of collector voltage?
Answer: As collector voltage increases, effective base width decreases, so recombination in base
region decreases due to this I B decreases and IC increases and therefore β = IC/IB increases.
Q.97. What should be the input impedance of an ideal voltage source
and current source?
Answer: For ideal voltage source input impedance should be zero so that there is no voltage drop
across it for the same reason an ideal current source should have infinite impedance.
Q.98. Give an example of current series feedback?
Answer: Amplifier with an unbiased emitter resistance is an example of current series feedback.
Q.99. How temperature dependency of differential amplifier can be
minimized?
Answer: Temperature dependency of differential amplifier is minimized by using swamping
resistor of high value in the circuit.
Q.100. Which semiconductor is having higher temperature of operation,
silicon or gallium arsenide?
Answer: Since gallium arsenide has higher forbidden energy gap which implies more energy is
required to remove an electron from a valence band. Therefore, the intrinsic temperature of material is
higher. So gallium arsenide has higher temperature of operation or in other words we can say that it
can withstand higher temperature.

Stress Management Question

1) What could your current employer do for you that would have prevented you from looking for
a job?

"What prompted my search was a reduction in hours and a pending lay off in the fall due to lack of
business. I am satisfied with the majority of aspects when it comes to my current position, but it just
isn't providing for me financially."

2) Describe a time when you had to adapt quickly to a change in priorities.

Regardless of whether a workplace is fast- or slow-paced, unexpected events can occur. Hiring
managers want to know that you can shift gears quickly if the need arises, so they ask questions like
this one to assess your agility.
3) Can you tell me about a time when you failed on the job?

This is probably one of the most uncomfortable interview questions around, as you have to talk
about a time when things didn’t go to plan, leading to a poor outcome. However, it’s also an
important one for hiring managers to ask. With this question, hiring managers can see how you
handle mistakes and recover from failures. Plus, they can assess your honesty, accountability, and
self-awareness.

4) How do you approach goal-setting?

Most hiring managers know that goal-setting is a powerful tool that can facilitate greater success. As
a result, they want to see how candidates view goal-setting, leading them to ask this question.

5) Tell me about a time when something you were doing/working on did not go according to
plan. What was your role? What was the outcome?
What’s the ‘why’ behind this question? The recruiter is looking for competence in/evidence of: •
Change Orientation: accepting of change; ability to cope effectively with pressure • Resourceful:
tries new tools and techniques; seeks alternatives and ways to move forward; asks for help if
needed • Interpersonal Skills: accepts different working styles; solicits feedback; helps others
deal with change In the second semester of my program in my Management Strategy class, we
had to do a group project and presentation, and we got to pick our group members. This was my
first significant group project, so I picked two friends I had met in a couple of previous classes -
even though I knew that they were not particularly hard workers. At the time, I didn't care about
that, I just wanted to be comfortable with the people I was working with. I ended up doing most
of the project at the last minute and by myself because I couldn't get them to commit. The
project and presentation were not very good – certainly not of a quality I was proud of, and our
grades reflected it. I learned to be more strategic about choosing team members (when I can)
and to set clear team ground rules and expectations at the beginning. In subsequent group
projects, I’ve also learned how to motivate people who are not as enthusiastic as I am.
6) Tell me about one of your favourite experiences working with a team and your contribution.
What’s the ‘why’ behind this question? The recruiter is looking for competence in/evidence of: •
Team-oriented: thinks and acts ‘we’ (less ‘me’); values diverse perspectives, skills and
contributions of all; willingness to collaborate • Interpersonal skills: ability to create positive
working relationships; shows empathy • Communication skills: tactful and diplomatic;
communicates effectively with diverse groups I was working as an IT Service Desk Technician and
we were doing a significant hardware and software upgrade across the company. This involved
over 2300 team members across 3 different locations. We had a good plan and a great team, but
you can imagine that things didn’t always go according to plan. We had to adjust to many
unexpected changes and delays and troubleshoot along the way. As a result, we logged a lot of
extra hours and did our best to keep things moving forward. I could see and feel that we were
burning out. I went to my manager and asked if we could order pizza and pop to celebrate our
hard work. My manager really liked the idea and a few of us organized the pizza party. It was just
the morale boost we needed at a low point in the implementation. It was so successful, we
ended up creating a committee that planned regular fun events.
7) Tell us about a mistake you made at work and how you dealt with it.
The ability to recognize and acknowledge one's mistakes is a sign of maturity and selfgrowth.
Your example needs to demonstrate how you used your judgment to review the situation and
evaluate information to determine why it happened and what measures you put in place to
prevent it from occurring again.
8) Tell me about a situation where you had to work with a colleague who was hard to get along
with.
The interviewer wants to assess your ability to work in a team and collaborate with people. Use
an example that shows you can stay composed even while dealing with difficult people and meet
the work objectives.
9) Tell me about a time when you were loaded with too many tasks and not enough time to
complete them. How did you cope?
The interviewer wants to know how you deal with and perform under stress. Use an example
that shows you can stay calm, focused and come up with innovative solutions when faced with a
challenging situation.

