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Examiner's Report (NSSCO) 2024

The document is a report from the Ministry of Education, Arts and Culture in Namibia detailing the examinations for NSSCO conducted in October/November 2024. It includes various subjects and papers, along with general comments and specific feedback on student performance in Accounting. The report highlights areas where learners struggled, such as understanding theory questions and the layout of financial statements.

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100% found this document useful (1 vote)

1K views

Examiner's Report (NSSCO) 2024

Uploaded by

petrus Tiger jan10

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

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REPUBLIC OF NAMIBIA

MINISTRY OF EDUCATION, ARTS AND CULTURE

DIRECTORATE OF NATIONAL EXAMINATIONS AND ASSESSMENT

REPORT ON THE EXAMINATIONS

NSSCO

OCTOBER/NOVEMBER 2024
CONTENTS
ACCOUNTING
Paper 6143/1.................................................................................................................................................................... 5
Paper 6143/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 14

AFRIKAANS AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Paper 6108/1 Reading and Writing................................................................................................................................ 21
Paper 6108/2 Listening.................................................................................................................................................. 25
Paper 6108/3 Speaking.................................................................................................................................................. 30

AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
Paper 6115/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 33
Paper 6115/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 42

ART & DESIGN

Paper 6149/1&2............................................................................................................................................................. 45

BIOLOGY
Paper 6116/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 47
Paper 6116/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 50
Paper 6116/3.................................................................................................................................................................. 56

BUILDING STUDIES
Paper 6186/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 61
Paper 6186/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 70
Paper 6186/3.................................................................................................................................................................. 74

BUSINESS STUDIES
Paper 6144/1.................................................................................................................................................................. 77
Paper 6144/2.................................................................................................................................................................. 90

CHEMISTRY
Paper 6117/1................................................................................................................................................................ 103
Paper 6117/2................................................................................................................................................................ 105
Paper 6117/3................................................................................................................................................................ 112

COMPUTER SCIENCE
Paper 6134/1................................................................................................................................................................ 117
Paper 6134/2................................................................................................................................................................ 126

DESIGN AND TECHNOLOGY

Paper 6187/1................................................................................................................................................................ 131
Paper 6187/2................................................................................................................................................................ 143
Paper 6187/3................................................................................................................................................................ 147

DEVELOPMENT STUDIES
Paper 6136/1................................................................................................................................................................ 151
Paper 6136/2................................................................................................................................................................ 158
Paper 6136/3................................................................................................................................................................ 163

ECONOMICS
Paper 6145/1................................................................................................................................................................ 169
Paper 6145/2................................................................................................................................................................ 177

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Paper 6109/1 Reading and Writing.............................................................................................................................. 187
Paper 6109/2 Listening................................................................................................................................................ 195
Paper 6109/3 Speaking................................................................................................................................................ 200

ENTREPRENEURSHIP
Paper 6146/1................................................................................................................................................................ 209
Paper 6146/2 Coursework........................................................................................................................................... 222

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

1
FASHION AND FABRICS
Paper 6153/1................................................................................................................................................................ 259
Paper 6153/2................................................................................................................................................................ 267

FIRST LANGUAGE AFRIKAANS

Paper 6094/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 271
Paper 6094/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 275
Paper 6094/3 Literature................................................................................................................................................ 277
Paper 6094/4 Oral........................................................................................................................................................ 278

FIRST LANGUAGE ENGLISH

Paper 6095/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 279
Paper 6095/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 284
Paper 6095/3 Literature................................................................................................................................................ 287
Paper 6095/4 Oral........................................................................................................................................................ 289

FIRST LANGUAGE GERMAN

Paper 6096/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 291
Paper 6096/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 294
Paper 6096/3 Literature................................................................................................................................................ 297
Paper 6096/4 Oral........................................................................................................................................................ 298

FIRST LANGUAGE KHOEKHOEGOWAB

Paper 6098/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 299
Paper 6098/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 304
Paper 6098/3 Critical Response to a Text.................................................................................................................... 308
Paper 6098/4 Culture and Society (Written Coursework)............................................................................................. 310
Paper 6098/5 Oral Examination................................................................................................................................... 313

FIRST LANGUAGE OSHIKWANYAMA

Paper 6099/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 315
Paper 6099/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 319
Paper 6099/3 Critical Response to a Text.................................................................................................................... 323
Paper 6099/4 Culture and Society (Written Coursework)............................................................................................. 325
Paper 6099/5 Oral Examination................................................................................................................................... 328

FIRST LANGUAGE OSHINDONGA

Paper 6100/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 331
Paper 6100/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 335
Paper 6100/3 Critical Response to a Text.................................................................................................................... 338
Paper 6100/4 Culture and Society (Written Coursework)............................................................................................. 340
Paper 6100/5 Oral Examination................................................................................................................................... 343

FIRST LANGUAGE OTJIHERERO

Paper 6101/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 345
Paper 6101/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 352
Paper 6101/3 Critical Response to a Text.................................................................................................................... 354
Paper 6101/4 Culture and Society (Written Coursework)............................................................................................. 356
Paper 6101/5 Oral Examination................................................................................................................................... 360

FIRST LANGUAGE RUKWANGALI

Paper 6102/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 363
Paper 6102/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 368
Paper 6102/3 Critical Response to a Text.................................................................................................................... 372
Paper 6102/4 Culture and Society (Written Coursework)............................................................................................. 375
Paper 6102/5 Oral Examination................................................................................................................................... 377

FIRST LANGUAGE RUMANYO

Paper 6103/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 379
Paper 6103/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 386
Paper 6103/3 Critical Response to a Text.................................................................................................................... 389
Paper 6103/4 Culture and Society (Written Coursework)............................................................................................. 394
Paper 6103/5 Oral Examination................................................................................................................................... 397

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

2
FIRST LANGUAGE SETSWANA
Paper 6104/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 399
Paper 6104/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 401
Paper 6104/3 Critical Response to a Text.................................................................................................................... 403
Paper 6104/4 Culture and Society (Written Coursework)............................................................................................. 405
Paper 6104/5 Oral Examination................................................................................................................................... 407

FIRST LANGUAGE SILOZI

Paper 6105/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 409
Paper 6105/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 411
Paper 6105/3 Critical Response to a Text.................................................................................................................... 413
Paper 6105/4 Culture and Society (Written Coursework)............................................................................................. 414
Paper 6105/5 Oral Examination................................................................................................................................... 416

FIRST LANGUAGE THIMBUKUSHU

Paper 6106/1 Reading and Directed Writing................................................................................................................ 419
Paper 6106/2 Continuous Writing................................................................................................................................. 423
Paper 6106/3 Critical Response to a Text.................................................................................................................... 426
Paper 6106/4 Culture and Society (Written Coursework)............................................................................................. 428
Paper 6106/5 Oral Examination................................................................................................................................... 430

FOREIGN LANGUAGE GERMAN

Paper 6112/1 Listening................................................................................................................................................. 431
Paper 6112/2 Reading.................................................................................................................................................. 433
Paper 6112/3 Speaking................................................................................................................................................ 436
Paper 6112/4 Writing.................................................................................................................................................... 439

FOREIGN LANGUAGE PORTUGUESE

Paper 6113/1 Listening................................................................................................................................................. 447
Paper 6113/2 Reading.................................................................................................................................................. 452
Paper 6113/3 Speaking................................................................................................................................................ 456
Paper 6113/4 Writing.................................................................................................................................................... 461

GEOGRAPHY
Paper 6137/1................................................................................................................................................................ 465
Paper 6137/2................................................................................................................................................................ 487
Paper 6137/3................................................................................................................................................................ 504

HISTORY
Paper 6138/1................................................................................................................................................................ 521
Paper 6138/2................................................................................................................................................................ 535

HOME ECONOMICS
Paper 6155/1................................................................................................................................................................ 543
Paper 6155/2 ............................................................................................................................................................... 550
Paper 6155/3 ............................................................................................................................................................... 552

HOSPITALITY
Paper 6156/1................................................................................................................................................................ 555
Paper 6156/2 ............................................................................................................................................................... 564
Paper 6156/3 ............................................................................................................................................................... 572

INTEGRATED PERFORMING ARTS

Paper 6150/1................................................................................................................................................................ 587
Paper 6150/2 ............................................................................................................................................................... 590
Paper 6150/3 ............................................................................................................................................................... 591

MATHEMATICS
Paper 6131/1 ............................................................................................................................................................... 593
Paper 6131/2 ............................................................................................................................................................... 601

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

3
METALWORK AND WELDING
Paper 6188/1................................................................................................................................................................ 609
Paper 6188/2 ............................................................................................................................................................... 618
Paper 6188/3 ............................................................................................................................................................... 623

MOTOR MECHANICS
Paper 6189/1................................................................................................................................................................ 625
Paper 6189/2 ............................................................................................................................................................... 632
Paper 6189/3 ............................................................................................................................................................... 635

NAMIBIAN SIGN LANGUAGE

Paper 6107/1&2........................................................................................................................................................... 637

OFFICE PRACTICE
Paper 6157/1................................................................................................................................................................ 639
Paper 6157/2................................................................................................................................................................ 640
Paper 6157/3................................................................................................................................................................ 646

PHYSICS
Paper 6118/1................................................................................................................................................................ 651
Paper 6118/2................................................................................................................................................................ 655
Paper 6118/3 ............................................................................................................................................................... 663

WOODWORK
Paper 6190/1................................................................................................................................................................ 667
Paper 6190/2 ............................................................................................................................................................... 674
Paper 6190/3 ............................................................................................................................................................... 675

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

4
ACCOUNTING
6143
Paper 1

GENERAL COMMENTS
In general, some learners had problems in answering the theory questions and the understanding of what was
expected of them, while other learners left out the theory questions which were not answered. Most of the learners
still struggled with the ratio interpretation questions.

Most of the learners had problem with the layout of a statement of affairs, which then resulted in most of the learners
using the assets less liabilities layout instead of them using the statement of financial position layout. Furthermore,
learners still left out questions which were not answered.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

1 (a) Fairly well answered. Some learners mentioned the current assets instead of the non-current assets.
Answer
Land and buildings
Premises
Vehicles
Machinery
Equipment
Furniture
Fixtures and fittings
Goodwill Any one [1]

(b) (i) Fairly well answered, although most of the learners struggled to write the meaning of the trial
balance, while some gave the purpose of drawing up a trial balance instead of the meaning
Answer
The trial balance is a list of balances on the accounts from the ledgers, on a specific date. (1)
OR
A list of all balances in the general ledger, cash and bank balances from the cash book, the petty cash
balance from the petty cash book as well as totals of lists of debtors and creditors, on a specific date. (1)
OR
A list of all the balances in the general ledger,debtors ledger, creditors ledger, cash book and petty cash
book on a specific date. (1) Any one [1]
(ii) Poorly answered. Most of the learners mentioned that the suspense account is to correct errors
instead of giving the purpose of a suspense account.
Answer
A temporary account in which the difference on a trial balance is held until errors are discovered.
OR
It is a temporary account that is opened with the difference on a trial balance. (1)
Any one [1]

(c) Poorly answered. Most of the learners struggled with the answering of this question. They mentioned
the application of computers in Accounting while some mentioned the application and advantages of
computers as a tool for communication instead of mentioning the advantages of using a computer
system for recording accounting information instead of a manual system.
Answer
Accurate (1)
Time-saving (1)
Information easily stored and retrieved. (1)
Saves space. No need for boxes of papers to be stored like in the past. (1)
Back-up copies are easy. (1)
Comparisons with previous years can be done by computer. (1)
Certain programmes can easily detect errors. (1)

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

5
Better supervision when computers are linked with each other. (1)
Better decision-making due to detailed reports. (1) Any two [2]

(d) (i) Fairly well answered. Some learners mentioned the account name, for example interest received
and some mentioned the names of ledgers instead of the book of first entry.
Answer
General journal [1]
(ii) Fairly well answered. Some learners mentioned sales returns journal instead of debtors’ returns
journal, while some gave the account name instead of the subsidiary book.
Answer
Debtors Returns Journal [1]
(iii) Fairly well answered. Some learners mentioned sales journal instead of debtors journal, while
some gave the account name instead of the subsidiary book.
Answer
Debtors journal [1]

(e) Poorly answered. Most of the learners could not state the difference between a debit note and a
credit note. Some learners referred to a debit note and credit note either too as an invoice or as a
receipt. However, some learners mixed up the explanation when they differentiated between the
debit note and credit note. The explanation that was meant for a debit note was given to the credit
note and vice versa.
Answer
A debit note is sent by a credit customer to a supplier to request a reduction in an invoice because of
damaged/faulty goods or an overcharge. (1)
OR
Debit note is the document sent by buyer to seller with the return of goods. (1)
A credit note is sent by a supplier to a credit customer in response to a debit note received, to notify a
reduction of an invoice. (1)
OR
Credit note is the document sent by the seller to buyer for returns of goods. (1) [2]

(f) (i) Poorly answered. Most of the learners do not know the differences between the input VAT and
output VAT. Some gave what VAT stands for.
Answer
Input VAT is paid on goods purchased (purchases). (1)
Output VAT is charged / received on goods sold (sales). (1) [2]
(ii) Poorly answered. Most of the learners did the calculation of both input VAT as well as output
VAT. This is simply because learners do not understand whether input VAT is calculated on
purchases or on sales.
Answer
47 820 x 15
100
= N$7 173 [1]

(g) Fairly well answered. Even though the question was fairly well answered, most of the learners
mentioned the ledger but could not give the explanation of it.
Answer
General ledger (1)
- Contains the accounts of assets, liabilities, income, expenses, capital and drawings. (1)
- A book where we keep records of nominal and real accounts. (1)
OR
Debtors ledger (1)
Contains the personal accounts of each debtor. (1)
OR
Creditors ledger (1)
Contains the personal accounts of each creditor. (1) [2]

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

6
(h) (i) Fairly well answered. Most of the learners did not subtract the purchases returns of raw materials
from purchases of raw materials.
Answer
N$
Opening inventory of raw materials 12 000
+ purchases of raw materials 26 700
- purchases returns of raw materials 2 700 (1)
- closing inventory of raw materials 6 800 (1)
Cost of raw materials consumed 29 200 (1) O/F [3]

(ii) Poorly answered. Most of the learners did not know that the answer calculated in (i) is to be used
in (ii). Furthermore, some learners simply do not know the items to be used when calculating the
production cost of finished goods.

Answer
N$
Prime cost (29 200 + 3 300) 32 500
+ factory overheads 7 550 (1) O/F
+ opening inventory of work in progress 8 000
– closing inventory of work in progress 5 300 (1)
Production cost of goods completed 42 750 (1) O/F [3]

(i) Fairly well answered. Most of the learners were struggling to write out words in full. Some learners
could not write “Excepted” but used words such as expected, accepted, excluded, eccepted and exempted.
Answer
Errors and omissions excepted. [1]

11
(f) Poorly answered. Most of the learners could not evaluate and comment on the solvency ratio. Some
learners who attempted to comment on the ratio, mentioned short-term debts instead of total debts.
Some of the learners gave suggestions on how to improve the performance of the business.
Answer
Basic statement
Will be able to cover long-term obligations/debt. (1)
OR
Green Fern will be able to cover its total liabilities with its assets. (1)
Comments
Solvency ratio above norm. (1)
OR
The solvency ratio is 1,82 : 1 compare to the norm of 2 : 1. [2]

5 (a) Poorly answered. Most learners used a wrong format and did not draw up a statement of affairs to
calculate profit and loss. Learners did not consider the additional information given to them in their
calculation.
It is advisable that teachers teach learners that the statement of affairs is prepared in the format of the
statement of financial position.

Answer
Grey Chase
Statement of Affairs on 30 April 2024
CAPITAL EMPLOYED N$ N$ N$
Owners’ Equity 180 000 (1) O/F
Capital 170 418
Add: Profit for the year
12 482 (1) O/F
(180 000 + 2 900 (1) – 170 418)
182 900
Less: Drawings (2 200 + 700) 2 900 (1)
Long-term liabilities 44 000
Loan: Fire Bank (59 300 – 15 300) 44 000 (1)
224 000
EMPLOYMENT OF CAPITAL
Non-current assets Cost Provision for Net book value
depreciation
Machinery 9 000 900 8 100
Vehicles 119 000 17 850 101 150
128 000 18 750 109 250 (1) O/F
Investments 68 400
Fixed Deposit: Glacier Bank 68 400 (1)
Working Capital 46 350 (1) O/F
Current Assets 56 750 (1)
Inventory (5 820 + 1 410) 7 230 (1)
Debtors (22 598 – 3 198) 19 400 (1)
Bank (17 000 + 13 120) 30 120 (1)
Less: Current Liabilities 10 400
Creditors (12 100 – 1 700) 10 400 (1)
224 000
[15]

(b) (i) Fairly well answered. Most of the learners did not use the amount from the statement of affairs
from (a). Some learners could not convert the days to the next whole day.
Answer
Debtors collection period
Debtors x 365
Creditors 1
= 19 400 O/F x 365 (1)
180 000 1
= 39,34
= 40 days (1) O/F [2]

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

12
(ii) Fairly well answered. Most of the learners did not use the amount from the statement of affairs
from (a). Some learners could not convert the days to the next whole day.
Answer
Creditors’ payment period.
Creditors x 365
Credit Purchases 1
= 10 400 O/F x 365 (1)
86 000 1
= 44, 14
= 45 days (1) O/F [2]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

18
Creditors 18 460
Bank overdraft 83 261
290 230 290 230
[8]

[31]

4 (a) Poorly answered. Learners did not really explain why 2 – 20 people form a partnership. Reason
being to make a profit.
Answer
A business in which two or more people work together as owners with a view to making profits. [1]

(b) Poorly answered. Learners did not know how to calculate depreciation and then enter it correctly in
the general ledger. Wrong account names and dates being left out were also a problem. Used the
balances from provision as the entries in the depreciation account.
Answer
Provision for depreciation on equipment account
N$ N$
2024 2023
Aug 31 Balance c/d 69 300 Sept 1 Balance c/d 46 200
2024
Aug 31 Depreciation 23 100 (1)
69 300 69 300
Sep 1 Balance c/d 69 300 (1) O/F
[2]
Provision for depreciation on vehicles account
N$ N$
2024 2023
Aug 31 Balance c/d 118 080 Sept 1 Balance b/d 97 600
2024
Aug 31 Depreciation 20 480 (1)
118 080 118 080
Sep 1 Balance b/d 118 080 (1) O/F
[2]
Depreciation account
N$ N$
2024 Provision for 2024
Aug 31 depreciation on Aug 1
equipment 23 100 (1) O/F Profit and Loss 43 580 (1) O/F
Provision for
depreciation on
vehicles 20 480
43 580 43 580
Sep 1 Balance b/d 118 080 (1) O/F
[3]

(c) Satisfactory answered. Some learners turned the question into a general journal. Some messed up
the order of doing the appropriation section first and then calculating net profit. A lot included Interest
on loan in the appropriation section and thus lost their marks for profit share.
Answer
J Pink DL2
N$ N$ N$
Gross profit
Add: Other income
Discount received 7 400
Interest on fixed deposit 1 600 (1)
Gross income 211 600 (1)
Less: Other expenses 143 663
General expenses(15 000 – 880) 14 120 (1)

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

19
Bad debts (300 + 500) 800 (1)
Salaries 20 000
Rent expense/Rent paid 60 000 (1)
Provision for doubtful debts (22 600 – 500) x 3% 663 (1)
Interest on loan (50 000 x 9%) 4 500 (1)
Depreciation (23 100 + 20 480) 43 580 (1) O/F
Net profit 67 937 (1) O/F
Add: Interest on drawings
- Regina 740 (1)
- Ken 815 (1) 1 555
Less: Interest on capital 69 492
- Regina 10 800 (1)
- Ken 11 200 (1) 22 000
Less: Salaries – Regina (5 000 x 12) 24 000 46 000
Profit share - Regina 11 746
- Ken 11 746 23 492
[16]

(d) Poorly answered. Learners do not know the layout of the Goodwill account.
Answer
Accounts to be debited Accounts to be credited
Account name Amount Account name Amount
N$ N$
Capital: Regina 20 760
Goodwill 41 520 (1)
Capital: Ken 20 760 (1)
Capital: Regina 13 840 Goodwill 41 520 (1)
Capital: Ken 13 840
Capital: Donald 13 840 (1)
[4]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Accounting basics must be drilled with the learners. Emphasising proper account names when doing Accounting,
correct terminology and layouts of the different accounts and statements.

It is important that learners also distinguish and understand the different command words that are given in questions,
e.g. calculate, state, post, prepare, etc.

Teachers must give more practice exercises, e.g. use previous question papers with proper mark schemes as well as a
variety of ways how topics could be asked.

Students should be encouraged to use the proper layouts by making sure that they learn these layouts.

Internal marking should be very strict and feedback on every test/task/examination must be given.

Teachers must use the syllabus for teaching and not the textbook.

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

20
AFRIKAANS AS A SECOND LANGUAGE
6108
Paper 1

ALGEMENE OPMERKINGS
Baie dankie aan al die taalkollegas wat hard gewerk het om hulle kandidate goed voor te berei vir die eksterne eksamen.
Ongelukkig was daar nog sentrums waar die taalversorging nie so goed was nie. Selfs kru-taal/vloekwoorde het
voorgekom.

In antwoord op kommentaar deur sekere sentrums, wil ons u net weer daarop wys dat die vraestel streng volgens die
sillabusvoorskrifte opgestel word. Daarna volg moderering, redigering en nog ’n paar prosesse. Die spesifikasies vir
die vraestel is op bladsy 23 in die sillabus. Alle vrae moet die assesseringsdoelstellings van Lees en Skryf 1 - 4, insluit.
U moet seker maak dat u die sillabus absoluut ken. Let asseblief daarop dat elke taak, ’n vaardigheid is en ingeoefen
moet word.
Dit was opmerklik hierdie jaar hoeveel Engelse woordeskat voorgekom het in die skryfstukke. U as onderwyser is
daarvoor verantwoordelik om u leerders behoorlik voor te berei op die eksamen. Dit sluit taalvaardighede en woordeskat
in. Genoemde aspekte moet reeds in Graad 8 & 9 bemeester word. Dit het duidelik uit die antwoorde geblyk dat baie
kandidate nie voornaamwoorde of voorsetsels ken nie.