10) If your manager assigned you a task that you had never done before, how would you approach
it?
The interviewer is trying to check if you can learn things quickly and grow with new challenges
that may be present in the new role. In your answer, show your openness to learning new things
and using available resources to your advantage.

General Questions

1) What do you want to be doing five years from now?

What do they want to hear?
Are the company’s goals and yours compatible? Are you looking for fast or
steady growth in a position the interviewer knows is a virtual dead end? Are you
requesting more money than he can ever pay? How have your goals and
motivations changed as you have matured and gained work experience? If
you’ve recently become a manager, how has that promotion affected your future
career outlook? If you’ve realized you need to acquire or hone a particular skill,
how and when are you planning to do so?
2) If you could change one thing about your personality just by
snapping your fingers, what would it be and why?
What do they want to hear?
That you have weaknesses—of course you do!—but none that are lethal.
Conventional career advice has been to cite a “weakness” that you can easily
show is really a strength: “You know, sir, I just work too hard. I have to take more
time off than just Sunday from 5 to 7.” Sure you do.
An answer most interviewers would find acceptable would reveal a weakness
that you’ve already corrected or, in a slight redirection of the question, a mistake
you made in a previous job and the lesson(s) you learned from it. In both cases,
you would be turning a negative question into a positive response.
My strategy was always to cite a particular skill or qualification that I obviously
lacked…but one that wasn’t remotely needed in the job I was interviewing for.

3) What does “success” mean to you?

What do they want to hear?
You should offer a balanced answer to this question, citing personal as well as
professional examples. If your successes are exclusively job-related, an
interviewer may wonder if you actually have a life. However, if you blather on
about your personal goals and accomplishments, you may seem uncommitted to
striving for success on the job
4) What does “failure” mean to you?
What do they want to hear?
A specific example to demonstrate what you mean by “failure,” not a lengthy
philosophical discussion more suited to a Bergman film than an interview. This
question offers an experienced interviewer the opportunity to delve into
mistakes and bad decisions, not a happy topic as far as you’re concerned. He is
looking for honesty, a clear analysis of what went wrong, a willingness to admit
responsibility (with a small plus if it’s obvious you’re taking responsibility for
some aspects that weren’t your fault), and evidence that you are determined to
change what caused it (or examples to show how it’s already been transformed).
5) What would you say if I told you our interview is over?
Well, isn’t that a kick in the teeth? Maybe your first or second answers were so
poor the interviewer is trying to save some time and just get you out the door.
Maybe she is baiting you, giving you an opportunity to rise to the challenge of
her rejection. Maybe she just wants to get back to work.
Whatever the reason, you must be prepared to confront her aggression with a
calm question of your own: “I’m sorry you feel that way. I thought I clearly
expressed my passion for this position and why I believe I am very qualified for
it. What part of my answer disappointed you?”

6) What extracurricular activities were you involved in?

What do they want to hear?
Most interviewers are seeking a candidate who can illustrate industriousness, not
just someone who did enough to eke by. They’re expecting enthusiasm,
confidence, energy, dependability, honesty. A problem solver. A team player.
Someone who’s willing to work hard to achieve difficult but worthy goals.

7) Why are you applying for a job in a field other than your major?
What do they want to hear?
Life doesn’t always turn out according to our plans. Especially when you’re
young, changes in direction are common. Changes are hard enough to live
through without getting grilled about them. But when the interviewer asks about
one of your 180-degree turns, you’ve got to respond.
If you’re applying for a retail management position and your degree is in
geology, there’s a good chance that you’ll be asked this question. But count on it
—it’s not the first time this employer has encountered someone like you. In
today’s job market, changing careers is common, and there’s nothing unique
about going into a field other than the one you majored in.

8) What did you learn from the internships on your resume?

What do they want to hear?
No company really believes that you’re going to hit the ground running right out
of college or graduate school. Training and experience will be necessary to make
you productive. So, as a relatively inexperienced candidate, you can expect an
interviewer to do a bit of probing—trying to determine how “trainable” you are.
Stress how the real-world internship experience you’ve had complemented your
academic training. But never pretend that college is where you learned the
“secret of life.” No interviewer is going to react favorably to someone who acts
like he or she knows it all.
9) In what courses did you get the worst grades? Why? How do
you think that will affect your performance on this job?
What do they want to hear?
Many companies will ask to see copies of your college transcripts if you don’t
have work experience. So you might as well spill the beans now!
If you flunked every accounting course, you’re probably not applying for an
accounting job, right? Hopefully, you can blame bad grades you received in some
of your electives on the amount of time and effort you were putting into your
major.
Do interviewers expect that every interviewee is a straight-A student and,
therefore, will have a hard time answering this question? Not in my world. So the
answer to the first part of the question is less important than the explanation and
how you handle introducing a negative: “Yes, sir, I flunked statistical analysis,
but it was completely outside my major and, as far as I know, has nothing to do
with the job you’re offering.

10) Tell me about the best boss you ever had. Tell me about the
worst one.
What do they want to hear?
Talk about a loaded question! If you’re asked to talk about the best boss you
ever had, you could try for an on-the-spot description of the hiring manager
sitting across the desk from you.
But as a rule of thumb, most companies want to hear that you most enjoyed
working for someone who was interested in helping you learn and grow, involved
in monitoring your progress, and generous about giving credit when and where it
was due. I hope you’ve had the chance to work for someone like that!
Now, what do you say about your worst boss? Don’t get carried away with
venomous accusations. They may serve only to introduce doubt about your own
competence or ability to get along with other people.