Kandidate het nie agtergrondskennis nodig om vrae in die vraestel te beantwoord nie; die inligting is in die leesstukke
vervat. Behoorlike kennis van die opdragwoorde kan help. Opskerping van stiplees,vluglees en begriplees sal beslis
ook help om Taak 1 tot 4 beter te beantwoord.

AFDELING 1

Taak 1: 1 – 7
Hierdie taak is oor die algemeen goed beantwoord. Sommige kandidate het lang sinne net so uit die leesstuk oorgeskryf
en nie net die antwoord nie. Ander het weer die kernwoord van die antwoorde uitgelaat.

1 Wie was Jashmir se inspirasie om ’n DJ te word? [1]

Oor die algemeen is die taak goed beantwoord, behalwe vraag 3.

1. Antw. Sy oupa
Enkeles het geskryf oupa/ ’n oupa/ haar oupa/hom se oupa.

2. Hoe het Jashmir se oupa hom aangemoedig om ’n DJ te word?

Antw. Hy het vir hom ’n DJ-beheerder gegee  [1]
Goed beantwoord. Enkeles het DJ uitgelaat.

3. Hoe het Jashmir en sy maats se mening oor die liedjie ’Shakespeare’ verskil? [2]
Meestal goed beantwoord.

Sommige kandidate het die sin verkeerdelik net so gelig uit die leesstuk: “My maats ... ” Dis ’n vlak 3 vraag –
voornaamwoorde moet verander word.

Antw. Jashmir het nie daarvan gehou nie/gedink dis aaklig 

Maats het daarvan gehou/ dit geniet of

Sy maats het hom ondersteun en die liedjie op hulle selfone gespeel.

4. By watter geleenthede het Jashmir opgetree toe hy ’n tiener was? [1]

Goed beantwoord. Daar was kandidate wat slegs een antwoord gegee het.

Antw. Skool se spesiale geleenthede

partytjies

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

21
5. Hoe weet ons Jashmir is nie net in Suid-Afrika gewild nie? [2]
Redelik beantwoord, hoewel lang sinne geskryf is.

Antw. Internasionale platemaatskappye kontak hom 

Amerikaners dans op sy liedjies 
Hy is gewild op iTunes [enige twee]

6. Waarvoor gebruik Jashmir TikTok? [1]

Redelik beantwoord. Dit was ’n uitdaging, want dis ’n hoër vlak vraag [soos vereis deur die sillabus]

Antw. Doen navorsing oor nuwe klanke/doen navorsing vir sy volgende projek

7. Wat wys dat kwaliteit vir Jashmir belangrik is? [1]

Antw. Verbeter musiek totdat hy tevrede is.

Die meeste kandidate het die hele sin net so uit die teks gelig, omdat daar twee reëls voorsien was. [10]

Taak 2
Hierdie taak is relatief goed beantwoord deur van die kandidate.

Daar was enkeles wat hierdie vraag nie so goed beantwoord het nie, want hulle ken nie die sinonieme vir party woorde
nie.

8 baie nagedink oor sy/haar projek. B [1]

9 ander tieners se projekte krediet gegee. C [1]
10 van sosiale media gebruik gemaak. B [1]
11 van kleinsaf ervaring van kultuur gehad. D [1]
12 inligting van en insig in kultuur ondersteun. B [1]
13 tieners bewus gemaak van die rol wat kultuur speel. A [1]
14 ’n spanpoging aangewend met sy/haar projek. A [1]
15 idees gebruik wat nie met ’n ander s’n oorvleuel nie. C [1]
16 vir kreatiewe leerders ’n geleentheid geskep. D [1]

[9]

Taak 3

17 Jy gaan ’n praatjie oor gompoue in die klas lewer. Maak kort aantekeninge onder elke opskrif waarop jy
jou praatjie kan baseer. Die eerste aantekening is klaar vir jou gemaak.
Kern aantekening/Kort aantekening/ Kolpuntopsomming/Opsomming in notavorm is alles dieselfde.

Die opsomming in aantekeningvorm/notavorm is hierdie jaar stukke beter beantwoord as die vorige jare. Pragtig!
U moet gereeld kernopsommings met u leerders doen om hierdie vaardigheid by hulle in te skerp.

Foute wat nog voorgekom het:

• Twee feite word op een reël geskryf.
• Feite word onder die verkeerde subhofie geskryf.
• Daar was enkele kandidate wat tot buite die raamwerk geskryf het.

Onthou dis ’n kernaantekening. Die antwoord moet net die stelling voltooi. Volsinne is nie nodig nie, maar die
antwoord moet sinvol/verstaanbaar wees.

(a) Die gedeelte is goed beantwoord.

(b) Kandidate het sinne uit die leesstuk gelig. Hulle skryf Gompoue eet graag: omnivore ...

(c) Kandidate het punte verloor omdat hulle nie die leesstuk stiplees en soeklees nie. Hulle skryf die
eerste iets wat hulle sien. Dit is gewoonlik net die helfte van die antwoord. Sommige kandidate kon
nie “vyande” met “bedreiging” in verband bring nie.
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Taak 3: Antwoorde

Vraag 19 Antwoord Punte

(a) Wanneer gompoue in Ken 1 punt toe vir elke aanvaarbare antwoord, tot ’n maksimum van 2 2
gevaar is: • probeer hulle weghardloop (gegewe)
• styg hulle op (met harde vlerkgeklap) (L1)
• vlieg hulle (vinnig en kragtig) weg (L1)
(b) Gompoue eet graag: • Plante of sade (L1) 3
• Diere/diertjies/vleis/slange, akkedisse en insekte (L1)
• Gom van akasiabome (L1)
(enige drie)
(c) Bedreigings vir • Roofdiere (soos hiënas, jagluiperds en rooikatte)  3
gompoue: • Stedelike uitbreiding 
• Besoedeling 

[8]

Taak 4

Kandidate het hierdie taak oor die algemeen swak beantwoord, ten spyte van die feit dat Selfies ’n alledaagse
onderwerp by tieners is. Dis moontlik dat hulle of nie behoorlik lees nie of dat hulle nie goed genoeg voorberei is op
hierdie vaardigheid nie.

Vrae Antwoorde AD Punte

18 D L2 [1]
19 A L1 [1]
20 C L2 [1]
21 D L2 [1]
22 A L3 [1]
23 B L2 [1]
24 C L4 [1]
25 D L3 [1]

[8]

AFDELING B: SKRYF

Taak 5: Begeleide skryfwerk

OPDRAG: Jou oupa of ouma het tagtig geword. Jy het dieselfde naam as jou oupa of ouma.
Skryf ’n brief waarin jy jou oupa of ouma gelukwens.

In jou brief moet jy die volgende dinge noem:

• watter rol jou oupa of ouma in jou lewe speel,
• hoekom jy trots is om dieselfde naam as sy of hy te hê,
• wat mense van die gemeenskap van hom of haar dink.

Jou brief moet tussen 100 en 150 woorde lank wees.

Jy sal tot 8 punte vir die inhoud en tot 7 punte vir die styl en akkuraatheid van jou taalgebruik ontvang.

Die meeste kandidate kon dié skryfstuk baasraak, hoewel die formaat nie altyd heeltemal korrek was nie. Die aanhef
en slot het in baie gevalle ontbreek.
Gebrekkige woordeskat, Engelse woorde en woordordefoute was oorweldigend.

Baie kandidate het gaan vashaak by die gelukwense van Ouma of Oupa en nie die res van die opdrag gelees of
uitgevoer nie. Soms is net 1 of 2 prikkels gebruik en dan geen uitbreiding daarop gegee nie.
Nog ’n fout wat voorgekom het, is dat kandidate aan Ouma en Oupa geskryf het.

Drie prikkels word gegee om te gebruik! Berei u kandidate voor om dit te gebruik in hulle skryfstuk.

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Een prikkel per paragraaf en verdere uitbreiding van die idee is wat van die kandidaat verwag word.

Taak 6: Uitgebreide skryfwerk

Skryf 200 tot 250 woorde oor een van die volgende onderwerpe:

(Jy sal tot 10 punte vir die inhoud van jou opstel en tot 10 punte vir die styl en akkuraatheid van jou taalgebruik kry.)

(a) Só het ons vriendskap begin.

(b) ’n Mens se oë is die vensters van jou siel.

Gee ’n beskrywing van die emosies wat jy in mense se oë kan lees.

(c) Kitsbanke, kitskos en kitsoplossings, alles is deesdae kits. Is dit goed of is dit sleg? Bespreek jou mening.
Die paar kandidate wat hierdie taak gekies het, het dit suksesvol gedoen.

By hierdie opdrag het kandidate ’n keuse, soos voorgeskryf in die sillabus:

1 Verhalende opstel

2 Beskrywende opstel
3 Argumenterende - of Beredeneerde opstel
Die opdragwoorde lei jou:
Wat dink jy? of Gee jou mening = Argumenterend
Bespreek = Beredeneerd

(a) Die meeste kandidate het hierdie onderwerp gekies, maar nie almal het daarin geslaag om ’n goeie
storie te vertel nie. Daar is meer gefokus op wat die vriendskap voorafgegaan het, as die ontwikkeling
van die vriendskap.

(b) Die enkele kandidate wat hierdie onderwerp gekies het, was baie suksesvol en het baie goeie
argumente gehad en dit gemotiveer.

(c) Beskrywende opstel

’n Paar kandidate het hierdie opstel aangedurf.
Verskeie emosies is genoem, maar geen of min beskrywing van die emosies is gegee nie. Selfs die
funksies van die oë is genoem.
Kandidate se woordeskat is duidelik te beperk om ’n beskrywende opstel suksesvol te kan skryf.
Enkeles het dié taak suksesvol afgehandel.

Belangrike wenk:
• Maak seker dat u u merkskema ken.
• Hou die merkskema altyd byderhand.
• Onthou die inhoud en die taal en styl word apart geëvalueer.
• Die merkskema maak voorsiening vir selfs die swakste kandidaat om ’n punt te kan verdien.
• Leer u kandidate om asseblief by die aantal woorde, soos aangedui, te hou, by beide skryfstukke.

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6108
Paper 2

Taak 1

Hierdie taak is oor die algemeen swak tot gemiddeld beantwoord. Enkele sentrums het goed gevaar.

In vergelyking met verlede jaar was daar minder kandidate wat in meer as drie woorde beantwoord het. Kandidate wat
nie by die voorgeskrewe 3 woorde per antwoord gehou het nie, het ongelukkig die punte verbeur.

1 (a) Hierdie vraag is oor die algemeen meestal korrek beantwoord.

Korrekte antwoord: Klasse het gekoop.

Antwoorde wat ook as korrek aanvaar is: leerders het gekoop / skool het gekoop / Hulle koop dit / By die
leerders / Hulle koop / koop / van die klasse / meeste klasse

Verkeerde antwoorde: klaase, klase, (by die) leerlinge, leerders en ouers, leerders en onderwysers, bome
word gekoop, dit word gekoop

(b) Hierdie vraag is redelik goed beantwoord.

Korrekte antwoord: Twee harke, graaf / Harke en graaf / Twee harke / graaf

Antwoorde wat ook as korrek aanvaar is: (Indien net een van die twee korrek is, word dit as korrek aanvaar,
bv. Harke en graf, harkke en graaf.

Verkeerde antwoorde wat nie punte verdien het nie: graf, harkie, bome, kameeldoringbome, soetdoringbome

2 (a) Die vraag is meestal korrek beantwoord, maar verkeerde spelling het in sommige gevalle tot die
verlies van die punt gelei.

Korrekte antwoord: Gif versprei stadiger

Antwoorde wat ook as korrek aanvaar is: gif versprei stadig / Versprei gif stadig / stadig gif versprei

Nie korrek nie: Gif beweeg stadig.

Variasies van woorde wat reg gemerk is: verspry/versprui

staadig/er

Verkeerde spelvorme wat nie as korrek aanvaar is nie: verspray, verspraai

statig

(b) Hierdie vraag is oor die algemeen swak beantwoord.

Korrekte antwoord: Die soort slang / inligting oor/van slang

Antwoorde wat ook as korrek aanvaar is: inligting soort slang

Antwoorde wat verkeerd gemerk is: sort slang, die regte inligting, inligting

Variasies wat as korrek aanvaar is: guf, inlugting

Variasies wat verkeerd is: inligtig

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3 (a) Die vraag is oor die algemeen goed beantwoord. Verkeerde spelling lei weereens tot verlies van die punt.

Korrekte antwoord: tipies van Namibië

Antwoorde wat ook as korrek aanvaar is: Dis Namibies, (Dis) van Namibië / Namibia / Namibie / tiepies
Namibie

Verkeerde antwoorde: tipies van land / kom uit Namibië

Variasies wat as korrek aanvaar is: tiepies

Verkeede spelvorme: tippies x

(b) Oor die algemeen goed beantwoord. Verkeerde spelling lei tot verlies van die punt.

Korrekte antwoord: Mopaniewurms met/en mieliepap

Aanvaarde variasies: mopanewurms, mopaniwurms, moepaniewirms, mopaniewirims, miliepap, milipap,

Net wurms met pap is nie korrek nie. Dit moet mieliepap wees.

Antwoorde wat nie as korrek aanvaar is nie: Mupani/e, mopaneworms, werems, werims, millipap, milliepap

4 (a) Hierdie vraag is meestal korrek beantwoord.

Korrekte antwoord: Verkeerslig was rooi

Antwoorde wat ook as korrek aanvaar is: lig was rooi, rooi lig, rooi verkeerslig, kruisinglig was rooi, verkeerdslig
was rooi, verkeerslig rooi, die rooi lig

Antwoorde wat nie as korrek aanvaar is nie: rooi, lug was rooi, dit was rooi, kleur was rooi, robot

(b) Hierdie vraag is redelik goed beantwoord.

Korrekte antwoord: N$ 1000

Ook korrek: 1000 N$, eenduisend Namibiese dollar

Verkeerd: N$ 1000 Namibiese dollar, doller, Namibise

Taak 2

Hierdie taak is oor die algemeen goed beantwoord. Dis in baie gevalle beter as Taak 1 beantwoord.

(a) Hierdie vraag is oor die algemeen goed beantwoord, hoewel weinig kandidate by die eintlike antwoord,
beter, uitkom.

Korrekte antwoord: beter

Antwoorde wat ook as korrek aanvaar is: blomme / plante, beter plante, plante beter

Variasies van verkeerde spelling wat as korrek aanvaar is: beeter, blome

Verkeerd: bome, plant, blom, better

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(b) Hierdie vraag is meestal korrek beantwoord.

Korrekte antwoord: insekdoders

Antwoorde wat ook as korrek aanvaar is: insekdooders, insektedoders,

Verkeerd: insectdoders, insektdoders, insekdoorders, insekdodders, insekdoodes

(c) Baie kandidate het die vraag korrek beantwoord.

Korrekte antwoord: 25km / kilometer

Verkeerd: 25km/h

Hierdie vraag is meestal korrek beantwoord.

Korrekte antwoord: maande

Antwoord wat ook as korrek aanvaar is: mande, maande lank

Verkeerd: maande lang, maand, maante

(f) Hierdie vraag is meestal korrek beantwoord.

Korrekte antwoord: eiers

Antwoorde wat ook as korrek aanvaar is: heeldag eiers, 2000 eiers, eiers heeldag

Verkeerd: eier, uiers, yers, eyers

(g) Hierdie vraag is meestal verkeerd beantwoord.

Korrekte antwoord: soetdoringbome

Antwoord wat ook as korrek aanvaar is: soetdoring

Variasies wat ook reg gemerk is: soetdooring

(h) Baie kandidate het die antwoord reg beantwoord.

Korrekte antwoord: Wêreldbyedag

Die meeste kandidate het werêld, in plaas van wêreld geskryf. Dit is wel as korrek aanvaar.

Taak 3

Hierdie taak is oor die algemeen uitstekend beantwoord. Baie kandidate het volpunte vir hierdie taak verdien.
1 C
2 G
3 F
4 A
5 D
6 E [6]

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Taak 4

Hierdie taak is redelik goed beantwoord. Sommige kandidate maak nie die regmerkie in die korrekte blokkie nie:
onmiddellik langs die korrekte letter. Baie kandidate maak die regmerkie aan die ver regterkant, wat dit ’n bietjie
ongerieflik vir merk maak.
(i) D
(ii) C
(iii) D
(iv) C
(v) B
(vi) B
(vii) A
(viii) B [8]

Taak 5

Hierdie taak was die uitdagendste en is oor die algemeen nie baie goed beantwoord nie, behalwe in uitsonderlike
gevalle waar kandidate 8-9 uit 10 gekry het. Geen kandidaat het hier volpunte verdien nie.

(a) HIerdie vraag is meestal korrek beantwoord.

Korrekte antwoord: Vriende het haar genooi

Antwoorde wat ook as korrek aanvaar is: om te kom kuier, sy is genooi, (om) vriende te kom kuier, deur/van
vriende genooi, vriende kuier, sy kuier, kuier vriende, vriende haar genooi

Verkeerd: vriende het haar nooi, vriende haar nooi, vriende genooi,

(b) Korrekte antwoord: Sterre is (op hul) helderste (daar)

Verkeerd: sterre is helder

(c) Korrekte antwoord: Prenteboeke oor die natuur/ boeke met prente oor die natuur / Sy het vir haarself
gesê dat sy eendag hierdie plekke sal besoek.
Kandidate skryf prenties x, prenkies √
Verkeerde variasies: nature en natier x

(d) Sy was al vyf keer daar. / Sy het ’n goeie vriend daar ontmoet.

Nie beste vriend nie. x

Korrek: kere / keere, fyf

Verkeerd: voel elke keer asof dit die eerste keer is

Verkeerde variasies: keur/e, fuif, fyv

(c) Korrekte antwoord: (trotse) gemsbokke en of (rooi) duine

As korrek aanvaar: gensbokke, gemsbok, gemsboke, dyne

(d) Die meeste kandidate het nie die vraag korrek beantwoord nie.

Korrekte antwoord: hoe uitgestrek die woestyn / dit is uitgestrek.

(Die) verskeidenheid diere

Ook as korrek aanvaar: verskillende diere

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Nie net diere nie.
Verkeerd: uitgestryk, uitgerekte woestyn, woestuin x

(e) Weinig kandidate kon hierde vraag korrek beantwoord.

Korrekte antwoord: Jy het ’n 4x4-voertuig nodig. / Hier is nie baie ander mense nie [enigeen] Nie net 4x4 /
motor nie.

Verkeerd: Daar is min mense.

(f) Nie baie kandidate kon die antwoord korrek beantwoord nie.

Korrekte antwoord: Luderitz is ’n juweel. / Dis ’n fantastiese ervaring

Ook korrek: Dis fantasties.

Verkeerd: fantasties

(g) Korrekte antwoord: Sy het die wildeperde (van die Namib) gesien.

Variasies van perde wat as korrek aanvaar is: pêre, perre

ALGEMENE WENKE

1. Spelfoute het kandidate se punte negatief beїnvloed. Dit wil voorkom of spelling grotendeels ’n probeem vir die
meeste kandidate is. Eenvoudige woorde soos gif (giv), vyf (fyv), graaf (graf), blomme (blome), perde (pere),
ensovoorts is verkeerd gespel.
Lees verbeter die spelvermoë van kandidate. Onderwysers word aangemoedig om ook meer gereeld speltoetse te
laat skryf. Kandidate moet weet dat spelfoute in ag geneem word by die nasien van Vraestel 2. Sou die antwoord
’n ander erkende Afrikaanse woord spel, bv. Taak 1 (b) graf i.p.v. graaf, Taak 5 (i) printe in plaas van prente, is die
antwoord verkeerd. Ook, sou ’n antwoord in Engels wees, bv. Taak 2 (a) better in plaas van beter die antwoord
outomaties verkeerd is.

2. Dit wil voorkom asof kandidate nie genoegsame blootstelling aan hierdie vraestel kry nie. Gebruik ook gerus
asseblief vorige sillabus vraestelle (4115) om gereeld Luister met u leerders te oefen.

3. Raai asseblief die kandidate ten sterkste af om eers met ’n potlood te antwoord. Daar word nie tyd toegestaan om
potloodmerke uit te vee en met ’n pen oor te skryf nie. Sommige kandidate het antwoorde in potlood geskryf. Dit
moet ten sterkste ontmoedig word.

4. Handskrif en doodtrek van verkeerde antwoorde: Kandidate moet weet hoe om ’n verkeerde antwoord (woord of
letter) dood te trek sodat daar by die eksaminator geen twyfel bestaan oor wat daar geskryf staan nie.
Kandidate verloor ook soms punte omdat hulle in ’n onleesbare handskrif skryf en die antwoord nie duidelik is nie.

5. Dis belangrik dat die bes moontlike eksamenlokaal vir die afneem van hierdie vraestel gebruik moet word. Soms is
die akoestiek van veral groter vertrekke soos sale nie gewensd nie omdat die klank nie lekker dra nie en kandidate
nie goed kan hoor nie. Kleiner lokale soos klaskamers werk gewoonlik beter.

6. Dis belangrik dat kandidate moet verstaan dat dit in hierdie vraestel gaan oor dit wat deur die stemme gelees word
en dit wat hulle hoor. Eweneens mag kandidate nie sinonieme vir woorde neeskryf nie, bv. wanneer die antwoord
gelukkig is, mag hulle dit nie met ’n sinoniem soos bv. bly vervang nie. Kandidate moet skryf wat voorgelees word
en wat hulle hoor.

7. Baie dankie weereens vir u harde werk en toewyding. Mag 2025 ’n fantastiese jaar vir u en u leerders wees.

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6108
Paper 3

Baie dankie aan al die onderwysers vir u harde werk gedurende 2024. Dit word ongetwyfeld hoog waardeer.

Die departementshoof behoort jaarliks saam met die eksaminator die verslag deur te werk wanneer dit die skool bereik.
Dit word gedoen met behulp van die handleiding/vraestel. Eksaminatore lees nie hul verslae van die vorige jaar nie.

Dis belangrik dat u by u departemenshoof of vakhoof daarop aandring om die verslag te kry. Soms is dit by die skool
en u is onbewus daarvan.

Die vakhoof/moderator moet toesien dat hierdie aanbevelings wel nagekom is. Maak tyd vir die interne moderering.

1 Voorbereiding:
Probeer om die praat-eksamen in ’n stil plek te doen.

Die onderwysers moet asseblief die “tutorial” op die USB en handleiding deeglik bestudeer voordat hulle met die
praat-eksamen begin.
Die keuse van die praatkaart berus by die eksaminator. Kandidate mag nie die praatkaart kies nie.