Current Affairs

1) Who was elected as the 14th President of Lebanon in January 2025, ending a two-year power
vacuum?
Answer: General Joseph Aoun.
2) Which two countries joined the Schengen Area on January 1, 2025?
Answer: Bulgaria and Romania.
3) Which country became the 37th to legalize same-sex marriage on January 1, 2025?
Answer: Liechtenstein.
4) Who announced their resignation as the Prime Minister of Canada in January 2025?
Answer: Justin Trudeau.
5) Which country was admitted as the tenth member of BRICS in January 2025?
Answer: Indonesia.
6) Which city experienced devastating wildfires in January 2025, leading to the destruction of over
13,000 structures?
Answer: Los Angeles, California.
7) Who was re-elected as the President of Croatia in January 2025?
Answer: Zoran Milanović.
8) Which comet, reaching perihelion in January 2025, was dubbed "The Great Comet of 2025"?
Answer: C/2024 G3 (ATLAS).
9) Which company launched its heavy-lift launch vehicle, New Glenn, on its first attempt in January
2025?
Answer: Blue Origin.
10) Which two countries completed synchronization of their power grids with continental Europe's
grid in February 2025?
Answer: The Baltic states (Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania).
11) Who was elected as the President of Greece by the Hellenic Parliament in February 2025?
Answer: Konstantinos Tasoulas.
12) Which country completed the process of joining the European Economic Area in February 2025?
Answer: Croatia.
13) Which country announced the discovery of Thutmose II's tomb in February 2025?
Answer: Egypt.
14) Which country held its general election on February 23, 2025, after a government crisis in 2024?
Answer: Germany.
15) Who was elected as the new Chairperson of the African Union Commission in February 2025?
Answer: Mahamoud Ali Youssouf from Djibouti.
16) Which country became a state party in the International Criminal Court on January 1, 2025?
Answer: Ukraine.
17) Which Southeast Asian country legalized same-sex marriage in January 2025?
Answer: Thailand.
18) Which African country's president, Yoon Suk Yeol, was arrested in January 2025?
Answer: South Korea.
19) Which two judges were assassinated in Tehran, Iran, in January 2025?
Answer: Two Sharia judges of the Supreme Court of Iran.
20) Which country experienced a fuel tanker explosion near Suleja, resulting in 98 deaths in January
2025?
Answer: Nigeria.
21) Which country experienced a 7.1 magnitude earthquake in its Tibet Autonomous Region in
January 2025?
Answer: China.
22) Which country announced its intention to ban the sale of all new diesel and petrol cars by 2025?
Answer: Norway.
23) Which country is scheduled to host the G20 summit in 2025, marking the first time the event is
held in Africa?
Answer: South Africa.
24) Which country is set to host the COP 30 summit in 2025?
Answer: Brazil.
25) Which two countries are planning to introduce the Caribbean guilder as their currency in March
2025?
Answer: Curaçao and Sint Maarten.
26) Which country is scheduled to adopt the euro and become the 21st member state of the eurozone
in July 2025?
Answer: Bulgaria.
27) Which country is set to host Expo 2025 from April to October 2025?
Answer: Japan, in the city of Osaka.
28) Which country is scheduled to hold its parliamentary election in October 2025?
Answer: Czech Republic.

Computer Questions
1. All of the following are examples of real security and
privacy risks EXCEPT:
A. hackers.
B. spam.
C. viruses.
D. identity theft.
Answer: B
2. A process known as ____________ is used by large
retailers to study trends.
A. data mining
B. data selection
C. POS
D. data conversion
Answer: A
3. ____________terminals (formerly known as cash
registers) are often connected to complex inventory and
sales computer systems.
A. Data
B. Point-of-sale (POS)
C. Sales
D. Query
Answer: B
4. A(n) ____________ system is a small, wireless
handheld computer that scans an item tag and pulls up
the current price (and any special offers) as you shop.
A. PSS
B. POS
C. inventory
D. data mining
Answer: A
5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged
files from a criminal computer is an example of a law
enforcement specialty called:
A. robotics.
B. simulation.
C. computer forensics.
D. animation.
Answer: C
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major
data processing functions of a computer?
A. gathering data
B. processing data into information
C. analyzing the data or information
D. storing the data or information
Answer: C
7. ____________ tags, when placed on an animal, can be
used to record and track in a database all of the animals
movements.
A. POS
B. RFID
C. PPS
D. GPS
Answer: B
8. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by
manipulating devices through computers instead of
manually. This technology is known as:
A. robotics.
B. computer forensics.
C. simulation.
D. forecasting.
Answer: A
9. Technology no longer protected by copyright,
available to everyone, is considered to be:
A. proprietary.
B. open.
C. experimental.
D. in the public domain.
Answer: A
10. ____________ is the study of molecules and
structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100 nanometers.
A. Nanoscience
B. Microelectrodes
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Answer: A
11. ____________ is the science that attempts to
produce machines that display the same type of
intelligence that humans do.
A. Nanoscience
B. Nanotechnology
C. Simulation
D. Artificial intelligence (AI)
Answer: D
12. ____________ is data that has been organized or
presented in a meaningful fashion.
A. A process
B. Software
C. Storage
D. Information
Answer: D
13. The name for the way that computers manipulate
data into information is called:
A. programming.
B. processing.
C. storing.
D. organizing.
Answer: B
14. Computers gather data, which means that they allow
users to ____________ data.
A. present
B. input
C. output
D. store
Answer: B
15. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera
and processed appropriately, the actual print of the
picture is considered:
A. data.
B. output.
C. input.
D. the process.
Answer: B
16. Computers use the ____________ language to
process data.
A. processing
B. kilobyte
C. binary
D. representational
Answer: C
17. Computers process data into information by working
exclusively with:
A. multimedia.
B. words.
C. characters.
D. numbers.
Answer: D
18. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet,
each number and each special character is made up of a
unique combination of:
A. eight bytes.
B. eight kilobytes.
C. eight characters.
D. eight bits.
Answer: D
19. The term bit is short for:
A. megabyte.
B. binary language.
C. binary digit.
D. binary number.
Answer: C
20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:
A. megabyte.
B. byte.
C. kilobyte.
D. gigabyte.
Answer: B
21. A ____________ is approximately one billion bytes.
A. kilobyte
B. bit
C. gigabyte
D. megabyte
Answer: C
22. A ____________ is approximately a million bytes.
A. gigabyte
B. kilobyte
C. megabyte
D. terabyte
Answer: C
23. ____________ is any part of the computer that you
can physically touch.
A. Hardware
B. A device
C. A peripheral
D. An application
Answer: A
24. The components that process data are located in the:
A. input devices.
B. output devices.
C. system unit.
D. storage component.
Answer: C
25. All of the following are examples of input devices
EXCEPT a:
A. scanner.
B. mouse.
C. keyboard.
D. printer.
Answer: D
26. Which of the following is an example of an input
device?
A. scanner
B. speaker
C. CD
D. printer
Answer: A
27. All of the following are examples of storage devices
EXCEPT:
A. hard disk drives.
B. printers.
C. floppy disk drives.
D. CD drives.
Answer: B
28. The ____________, also called the brains of the
computer, is responsible for processing data.
A. motherboard
B. memory
C. RAM
D. central processing unit (CPU)
Answer: D
29. The CPU and memory are located on the:
A. expansion board.
B. motherboard.
C. storage device.
D. output device.
Answer: B
30. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are
examples of:
A. application software.
B. system software.
C. operating system software.
D. platform software.
Answer: A
31. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on
a computer to help perform tasks.
A. An instruction
B. Software
C. Memory
D. A processor
Answer: B
10
32. System software is the set of programs that enables
your computer hardware devices and ____________
software to work together.
A. management
B. processing
C. utility
D. application
Answer: D
33. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple
Macintosh are examples of two different:
A. platforms.
B. applications.
C. programs.
D. storage devices.
Answer: A
34. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different
____________ to process data and different operating
systems.
A. languages
B. methods
C. CPUs