U moet vooraf navorsing doen oor die onderwerpe om addisionele toepaslike vrae oor die onderwerpe voor te
berei.
Die taalgebruik van sommige eksaminatore was ’n probleem, bv. Welkom “na” die eksamen.

Eksaminatore moet vooraf vir hulle vergewis van moeiliker terme.

2 Kwaliteit van opnames

Die meeste opnames was duidelik alhoewel daar ook ander geluide, veral selfoongeluide en agtergrondgeraas
was. Eksaminatore moet gefokus wees en nie met ander take besig wees gedurende opnames nie.

Klankopnemers moet nader aan kandidate geplaas word.

Sentrums moet verseker dat klankopnemers maklik die opnames kan oorlaai op hul geheuestokkies (USB).
Maak seker dat die nodige sagteware by u skole beskikbaar is.

3 Punteverspreiding van die steekproef

Sommige van die swakker kandidate is nie by die steekproef ingesluit nie.

Sommige eksaminatore het nie alle praatkaarte vir hul steekproewe gebruik nie.
Van die eksaminatore het meer as 10 opnames ingestuur sonder om die steekproefkandidate met ’n asterisk (*)
aan te dui.

Moenie die meer uitdagende onderwerpe aan die swakker kandidate gee nie.

4 Eksamentegnieke
Eksaminator mag geen persoonlike vrae vra nie.

Die onderhoude met die steekproefkandidate moet in dieselfde volgorde wees as die name op die voorblad van
die geheuestokkie.
Eksaminatore moet waak teen herhaling van dieselfde vrae.

Die meerderheid van eksaminatore was vriendelik en tegemoedkomend (simpatiek). Waak teen te veel vrae
agtermekaar te vra, dit ontsenu veral swakker kandidate.
Let op die opwarmingsessie wat slegs 2-3 minute lank moet wees en hou by die voorgeskrewe lengte, (bladsy 5
in die handleiding).

Vermy die volgende: stellings te herhaal, idees op te som, sinne te voltooi,kandidate in die rede val, kandidate te
korrigeer, gesprekke te oorheers en ’n opsomming daarvan aan die einde van die opname te maak.
Vermy opwarmingsvrae wat te doen het met die kandidaat se gekose praatkaart.

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Eksaminatore moet onthou dat dit ’n Afrikaanse praateksamen is en sodoende daarteen waak om Engels met die
kandidate te praat of om die gebruik van Engelse woorde aan te moedig.
Sommige eksaminatore volg nie die instruksies in die handleiding nie. Let asseblief daarop om die stappe soos
uiteengesit in die Handleiding/Vraestel op bl. 5 slaafs na te volg.

Neem kennis dat dit ’n gesprek is en vermy monoloë deur die kandidate en lang stiltes van die eksaminatore se
kant af. Vra onmiddellik ’n opvolgvraag indien dit blyk dat die kandidaat sukkel om hom-/haarself uit te druk.
Sommige van die hoofdeel van die praateksamen was te kort of te lank. Onthou dat die hoofgedeelte 6-9 minute
moet duur.

Die aankondiging deur die eksaminator moet apart opgeneem en so gestoor word en moet nie tydens kandidate
se gesprekke herhaal word nie en maak nie deel uit van die kandidaat se opname nie, (sien bl. 6, Afdeling 16).
Die meeste eksaminatore is hopeloos te streng of toegeeflik met “struktuur”. Struktuur is woordorde. Maak
asseblief seker dat u vertroud is met die nasientabel.

5 Ander
Die Opsommende Puntelys vir die Praat-evaluering (OPPE) is ’n amptelike dokument en moet in swart ink voltooi
word, maar dit is altyd netjieser as dit getik word. Probeer dit gerus.

Afwesige kandidate en diegene wat die skool verlaat het, moet op die OPPE verskyn en moet duidelik aangedui
word met ’n A op die opsommingsblad en 999 op die MS1. Kyk na die `tutorial` op die geheuestokkie, (USB).
Die MS1 moet uitgedruk word en moderering moet interne gedoen word. Vele optelfoute en oordragsfoute het
voorgekom.

Dis baie belangrik dat as daar meer as een onderwyser by ’n skool of buurskole as eksaminator optree, hulle vooraf
moet standaardiseer. Dit sal voorkom dat daar uiteenlopende puntetoekennings is.

WENKE AAN ONDERWYSERS

• Baie eksaminatore is onvoorbereid, want hulle kry nie betyds die vraestelle nie. Maak seker dat u die vraestelle
voor die aanvang van die eksamen by die hoof van die sentrum kry.
• Die belangrikste is dat u u kandidate ken. Dit help u om vrae, veral in die opwarming, te stel waaroor hulle met
gemak kan praat.
• Dis belangrik dat praatevaluering deurgaans gedoen word.
• Deel met u kandidate die praatkaarte van vorige praat-eksamens sodat hulle presies weet wat om in die
praateksamen te verwag.
• Dis raadsaam om die nasientabel met die leerders te behandel sodat hulle hulself kan vergewis van hoe en
waarvoor punte toegeken word.
• Dis raadsaam dat die kandidate vroeg in die tweede semester 5 onderwerpe neerskryf waaroor u in die
opwarmingsfase met hulle kan gesels. Hou dit in volgorde byderhand vir wanneer die kandidate aanmeld vir hul
praateksamen.
• U moet die wending van die gesprek verander wanneer dit duidelik is dat die kandidaat sukkel om oor die onderwerp
te praat. Vra oop vrae eerder as geslote vrae wat ‘’ja” en “nee” tot gevolg het. (sien bl. 6 in die Handleiding/Vraestel)
• U moet baie geduldig met die kandidate wees, veral met die swakkeres.
• Bestudeer die voorskrifte sodat onnodige tegniese foute voorkom kan word.
• Maak asseblief seker dat alle dokumente ingedien word.
• Voordat die geheuestokkie weggestuur word, moet die eksaminator baie seker maak dat die opname van elke
kandidaat baie duidelik is.
• Moenie verbasing en geskoktheid toon wanneer die kandidaat iets sê of deel wat na u mening sodanige reaksie
verdien nie.
• Vermy dit om die kandidate op hul troetelname (ousa, boeta, meide, ens.) te noem. Dit doen afbreuk aan die
formele trant wat die eksamen moet aanneem.
• Dis belangrik dat u nie die praateksamen geringag nie. As u dit vir die eerste keer gaan doen, maak seker dat u
kers opsteek by andere wat dit reeds voorheen gedoen het. Andersins moet u vra om opgelei te word.
• Die swakker kandidate se klankopname is gewoonlik onhoorbaar. Die eksaminator moet toesien dat die klank van
hierdié kandidate ook van goeie kwaliteit is.
• Eksaminatore moet sensitief teenoor kandidate wees wat ‘n spraakgebrek het. Wees simpatiek en ekstra geduldig
teenoor hierdie kandidate.

Weereens wil ek u bedank vir u harde werk. Sterkte en voorspoed vir 2025.

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32
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
6115
Paper 1

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The paper was of the same standard compared with the previous year (2023). That is in terms of the level of difficulty.
The quality of candidates’ work was also of the same standard. Candidates are still unable to deal with command words
especially when answering essay type questions in section B. No improvement on spelling . Some centres do not seem
to study and analyse examiners' reports because candidates continue to carry misconceptions that were addressed
previously.

However, candidates’ work was neat and legible. They also successfully completed the paper, which implies that they
are well trained in terms of time management.

It was observed that most candidates struggled to answer questions that had to with data analysis, graph interpretations
and solving simple arithmetical calculations. It is therefore important to provide additional support and more practice,
for candidates to have a comprehensive understanding in those areas.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

1 (a) (i) Most candidates were able to read the number of days from the graph.
Answer
35;
(ii) Fairly well answered. However, some candidates lost marks for referring to the number of days/
weeks while the question asked the number of weeds.
Answer
20 with mulch;
250 without mulch;
(iii) This was poorly answered. Most candidates found it challenging as it required the candidates to
suggest effects of mulch on weeds growth.
Answer
mulch suppress the growth of weeds;
physically hinders the emerging weeds;
prevent weeds from getting sunlight;

(b) Well answered. Most candidates have knowledge on the importance of mulching.
Answer
reduce evaporation;
keep the soil moist/conserve the soil moisture;
reduce (splash) erosion/reduces soil loss;
organic mulch improves the soil fertility when it rot/decompose;
keep the soil temperature constant;

(c) Poorly answered. Most candidates gave positive effects of humidity even though the question clearly
asked for negative effects.
Answer
low humidity increases evaporation/transpiration;
high humidity increases the spread of fungal diseases/pests;

2 (a) Well answered. Most candidates correctly identify the soil type fitting the descriptions given.
Answer
1 clay;
2 loam;
3 sand;
4 loam;

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(b) (i) Fairly answered. Some candidates refer to gully erosion as rill or sheet erosion and splash
erosion was mostly spelled as 'spalash' or 'spulush'.
Answer
X - gully erosion;
Y - splash erosion;
(ii) Poorly answered. Candidates do not have sufficient knowledge on gully erosion, therefore, they
could not come up with best practices to restore the land at X (gully erosion problem).
Answer
introduce vegetation cover/planting grass;
plugging gullies;
gabion block/wall;
(iii) The question was poorly answered. It was challenging for candidates to relate the principles of
zero tillage to the landscape (steep slope) in the diagram.
Answer
zero tillage does not disturb soil structure;
erosion will be minimised/reduced;

(c) (i) The question was poorly answered. Most candidates identified the drainage system as ditches
instead of pipe drainage system.
Answer
pipe drain;
(ii) Poorly answered as most candidates could not score a mark on this question. It was challenging
for them to deduce answers making references to the data given in a diagram.
Answer
inhibit/reduce root growth/slow down root growth;
inhibit/reduce the absorption of nutrients;
limit leaf area expansion that hinder photosynthesis;

(d) Well answered. Candidates could correctly identify a reason why a waterlogged soil is considered
unsuitable for crop growth.
Answer
C;

3 (a) (i) Well answered. However, some candidates referred to the process of osmosis and loss of water
from the plant (transpiration).
Answer
water movement/ water moving out the cell/exosmosis;
(ii) Fairly well answered. Some candidates lost marks for referring to shrinked cytoplasm instead of
a shrinked vacuole.
Answer
(more) water moves out of the vacuole/water moving out of the cell;
shrinked vacuole;
cell membrane pulls away from cell wall;
cytoplasm pulls away from the cell wall;
cell becomes flaccid/plasmolysed;
(iii) Well answered. Candidates could identify piecing and sucking pests as the type of pest which
feed on the cell sap found in X (vacuole).

(b) Poorly answered. There is a misconception between osmosis and diffusion concepts. Most
candidates indicated dissolved mineral salts moving by osmosis instead of diffusing from the soil
into the roots. The majority also referred to plant absorbing mineral through the xylem.
Answer
dissolved minerals diffuse into the root;
from higher concentration (soil) to lower concentration in the (root)
down concentration gradient;
dissolved minerals are transported via the xylem vessel;
due to transpiration pull/stream; or
move by active transport;

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from lower to higher concentration against the concentration gradients/using energy;
dissolved minerals are transported via the xylem vessel;

4 (a) The question was fairly well answered. Some candidates spelled a harrow as hallow. The function
of a harrow was mostly referred to as harrowing instead of levelling.
Answer
harrow;
level the soil;
break large soil clods/lumps;

(b) (i) Fairly well answered. Most candidates scored one mark for the tassel but failed to state its
function. Tassel was spelled as tassen and tessel by some candidates.
Answer
name - tassel/anthers;
function - produce pollen grains/male sex cell;
(ii) Poorly answered. Most candidates could not state the reason why silk hangs outside the cob.
Answer
to trap pollen grains from the wind;

(c) (i) Well answered. Only few candidates named factors such wind and humidity.
Answer
sunlight;
carbon dioxide;
water;
(iii) Poorly answered. Most candidates have no knowledge on how the features of the leaf are
related to function.
Answer
large surface area
to expose it as much as possible to sunlight/air/gases;
absence of chloroplasts
enable sunlight to penetrate to mesophyll;

5 (a) Well answered. Candidates knows the functions of protein in animal diet.
Answer
for growth;
repair damaged/worn out tissues/replacement of lost or damaged cells;
for production;

(b) (i) Poorly answered. Most candidates were challenged to analyse data in order to establish the
relationship between the protein content and the age of the pasture. Most candidates do not
know the difference between dependent variable and independent variable.
Answer
as the pasture reaches maturity/ get older;
protein starts to decline/decrease; vice-versa
(ii) Poorly answered. Most candidates found it difficult to analyse data given in order to make a
suggestion on when and why to introduce supplementary feeds.
Answer
50%;
to correct nutrient imbalance, present in the available pasture;
the grass is dry/ it has less nutritional value/low protein/energy;
(iii) Fairly well answered. Most candidates could score two marks, losing the third mark for failing to
calculate the mass excreted in feaces or failing to write the final answer with the unit (kg).
Answer
40% × 10 kg;
100
= 4kg; ⸫ 10kg – 4kg; = 6kg;

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(c) Well answered. Most candidates have knowledge on continuous grazing system.
Answer
may leads to overgrazing;
may encourage the building up of disease causing organism/difficult to control
disease and parasites;
pasture never get time to recover;
may leads to low yield per animal;
controlled breeding may be difficult;
quality of livestock products may be low;
may leads to soil erosion;

6 (a) Well answered. However, some candidates wrote the name of the parts instead of letters.
Answer
1 E;
2 F;
3 C;
4 H;

(b) (i) Poorly answered. Most candidates could not give the correct explanation of genetic modification
and gene. Gene was mostly referred to an alternative form of a gene.
Answer
genetic modification
manipulating the action of a gene; to produce new one with new characteristic;
or copying a gene from one organism and move it into another; in order to
change the genetic makes up of that organism;
gene - basic unit of inheritance that determine the characteristic of an organism;
(ii) Well answered. Only few candidates referred to the negative effects of genetic modification.
Answer
improve fertility;
improve quality of products;
increase the yield;
fast growth;
increase disease resistance;
better-tasting meat;
adaptation to harsh environment/local condition;
drought resistant;

(c) (i) Well answered. Few candidates lost a mark for spelling Sanga as Kasanga/Kasongo/Sang and
for spelling Nguni as Nungi/Guni.
Answer
W Sanga/Nguni
(ii) Well answered. However, the spelling of meat and drought was a challenge to some candidates.
They were spelled as meet and draught respectively.
Answer
tolerate drought;
parasites/ diseases resistant;
adapted to local condition/withstand high temperature;
provide meat of good quality;
high yield/more meat;
longevity;
(iii) Poorly answered. Most candidates could not understand what is meant by 'threat' and 'poses'.
As a result, they could only give the characteristic of breed W.
Answer
long horns that can injury other animal;

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7 (a) (i) Well answered. Candidates could suggest reasons for the cutting down of trees in community forests.
Answer
timber/ furniture/wood carving;
create agricultural space/farming;
building houses/infrastructures/roads;
firewood;
(ii) Fairly well answered. Most candidates referred to deforestation an activity illustrated in the
diagram. Few candidates looked at global problems such as global warming while the question
makes reference to a specific community.
Answer
flood;
limited supply of wood/timber;
no herbal medication;
loss of habitat for animals and birds;
disturb water cycle;
heat waves;
loss of fertile top soil/ soil erosion;

(b) Fairly well answered. Some candidates referred to the requirements that must be met to establish a
conservancy.
Answer
community agreement;
community resource management bodies;
stakeholder identification;
jurisdiction;
land - use units identification;
description of land- use units;
develop/set the objectives and regulations;
benefits distribution plan;
there must be a management plan/documents and documentation;
review and discussion of management plan;
gazetting application;
gazetting;
initiation phase;
application and declaration phase;
implementation and monitoring phase;

8 (a) (i) Poorly answered. Candidates could not define gross margin. Few candidates that made an
attempt, but failed to indicate where the variable costs were deducted.
Answer
amount money remaining; once the variable cost has been deducted from the
overall outputs of the enterprise;
(ii) Poorly answered. Candidates found it very difficult to work out the total outputs/gross income of
an enterprise, which was a prerequisite to calculating the gross margin. The formula to calculate
gross margin is not known.
Answer
1 620 × 2 = 3 240
⸫ 3 240 × 10 = N$ 32 400.00; (total outputs/gross income)
Gross margin = Gross income - variable costs;
32 400.00 - 7100;
N$25 300.00;

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(iii) Fairly well answered. Most candidate could get a mark for indicating profit but they could not
justify their answer. Others lost all the marks for stating that the enterprise made a loss.
Answer
profit;
the farm outputs/income are more than the inputs/expenses;

(b) A – Poorly answered. The value-added product was unfamiliar to candidates. Therefore, suggesting
the preservation method used was difficult.

B- Well answered. Candidates could easily identify canning as a preservation method for product B.
Canning was, however, spelled as curning/carning/scanning.
Answer
A - culturing/homogenization/fermentation;
B - canning

(c) Well answered. However, some candidates referred to HIV transmission and how consumers will not
buy food produced by HIV/AIDS farm workers (a sign of stigmatization).
Answer
farm productivity decrease;
workforce too sick to work;
high absenteeism;

9 (a) The question was fairly answered. Candidates could name at least one country (South Africa) that
import beef cattle from Namibia. On international standards for exporting beef cattle, some candidates
referred to requirements for exporting beef (meat).
Answer
South Africa ; Accept Botswana, Zimbwabwe, and Zambia.
Angola;
(movement permit) and export permit are required;
all animal must be clearly marked;
all animal must be healthy/disease free/;
all animals must be vaccinated;
all animal must be parasites free/ treated for internal parasites (72 hours before export);
animal loading and truck sealing must be done under veterinary supervisors;

(b) Poorly answered. Only few candidates could discuss ways marketing channels pose problems in
agriculture production scoring 2-3 marks but majority scored 0 mark, a sign that they lack knowledge
on the topic (marketing of agricultural produce).
Answer
the point of production at the farm to consumers;
lack of good transport;
long chain middlemen/too many agents;
lack of storage facilities/cooling facilities;
forced sales;
farms far apart over a large area;

(c) Fairly answered. Most candidates could mention the two suitable rations but they were unable to
state why those rations are given to finish off beef weaners for marketing.
Answer
production ration;
extra food/feed given to animal/more protein;
to gain more weight/to achieve additional outputs/grow;
maintenance ration/balanced ration;
to ensure normal functioning of body processes;
to maintain good health/ prevent deficiency diseases;

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10 (a) Well answered. Only few candidates focused on the characteristics of the breeds rather than on the
importance of their products to the economy. The spelling of beef breeds (Bonsmara, Sanga/Nguni
and Simmentaler) was a problem.
Answer
Bonsmara;
Sanga/Nguni (Indigenous);
Afrikaner;
Hereford;
Simmentaler;

Importance of their products to the economy:

Beef is exported to provide foreign currency;
Beef is sold to provide income;
Hides provide raw materials/leather/ processed into upholstery/ cattle leather produce garments /
accessories;

(b) Poorly answered. Candidates misinterpreted the question and majority gave the qualities to be
considered when choosing animals for breeding purposes.
Answer
keep records of all animals;
mating of bull with cows should be done at certain time;
ensuring that calves are born almost at the same time/right time;
(born) when there is plenty of nutritional food/rain season;
for the calves to grow fast;
for the mother to produce more milk;
allow cows to recover before next pregnancy/birth process;

(c) Fairly answered. Some candidates failed to read the question properly as they gave the effects of
overstocking without limiting their answers to the pasture. Overstocking was the common answer
provided by many candidates despite having ‘keeping large number of animal than the land can
support’ in the question.
Answer
trampling of pasture leads to soil compaction;
overgrazing leads to loss of vegetation cover/soil erosion;
selective grazing leads to increase in unpalatable grass/invaders /invasive alien
species/leads to animals feeding on poor grasses;
pasture do not get time to recover;
bushes encroachment (if only grazers are kept on the land);

11 (a) Poorly answered. Most candidates could not cope with this question. Very few candidates that score
1-2 marks just outlined the methods of preparing the seedbed without any discussion.
Answer
For maize/millet/sorghum/oats/barley/wheat/upland rice
clear the land - to remove weeds;
dig the soil/plough – to loosen it;
harrow/rake – to level the soil/to break large soil clods/for water not to flow on one
side of the seedbed;
determine the soil pH – to correct the soil pH according to the crop planted;
fertilise the soil – to increase the soil fertility;
water the soil to moisten the soil/dissolve the nutrients;
any reference to measurements – mark out seed bed boundaries/rows
for lowland/ wetland rice
clear the land – to remove weeds;
repair/construct bunds – retain water;
perform primary tillage – to loosen the soil/overturn the soil;
harrowing – to break large soil clods;
flooding – to control weeds;

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(b) Fairly well answered. However, most candidates lost a mark for spelling nodules as noodles/
noddles. Most candidates also failed to use a correct answering sequence.
Example: stating first that legume has root nodules, that contains nitrogen fixing bacteria, that absorb
atmospheric nitrogen and convert it to nitrates.
Answer
beans/peas/lucerne/clover/cowpeas/groundnuts;
it has nitrogen fixing bacteria;
in the root nodules;
that can absorb atmospheric nitrogen;
convert it into nitrate;
when legume dies and decompose nitrogen is released back in the soil;

(c) Poorly answered. Almost all candidates misinterpreted the question. They mostly explain what is
IPM and all other methods entails in controlling pests without making references to cultural methods.
Few candidates listed the cultural methods to control the pests without discussing them and that was
not good enough to score marks.
Answer
1 crop rotation to kill/interplanting or strip cropping to disturb the life cycle of the pests;
2 winter ploughing/soil treatment which helps to destroy pests (in their pupal stage) by exposing them to
the sun and cold weather/harsh weather;
3 early ploughing which enables sharp rays of the sun to enter the soil and kills the pests’ eggs/larvae;
4 planting resistant cultivars/selection of suitable plants that are specially bred to resist/minimise pests
attack;
5 weed control to destroy pest habitants

12 (a) Well answered. Candidates could describe shifting cultivation but they could not suggest why it not
a viable method to Namibian farmers. Few candidates referred to cleaning of the land instead of
clearing the land. Some candidates indicated farming/ grazing animals on the land as a reason for
clearing the land instead of using the land to grow crops.
Answer
farmer clear the land by cutting down trees and remove stumps;
farmer use a cleared land to grow crop;
until the land is exhausted in terms of nutrients;
farmer shift to another land;
allows the land to recover;
Suggestions
Namibian population has increase thus land is used up to build shelters/houses;
more people need more food, making impossible to leave the land uncultivated for
sometimes;
land is scarce due to population increase;

(b) Well answered. Most candidates could score at least 3 out of 4 marks.
Answer
food productions/improves food security/food self-sufficiency;
income generation through selling of surplus products;
create employment/self-employment/community members employed in small to medium scale farming
projects;
provision of raw materials;
through agricultural earnings, some farmers can establish markets to sell their products commercially;
as more money is invested in the area, this improves economic and social infrastructure;

(c) Well answered. However, some candidates gave general answers such as educating people in the
community, give them loan/financial assistance etc.
Answer
by proving financial assistance to major agricultural project in the community;
by subsidizing certified seeds/fertilisers/transport/tractors/ploughing services;
by setting up livestock handling facilities; vaccinate animals for free;
by setting up green irrigation scheme to improve food production
by providing employment/job to rural people (through various agricultural projects);
provide free advice /and extension services to communities;
assist farmers in establishment of conservancies;

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3. POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teachers are still encouraged to use examiners' reports to prepare learners for both internal and external
examination.