D. storage devices
Answer: C
35. Servers are computers that provide resources to other
computers connected to a:
A. network.
B. mainframe.
C. supercomputer.
11
D. client.
Answer: A
36. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are
replacing ____________ in many businesses.
A. supercomputers
B. clients
C. laptops
D. mainframes
Answer: D
37. ____________ are specially designed computers that
perform complex calculations extremely rapidly.
A. Servers
B. Supercomputers
C. Laptops
D. Mainframes
Answer: B
38. DSL is an example of a(n) ____________
connection.
A. network
B. wireless
C. slow
D. broadband
Answer: D
39. The difference between people with access to
computers and the Internet and those without this access
is known as the:
A. digital divide.
B. Internet divide.
12
C. Web divide.
D. broadband divide.
Answer: A
40. ____________ is the science revolving around the
use of nanostructures to build devices on an extremely
small scale.
A. Nanotechnology
B. Micro-technology
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Answer: A
41. Which of the following is the correct order of the
four major functions of a computer?
A. Process à Output à Input à Storage
B. Input à Outputà Process à Storage
C. Process à Storage à Input à Output
D. Input à Process à Output à Storage
Answer: D
42. ____________ bits equal one byte.
A. Eight
B. Two
C. One thousand
D. One million
Answer: A
43. The binary language consists of ____________
digit(s).
A. 8
B. 2
13
C. 1,000
D. 1
Answer: B
44. A byte can hold one ____________ of data.
A. bit
B. binary digit
C. character
D. kilobyte
Answer: C
45. ____________ controls the way in which the
computer system functions and provides a means by
which users can interact with the computer.
A. The platform
B. The operating system
C. Application software
D. The motherboard
Answer: B
46. The operating system is the most common type of
____________ software.
A. communication
B. application
C. system
D. word-processing software
Answer: C
47. ____________ are specially designed computer
chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or
your electronic thermostat.
A. Servers
14
B. Embedded computers
C. Robotic computers
D. Mainframes
Answer: B
48. The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as
responses to questions or clicking an icon, are called:
A. instructions.
B. the operating system.
C. application software.
D. the system unit.
Answer: A
49. The two broad categories of software are:
A. word processing and spreadsheet.
B. transaction and application.
C. Windows and Mac OS.
D. system and application.
Answer: D
50. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical
parts of the computer is the:
A. system unit.
B. CPU.
C. mainframe.
D. platform.
Answer: A
Fill in the Blank:-
15
51. Between PCs and Macs, the ____________ is the
platform of choice for graphic design and animation.
Answer: Mac
52. The ____________ is the program that manages
the hardware of the computer system, including the
CPU, memory, storage devices, and input/output
devices.
Answer: operating system
53. The type of operating system software you use
depends on your computer____________.
Answer: platform
54. ____________software helps you carry out tasks,
such as typing a document or creating a spreadsheet.
Answer: Application
55. ____________are the fastest and most expensive
computers.
Answer: Supercomputers
56. A ____________ is approximately 1,000 bytes.
Answer: kilobyte
57. Input devices are used to provide the steps and
tasks the computer needs to process data, and these
steps and tasks are called ____________.
Answer: instructions
58. A computer gathers data, processes it, outputs the
data or information, and ____________ the data or
16
information.
Answer: stores
59. The binary language consists of two digits:
____________ and ____________.
Answer: 0 and 1
60. A string of ____________ 0s and 1s is called a
byte.
Answer: eight (8)
61. The devices you use to enter data into a computer
system are known as ____________ devices.
Answer: input
62. The devices on a computer system that let you see
the processed information are known as
____________ devices.
Answer: output
63. ____________ is the set of computer instructions
or programs that enables the hardware to perform
different tasks.
Answer: Software
64. When you connect to the ____________, your
computer is communicating with a server at your
Internet service provider (ISP).
Answer: Internet
65. ____________ are computers that excel at
executing many different computer programs at the
17
same time.
Answer: Mainframes
66. ____________is the application of computer
systems and techniques to gather legal evidence.
Answer: Computer forensics
67. ____________ is the science that attempts to
create machines that will emulate the human thought
process.
Answer: Artificial intelligence (AI)
68. Macintosh computers use the Macintosh
operating system (Mac OS), whereas PCs generally
run ____________ as an operating system.
Answer: Microsoft Windows
69. A process known as ____________ tracks trends
and allows retailers to respond to consumer buying
patterns.
Answer: data mining
70. Hard disk drives and CD drives are examples of
____________ devices.
Answer: storage
71. You would use ____________ software to create
spreadsheets, type documents, and edit photos.
Answer: application
18
72. ____________ are computers that support
hundreds or thousands of users simultaneously.
Answer: Mainframes
73. ____________ is the term given to the act of
stealing someone identity and ruining their credit