• Teachers must put more emphasis on these areas: data analysis, graph interpretations, solving simple arithmetical
calculations and formulas.

• Teachers must try their best to improve learner’s spelling skills.

• Even though this area has significantly improved, in section B, some learners are still choosing two questions from
each of the four main questions. for example, (a) and (b) from question 9, (a) and (b) from question 10 and (a) and
(c) from question 11 etc. Teachers must therefore continue to explain to learners the meaning of answering any
two questions.

• Learners should be encouraged to familiarise themselves with the glossary of command words at the back of the
syllabus and train learners on how to answer the questions using those command words.

• Teachers should try to encouraged their learners to use appropriate Agricultural Science terminologies and learn
to spell them correctly.

• Teachers must discourage learners from using alternative answers especially on a one-mark question. No correct
answer will be chosen for them.

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6115
Paper 2

GENERAL COMMENTS

The moderation exercise found that many centres submitted most of the required and relevant materials for the
moderation process. There is a greater improvement in the quality of most worksheets submitted by centres. However,
the written work of a few centres on some worksheets is still too general and centres are urged to set practical related
questions. Centres are acknowledged for setting practical exercises that are challenging enough for the level of the
candidates. There are still a few centres that continue to award four to five marks per criteria/skill instead of just three
marks per criteria as required. There are still a few centres that did not submit the marking criteria for practical exercises,
making it difficult to determine how marks were awarded. The moderation team is urging centres to ensure that written
work is done individually and not as a group, which was noticed in a few centres. There is a great improvement in the
evidence submitted in the form of pictures or photographs as required, but there are still some centres not annotating
the pictures. The centres are urged to ensure that the pictures submitted are made up of various stages of the practical
exercises and investigations (from the start, during and the end results). Hence, centres are reminded to continue
providing evidence to validate marks awarded.

The moderation team appreciates centres where there are two or more Agricultural Science teachers for collaborating
in designing or developing common worksheets and practical exercises. However, there were still a few centres where
teaching groups are conducting different exercises. Internal moderation is applicable to all centres even if there is
only one teacher at the centre teaching Agricultural Science and the school management should ensure that it is done,
as addition errors are still found on a few individual candidate record cards as well as the coursework assessment
summary forms. Take note that an internal moderator should not change the marks given by the examiner unless there
are addition errors. When selecting the 10 samples for external moderation, centres should ensure that they select a
sample of 10 candidates made up of those with the highest, average and the lowest marks. For each candidate who
is selected, submit his/her four practical exercises and an investigation report as one sample. Centres are reminded of
the importance to complete the individual candidate record cards, coursework assessment summary forms, MS1 forms
and the USB. Take note that those are official forms and should be completed fully as well as in black or blue ink and
all components must be completed. The names and candidate numbers on the Coursework Assessment Summary
Forms (CASF) must follow the order in the MS1 spreadsheets. Examiners must follow the instructions on the individual
candidate record cards when compiling the marks. The USBs must be labelled with the centre number and subject code
when submitting it for external moderation.

The moderation team appreciates the improvement made in the investigation topics conducted by candidates. In
addition, most investigation reports submitted were compiled in accordance with the stipulated guidelines and evidence
in the form of pictures was attached to the individual reports. However, the moderation team has noticed an increase in
internet downloaded investigation report formats that contains a lot of subtopics that has information not directly linked to
the investigation. In addition, some candidates continue to attach internet downloaded pictures as evidence, as well as
data handling graphs that are not linked to the data collected. This affects the presentation and originality of the reports.
Centres are reminded to ensure candidates attach evidence showing a variety of stages during their investigations. A
few centres are still conducting the same research topic for all candidates and this must be discontinued. Candidates
submitting typed reports are appreciated, just make sure to use Arial or Times New Roman font, size 12 with 1.5-
line spacing. In addition to that, examiners are reminded to inform candidates of the maximum number of words per
report. Centres are still advised to inform candidates that pictures attached to the investigation reports should have
brief descriptions of what is happening and pictures must be clear. Centres are advised to continuously consult the
Coursework Teachers’ Training Manual and the NSSCO Agricultural Science syllabus for examples of researchable
topics. Survey based research topics should be discouraged in order to give candidates a chance to acquire hands-on
practical skills. The moderation team has noticed that final reports submitted by candidates contain grammatical and
content (graphs, data handling, limitations) errors that can be corrected by marking the drafts of the candidates before
the final report is submitted.

Appropriateness of assessment tasks

The moderation team continues to notice the improvement in the submission of good quality worksheets for the
practical exercises. Most centres continue to select exercises from various themes. A few centres are still selecting
practical exercise topics from the same themes and from the legacy syllabus such as brick making or water filtration.
Most centres have developed specific marking criteria for each exercise and this should be maintained as there is an
improvement. Growing crops is highly encouraged at schools, therefore, centres should not only prepare the seedbeds
without showing which crops were ultimately produced or harvested and evidence (pictures) of the crop grown should
be submitted. Centres are encouraged to make use of the Coursework Teachers’ Training Manual (2020) and review

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the previous centre report when selecting topics for practical exercises. The manual is obtainable from DNEA and all
regional offices in the country. Centres are urged to seek advice from other schools and the Senior Education Officers
in the regions.

Interpretation and application of assessment criteria for practical exercises

Most centres are aware of the five assessment criteria that are used to assess each practical exercise and are generating
specific criteria related to the exercise. Centres are encouraged to prepare more challenging and practically related
questions on the written work of the worksheets instead of theory based questions, as was noticed in a few centres.
Teachers are still reminded that written work completed by candidates is important evidence that they have participated
in carrying out specific assessment exercises.

Suitability and relevance of practical investigation hypothesis

There was an improvement in the formulation of relevant hypotheses / questions.

Planning of the investigation

There was an improvement in the planning of the practical investigations, as some candidates included the plan layout
as well as the description of how and when data will be collected. Prior planning on how the investigation will be carried
out should be clearly outlined, e.g. the trial outline and data collection sheets that will be used and these should be
attached as annexes. For centres where candidates share a plot or topic, there should be a schedule to ensure each
candidate collects his/her own data on specified dates.

Handling of evidence

There is an improvement in the handling of data collected, through well labelled tables, charts and graphs. However,
at a few centres, candidates should be encouraged to tabulate their data before analyzing it in well labelled graphs or
charts.

Ability to make deductions

Most centres demonstrated an improvement in making deductions from data analyzed. Examiners should be able to
explain to candidates the difference between findings and deductions.

Limitations

Most centres were able to identify limitations experienced during their investigations. An improvement was noticed
at most centres where candidates suggest ways of improving the limitations identified. Examples of limitations for
investigations can include sample size, sample bias, access to data, lack of sufficient time or lack of financial resources.
Examiners should be cautious of the limitations and recommendations listed by some candidates that are using internet
downloaded formats, as the recommendations do not speak to the listed limitations.

Presentations, layout and originality

There was an improvement in the report layout. Centres are encouraged to provide candidates with the stipulated
layout of the investigation report, but not pre-typed forms for candidates to fill in as this limits them within what is
provided by the teacher. The report should be the candidate’s own work.

Interpretation and application of assessment criteria for practical investigation

There is an improvement by most centres being able to interpret and apply the assessment criteria for practical
investigations. Centres are urged to use the marking guide for practical investigations as given in the syllabus when
awarding marks to candidates and these should be attached to the candidates’ reports, which was noticed in most
centre reports. However, a few examiners are not indicating the marks awarded to candidates on those individual
record cards.

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Administration

The moderation team appreciates centres for submitting all documents required for external moderation in well- organized
files. This made the moderation exercise easier. Centres are still reminded to submit evidence of candidates’ work in
the form of written work done on each practical exercise. Centres are encouraged to follow the correct guidelines when
completing the assessment summary forms, individual candidate record cards and the MS1 forms. Where candidates
are absent, they should be indicated as 999 on the MS1 form as well as on the coursework summary forms.

In addition to that, centres are still reminded to make use of the latest version of forms supplied by the Directorate of
National Examinations and Assessment (DNEA), on which raw marks need to the entered. In conclusion, there was an
improvement in performance demonstrated by all candidates. However, there were a few signs of negligence at a few
centres such as, incomplete assessment forms, addition errors or not attaching evidence like worksheets or pictures or
no internal moderation. New centres and newly appointed teachers to the subject should seek assistance regarding the
conducting and administering of school based assessments in Agricultural Science.

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ART AND DESIGN
6149
Paper 1 & 2

Thank you for your effort and hard work during the year.

A: Gathering, recording, research and investigation

Candidates should be encouraged to do proper investigation into and research on a variety of appropriately gathered
sources. In some cases, candidates did not use a variety of appropriate sources which could result in a weaker end
result.

In some cases, investigation was not done comprehensively, therefore, the chosen topic was not clear. Ideas,
observations and insights should always be recorded visually and annotations should accompany such recordings.
This should be relevant to the candidate’s intentions and he or she should reflect critically on his or her work, as well
as the progress thereof.

Thought processes must be recorded at all times as previously mentioned. It is advisable that candidates should have
a starting point, showing development through different ideas, techniques and stages towards the final. Because of a
lack of research and recording the learners are not able to reflect critically on work and progresses.

B: Exploration and development of ideas

This section of the assessment requires candidates to do more exploration on the gathered ideas that could lead to a
more successful outcome. Experimentation and manipulation processes must be evident. This was the area where
candidates lacked insight. Copy and pasting of pictures is not manipulation or experimentation. Together with direct
observation, candidates should transform images into different creative responses.

C: Organisation and relationships of visual and other forms

Candidates must be able to recognise and organise visual forms. In other words, they must have a clear understanding
of the elements and principles of art as well as how to apply them to communicate ideas effectively.

D: Selection and control of materials

Candidates must explore and experiment with a variety of media and techniques. In some cases, candidates lacked
expertise and skill to work with and apply different media and techniques.

E: Personal vision and interpretation

If the learner does not demonstrate analytical and critical understanding, it would be very difficult to produce a personal
and meaningful response. Encourage candidates to work towards a more individual and creative outcome.

It is advisable to buy the Cambridge A Level and Ordinary Level handbook from Book Den.

It is also a good idea to encourage learners to evaluate one anothers’ work according to the assessment criteria. It will
give them a better understanding of what is expected of them.

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46
BIOLOGY
6116
Paper 1

1 A This was the easiest question in the paper and 97% of the candidates got it right.

2 C This question was scored by 92% of the candidates as it only required basic information about the
binomial system.

3 B The majority of candidates, 73% did well in this question, wrong answers were scattered almost equally among
the other three options

4 B This question was poorly performed with the majority of candidates opting for option A. This shows that
candidates just divided the drawing size with the actual size without first converting them to the same unit.
Conversion:
50 mm to µm = 50mm × 1000 = 50000 µm
or
2000 µm to mm = 2000 µm ÷ 1000 = 2 mm

Magnification = 50000 µm ÷ 2000 µm = ×25

or
50 mm ÷ 2 mm = ×25
It should be emphasised that the numbers can only be substituted into the formula once they had been
converted to the same unit.

5 B Only 45% of candidates answered this question correctly despite it being a very simple question. The second
most popular answer was D. Teachers should give examples of plant tissues and organ systems when teaching
levels of organisation.

6 A Slightly above average number of candidates scored in this question, with the second most popular option
being B. It is very important for learners to be able to identify parts of the cell.

7 A Similar to question 6, slightly above average number of candidates scored in this question. A significant number
of candidates were split almost equally between C and D. This could be because they though the molecules
will move by diffusion while the diagram clearly show that molecules will move from lower concentration and
there is energy involved.

8 B About 56% of candidates got the correct answer which is a bit low for a simple recall question. Teachers should
try to come up with mnemonics to be used by learners to remember, e.g. for DNA base pairing: ‘Apples are in
the Tree and Cars are in the Garage’.

9 C This also appears to be a straight forward question as candidates only needed to know the reagent, the procedure
and the positive results for the reducing sugar test. However, only 48 % of candidates answered it correctly.
This could be due to lack or insufficient laboratory practical experiments carried out in most schools.

10 C The performance in this question was quiet okay considering that graph work had previously been a challenge
to the candidates. 62% of candidates were able to interpret the graph correctly.

11 C The majority of candidates, 68% answered this question correctly. Option A came in the second place,
candidates were probably attracted to this option by ‘large leaves’.

12 A Only 52 % of candidates got the correct answer for this question. Option D was the second popular option.

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13 C This question was well performed. 76% of candidates got the correct answer.

14 C 60% of candidates were able to score in this question, option A also attracted a number of candidates.

15 A This question was not well performed, only 40% of candidates were able to get the correct answer. Candidates
continue to struggle with graph interpretation skill.

16 C The performance in this question was also below average with only 48% of successful attempts. Option
A was also attractive to a number of candidates which could be due to candidates confusing xylem and
phloem tissues.

17 D Only 43% of candidates got the answer correctly for this question. They were required to know the function of
4 blood vessels and this proved to be a challenge.

18 A This question was one of the poorly performed questions in the paper with only 37% of successful
attempts. Candidates should be made familiar with the images of different processes/procedure to enhance
understanding.

19 C Only 39% of candidates got the correct answer, many candidates failed to link mucus to mechanical defence
against infections.

20 B Slightly above average performance was noted in this question with only 51% of candidates scoring.

21 C Well performed by 76% of candidates.

22 A Well performed by 77% of candidates.

23 B Only 41% of candidates scored in this question. Many candidates opted for option D which is really the
opposite of the truth about the kidney transplant because it is a surgical procedure and it is a transplant, which
makes it risky.

24 C Only 48% of candidates answered correctly. Answers were all over, indicating confusion or lack of understanding
of tropism.

25 C 59 % of candidates got the correct answer.

26 A Only 30% of candidates answered this question correctly. Candidates needed to know the changes that occur
in three parts of the eye to accommodate light from a near object. Teachers need to devise ways of making
these types of information easier for learners. What occurs in the eye during accommodation of a near object
is just the opposite of what occurs when accommodating a far object and if a learner knows one side they can
effectively use that to tackle the other.

27 C 51% of candidates answered this correctly. Option A and D were also very popular.

28 B 67% of candidates answered this question correctly.

29 C 58% of candidates answered this question correctly.

30 B This was the most poorly performed question in the paper with only 25% of candidates getting the correct
answer. The most popular option was A which is totally incorrect.

31 B This question was also not well performed as only 36% of candidates scored. Option C was nearly as popular
as the correct option B. More emphasis is needed on the function of reproductive hormones.

32 C This question was well performed by 83% of candidates.

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33 D 62% of candidates were able to score in this question.

34 C Slightly above average number of candidates, 53%, answered this question correctly.

35 D Only 43% of candidates were able to get the correct answer, although it appears to be an easy question.

36 B This question was extremely poorly performed with only 28% of candidates getting the correct answer. It
seems that the adaptive feature of large air spaces in aquatic plants is not well known by candidates.

37 D The performance in this question was not good, with only 40% of candidates scoring. Many candidates were
attracted to option C. They needed to consider the position of all these organisms in the food chain and have
the knowledge that energy decreases as you move further along the food chain.

38 C 63% of candidates got the answer correctly.

39 D 59% of candidates answered this question correctly.

40 A Only 40 % of candidates managed to get the correct answer. Teachers need to ensure that the last topics also
get attention.

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6116
Paper 2

General comments

• There was a slight improvement in the general performance and the candidates’ responses to the questions
compared to the previous years. However some mistakes are repetitive despite numerous efforts to correct them
with previous examiners’ reports.
• Spelling errors of scientific terms did not improve.
• Candidates’ response to command words of explain, discuss and suggest did not improve and this caused them to
lose marks.
• There is no improvement on the drawing of the genetic diagram despite previous effort to improve that.

Comments on individual questions

1. (a) Binomial system is known by most candidates although spelling it correctly proves to be challenging
to some.
Answer
binomial (system);

(b) Most candidates know the features of insects very well.

There were few candidates who gave general features of insects rather than referring to the diagram given.
Answer
1. three body parts/ divisions/sections/ head, thorax and abdomen;
2. three pairs of legs / 6 legs;
3. Wings/1 pair of wings;
4. Compound eyes/ 1 pair of compound eyes;
5. (1 pair) of antennae;

(c) (i) Many candidates answered this question correctly.

Answer
Crustacea/crustacean;
Arachnida/ arachnids;
Myriapoda/ myriapods;
(ii) Candidates know the uses of hierarchical classification systems.
Answer
1. for (easier) identification;
2. for study purposes;
3. for global communication;
4. to sort/group/put/arrange/place/create organisms into order;
5. to determine their evolutionary relationships;
6. to keep track of all organisms;
7. to keep record of organisms;

2. (a) Only few candidates manage to define ingestion and digestion correctly as provided in the syllabus.
Answer
(Ingestion) taking in of food/substances into the body/alimentary canal through the mouth;
(Absorption) movement/uptake/pass through of small (food) molecules /and ions (through the wall of the
intestine) into the blood;

(b) The general skill of labelling diagrams has improved and the use of arrows to label has decreased
greatly. However, only a few candidates could score all the marks.
Answer
label line P – stomach;
B – gall bladder;
L – pancreas;
W – large intestine;

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(c) (i) Many candidates failed to recognise the clue given in the question that enzymes are proteins
therefore they could not give the correct answer.
Answer
amino acids;
(ii) Candidates lost marks by stating maltose as a final product of starch digestion instead of the
correct answer.
Answer
glucose;
(iii) The differences between mechanical and chemical digestion is not known by most candidates.
Candidates lost marks by using their own ideas (which were often distorted) instead of the clear
differences provided in the syllabus.
Answer
Mechanical - breaking down food into smaller pieces without chemical change to the food molecule;
Chemical - the breaking down of large, insoluble molecules into smaller, soluble molecules;

3. (a) The question was poorly answered. Candidates needed to point out features that the two systems
have in common.
Answer
1 transport of (body) fluids;
2 defence against pathogens/contain lymphocytes;
3 made up of vessels;
4 have valves;

(b) The question was well answered by most candidates.

Answer
organism, organ system, organ, tissue, cell

(c) (i) Component Z, white blood cell (lymphocyte) was confused with red blood cell by many candidates.
Answer
White blood cell/lymphocyte;
(ii) Only a few candidates described the process of blood clotting correctly to score all marks.
Answer
1. A blood vessel is damaged/cut;ytb
2. blood flows out of the vessel;
3. platelets stick to the walls of damage vessels;
4. platelets get activated (by vit.K and calcium ions);
5. platelets release an enzyme/thrombin;
6. (enzyme) converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin;
7. fibrin form mesh/ network of fibres;
8. red blood cells get trapped (in a mesh);
9. forming a scab;

(d) Most candidates know the features of a vein but could not score marks because they could not
explain how these features help the vein adapt to its functions.
Answer
1. have a (very) wide/large lumen (relative to wall thickness) + to maximise
blood flow /for more effective return/ minimum resistance/easily and
freely;
2. have thin walls/ walls contain less muscle and elastic fibres + as blood is
flowing at a very low pressure/ for skeletal muscles to squeeze;
3. have valves + to prevent backflow/stop the blood from
pooling/accumulating at the lowest ends;
4. single layer of endothelium/cells on the inside + reduce friction;

4. (a) Most candidates had little understanding of the difference between Breathing and Respiration. They
lost marks by describing air as gases, breathing as gaseous exchange and by defining photosynthesis
instead of respiration.
Breathing should be referred to as the movement/ taking air in and out of the lungs but not to the body or
cells.

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Respiration should refer to ‘the release of energy’ from glucose or from nutrient molecules.
Answer
Breathing – inhalation and exhalation of air/ moving air in and out of the lungs;
Respiration – release of energy (by living cells);

(b) (i) The question was poorly answered. Most candidates did not understand, and therefore, could
not read the graph. They mostly did wrong calculations and those who tried it correctly could not
score all marks because they gave answers without units. It is a requirement that all numerical
answers should have units.
Answer
12 x 500;
= 6000 cm3;
(ii) Most candidates could see that the rate and depth of breathing increased but could not go further
to give the reason for such a change. Many candidates lost marks by explaining the increase in
heart rate.
The emphasis should be on why such a change is necessary. The explanation should include: so that
the active muscles are provided with more oxygen, to increase the respiration rate, to release more
energy and to remove more carbon dioxide faster (which is produced by faster respiration).
Answer
1. breathing rate increases/ faster or depth increases/deeper;
2. to provide more oxygen;
3. to increase respiration rate/ faster respiration;
4. to release more energy;
5. to remove/excrete CO2 faster;

(c) Many candidates failed to score full marks for this question.
Many of them had an understanding that CO combines with haemoglobin but failed to score the second
mark.
Many just gave the effects of tar on the breathing system. CO binds to haemoglobin, leaving less
haemoglobin to transport oxygen. Less oxygen reaches the tissues and respiration in the tissues decreases.
This leads to increased heart rate and breathlessness

Answer
1. CO bind/combines/reacts to haemoglobin (instead of oxygen)/forms carboxyhaemoglobin;
2. Less haemoglobin to transport oxygen/ less oxygen is transported;
3. Decreases/less the amount of oxygen delivered to cells/tissues;
4. Increases heart rate/leads to breathlessness/short(ness) of breath;

5 (a) Candidates answered this question well. They know that raw material A = carbon dioxide and
substance B = oxygen
Answer
raw material A: carbon dioxide/ CO2;
substance B: oxygen/O2;

(b) (i) – (iii) Most candidates could only score one mark for (ii) starch.
Answer
(i) nitrates/ iron/ magnesium
(ii) starch
(iii) amino acids/ proteins

(c) Only few candidates answered this question well.

Most candidates did not read the question to see what was required from them. Simply because the last
question on the same objectives was about the systemic pesticides applied to the soil, they based their
response on that. Others lost marks because they reasoned that sucrose is the one which is going to kill
pest once it is ingested.
Answer
1. systemic pesticides sprayed on plant (leaves);
2. (Pesticides) enters the leaf tissue/stomata/lenticels;
3. transported/translocated by phloem;
4. pests suck it/ pest suck in poisonous (contaminated) sap (from phloem);
5. pest dies;

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(d) Question poorly answered, but they at least got 1 mark for stating that water move through the xylem.
Most candidates described the movement of water from the soil into the root and could only give limited
details of the movement of water up the plant until it exit the plant through the stomata.
Answer
1. (water moves up) through the xylem vessel;
2. moves by cohesion forces ( water molecules attract one another) / by adhesion
(water molecules attracted by the xylem vessel walls)/ capillarity;
3. the pulling effect creates transpiration pull;
4. water is pushed up by root/ root pressure;
5. due to water loss/evaporation from mesophyll cells (into air spaces);
6. water vapour diffuses out of the stomata;

6. (a) Most candidate identified structure Q correctly.

Answer
Nucleus;

(b) Most candidates did not answer this question correctly because they indicated that the diploid number
is 46 instead of 4 as shown in the diagram. Emphasis need to be placed on the different number of
chromosomes for different organisms.
Answer
4 (chromosomes);

(c) The organ in male where meiosis occurs is not known by many candidates. Their responses included
any part of the male reproductive system.
Answer
Testes/testis;

(d) The candidates’ response was mostly ovule

Answer
Egg (cells)/ ova;

(e) The question was well answered. Most candidates could see that there are four daughter cells
produced, each daughter cell has haploid/ two chromosomes and the cell division has two stages.
Answer
4 daughter cells/ 4 cells produced;
Haploid cells/ chromosomes number is halved or reduced by half/single pair of unpaired chromosomes;
Two stage division;

(f) The question was well answered by many candidates.

Answer
Mitosis plays a role in growth, repair damaged tissues and replacement of (worn out) tissues.

7. (a) The processes was correctly identified by most candidates. However, the terms were not correctly
spelled and some candidates described the processes. Sometimes the two terms were switched.
Answer
(i) Pollination;
(ii) fertilisation;

(b) Many candidates lost marks because they failed to provide the role of oxygen and water.
They often referred to oxygen needed for photosynthesis. Some candidates gave the general use of water
rather than that of seed germination.
Answer
Oxygen – necessary for (cell) respiration;
Water – activates enzymes/ dissolves nutrients/ breaks dormancy;

(c) Most candidates failed to score full marks. They failed to use words such as reduce/avoid/decrease/
increase/prevent correctly. Additionally, they lost marks for writing avoid/prevent diseases instead of
reducing the spreading of diseases.
Most candidates are using food and natural resources on the concept of competition. Words such as soil
erosion were used instead of soil depletion.

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Answer
1. prevents/reduces/avoid competition of resources;
2. allows plants to colonize new areas;
3. increases biodiversity;
4. prevents/reduces/avoid overcrowding;
5. reduce the (risk )of spreading of diseases;
6. reduce nutrients depletion ( from the soil);
7. reduces inbreeding/ promotes out breeding;
8. allow surviving in case of natural disaster/ to prevent extinction;

(d) The question was poorly answered. Candidates referred to instruments e.g. ruler, tape measure,
scale instead of methods. There was no correlation between methods and advantages. Others wrote
biomass as a method and not wet mass.
Answer
Method 1: Height/ length of an organism/ part of an organism;
Advantages: - easy/fast/does not damage the organism/ can be carried out anywhere/suitable for most
organisms;
Method 2: wet mass/ weight;
Advantages: - gives the accurate measure (for the whole organism)/quick for small organism/ does not
damage organism;

8. (a) Matching question was well answered, most candidates scored full marks.
Answer
(i) evolution - a process of change over a period of time
(ii) homozygous - having two identical alleles of a particular gene
(iii) phenotype - the observable features of an organism
(iv) recessive - an allele that is only expressed when there is no dominant
(v) variation - differences between individuals of the same species

(b) (i) Symptoms of sickle cell anaemia is not known by most candidates, the question was poorly answered.
Answer
- sickle shaped/ distorted/deformed red blood cells;
- fewer (normal) red blood cells/ red blood cells with reduced surface area/
- less (not enough) haemoglobin/oxygen;
- fatigue/ exhaustion/ breathlessness/ less active/ tiredness/ anemia;
- sticky red blood cells clump together/increase in blood clotting/thrombosis/heart attack/ stroke/
blockage of blood capillaries;
- pain crises/ periods of pain/ pain in joints and bones/ swelling of hands or feet;
- higher possibility of infections /kidney or lung damage/ blindness;
- yellowish/ pale skin;
- Acute chest syndrome/ hospitalised for transfusion; (ii) question was moderately answered.
(ii) This question was poorly performed. It has proven that the skill of drawing the genetic diagram
is not yet mastered by most candidates despite numerous efforts to provide guidance of this in
previous examiners’ reports.
Issues observed:
- Diagrams not labelled or partly labelled.
- Uses of wrong genotype rather than the one provided.
- Usage of sex linked genotypes or sometimes Hb for blood groups
- Parental/offspring genotypes encircled instead of the gametes only.
- Offspring with a condition (sickle cell Anaemia) not indicated in the phenotypes.

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Answer

Positive suggestions to teachers

• Classroom teaching should be guided by the syllabus, because from the candidates’ responses one can see that
teachers are teaching textbooks because some information given by candidates are contrary to the guidance given
in the syllabus.

• More emphasis should be put on the correct spelling of scientific words.

• Terms should be defined as per syllabus.

• School assessment should be guided by syllabus objectives.

• Glossary of terms should be provided to the candidates and guidance on how to answer them should be given and
practiced.

• The differences between particles, molecules and substances should also be explained to the candidates because
they tend to think that they are the same.

• The use of less/more and many/few should also be emphasised when doing comparison because candidates do
not know the differences.

• Provide more examples and practice on describing and interpreting graphs and making conclusions on the data
provided.

• Annexe B: guidelines for presentation of data (pg 42 – 44 of syllabus) should be provided to the candidates to gain
useful tips on that. Genetics/ drawing genetic diagrams is part of that (pg 44)

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6116
Paper 3

General comments
This paper was comparable to the paper for last year in terms of difficulty.
The paper included a range of differentiated questions for candidates to answer to show their experimental skills and
ability C1 to C4, as outlined in the syllabus.
There were centres with good candidates of high ability and most candidates appeared to have adequate time to
complete the paper.
There were not a lot of zeros observed this year but the majority of the candidates did not perform well and all of the
points on the paper were achieved by different candidates.
Only a few candidates managed to achieve high scores.
There were parts of some questions based on investigative and planning skills, which some candidates found difficult and
perhaps require further practice. There was evidence that some candidates had not experienced some of the practical
techniques such as photomicrographs of onion epidermal cells and so based their answers on general knowledge.
Candidates should be made aware of the differences in responses that they should make when questions involve terms
such as describe and explain. One of the problems seemed to be candidates giving descriptions when explanations had
been requested or just describing or explaining and not both.
There was considerable evidence, much of it noted in comments about individual questions, of candidates not reading
the questions carefully enough. Thus their responses, although biologically correct, failed to answer the questions
set. There was overall evidence that the candidates tackled questions demanding application skills better than those
requiring them to present knowledge and understanding.
If candidates run out of space, or cross out their answer and start again, they should use blank space on the same page
for their answers if possible. If not, then they should use blank space on another page and make it clear where their
answer is to be found. Many candidates did this, but some did not and made it difficult for the examiners to find their
answers.

Comments on specific questions

1 (a) This question asked for a description on how to investigate the effect of distilled and salt solution in
red onion epidermal cells.
The most common mistakes made by the candidates were that they did not read the question carefully
and thus ended up with blocks of onion put in different containers containing salt water and distilled water
respectively. No credit given here but candidates who then further describe how to use the microscope
correctly, gained some credit.
Expected answer
1. (Use a scalpel/ tweezer) and peel a very thin layer / one layer /single layer of tissues + from the epidermis
outermost layer of cells;
2. ( trim to get a piece that will fit under coverslip ) and place it on a microscope slide;
3. Add (1-2 drops) salt solution/ distilled water to cover the tissue;
4. Place a coverslip over the tissue;
5. View under microscope;
6. Draw/dry salt water/distilled water from slide;
7. ref. to drawing of cells;

(b) (i) The majority of candidates recognized the labeled parts.

Expected answer
A: cytoplasm
B: nucleus;

(b) (ii) This part of the question started with ‘describe and explain’ – candidates were expected to
demonstrate their observational skills and comment on the differences shown in the figures, to
handle the recorded data and to link these details to a biological explanation for these observed
changes. Many candidates answered with either a description or an explanation, not both, and
so limited the number of marks available for this section.
The changes to the onion tissue involved ideas based on the process of osmosis involving the
movement of water out of the onion tissue.
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Many answers included the definition of osmosis and continued to relate the movement of water
to the correct gradient expressed in terms of water comparison between the onion tissue and the
external solution. Able candidates referred correctly to water potential differences.
Some mistaken explanations were incorrectly based on the salt moving
Expected answer
1. Cytoplasm/ cell membrane pulls away from cell wall;
2. cell is plasmolysed / flaccid;
3. water leaves cell;
4. from higher water potential (to lower water potential);
5 ref. to osmosis

2 The majority of candidates found this question the most challenging and few candidates scored marks in
this question. Candidates did not read through the information given. Clear evidence given by candidates’
answers, showed that they were never introduced so such an investigation. Having been told that the
change in colour of the Hydrogen Carbonate indicator was due to the increase or decrease of Carbon
dioxide, they still could not suggest explanations for the results given in Table 2.1. Neither could the
candidates relate gaseous exchange in the leaf to photosynthesis as well as respiration which are
responsible for the increase and decrease of carbon dioxide.

(a) (i) The candidates mentioned the absence of the leave, but could not be credited because the
absence was not brought into connection with gas exchange.
Expected answer
(i) test-tube A: there was no leaf + no gas exchange/absorption or releasing of CO2/respiration/
photosynthesis;
(ii) test-tube D: the rate of respiration equals the rate of photosynthesis;
there is no net change of CO2 in the test-tube;
(b) (i) The change in test-tube, in which the indicator solution was purple, was understood by the
better candidates to be due to the photosynthetic activity of the leaf which removed the carbon
dioxide in the presence of partial light but did not bring the effect of respiration into connection. A
common error was to describe the change to the presence of oxygen, or, less commonly, starch.
A few candidates said that the leaf received carbon dioxide from the indicator solution.
Expected answer
Test-tube B: rate of photosynthesis is more than the rate respiration (+ less CO2 is present in the
test tube):
(b) (ii) Candidates were asked to suggest why the solution in test-tube C was yellow. Many correctly
stated that in the absence of light the leaf contained in the test-tube would not be able to carry
out photosynthesis.
Expected answer
Test tube C; no photosynthesis takes place/only respiration is taking place;
CO2 is released from respiration/ no CO2 used;
(c) The majority of candidates showed an understanding of why lime water could not be used in this
specific investigation.
Expected answer:
Lime water only shows the presence of CO2
Limewater is qualitative/ not quantitative/ cannot distinguish amounts;

(d) Although many candidates referred to dependent and independent variables, the majority scored at
least 1 mark.
Expected answer:
volume of indicator solution/hydrogen carbonate;
size/type of the leaf;
temperature of environment;
time until colour is recorded;

(e) When conducting an experiment, a control is an element. It is used as a benchmark or a point of

comparison against which other test results are measured. The majority of the candidates just
mentioned that the purpose of a control is to compare. The question expected the purpose of the
control test-tube in the specific investigation.
Expected answer:
the control test-tube was setup to see whether the indicator will change colour with no leaf / to make sure
that any colour change was because of gas exchange by the leaf/AW;
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3 (a) (i) The majority of the candidates answered correctly.

(ii) The reason given for the mistakes made by the other two learners was quite challenging. The
candidates mentioned the meniscus but shows that they have really no idea of what it is.
Expected answer:
(i) learner 1:
(ii) Learner 2 (99) divisions are every 2(cm3) not 1 OR
Learner 3 (100) read to top of meniscus /scale not read at right angles/parallax error;

(b) and (c) (i),(ii)

These questions just need recording of information into Table 3.1 and the majority of the candidates scored
full marks.

Expected answers
(b) 0 80 75;
(c) (i) column headings for temperature in beaker A + B : degrees Celsius /°C;
column heading for time: seconds/s;
(c) (ii) time values correct: 35, 70, 105, 140, 175, 210;

(c) (iii) & (iv) These two questions were very demanding. Similarities and differences in the patterns
of temperature change of the two volumes of water were expected.
Very few candidates succeeded but the majority of the candidates did not do any calculations to
find a pattern concerning either a similarity or a difference.
Expected answer:
(iii) appropriate pattern which fully matches results
e.g. rate of temperature drop greater at start than at end;
between 70/105 and 175 decrease in temperature is constant ; (1)
(iv) The rate of cooling is less for a larger volume of water/ beaker B than for smaller volume
of water (Beaker A)/ORA;

(d) It was satisfying to see that the majority of the candidates scored full marks here.
Expected answer:
1. room temperature / external temperature or initial water temperature/start temperature of water;
2. same volumes of water ;
3. same amount of waiting time before reading/OWTTE;
4. keep thermometer at same depth;
5. same size/thickness material/surface area of beaker;

4 (a) (i) Candidates were asked to make a large drawing from a photograph of a leaf.
There were many large drawings produced, but the shape, proportion and component parts were a
problem.
Expected answer
S: larger and in proportion;
D: shape + edge + veins;
(ii) Most mistakes were seen when candidates gave inaccurate measurements for the diagram which
they had drawn. Although it varied from centre to centre, the majority of candidates correctly
calculated their magnifications and expressed ‘x’ or times.

There were very few percentages and ratios.

Expected answer
drawing length ÷ 7.9 cm or 79 mm;
correct magnification indicated as ×;

(b) (i) Candidates were given a Table of the lengths of 40 leaves measured correct to the nearest millimeter.

These numbers had to be used to complete a tally chart placing the lengths into different ranges accordingly.
Many candidates achieved full credit here. The majority of the candidates just completed the number of
leaves column. A few candidates had clearly counted and completed the totals and subsequently filled in
the tally which sometimes led to errors.

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Expected answer
Range Tally Number of leaves
110 – 124 IIl 3
125 – 139 IIII IIII 10
140 – 154 IIII IIII IIII III 18
155 – 169 IIII I 6
170 – 184 III 3

(ii) Using the tally chart, candidates were asked to construct a histogram. Some excellent histograms
were produced with many candidates gaining full credit for the histogram axes being correctly
orientated and clearly labelled, the histogram filling more than half the printed grid paper, bars
placed accurately and drawn neatly touching each other. A common point of difficulty was the
labeling of the axes and in positioning the range centrally under each column. Some candidates
did not extend the lines of the histogram bars down to the x-axis.

Very few candidates drew line graphs, but more produced bar charts (with gaps between the bars)
rather than a histogram.
Although many histograms were drawn neatly with ruled lines, often the standard of drawing and
shading was poor. A few candidates used pen to draw the graph and then could not correct errors and
some had used scribble for shading, which was unnecessary.
Expected answer
A: axes labelled correctly;
S: correct scale;
P: bars plotted correctly; (according to table);
B: bars are touching and + same width+ ruled;

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60
BUILDING STUDIES
6186
Paper 1

GENERAL COMMENTS

Building Studies is one of the more popular vocational subjects in the schools, but due to lack of facilities, only a few
schools can offer it. The candidates entered for this subject really tried to improve the standard and quality of work.
Teachers and candidates knew what to expect this year because of the reports of previous years and were better
prepared for this examination. It is also very important that teachers should realise that Building Studies is not just about
Brick laying and Plastering, but also the science, mathematical calculations, scale drawings etc. of it. The syllabus
was well developed by the NIED in collaboration with CIE and was accepted by both institutions. All this was done to
upgrade the level of Education in Namibia. Therefore, the two institutions with their teams should be applauded for the
exceptional work done to improve the living standards of the Namibian Child.

Thanks, should also go to other role players like the entire Ministry of Education, Regional Offices, Schools, Communities
and of course the Candidates who wrote this examination.

Very good responses were received from the centres regarding the quality and standard of the question paper. It could
be well interpreted regarding the style, language and graphics.

From the responses of the candidates on the questions, there were no problems answering the questions, it was well
interpreted. However, good responses were given for most questions and candidates could score good marks.

Evidence also shows that quite a few candidates did not have the knowledge to answer certain questions successfully
and some did not attempt certain questions. By the spread of marks for this question paper, it looks acceptable, but
there are some areas which need to improve.

Section A consisted of compulsory short questions across the syllabus. In most cases candidates scored good marks,
but in some cases improvement is needed. This can only be done with more training to the teachers.

This year we had 61 candidates, an increase of 5 entries compare to the previous year.

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS (Question 1- Question 7)

SECTION A
Most of the candidates answered this question fairly well and scored good marks.

1. List five preventative measures to prevent the spreading of diseases in an event of an injury where
blood is present.
Almost all candidates scored good marks. They showed quite good knowledge about injuries in the workshop/
site.
Possible answers
Only 1 mark for each measure to a maximum of five marks.
• Where there is the possibility of contact with blood precautions should be taken to prevent contact with the
skin, eyes or mucous membranes [1]
• Gloves (surgical/latex) must be worn when open wounds are treated [1]
• Any blood must immediately be washed from surfaces with soap and water [1]
• Protective clothing must be worn when handling contaminated body fluids [1]
• Wash your hands regularly [1]
• Mouth-to-mouth resuscitation should not be withheld in the event of an emergency, but precautions must be
taken [1]
• Only move the patient once bleeding is under control [1]
• Take care not to injure yourself while applying first aid [1]
• Use face masks and goggles whenever possible [1]
• To provide safety signs board at the site [1]
• If treating more than one person, don’t use the same materials [1]

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• Make use of defection like sanitizer [1]
• Use the bandage to stop the bleeding [1] [Max 5]

2 State the functions of a safety officer on a construction site.

Most of the candidates scored good marks, they demonstrated knowledge of the building team.

Possible answers
Only 1 mark for each role to a maximum of five marks.
• He is one of the most important persons on site [1]
• Ensures that all actions taken on site are safe [1]
• See that construction workers are following established policies and safety regulations [1]
• His primary job is to create safer construction sites [1]
• It is compulsory for the safety officer to work closely with the Occupational Safety and Health Administration
(OSHA) [1] [Max 5]

3. Fig. 1 shows four building tools A, B, C and D. Identify each tool and state one use for each.
Candidates did very well at this question. They know building tools.

A
1 mark for identification and only 1 mark for use.
• (a) Scotch hammer [1]
• Common hammer [1]
• Brick hammer [1]
• Cutting hammer [1] The square head is used for normal hammering and the chisel point for cutting bricks
and blocks [1] The steel comb is used to cut or dress bricks more accurately to size [1]
• For chipping the wall for electrical pipes

(b) Bolster chisel [1]

• Used with a brick bolster or club hammer to cut bricks or blocks accurately [1]

(c) Builders square [1] Steel square [1]

• Used for setting out foundations, brick work, brick walls, staircases, roof trusses and concrete work [1]
Generally used to check the straightness of large objects [1]
Testing squareness of cupboards [1]

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D

(d) Dumpy level [1]

Determining relative levels and vertical heights among different locations, especially long distances [1]
Determining distances [1]
Setting out buildings [1]
Transferring levels and heights [1] [max 8]

4. List the five requirements for good plaster sand.

Most of the candidates scored good marks here.
1 mark for each requirement.
• Always use river or dune sand. [1]
• Sand should be free of soil, clay or any plant material. [1]
• A 2 - 3 mm sieve size should be used to sieve the sand. [1]
• Coarse sand must be mixed with builder’s lime or plasticiser. [1]
• Fine sand must be mixed with coarse sand to improve the mixture. [1] [max 5]

5. Fig. 2 shows the first course of a 1½ brick single Flemish bond.

Fig. 2
Make a neat sketch of the second course, clearly indicating the closer.
Only a few candidates could do the sketch of the second course correctly.
Possible answers

• Correct sketch [1]

• Quality of sketch [1]
• Indication of closer [1] [max 3]

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6 Fig. 3 shows a plumbing jointing technique

Only a few candidates could answer this question correctly, while some scored some marks.

(a) Identify the joint

- Compression joint [1]

(b) Label the parts A, B and C

Possible answers
A – Compression ring [1]
B – Union [1]
– Coupling [1]
– Connector [1]
C – Compression nut [1]
–- Closing ring [max 4]

7 (a) What is the meaning of the abbreviation, DPM.

Almost all candidates answered correctly.

Possible answer
Damp Proof Membrane [1] Damp Proof Material [1]

(b) Where is the DPM used in building construction.

Most of the candidates could answer correctly.
Possible answer
Entire surface directly under the concrete slab [1] [max 2]

SECTION B

Answer all the questions in this section.

(Questions 13 and 14 should be done on separate A3 answer sheets provided)

8 Fig. 4 shows a distribution box in a house.

Fig. 4
Identify the devices to which the circuit breakers supplying the electric current:
Some of the candidates scored some marks.
Possible answers
• 5A – lights/geyser [1]
• 15A – 30A stove [1] Plugs [1]
• 30A – wall sockets [1 Plug in appliances [1] Stove [1] max 3]

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9. State the reasons why paint application is essential in the building industry.
Most of the candidates scored good marks here.
Possible answers
• To protect a surface against rust and weathering [1]
• To protect a surface against the penetration of water/moisture/damp [1]
• To provide a neat, decorative appearance [1]
• Heat resistance [1]
• To reflect sun light from the building [1]
• Colour coding [1] [max 3]

10. Name four types of pile foundations.

Only a few candidates could score full marks here.
Possible answers
• 1 mark for each mentioned to a maximum of three.
• End- or point-bearing piles [1]
• Friction/cohesion piles [1]
• Micro and helical piles [1]
• Driven or displacement piles [1]
• Bore or replacement piles [1]

11. Setting out a building correctly, the contractor should be sure of four important factors.

(a) List three of these factors

About 50% of candidates scored some marks here.
Possible answers
• 1 mark for each factor to a maximum of three marks
• The orientation of the building faces according to approved plan [1]
• The building is set out on the correct plot [1]
• Overall dimensions correspond with the plan dimensions [1]
• Front of the building corresponds with the required building line [1] [max 3]

(b) What is the function of steel reinforcement in concrete.