rating.
Answer: Identity theft
74. Surgeons are using ____________ to guide robots
to perform delicate surgery.
Answer: computers
75. Patient ____________ are life-sized mannequins
that have a pulse and a heartbeat and respond to
procedures just like humans.
Answer: simulators
True and False
76. Currently, the performance of tasks by robots is
based on preprogrammed algorithms.
Answer: True
77. Data can be a number, a word, a picture, or a
sound.
Answer: True
78. Strictly defined, a computer is a data processing
device.
Answer: True
19
79. The discrepancy between the haves and have-nots
with regard to computer technology is commonly
referred to as the digital society.
Answer: False (digital divide)
80. One of the benefits of becoming computer fluent
is being a savvy computer user and consumer and
knowing how to avoid viruses, the programs that
pose threats to computer security.
Answer: True
81. Trend-spotting programs, developed for business,
have been used to predict criminal activity.
Answer: True
82. Employers do not have the right to monitor e-mail
and network traffic on employee systems used at
work.
Answer: False
83. Clicking on an icon with the mouse is a form of
giving an instruction to the computer.
Answer: True
84. Output devices store instructions or data that the
CPU processes.
Answer: False (memory)
85. The CPU and memory are located on a special
circuit board in the system unit called the
motherboard.
Answer: True
20
86. Nanostructures represent the smallest humanmade structures that can be built.
Answer: True
87. The main difference between a supercomputer
and a mainframe is that supercomputers are
designed to execute a few programs as quickly as
possible,whereas mainframes are designed to handle
many programs running at the same time (but at a
slower pace).
Answer: True
88. Being computer fluent means that you should be
able to build a computer yourself.
Answer: False
89. Embedded computers are self-contained
computer devices that have their own programming
and do not receive input.
Answer: True
90. A Web browser is a special device that is installed
in your computer that allows it to communicate with
other devices on a network.
Answer: False (network adapter)
91. With a wireless network, it is easier to relocate
devices.
Answer: True
21
92. The most common type of memory that the
computer uses to process data is ROM.
Answer: False (RAM)
Matching:
93. Match the following terms with their approximate
size:
I. kilobyte A. one million bytes
II. byte B. eight bits
III. gigabyte C. one thousand bytes
IV. megabyte D. one billion bytes
V. terabyte E. one trillion bytes
Answer: C, B, D, A, E
94. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. printer A. storage device
II. scanner B. output device
III. RAM C. input device
IV. CPU D. a type of memory
V. CD drive E. processor
Answer: B, C, D, E, A
95. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. mainframe A. the most expensive computers that
perform complex calculations extremely rapidly
II. supercomputer B. a computer that provides resources
to other computers connected to a network
III. embedded computer C. a large, expensive computer
that supports hundreds or thousands of users
simultaneously
IV. PDA D. a self-contained computer device that
22
usually performs preprogrammed functions such as
temperature control
V. server E. a small mobile computing device
Answer: C, A, D, E, B
96. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. software A. transforming data into information
II. hardware B. data that has been organized or presented
in a meaningful fashion
III. operating system C. any part of the computer that
you can physically touch
IV. processing D. a set of computer programs that
enables hardware to perform different tasks
V. information E. the most common type of system
software, it controls the way in which the computer
system functions
Answer: D, C, E, A, B
97. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. system software A. the set of programs that enables
computer hardware devices and application software to
work together
II. application software B. the kind of operating system
software you will use depends on this
III. platform C. operating system software generally used
on PCs
IV. Microsoft Windows D. a set of programs used to
accomplish a specific task
V. Mac OS E. operating system software used on the
Apple Macintosh
Answer: A, D, B, C, E
23
98. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. data A. the main circuit board in the system unit
II. memory B. the representation of a fact or idea
(unprocessed information)
III. output C. processed data or information
IV. storage D. holds instructions or data that the CPU
processes
V. motherboard E. data or information that can be
accessed again
Answer: B, D, C, E, A
99. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. bit A. the science revolving around the use of
nanostructures to build devices on an extremely small
scale
II. binary language B. the case that contains the system
components
III. instructions C. consists of 0s and 1s
IV. system unit D. short for binary digit
V. nanotechnology E. steps and tasks necessary to
process data into usable information
Answer: D, C, E, B, A
100. Match the following fields to the related
computer technology:
medicine A. Internet research and virtual tours
business B. data mining
law enforcement C. robotics and simulation
education D. computer forensics
archeology E. digital recreations of ruins
Answer: C, B, D, A, E