Most of the candidates scored good marks.
Possible answers
• Steel rods are embedded in the concrete [1]
• To resist tensile and shear force [1]
• To prevent cracking [1] [max 2]

(c) Explain step by step and by means of a diagram, how to set out a building using the 3 - 4 - 5 method.
Most of the candidates scored marks in the medium band.
Explanation
• Mark out the building line from the road with a tape measure. These measurements must be accurate
and taken from known point.
• Mark out the overall length of the structure by driving in pegs A and B.
• If the total width of the structure is determined, run a building line from peg A to peg B.
• Mark off on this line, from B to A, a 4m length on the tape.
• Mark off from peg B a length of 3m in the direction of peg D, which is still unknown.
• Shift peg D as soon as the tape measures a length of 5m.
• As soon as a 900 angle is obtained, other measurements can be taken from any of these lines to set out
the proposed structure.

Limited explanation of details 0 – 2 0-1

Fair explanation, some details mentioned 3 – 4 2-3
Excellent and clear explanation with all details given 5 – 7 4-5

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The diagram below:

Most of the candidates could only score some marks.

Diagram should show the following :
• Street centre line [1]
• Boundary line [1]
• Ranging line [1]
• Width [1]
• 3-4-5 measurements [1]

12. Fig. 5 Shows a ground plan of a room. The walls are 2600mm high. The thickness of the external walls is 220
and the internal is 110. Number of brick pm2 is 50. Size of a brick is 220 × 110 × 110.
Calculate the number of bricks needed to construct the room.
Only a few candidates could score good marks here.

Fig. 5
It is evident that not enough attention was given to this topic in the syllabus. This is an integral part for the
candidates to be conversant because a builder cannot exist without it.
Calculation of bricks.
Area of external wall including openings:
2(6m + 4.15) x 2.6m [1]
= 52.78m2 [1]

Area of external openings:

3.2m2 +1.68m2 + 1.28m2 + 0.6m2 [1]
= 6.76m2 [1]

Area of external brick wall:

52.78m2 – 6.76m2
= 46.02m2 [1]

Number of bricks for external wall:

= 2(46.02m2 x 50 bricks per m2 ) [1]
= 4602 [1]

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Area of internal wall including openings:
2.6m (2.11m + 3.71m) [1]
= 15.132m2 [1]

Area of internal openings:

2.1m(1,0m + 0.8m) [1]
= 4.28m2 [1]

Area of internal brick wall:

15.132m2 – 4.28m2
= 10.852m2 [1]

Number of bricks for internal wall:

10.852m2 x 50 bricks per m2 [1]
= 542.6 [1]

Total number of bricks needed: 5144.6 [1] [15]

13. Fig. 6 shows part of the floor plan of suspended timber floor.

Fig. 6
Use the following specifications to draw to a scale 1:10 the vertical section on cutting plane B-B and insert labels
correctly to your drawing.
• Foundation 750mm x 300mm
• Natural ground level (NGL)
• Pad foundation 450mm x 450mm x 230mm
• Minimum distance between the NGL and floor joist 450mm
• Bearer to support floor joist 152mm x 50mm
• Ant guard
• Damp-proof course (DPC)
• Tongue-and-groove floorboards (with a clearance of 6mm from wall)
100mm x 22mm
• Floor joist at 400mm centres and longitudinal edges at 115mm centre from wall 152mm x 38mm
• Quadrant 16mm x 16mm
• Skirting 70mm x 16mm
• Plaster 10mm thick
• Wall superstructure 220mm wide
• Wall plate 76mm x 38mm
• Airbrick 220mm x 170mm
• Foundation wall 330mm wide
• Brick pier to support the bearer (one-brick pier) 220mm x 220mm

Only a few candidates could score good marks here.

Evaluation Indicators Mark

Interpretation of drawings/specifications 5
Preparation of work pieces 5

Safe handling of tools and equipment 5

Proper use of tools and equipment 5

Accuracy of bond 10
Accuracy and neatness of the product 10

Total 40

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Practical Assessment Criteria for Part B

Mark Max.
Assessment objectives Level of Response
Range Marks
1. Planning (Part A) For each tool needed 1 mark 5
2. Interpretation Limited understanding and inaccurate result of the item 0-1 5
of data made

Partial understanding of the specifications given but not 2-3

producing an accurate item.

Excellent understanding of the specifications given and 4-5

producing an accurate item
3. Preparation of work Poor marking out skills, not using the correct tools. 0-1 5
piece
Moderate marking out skills, using the right tools 2-3
incorrectly.

Excellent marking out skills, using tools correctly 4-5

4. Safe handling of tools Not applying the safety measures using tools, resulting in 0-1 5
and equipment an injuries or possible injury

Satisfactory application of some safety rules, but still may 2-3

be at risk of injury.

Applying all safety rules and works without risk 4-5

5. Proper use of tools Total lack or poor use of tools 0-1 5
and equipment
Satisfactory use of tools 2-3

Excellent use of tools 4-5

6. Accuracy of bond Bond is not according to the specification given 0-3

Bonding is correct according to plan 4-6

Bond is correct, accurate and well maintained 7-10 10

7. Practical skills Project not plumb, align and level 0-3
correctness
Project is the correct length and height according to plan 4-6

Project well-built and length, height, width are proportional 7-10 10

8. Accuracy and The length and height is incorrect, surface are neat and 0-3
neatness of the product project has an overall poor appearance

Project might have wrong dimensions but the appearance 4-6

and surface are fair

The project is well built, joints well finishes and plastered 7-10 10

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Part C. (Practical Production)

Almost all candidates scored full marks here.

Possible answers
- Dust mask/ Respiratory mask (1)
- Overall (1)
- Gloves (1)
- Safety boots/rubber boots (1)
- Hard hat (1)
- Eye protection/goggles (1)
- Safety Helmet (1)
- Safety glasses (1)
- Gum boots (1)
- Safety glasses (1) [5]

[50]

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6186
Paper 3

GENERAL COMMENTS

Building studies becomes more popular at schools, that is why the numbers are increasing very slowly. Also a new
centre came on board offering this subject. Candidates and parents realised that building construction takes place all
over the country. This leaves room for unskilled, skilled, artisans and professional workers. It leaves opportunities for a
lot of people, even for learners who was not successful or complete their studies. At least the school gives the learner
basic knowledge and skills to enter the market or with a little support generate their own income when committed.

The subject was implemented to compliment and ease the economy of the country, but not only that, but to develop the
learners in critical thinking and problem solving.

If so, decided the doors are open for such learners to proceed their studies on tertiary level, or specialise at a Vocational
Training Centre for a specific trade wished to do.

This curriculum was developed to train and enhance the knowledge and skills of the learners to achieve the highest
level of education in the country.

Saying this, there are not only the learners or the MOE to path the way for our future leaders, but the most important
stakeholders are the parents, then the line ministries, the private sector and the International Organisations (NGO’s).

In this curriculum the National Training Authority (NTA) plays a leading role to the success of this curriculum.

From the work submitted, it is evident that training is still needed by teachers, teaching this subject. It is very important
to understand and implement the syllabus as well as the assessment rubric by teachers and candidates. It is also
equally important that the candidates are guided to understand, interpret, and implement what was taught to them by
the teacher.

In this examination (course work), it is evident that candidates and teachers tried their best to improve the standard of
work, because of the simple reason, more time was available this year to complete a decent folder and a product. It
is evident that the standard of work improved in comparison with the previous year, but there is still a great space for
improvement. Congratulations to all the centres.

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC HEADINGS-ASSESSMENT CRITERIA

1 GENERATION AND EXPLORATION OF IDEAS.

Some centres still do an analysis, brief, research and specifications, which is not necessary, because all this was
given in the scenario. The candidates could start right away with the EXPLORATION of IDEAS. The ideas should
be done taking the specifications that was given into account, but it is equally important that candidates could
browse through the internet to give them a picture of what a is on the market. In this way candidates could have
an open mind to develop their own ideas.
Some centres took items from the internet and stated it as their own ideas which is very wrong, that is plagiarism.
Candidates from this centre then only have one idea which is stated to be the chosen solution. This resulted into
a narrow-minded idea on a single concept of the product.
In most cases the ideas were evaluated, notated or enhanced with no finer detail to realize a product from the
information given. In other words, it was not on standards as was required. Most of the candidates failed to score
maximum.

Recommendation

Therefore, it is imperative that more training is still needed for teachers to understand what is required in this topic.
• All ideas should be thought out by the candidates and penned down on paper.
• Each idea should show finer detail to get a picture of what the candidate has in mind.
• Each idea should be annotated and dimensions given.
• Each idea should be evaluated against the required specifications.

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2 DEVELOPMENT OF PROPOSED SOLUTION

It is to be understood what a DEVELOPMENT of a product means. The development is an accurate, precise

and detailed plan of the product to be made. One sketch is not enough as a development. Included should be
detailed sketches, formal drawings where each part is shown with the joining method and how it will be assembled.
Descriptions, explanations, notations, dimensioning and enhancing is very important. Most of the candidates
did not comply with this requirement. Therefore, maximum marks could not be awarded. A product could not be
realised if the development is not correctly done, and of cause in very fine detail.

Recommendations

• It is very important that candidates apply the SANS (South African National Standards) code throughout their
work.
• If an exploded view is used for the development, show all the finer detail with sketching and annotating with
the measurements included.
• The exploded view should show all dimensioning applying the SANS code.
• A development does not consist of one sketch, but multiple sketches, notated, evaluated, detailed and
enhanced. This is important if the candidates want to score maximum marks.

3 PLANNING FOR PRODUCTION.

In this section the candidates scored very good marks. It was a relief to realise that the syllabus is correct and
measurable, it is as realised, that interpretation is the problem. This means that knowledge lacked, but with the
training mentioned, maximum marks can be achieved. As was the case in this examination. However, there are still
room for improvement:

• Do not show the working drawings as part of the development. It should be part of the planning.
• Do not confuse “development” with working drawings. Working drawings can consist of more than one drawing,
but all of it the should be very accurate to scale. You must realise that all your measurements and steps making
the product should be driven by your working drawings.
• WORKING DRAWINGS – DRAWINGS USED TO WORK FROM TO REALISE YOUR PRODUCT.

4 PRODUCT REALISATION

This area needs a little of attention. Overall candidates did very well in this section, evidence has shown that
applying the skills and knowledge was not a problem. This is very important, otherwise a good and an appealing
product cannot be realised.

Most of the products were on standard and completed according to photographic evidence, but lacked finishing
skills. Therefore, it is important that candidates know, what is expected of them.

In most cases evidence was forwarded of processes, while building the project, which is very important to see,
because this can influence a candidate’s mark.

It must be mentioned, that one centre built real-life artefacts on specified and suitable areas on the school grounds,
which gave the school building a beautiful face-lift.

At the biggest centre for Building Studies, each candidate received their own material needed to complete their
product. No borrowing and no disturbance could influence the progress of their work. Truly applaudable.

Recommendations

• A very clear photo is needed for moderation purposes.

• Do not repeat the same photographic evidence for two or more candidates.

5 TESTING AND EVALUATION

Testing and evaluation are done against the specifications. Most of this can only be shown by photographic
evidence, with notes and explanations for suggesting improvements to the product.

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Recommendations

• Do not do a general appraisel.

• Evaluation is not a general appraisal, but a concise and systematic approach to the functionality, ergonomics,
and aesthetics of the product, which most of the candidates did not take into account. This is done against the
specifications.

CONCLUSION

With this report it is important that all stakeholder do play its part to make this curriculum a successful one to uplift and
enhance our learners and communities in all areas which can boost the economy and make Namibia proud.

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BUSINESS STUDIES
6144
Paper 1

Note:
Application marks
Nothing in the question is valid, but the information in the stem (case material) is valid, but each may only be used
once.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance

1 (a) (i) Well answered, but some learners confused unit cost with marginal 2 Knowledge (2 x 1)
cost.
Accept
Answer - Total cost
Define the term unit cost. Number of goods
- Unit cost is the total amount of money/cost of one unit (1) a produced (1)
business spends to produce, store and sell one unit/produced (1) Do not accept
of a specific product or service. - Cost of production
(ii) Fairly well answered. Some learners scored 2 marks, but some 2 Knowledge (2 x 1)
could not define income and expenses. Instead they defined net
profit and net loss. Examples of day-to-day
expenses
Answer - money spent on stock/
State the difference between income and expenses. goods, water, electricity,
- Income/money received/coming in from sales/selling of products rent
is the money which the business receives on a day-to-day basis.
(1) Do not accept
- Expenses/day-to-day cost/spent on things bought daily/day-to- - Money coming in only.
day expenses are incurred to pay for operating expenses in - Money going out of the
order to do business. (1) business.
(b) Poorly answered. Most of the learners earned zero. Learners 2 Knowledge (2 x 1)
did not know what fixed cost and variable cost are. They gave - One mark for definition of
definitions for income and expenses. fixed cost
- One mark for definition of
Answer variable cost
State the difference between fixed cost and variable cost.
- Fixed cost is the cost that did not vary/remained constant/stayed Accept
the same/did not change with the number of items sold or - Variable cost = costs that
produced. are directly involved in
- Variable cost is the cost that changes in direct proportion to production.
changes in output or items sold. - Examples of fixed and
variable cost BUT not on
their own.
- Fixed cost is cost that is
indirectly involved in the
production
Do not accept
- The answer is not linked
to output for both fixed
and variable costs.

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Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
(c) Learners were expected to identify only the stakeholders who are 6 Knowledge (2 x 1)
interested in the financial statements and give reasons why they - One mark for each user
might need them. of financial statements
The question was fairly well answered, as some learners scored 4 identified
marks for two stakeholders and reasons, but they failed to apply.
Some learners identified stakeholder that did not use financial Application (2 x 1)
statements such as customers, and some could not write reasons. - One mark for each
Instead they wrote stakeholders’ interest/objectives/aims. relevant reference made
to Delight
Answer Analyses (2 x 1)
Identify and explain how two stakeholders would use the - One mark for each
financial statements of Delight. relevant explanation.
Manager (k)
- The manager will be able to see which products of the company Growth of business only
are performing satisfactorily and which products or divisions are awarded once.
performing poorly to help in decision making/growth of
business - status. (an)
Shareholders/Owners (k)
- Shareholders/owners have a monetary interest in the company.
- They, therefore, want to know whether the company has made
a profit or loss, which will affect the payment of dividends/they
want to see if income outweighs the expenses/growth of
business - profit. (an)
Creditors/suppliers (k)
- Creditors can see the total debts and the total value of assets
held by the company. If the business has a problem with liquidity,
creditors may refuse to offer additional credit to the company.
(an)
Banks/financial providers/financier (k)
- A company with liquidity problems will find it difficult to borrow
money from a bank, (an) want to see if they will get their money
back/if they can be paid back with interest. (an)
Government (k)
- Government is interested if the business pays tax. (an) If
business make a loss, then it can lead to large number of job
losses. (an)
Workers/employees (k)
- Workers/employees use the information from the company’s
accounts to judge their job security/if they can get better salaries.
(an)
Trade unions/pressure groups (k)
- Trade unions will look at the profits of a business to determine
what raise they can expect and insist on behalf of the workers
they represent. (an)
Other businesses/competitors/rivals (k)
- If the owner of another company wants to take over the business,
he will use the published accounts to determine whether it will be
worth the investment. (an)
Potential investors (k)
- To see if they can invest their money in the business/potential for
growth for return to grow.

Application
The workers of Delight, serviettes, toilet paper, factory, any figure,
owners of Delight, mangers of Delight

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Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
(d) The question expected learners to give advantages and 8 Knowledge (2 x 1)
disadvantages of job production and decide if it is good or not for - One mark for each
Delight. relevant advantage
The question was poorly answered as some learners confused job - One mark for each
production with on-the-job training, which means they did not really relevant disadvantage
read the question before answering.
Some learners did not gain marks for evaluation because they Application (2 x 1)
gave a one-sided answer. - One mark for each
relevant reference made
Answer to Delight
Evaluate the appropriateness of job production for Delight Analyses (2 x 1)
products. - One mark for each
Advantages relevant explanation of an
- The product meets the exact requirements of the customer, advantage
(k) therefore, more customer loyalty/increased sales/more - One mark for each
customers/increased demand/customer satisfaction. (an) relevant explanation of a
- The workers often have more varied jobs. (k) More varied work disadvantage
increases employee motivation (k or an), which leads to fewer Evaluation (2 x 1)
mistakes (k or an)/greater job satisfaction/increase efficiency/ - Up to two marks for
high quality products. (an) evaluative reasoning/
Disadvantages judgement about the
- Skilled labour is often used (k) which increase labour cost/pay appropriateness of job
higher salary. (an) production
- Labour intensive (k) – need for specialised attention - expensive - Depends on learner’s
method of production, (an) lead to longer waiting time till choice
completion (an) - NO evaluation for one-
- Slow method of production/time consuming, (k) customer have to sided answer
wait for their order/lose customers. (an)
Evaluation Do not accept
- E.g. Delight should not make use of job production (ev) as it is - To satisfy the needs
labour intensive. (ev) which increase costs. (ev) Delight should of customers instead
use job production, (ev) which will increase sales/attract more of requirements of
customers. (an) customer.
- Definition, unless linked
with an analysis.
- Increase profit
- Increase cost if not linked
to labour cost
- No other production
method, unless defended
why job production is not
good – only in evaluation
part
Application
Toilet paper, serviettes, direct material, direct labour, indirect
labour, workers of Delight, management of Delight, owners of
Delight, customers of Delight
2 (a) (i) Fairly well answered by the majority of the learners. Most of the 2 Knowledge (2 x 1)
learners scored one mark by only providing the first part of the
definition and some learners are missing the key word, “data” or
“information”. Instead they repeated the word, research.

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Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
(d) Poorly answered. Almost no learner could score full marks. 8 Knowledge (2 x 1)
Learners were able to identify methods of how government can - One mark for each
protect employees, but failed to evaluate the methods. To explain relevant method the
the impact of this methods on the workers, business or government government uses to
was a problem which was the analysis. protect an employee
Most learners evaluated by making a choice of one method that Application (2 x 1)
government should use to protect employees. However, the - One mark for each
evaluation should be on whether or not government protection of relevant reference made
employees (choice) with a motivation as to why government should to Hills Guest House
protect employees or reasons why government should not protect Analyses (2 x 1)
employees. - One mark for each
In general, applying to the case was a huge problem for all centres. relevant explanation
Most of the learners did not score any mark for application. Evaluation (2 x 1)
- Up to two marks for
Answer evaluative reasoning/
Evaluate methods the government might use to protect judgement about the
employees. protection of employees
- Protection against unfair discrimination/unfair treatment at work in terms of working
and when applying for a job/no discrimination at work. (k) It is conditions
illegal in Namibia as the government is looking after everybody’s - Evaluation should link to
well-being. (an) Might fail to select a very good worker (an) with the knowledge that is
discrimination society will find it difficult to gain jobs or promotion. given
(an) - Evaluation can impact on
- Protection against unfair dismissal. (k) If workers are not employees’ protection
protected then they will have less job security in the workplace. on the business and on
(an) employees.
- Entitled to a contract of employment. (k) This contract must
be legal/lawful (an) to give the worker security knowing that he Examples of government
will receive his remuneration as stipulated in the contract/will be protection can be
possible for worker to meet his/her obligations. (an) knowledge.
- Health and safety at work (k) are important because an ill/injured
employee cannot be productive/efficient. (an) Cost money to
recruit and train new employee due to injuries. (an) Worker will Do not accept
feel valued and will work more efficient productively. (an) - Fixed wage.
- Wage protection/fair wage/better wage (k) Workers have the - Wage negotiation
right to be paid for work done/minimum wages allow workers
to satisfy their needs and employees will be less of a burden
on the government/encourage more people to look for jobs/for
employees not to be exploited. (an)
- Redundancy, (k) workers should be compensated for losing their
jobs/should receive severage packages. (an)
- Social security, (k) give workers sick leave/maternity leave/
retirement benefits/death benefit. (an)

Evaluation
- How workers will be protected
- E.g. Protection of employees is good (ev) because minimum
wage will prevent employees from being exploited even though it
increases the business costs. (ev)

Application
Namibian government, owners of Hills Guest House, receptionist,
waiter, cleaner, general manager, chef, guests/tourist/visitors,
managers of Hill

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Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
4 (a) (i) Well answered. Most learners could identify the type of economy 2 Knowledge (2 x 1)
of Namibia and could explain. The majority of the learners scored
full marks, however, some learners referred to mixed economy as Accept
mixed market economy and they lost 1 mark. - Consist of private and
public sector businesses
Answer (1)
Describe the type of economy of Namibia.
Mixed economy (1)
- Combines the characteristics of both a free-market/market
economy and a command/planned economy/private sectors and
public sectors. (1)
OR
- Consists of the private sector, which includes businesses where
resources are allocated by the price mechanism and the public
sector which consists of all economic activity under the control of
the government. (1)
(ii) Fairly well answered. Some learners could not identify the 2 Knowledge (2 x 1)
advantages of market economy. Instead they gave the features. - One mark per advantage
of market economy
Answer correct identified
Identify two advantages of market economy.
- Individuals are free to set up any ‘legal’ business/supplies/start Do not accept
their own business. - No government control.
- Consumers can choose freely from a wide variety of goods or - Features of market
services available/freedom of choice to consumers/ economic economy.
freedom.
- Workers are motivated to work hard.
- Businesses compete with one another.
- Profit motive is a big encouragement for setting up new
businesses/there is profit motive.
- Increase efficiency.
- High quality products.
- Keep prices low.
(b) Well answered. Most learners scored full marks, as they could 2 Knowledge (2 x 1)
identify the methods of measuring the size of a business, even - One mark per method
though some gave two that mean the same, therefore, only scored of measuring the size
one mark (as slashed in the mark scheme). of a business correctly
identified
Answer
State two main methods of measuring the size of a business.
- Number of employees.
- Value of capital employed/amount of capital/level of technology/
total assets/amount of machinery.
- Value of sales turnover/output/market share/number of
customers.
- Profits/profitability.
- Legal forms of ownership.
- Nature of the business/types of business.
- Nature of product/types of the product.
- Number of branches/outlets.

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Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
(c) Fairly well attempted. Most learners could identify the two policies 6 Knowledge (2 x 1)
and could analyse them. However, some learners swapped or - One mark for each
confused the analysis of the two policies, yet they failed to apply in relevant policy
the context of the case study. Some learners gave the roles of the identified
government in the economy and some learners could not spell the Application (2 x 1)
two policies correctly. - One mark for each
relevant reference made
Answer to Auto Supplies Ltd
Explain the role of the government by using two economic Analyses (2 x 1)
policies to control the economy. - One mark for each
- Fiscal policy (k) is decisions about government spending, relevant explanation.
taxes and borrowing/ is the use of taxation and government
expenditure to influence the country’s economic activities. (an) Accept
- Consumers’ disposable incomes fall, (an) the demand for One policy tool as a correct
products will fall. (an) analysis.
- Monetary policy (k) to influence economic activity through the Do not accept
control of the money supply as well as the level of interest rates. - Equal distribution of
- Businesses will be less likely to borrow to finance further wealth and income
investment as the costs of loans may exceed the expected - Constant balance of
returns. (an) payments surplus
- Consumers will be less likely to buy goods on credit as the - Supply side policy
interest charges will be higher. This will hit demand for
expensive consumer goods. (an)
- Decrease in consumers’ income – less spending. (an)

Application
Vehicle, Auto Suppliers Ltd management, Namibia, different types
of vehicles, multiple vehicles, factory/vehicle factory

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Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
(d) Fairly well answered. The majority of learners could identify the 8 Knowledge (2 x 1)
relocation factors, but could not analyse properly. They instead - One mark for each
re-explained the factors instead of giving how they will affect Auto relevant factor
Supplier Ltd. identified to relocate
Some learners still struggled with application so they lost marks abroad
for application. On evaluation most learners scored one mark for Application (2 x 1)
a choice, but failed to support their choices and a few learners - One mark for each
supported both sides, then ended up losing marks for evaluation. relevant reference made
Answer to Auto Suppliers Ltd
Assess whether Auto Suppliers Ltd should relocate Analyses (2 x 1)
production to a country outside of Namibia. - One mark for each
- Increase sales/demand/more customers (k) increase revenue/ relevant explanation of
market share (an) appropriate factors for
- Closer/access to raw materials (k) reducing cost of carriage in/ relocating abroad
transport (an) OR quicker delivery. (an) Evaluation (2 x 1)
- Access to cheap labour (k) reducing labour costs. (an) - Up to two marks for
- Access to more skilled labour (k) reducing cost of recruitment/ evaluative reasoning/
training costs/increase production/efficiency. (an) judgement
- Do not have to pay import tariffs (k) reducing cost of materials. - A candidate can disagree
(an)
- Lower rates of taxation (k or an) reducing cash outflow/more Do not accept
retained profit available for expansion/pay as dividends. (an) - Impact on the country,
- Access to government grants, (k) reduce cost of production/ only impact on the
charging low price. (an) business accepted.
- Language problems, (k) these can cause miscommunication and
misunderstanding/inefficient customer services. (an)
- Lack of knowledge of culture, (k) leads to ineffective marketing
strategies/difficult in negotiations. (an)
- Costly to move, (k) decrease profits. (an)
Evaluation
- Good idea for Auto Suppliers Ltd to relocate to another country
(ev) to solve the problems of scarcity of raw material and to have
fewer problems with labour/because of production opportunities
in Botswana. (ev)

Application
Vehicle factory, Auto Suppliers Ltd management, financial
manager, market possibilities in Botswana, owners of Auto
Suppliers, factory, cars, motor vehicles, types of vehicles (BMW,
Toyota), car parts
5 (a) (i) Fairly well answered. Some learners scored full marks, even 2 Knowledge (2 x 1)
though some did not know the definition of distribution. They were
instead writing about the method of transportation.

Answer
Define the term distribution.
- Distribution is the process of supplying goods (1) to consumers/
customers. (1)
OR
- Involves the movement of goods/services from the producers (1)
to the consumers/customers. (1)
(ii) Well answered. Most of the learners scored full marks, even 2 Knowledge (2 x 1)
though there are some learners who referred to products as - One mark per element of
production. marketing mix correctly
identified
Answer
Name two elements of the marketing mix. Do not accept
- Product. - Location
- Price. - Distribution
- Promotion.
- Place.

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Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
(b) Well answered. Most learners scored full marks even though some 2 Knowledge (2 x 1)
learners lost marks for writing communication/management alone - One mark per factor that
without better/good/effective communication/management. will increase business
Some learners gave skilled labour or availability of labour which productivity identified
were wrong.
Do not accept
Answer - Availability of labour.
Identify two factors that will increase business productivity. - Working condition only.
- Training.
- Investment in equipment/new technology.
- Better employee motivation/worker participation/rewarding
employees.
- Effective management/effective communication/effective control/
coordination.
- Better/improve working conditions.
- Division of labour/specialisation.
(c) Poorly answered. Most of the learners lost marks because they 6 Knowledge (2 x 1)
were repeating the words “inform, awareness” and “persuade” in - One mark for relevant
their explanation. Learners who scored knowledge marks failed to definition of informative
analyse and also to apply in context of the case study. advertising and one mark
for relevant definition of
Answer persuasive advertising
Using examples from Sporty Dealers distinguish between Application (2 x 1)
informative and persuasive advertising. - One mark for each
Informative relevant reference made
- Give full/clear/detailed/more information about the product, (k) to Sporty Dealers
how to use it/how it is operated. (k or an) Help business to Analyses (2 x 1)
educate customers/consumers on important product features/so - Award one mark for each
that they can make more informed decisions. (an) relevant explanation
Persuasive
- Try to encourage/convince (k) the consumer/customer that he/ Do not accept
she really need (k or an) the product and should buy it/make - To inform or awareness.
consumers feel they cannot live without the product/make them - Persuade
buy the product. (an) - To attract customers.
Do not award customers
twice.
Application
Sport people/customers of sport dealers, services delivered,
sport fields, sport equipment, types of equipment, sport events,
tournaments, marketing manager

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Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
(d) Poorly answered. Most of the learners could only answer using 8 Knowledge (2 x 1)
own understanding, which was challenging to give knowledge - One mark for each
marks. Some learners who gave knowledge could not analyse, relevant way to protect
but those who gained knowledge marks mostly scored 2 marks for the environment against
application which was easy because most of the learners focused pollution
on pollution. Application (2 x 1)
Some learners focused on deforestation which is not in the context - One mark for each
of the case. relevant reference made
Learners struggled to evaluate this question, so most learners to Sporty Dealers
scored few marks. Analyses (2 x 1)
- One mark for each
Answer relevant explanation
Suggest the most appropriate way the government can protect Evaluation (2 x 1)
the environment where Sporty Dealers operates. - Up to two marks for
- Legislation and policies by the local authorities/regulations and evaluative reasoning/
rules/laws. (k) judgement on protection
- Paper, glass and plastic waste from the sport field should not be of the environment
deposited into lakes and rivers. (an) against pollution
- Financial penalties/fines, (k) the local clean up service asks a
price according to the pollution. Sporty Dealers will pay fine (an) Do not accept
and increase their cost (an) if not leaving the sport field clean - Pressure groups.
after a sport event.
- Educating the community, (k) doing campaign on media to
encourage people not to throw litter on the ground. (an)
- Providing recycling bins, (k) encourage people to put rubbish in
the allocated bins and not on the ground. (an)
- Pollution permits, (k) depends on the amount of pollution the
business can cause. (an)

Evaluation
- Candidates can choose any way.

Application
Training services, sport fields, pollution/littering, glass, paper,
plastic and cans, sport events, owners of Sport Dealers, managers
of Sport Dealers

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Teachers must teach learners the correct definitions especially at the back of the syllabus and avoid definitions that just
repeat concepts.

Teachers must train/teach learners how to analyse based on the question context so learners know what the question
is expecting them to answer, for example how, why questions not just to copy from the summary.

Some learners are still struggling with application. Teachers should set tests with case studies and aske learners to
apply or set tests in the format of the examination. Case studies could also be used in each and every lesson the
teacher presents.

Clear notes should be compiled and shared for Theme 5 as there is very limited information in the prescribed textbooks.
This topic remains a challenge for most learners.

Teachers must teach learners how to answer evaluation questions since some learners are still evaluating at the
beginning without discussing further advantages and disadvantage/effects so they earn knowledge and analysis marks.

Learners who evaluate/make a choice at the beginning most of the time only discuss one side that they are supporting
which will make them lose more marks.

Learners should be able to write down next to each question how many marks for K, An, Ap and Ev the answer needs.
Teachers must lead their learners while teaching lessons.

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6144
Paper 2

Note
Application marks
Nothing in the question is valid, but the information in the stem/case material is valid, but each may only be used
once.

GENERAL COMMENTS
There was an overall improvement in the learners’ work especially in their knowledge and application. Learners still
struggle with calculations and government related questions.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
1 (a) Fairly well answered. Some learners could not link the knowledge 8 Knowledge (2 x 1)
to the case and failed to analyse properly. Learners copied - One mark for each
phrases directly from the case study which was not awarded importance of effective
marks. The majority of learners focused on the definition of effective communication identified
communication and a few learners wrote the ways of communication Application (2 x 1)
or discussed the barriers to communication which was wrong. - Up to two marks for
reference in context
Answer Analysis (2 x 2)
Explain, using examples, two reasons why effective - Up to two marks for each
communication would be important to Pensak. importance of effective
- Creates an environment of mutual understanding/teamwork between communication.
the management and the employees/managing relationships with
staff (k) which helps controlling organisational members’ behaviour If negatively answered
(an) will increase sales and a good reputation for the business. (an) - Assess impact of poor
- Lower risk. (k) communication.
- Give a sense of direction (k) as it informs and gives clarification to
the employees about the task to be done (an) run business smoothly
and efficiently/is essential for the quick and effective performance of
the entire organisation. (an)
- Fewer mistakes. (k)
- Source of information to the organisational members for
decision-making process (k) as it helps identify and assess
alternative courses of action (an) provide information to help in
making the right decisions/good working environment. (an)
- Promotes a positive work culture among the employees (k) for
increasing production (an) increase output/efficiency/promotes
cooperation and mutual understanding amongst the workers/this
leads to less friction/and efficient operations/positive team work/
leading to loyal workforce. (an)
- Helps that everyone understands their duties and responsibility (k)
helps build quality client and employee relationships (an) and keeps
employees engaged and productive/job satisfaction. (an)
- Good communication could enhance business reputation. (k) A
strong and positive public impression. (an) Helps to attract talent to
the company (an) and can even increase interest from investors and
banks. (an)
- Motivation, (k) committed to increase productivity/efficiency. (an)
- Reduces mistakes/fewer faults/less wastage of resources. (k)
- Clear information (k) leading to less confusion. (an)

Application
Managers of Pensak, workforce of Pensak, source of information,
duties refer to stitching of pencil bags, cutter, marker cases, pencil
cases/pouches, recognition, receptionist, piece rate

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Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
(b) Well answered. The majority of learners were able to identify the ways 12 Knowledge (2 x 2)
of communication. Learners were able to outline the advantages and - Up to two marks for each
disadvantages of each way of communication. Some learners were way of communication.
confused between the ways of communication. Instead they wrote Identification of
one-way and two-way communication while other learners wrote communication way one
internal and external communication. mark plus one mark for an
advantage
Answer OR a disadvantage
Recommend the most suitable way of communication for Pensak to of suitable ways of
use to inform its workers about a change in working hours. communication
Verbal communication (k) Application (2 x 1)
- When the sender speaks to the receiver. - Up to two marks for
- Examples: telephone conversations, video conferencing and relevant reference to
meetings. Pensak
Advantages Analysis (2 x 1)
- Information can be given out quickly, (k) efficient way of - One mark for analysis of
communicating with a large number of people. (an) either stated advantage
- There is opportunity for immediate feedback. (k) OR a disadvantage
- The message is often reinforced by seeing the speaker, (k) body Evaluation (4 x 1)
language can put the message across effectively. (an) - Award up to four marks
Disadvantages for a justified decision
- In a big meeting, there is no way of telling whether everybody is and recommendation
listening or has understood the message. (k) as to which way of
- It can take longer (k) to use verbal methods when feedback occurs. communication should be
- No permanent record of the message is needed, (k) such as a used
warning to a worker, a verbal method is inappropriate. (an) Language
use can be difficult. (an)
Written communication
- Includes letters and the use of information technology.
- Examples: memorandums, reports, notices, faxes and e-mail.
Advantages
- There is hard evidence of the message (k) – which can be referred to
in the future. (an) Help to reduce disagreements between sender and
receiver. (an)
- Essential for certain messages – safety measures must be in written
form. (k)
- A written message can be copied and sent to many people. (k) This
can be more effective. (an)
- Electronic communication is quick, (k) reaches a large number of
people. (an)
Disadvantages
- Direct feedback is not always possible, (k) unless electronic
communication is used. (an)
- It is not so easy to check that the message has been received and
acted upon as with verbal messages. (k)
- The language used can be difficult for some receivers to understand.
(k) If the written message is too long it may be confusing and lose the
interest of the reader. (an)
- There is no opportunity for body language to be used to reinforce the
message. (k)
- Expensive to print. (k)
Visual communication
- Examples: chart, diagram, videos, PowerPoint display, poster.
Advantages
- These methods can present information in an appealing and
attractive way, (k) people more prepared to look at posters than to read
letters – because of the interesting way of communication. (an)
- They can be used to make a written message clearer by adding a
chart or diagram to illustrate the point being made. (k)
- Faster than written. (k)

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Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
Disadvantages
- There is no feedback (k) and the sender of the message may need
to use other forms of communication to check that the message is
understood. (an)
- Charts and graphs are difficult for some people to interpret (k) – the
overall message might be misunderstood if the receiver is unsure of
how to read values from the graph. (an)

Evaluation
- E.g. Pensak can make use of verbal communication. (ev) Information
about the change in working hours can be given out quickly (ev) and
explained. There will be an opportunity by workers for feedback.
(ev) Workers feel part of decision making which will increase job
satisfaction. (ev)

Application
Skilled workers, store workers, manager of Pensak, safety regulations,
e-mail, meetings, memorandum, pencil bags/pouches, workforce of
Pensak, factory workers
Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
2 (a) Fairly well answered. Most learners’ answers focussed on Maslow’s 8 Knowledge (2 x 1)
theory instead of Herzberg’s motivational theory which is hygiene/ - One mark for each way
maintenance factor and motivational factor. Some leaners gave of Herzberg theory
hygiene and maintenance factors which they meant was one factor. identified
Learners still fail to answer the question in context. Most learners Application (2 x 1)
failed to analyse the theory to give the impact on the workers on how - Up to two marks for
their needs are satisfied. The focus here should be the opportunity reference explained in
to satisfy the needs of workers that leads to workers working harder, context
have more job satisfaction, feel safe and valued in their job. Analysis (2 x 2)
- Up to two marks for each
Answer relevant explanation of
Analyse, using Herzberg’s motivational theory, two ways each way
Pensak’s workers needs are satisfied.
NO MARKS
Hygiene factors/maintenance factors (k) - examples if two ways are
- According to Herzberg the hygiene factors must be addressed given
by Pensak manager to prevent dissatisfaction/they would not by - definitions
themselves create a well-motivated workforce/but give workers
satisfaction/it will actively motivate workers to work hard/to be more
productive/enjoy their work/feel valued in their job. (an)
- Examples: good relations, job security, safe working conditions,
company policy, status, reasonable salary.
Motivational needs (k)
- Examples: achievement, recognition, development, promotion, work
itself and responsibility.
- These motivators lead to a more productive workforce/more creative
and committed workforce/workers have more job satisfaction/
developed skills/work harder. (an)

Application
Workers councils, quality circles, worker participation, piece rate,
effective communication, Pensak manger, recognition, achievement,
safety, promotion, growth opportunities, owner of Pensak, designing.

98
Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
(b) Well answered. Learners could evaluate two suitable methods of 12 Knowledge (2 x 2)
promotion the business could use and they were able to make a - Up to one mark for
justified decision. promotion method
identified (2 marks)
Answer and one mark for an
Evaluate two suitable methods of promotion Pensak could use explanation/advantage/
and justify which you think is most appropriate. disadvantage of each
- Advertising, (k) to make people aware of the product/to encourage method
customers to buy. (an) Application (2 x 1)
- Sales promotion, (k) attract customers in the short-term/lead to - Up to two marks relevant
impulse buying. (an) to Pensak
- Personal selling, (k) involves direct communication between buyer Analysis (2 x 1)
and seller/try to persuade consumers (customers) to buy the - Up to two marks
product. (an) for analysis of the
- Public relations/sponsorship/use of influences, (k) make the public promotional methods.
aware of the company’s operations/concerned with promoting Evaluation (4 x 1)
a good image for the business or products/raise the public’s - Up to 4 marks for a
awareness of the business. (an) justified decision and
reasoning on the best
Evaluation option.
- E.g. Sales promotion. (ev) It can promote sales at times in the year
when sales are low. (ev) It encourages new customers to try existing Only ONE example
products. (ev) It encourages customers to try new product. (ev) Can of sales promotion/
introduce new products to the market. (ev) Improve business brand advertising
image/brand loyalty. (ev) To increase sales, lead to increase in profit. - Buy one get one free
(ev) - Competitions
- Gifts

Do not accept
- advertising media e.g.
tv, radio, newspapers,
magazines etc.

Any choice accepted

Application
Pencil bags, marker cases, pencil cases, profits, efficiency of Pensak,
schools

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Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
5 (a) Fairly well answered. Learners did not know the formulas from the 8 Knowledge (2 x 1)
syllabus. Most learners’ answers referred to liquidity ratios instead - One mark for nominator
of solvency ratio. Some learners switch the numerator with a (top) and one mark for
denominator in the formula. Learners did not know the acceptable denominator (bottom) of
norm which is 1 : 1. Some answers were given as a percentage formula
instead of a norm. Application (2 x 1)
- One mark for correct
Answer amounts used
Analyse whether the solvency of Pensak improved between 2023 Analysis (2 x 2)
and 2024. Use calculations to support your answer. - One mark for correct
result and up to three
= Total assets (k) OR Total assets : Total liabilities marks for comparison
Total liabilities (k)
Do not award
= (53 000 + 104 000) (ap) - Liquidity ratios
(57 000 + 246 000) (ap) - Total liabilities
Total assets
= 157 000
303 000 If no formula given
- Marks awarded for
= 0,52 : 1 OR 0,51 : 1 (an) correct amounts.

Comparison If formula is correct, but

- Pensak’s solvency results show a decrease (an) from 0,98 : 1 to figures wrong
0,52/0,51 : 1 (an) An acceptable norm is above 1 to show they are - Allow comparison with
able to pay their debts. (an) Results show a decrease of 0,46/0,47. own figure.
(an)
OR
- Show in 2023 each 98c in dollar to cover debts and in 2024 52c in
dollar to cover debt. (an) Business is in risk of insolvency. (an) Not
able to cover debts through assets. (an) The results are below the
acceptable norm of 1 : 1, (an) therefore, the business of Pensak is
insolvent/unable to pay its long-term debts. (an)

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Q Possible answers Marks Marking Guidance
(b) Poorly answered. Most learners answered out of context. Learners 12 Knowledge (2 x 2)
gave customer rights instead of laws or ways how the government - One mark for each way of
protects customers to ensure their rights. Some learners focused on protection of consumes
economic policies such as fiscal policy. Some answers switched focus by the government and
from customers to workers in the business. Learners could not refer one mark of explanation
their answers to the ca study, but generalised their answers. each
Application (2 x 1)
Answer - Up to two marks for
Evaluate two ways government may protect consumers and relevant to context
justify which you think is the most effective. Analysis (2 x 1)
- Government sets the laws and rules by which a business operates. - One mark for any further
(k) explanation of each way
- Make it illegal to give consumer a deliberately misleading impression of protection
about a product/Sales of goods Act). (k) Advertisement must be Evaluation (4 x 1)
truthful. (an) - Up to 4 marks for justified
- Illegal not to give consumers a copy of the credit agreement/ decision of most effective
Consumer credit Act, (k) they must be able to check how long they way made about how
have borrowed money for and at what rate of interest. (an) government protects
- Illegal to sell products which have serious flaws, (k) so product sets consumers
the purpose. (an)
- Products which are not fit for the purpose intended/Trade description
Act (k) and cannot meet the expectation of the consumer. (an)
- Illegal misleading pricing claim/Consumer protection Act, (k)
consumers do not buy a product because they think it is better
value. (an)
- Producer commits an offence if he sells underweight goods/Weight
and measures Act. (k)

Evaluation
- The most effective way would be products being not sold if goods
are not fit for purpose (ev) because a business breaks the law and
customer can get money back (ev) or a replacement of product. (ev)
Customers are worse off by buying faulty goods. (ev)

Application
Namibian government, type of pencil bag cotton/denim, zips not proper
close, pencil bags, pencil cases, schools, consumers of Pensak,
pouches, marker cases.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Teachers should use the competencies in the syllabus and verbs (command words) to avoid confusion.

Emphasis on how to justify (not repeating the same points in the justification part).

Proper revision on Paper 2 type questions, more activities/tests with case studies, to help the learners to practise how
to identify the possible applications in a case study and how to link it to their answers.

Teachers should do research on topics in the syllabus if they are not available in the textbooks.

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

101
102
CHEMISTRY
6117
Paper 1

Question Question Question Question

Key Key Key Key
Number Number Number Number
1 D 11 D 21 A 31 D

2 C 12 A 22 B 32 A

3 B 13 B 23 B 33 B

4 B 14 A 24 C 34 C

5 B 15 B 25 D 35 B

6 C 16 A 26 D 36 D

7 C 17 D 27 C 37 A

8 B 18 C 28 C 38 B

9 A 19 D 29 A 39 B

10 B 20 D 30 D 40 A

General comments
Candidates found this to be a moderate paper overall.
Candidates found Questions 1, 5, 14 19, and 21 to be particularly difficult.
Questions 3, 6 and 22 were found to be the least challenging.

Comments on specific questions

1. Poorly answered. 20.8% of the candidates recalled that the burette is the apparatus that can measure with
a degree of accuracy of 0.05 cm3. Option B was the most common incorrect answer.
2. Fairly well answered by 51% of the candidates. Many candidates failed to recognize the fact that after
filtering, the solid residue is sand and not the salt. The filtrate is the salt solution which is evaporated to
obtain solid salt.
3. Very well answered. This question was the most well answered question in the paper. 93.7% of the
candidates chose the correct option.
4. Poorly answered Many candidates failed to interpret the factors that affect diffusion from the options that
were given. Only 36.6% chose the correct option.
5. Very poorly answered. This was the most poorly answered question in the paper. Option D was the most
common incorrect answer showing that most candidates did not consider the fact that options B, C and D
were not neutral atoms but ions. They assumed option D had 8 electrons when in fact it had 10 electrons.
Only 14.8% of the candidates chose the correct option.
6. Well answered by 83.5% of the candidates.
7. Poorly answered. Many candidates failed to recall the trends of group I elements.40% of the candidates
chose the correct option. The rest appeared to be guessing.
8. Poorly answered. Option A was chosen by many candidates who perhaps read the question as unshared
electrons. 47% of the candidates chose the correct option.
9. Poorly answered. The most chosen incorrect answer was option B. It appears candidates confused the
term isotope with allotrope. Buckminsterfullerene is an allotrope of carbon. 31% chose the correct option.
10. Fairly well answered by 60% of the candidates. Although some candidates chose the option indicating that
there are 4 elements in NH4OH.
11. Fairly well answered by 51.9% of the candidates. Some candidates could not determine which diagram
corresponded with which substance.

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12. Poorly answered. Options B and C were the most chosen incorrect answers. There was evidence of
guessing in this question. 44% of the candidates chose the correct option.
13. Fairly well answered by 52.7%. The most chosen incorrect answer was option B indicating a lack of
understanding of the difference between the mole and the Avogadro’s constant.
14. Poorly answered. This question on stoichiometry was not well answered. Some candidates appeared to
be guessing. Only 25.9% of the candidates chose the correct option.
15. Fairly well answered by 64% of the candidates.
16. Fairly well answered by 58% of the candidates.
17. Poorly answered. The most common incorrect answer was Option B, suggesting that candidates were not
sure about which electrode to be used. 48% of the candidates chose the correct option.
18. Fairly well answered by 64% of the candidates.
19. Poorly answered. Candidates appeared to be guessing. It should be recalled that hydrogen as a fuel
reacts with oxygen in fuel cells to produce energy. Only 28% of the candidates chose the correct option.
20. Fairly well answered by 59.8% of the candidates. Some candidates did not seem to have studied the
diagrams carefully as they could not see that in option B, the acid was dilute while in option D it was
concentrated.
21. Poorly answered. The most common incorrect answer was option B. Many candidates could not recall as
to whether a catalyst increases or decreases activation energy. Only 24.6% of the candidates chose the
correct option.
22. Well answered by 84.9% of the candidates.
23. Fairly well answered by 62.6% of the candidates. Some candidates seemed confused and so ended up
guessing.
24. Fairly well answered by 58.2% of the candidates.
25. Poorly answered. All options were chosen equally giving evidence of guessing. 31.7% chose the correct option.
26. Fairly well answered by 65.3% of the candidates.
27. Fairly well answered by 56.8% of the candidates. Option B was a most common incorrect answer. There
seem to be a confusion between which test involves a glowing splint and which one involves a lighted splint.
28. Poorly answered. Confusion on the methods of extraction was evident. The most common incorrect
answer was option A. 47.3% of the candidates chose the correct option.
29. Fairly well answered by 56% of the candidates.
30. Fairly well answered by 59.3% of the candidates.
31. Poorly answered. Option C was a common incorrect answer. The general formula for alkanes should be
well known by candidates. 49.4% of the candidates chose the correct option.
32. Fairly well answered by 52.6% of the candidates, the rest appeared to be guessing as all the incorrect
options were chosen equally.
33. Poorly answered. Many candidates could not recall the process of catalytic cracking. 41.9% chose the
correct option.
34. Fairly well answered by 66% of the candidates. Option A was a common incorrect answer.
35. Fairly well answered by 53% of the candidates. This question on identifying polymers discriminated well
between candidates. Options C and D were chosen by many candidates.
36. Fairly well answered by 60.3% of the candidates. Option A was a common incorrect answer.
37. Well answered by 76.8% of the candidates.
38. Fairly well answered by 55.1% of the candidates.
39. Poorly answered. The use of lime to neutralise soil acidity in terms of pH was not recalled by many
candidates. Option A was the most common incorrect answer. 49.1% of the candidates chose the correct option.
40. Fairly well answered by 58.1% of the candidates. Options B and C were common incorrect answers. There
seem to be confusion between the uses of sulfur dioxide and those of sulfuric acid.

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6117
Paper 2

Key messages

• Many candidates need more practice in analysing the stem of a question.

• Candidates should not provide fractions as answers to calculations.

• Formulae and equations, including ionic equations and ionic half-equations, were an area of weakness for many
candidates.

General comments

The standard of questions in terms of level of difficulty of this paper compared to the previous years was the same.
The majority of candidates successfully completed all questions and few candidates left questions unanswered. Few
candidates tackled this paper well, meaning only a small fraction of candidates showed knowledge of basic Chemistry.
Not many were able to do correct calculations. Some candidates need more practice in answering questions.

Many candidates showed their working out in calculations, this is good examination practice as often the working out is
more than the final answer. Candidates must use correct terminology when answering questions.

Some candidates need more practice in analysing the stem of a question to pick out the essential words needed to fully
answer the question. In Question 4(d)(ii), some candidates misread the words “suitable starting materials”and gave
their answers as if referring to the “suitable starting apparatus”.

The practical aspect of this subject cannot be overemphasised. A candidate who has had an opportunity to do
experiments will always have an advantage over one who hasn’t had.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

This was the best answered question on the paper. Many candidates were able to answer at least part (a).

(a)(i – v) Well answered, however some candidates used names and/or symbols of elements instead of
the given letters. Teachers are advised to emphasise to the candidates on how to answer these
types of questions as per given instructions.

(b) Moderately answered. Some candidates gave general properties for all metals instead of only those
of transition metals as per question i.e electrical conductivity was frequently given while it is for all
metals, including the group 1 metals.

Question Model answer Additional guidance Marks

1 (a) (i) C/A/D Allow correct names of elements 1
(avoid penalizing twice)
potassium/ bromine/ copper
(ii) A bromine 1
(iii) F aluminium 1

(iv) C potassium 1

(v) B helium 1

(b) Have high densities / High m. p OR b. p / Forms Any two 2

coloured compounds / Often acts as a catalyst / Has
more than one oxidation state OR more than one ions
OR more than one valency / are less reactive 
7

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Question 2

Many candidates were able to score more marks in this question as it covers a wide range of topics.

(a) Moderately answered. Many candidates could not get the number of electrons for bromide ion as
they could not differentiate between an atom and an ion.

(b) Moderately answered. Some candidates could not differentiate between “lose” and “loose”.

(c) Poorly answered. Majority of candidates were not able to indicate the charges on both magnesium
ion and bromide ion. A fair share of learners drew a covalent bond instead of an ionic bond.

(d) (i) Well answered.

(ii) Moderately answered. Some candidates used the word electrons instead of ions.

(iii) Moderately answered. Many candidates were able to give the ionic half equation for the reaction
at the cathode but not at the anode. Few candidates failed to put the “ – ” (negative) on the
electrons i.e e – .

(e) (i) Poorly answered. Majority of candidates could not distinguish between the lattice of
magnesium bromide and that of diamond.

(ii) Well answered.

(iii) Fairly well answered. Majority of candidates referred to electrostatic forces instead of covalent bonds.

2 (a) Number of electrons = 36 1

Number of neutrons = 45 1
(b) By the transfer OR loss of electrons Accept give away electrons 1
(c) Allow Mg shown without any
electrons
3

• Mg 2+ 
• Two bromide ions ( Br−)
• 8*e’s on each outer shell 
(d)(i) Electrolysis Sound more correct 1
(ii) The ions need to be free to move and carry charge 1
(iii) Cathode: Mg + 2e → Mg 
2+ − Ignore state symbol 2
Anode: 2Br− →Br2 + 2e−  Accept 2Br− - 2e− → Br2
(e) (i) The lattice of MgBr2 is a giant ionic
while that of diamond is giant covalent/ giant molecular/ 2
macromolecular 
(ii) Each carbon is bonded to 4 other carbons/ tetrahedral 1

(iii) It has strong (covalent) bonds 1

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Question 3
Some candidates showed poor understanding of bond energies and dynamic equilibrium. Many candidates identified
the shape of ammonia molecule.

(a) Well answered. Many candidates were able to balance the equation.

(b) Moderately answered. Some of the candidates could not score a mark as they contradicted
themselves referring to increase of the activation energy as the rate of the chemical reaction increases.

(c) Poorly answered. Many of candidates could not differentiate between which reaction involves bond
breaking and which one involves bond forming.

(d) This question was the least well answered question on this paper. Very few candidates could give the
effects of decreasing the pressure on an equation. Some candidates gave contradicting answers.

(e) Well answered. Candidates could correctly state the shape of ammonia molecule.

(f) Well answered. Some of the candidates gave the formula but could not give it correctly with the
charge (OH – ) instead they wrote (OH.)

(g) (i) Most candidates were awarded full credit here. The most common error was rounding off
incorrectly by some candidates.

(ii) Most candidates could not use the mole ratio from the balanced equation.

(iii) Many candidates could give the other element present in fertilisers other than phophorus.

3 (a) N2 + 3 H2 ⇌ 2 NH3  Correctly balanced 1

(b) To speed up the chemical reaction OR Accept: increase the rate of 1

Provide alternative pathway by lowering the activation energy the reaction

(c) Bond breaking is endothermic and bond making is exothermic

/ energy absorbed to break bonds and energy released on 2
making bonds 
More energy released than absorbed
(d) • The equilibrium shifts to the left / more reactants are 2
formed
• When pressure is decreased, the equilibrium shifts to the
side with more moles 

(e) (Triangular) pyramidal Reject: pyramide 1

(f) Hydroxide/ OH- 2
(g)(i) n = m/Mr ()
= 2.891/98 ()
= 0.0295 mol No rounding off 2
(ii) m = n × Mr () Ecf (g) (i) 2
= 0.0295 × 3 × 17 OR 0.0885 X 17() 0.0885 () seen
= 1.5045 g Any correct rounding off from
2 s.f
(iii) 1- Potassium/ K 2
2- Nitrogen/ N 
14

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Question 4
The candidates who were exposed to practical experiments had an advantage in this question about the observation
when acids react with other substances. Many could give the correct observation in test tube Y in (a) and could also
give the chemical test for water in (c)(i). Part (c)(ii) was also well answered.

(a) This question was well answered, although a few of the candidates referred to the universal indicator
as a “blue litmus paper turning red” in test tube X. In test tube Y, some candidates gave the conclusion
instead of the observation that was made.

(b) Fairly answered. Many candidates could not give a clear comparison between strong acids and weak
acids. Subject teachers are advised to emphasise the correct comparison as indicated in the syllabus.

(c) (i) Candidates did well on this question, showing many had practiced this type of question before.
There were few wrong answers.

(ii) Most candidates answered this question reasonably well, showing much knowledge and
understanding. Most candidates could write down the correct name of the salt produced,
although some referred to “sulfide” instead of “sulfate”. Some candidates gave more than one
answer when only one was asked for.

(d) (i) A lot of candidates struggled on this question. Majority were referring to “filtration” and “crystallisation”
instead of precipitation as the method.

(ii) This was not a well answered question. Majority of the candidates could not understand what
the question was asking although it is stated clear on the syllabus about the suitable starting
materials for preparing the insoluble salts. A lot of candidates referred to apparatus i.e beaker,
flask, funnel and filter paper.

4 (a) Test tube X – Universal indicator turns red Allow magnesium 2

Test tube Y- Magnesium dissolves / fizzing / bubbles / gas / disappears
effervescence Any one 
(b) Strong acid dissociates / ionizes completely in solution OR water Clear comparison 1
and
Weak acid dissociates partially OR slightly in solution OR water 
(c)(i) Test: Add drops of water to anhydrous / white Copper (II) sulfate  2
Result : Turns blue 
Test: Add drops of water to anhydrous / blue Cobalt chloride 
Result: Turns pink
(ii) Calcium sulfate  Name only 1

(d) (i) Precipitation / double decomposition  1

(ii) 1 silver nitrate / AgNO3  Accept any correct soluble

compound 2
2 sodium chloride / NaCl
Potassium chloride / KCl 
9

Question 5
This question was mainly on metals and their reactivities.

(a) (i) This question was fairly answered. Majority of candidates could not identify the metal that burns
with bright yellow flame.

(ii) This question was very well answered.

(iii) Many candidates could get this question correct. There were only few wrong answers.

(iv) Many candidates could identify the metal from the list that could be extracted by reduction using carbon.

(v) This question was well performed by majority of the candidates.

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(b) This question was fairly answered. Majority of the candidates could not give a clear comparison
between metals and non-metals.

(c) (i) This was not a very well answered question. A lot of candidates were only referring to an “oxide
layer” without mentioning being “protective or stable”.

(ii) Majority of the candidates could not correctly spell the word “bauxite”. Some candidates referred
to “haematite”. More emphasis should be given on correct spelling.

(d) (i) This question was poorly answered. Majority of candidates could not identify the type of reaction
taking place, thus could not answer the question correctly.

(ii) Majority of the candidates could not answer this question fully, therefore it was a poorly answered
question. Many candidate referred to “zinc replace copper” instead of “zinc displace copper”.

(iii) A lot of candidates could not answer this question correctly. Some candidate referred to “zinc
sulfate or zinc ions” instead of zinc element itself.

5(a) (i) Sodium  1

(ii) Copper  1

(iii) Carbon  1

(iv) Iron / zinc  1

(v) Zinc  1

(b) Metals have high density / high melting point and boiling point / good Clear comparison 1
conductors, etc while non-metals have low density/ low m.p and b.p /
poor conductors, etc
Any one 
(c) (i) Protective OR stable oxide layer  1

(ii) Bauxite  1

(d) (i) Red-pink solid: Copper  1

Colourless solution: Zinc sulfate

(ii) Zinc is more reactive than copper  2

It displaces copper from its compound
(iii) Zinc  1

Question 6
This question was mostly about organic chemistry.

(a) Candidates struggled to ‘name any family of organic compounds with same general formula and
similar chemical properties”. They struggled with the correct spelling of “homologous”.

(b) Candidates found this question on the general formula for the alcohol very hard and many did not
know what the correct answer was. Some wrote down the general formula for an ‘alkane’.

(c) (i) Candidates struggled with this question. Most candidates could only score one mark as they
could not give the correct temperature.

(ii) Most candidates were able to complete and balance this equation.

(d) (i) A lot of candidates struggled on this question. Majority of them could only get the mark for
product A “carbon dioxide”.

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(ii) Majority of the candidates could not identify compound D that reacts with steam to form ethanol.
Some referred to “alkane, ethane”.

(e) (i) Candidates performed poorly in this question. Few candidates were able to draw the
carbohydrates polymer. Teachers are encouraged to practice more on drawing polymer structures.

(ii) A good number of candidates could answer this question correctly. Some candidates referred to
“condensation polymerisation” which is opposite of “hydrolysis”.

(iii) Candidate performed poorly in this question. More revision is needed by candidates on this
particular topic.

6 (a) Homologous series  1

(b) Cn H2n+1 OH  Correct answer only 1

(c) (i) 1- yeast /anaerobic / in absence of oxygen Any one  1

2 – temperature 25 - 37˚C  1

(ii) C6H12O6 → 2 C2H5OH + 2 CO2

1
CO2 as a product  1

Rest of the equation correct

(d) (i) A – carbon dioxide  Name only 1

B – ethyl ethanoate  1
C – ethanoic acid  1
(ii) Ethene / C2H4  1

(e) (i) Allow correctly drawn

structure with square brackets
1
between two squares 
1
Rest of the structure correct (atleast repetition of two)

(ii) Hydrolysis  1

(iii) Acid  Accept enzyme OR amylase 1

Question 7
This question was on environmental and industrial chemistry.

(a) (i) This question was poorly answered. Majority of candidates referred to “carbon dioxide” which is
not an element.

(ii) Only a small number of candidates were able to give the correct process.

(b) A lot of candidates did very well on this question.

(ii) Candidates performed very well in this question and could state the conditions used. Few
candidates could mention “temperature” or “pressure” without the values and units as per question.

(iii) Candidates struggled with this question. Many candidates gave “carbon monoxide, sulfur
dioxide and lead compounds” which were already mentioned. Some candidates referred to
effects rather than sources of these this pollutants.

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7(a)(i) Argon  Accept any Group 8 elements 1

(ii) Fractional distillation  1

(b) Breathing (in hospitals) / (aerobic) respiration / welding /steel 1

production / sewage treatment / combustion / burning
Any one 

(c)(i) Carbon monoxide – suffocation / death  1

Lead compounds – brain damage / brain cancer  1

(ii) Temperature 400 - 500 ˚C 1

Pressure 1-2 atm OR 100 – 200 kPa 1
Vanadium (V) oxide OR V2O5
Any two 

(iii) Pollutant: (excess) Carbon dioxide  Accept: 1

Source: Burning fossil fuels  Or 1
Or Pollutant: Unburnt
Pollutant: Oxides of nitrogen hydrocarbons
Source: Internal combustion in engine / car exhausts Source: Vehicle exhaust
Or fumes
Pollutant: (excess) methane Or
Source: decomposition from vegetation / waste gas from Pollutant: Solid particles
digestion of animals Source: Burning of waste
materials

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6117
Paper 3

General comments

Generally, the Chemistry paper 3 discriminated successfully between learners of different abilities but was accessible
to all. However, compared to previous years, learners’ performances have downgraded even though the questioning
style remained the same.

The vast majority of learners successfully attempted all of the questions, with very few blank spaces.

Learners lost marks unnecessarily due to the inability to read questions and understand what was expected of them.

When a question asks for the name of a chemical, a correct formula is always acceptable. However, if a candidate
answers with an incorrect formula, then credit cannot be awarded.

Lists of answers with correct and incorrect responses are marked according to a list principle and are penalised if
contradictory. For example, if the correct answer is ‘white precipitate insoluble’ and a candidate writes ‘white precipitate
insoluble and dissolves, no credit can be awarded.

Learners in most centres proved to be familiar with the planning set required in Question 5. Learners were unable to
read the question and understand what was expected of them. At the start of the plan, there is no need for learners
to write a list of aims and apparatus or listing standard safety precautions since credit will not be given for that. Where
credit is available for the selection of an appropriate item of apparatus then it must be clear in the plan for what the
apparatus is used for.

Learners would be advised to plan the investigation before beginning to write their responses.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

(a) This question was not well answered. Most learners were unable to correctly name the line labelled A.
A vast number of learners answered solvent line instead. Teachers should make a clear distinction between
solvent front and a solvent line.

(b) This question was not well answered. A significant number of responses stated the different types
of errors such as random errors, systematic errors etc instead of the way the apparatus was set up.
Learners were unable to read the question carefully and provide the correct answer.

(d) The vast majority of learners correctly identified green as the ink that contains the greatest number of dyes..

(e) The majority of learners correctly stated red and purple.

(f) This question was poorly answered. Most of the learners could not identify that what could be changed
is the solvent. The vast majority of learners wrongly suggested the use of a locating agent.
Question Answer Additional guidance Marks
1 (a) Solvent front  1
(b) The spots/baseline below solvent level  1
(c) Pencil does not dissolve  1
(d) green  1
(e) red and purple  1
(f) Use a different solvent/ organic solvent  1
[6]

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Question 2

(a) This question was fairly answered. A small proportion of learners gave the correct answers with the
correct spelling. The popular incorrect answer includes grinder, pistle, mortal and motor, and were
not credited.

(b) This question was fairly answered. The most common answer given was ‘to dissolve the rock salt’.
Only a minority of learners realised that the reason for adding water was to dissolve sodium chloride alone.

(c) (i) This part was fairly answered. A good proportion of candidate were able to score 1 out of 2 marks
by drawing a funnel and a flask/beaker.

(ii) This part of the question was well answered. A majority of learners could correctly state sand as
the residue.

(d) A good proportion of learners gained credit for the crystallisation process, scoring mostly 1 out of 2
marks. Most learners failed to describe that after heating, the crystals should be cooled and dried.

2 (a) 1 mortar and  1

2 pestle 
(b) To dissolve the sodium chloride/salt  1
(c) (i) A diagram containing filter paper, 2
funnel and flask/beaker 
(ii) Residue  1
1
(d) Heat the filtrate in evaporating dish to evaporate water  1
Cool (down) and dry the crystals (with absorbent paper)
 1
[8]

Question 3

(a) This question was fairly answered. A reasonable number of learners correctly completed the table by
filling in the correct column headings as well as all the correct values of time.

(b) A very few correct graphs were seen. A reasonable number of learners were able to score 1 or 2
marks out of 3. Most learners plotted all points correctly. The mark for a smooth curve was rarely
scored. This is due to various reasons such as drawing wobbly / wavy / hairy / feathery / kinky curves;
joining the points dot-to-dot by free hand; joining the points dot-to-dot with a ruler. These were not
accepted.

(c) This question was fairly answered. The majority of learners were able to read an appropriate volume
from their graph. However, despite the instruction in the question that learners should show clearly on
the grid how they worked out their answer, many did not do this and just recorded a numerical value.
These learners could only gain the mark for the value.

(d) This question was not well answered. Many learners did not get credit because the sketched line was
below the original curve.

(e) Better responses predicted that the reaction has come to completion or either of the reactants got
used up. A common error was to state that the reaction reached the end point or reached dynamic
equilibrium. This implied that the reaction has not come to an end and was thus not credited.

(f) This question was fairly answered. A moderate number of learners provided correct test and results
for oxygen gas.

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3 (a) s / second  1

volume (of oxygen collected)  1

20, 40, 60, 80, 100, 120  1

(b) correct scale for time on x-axis and for both axes labelled 1
correctly 

all 7 points plotted correctly at least half of the grid, ±1/2 a 1

square (±1mm) 
1
best smooth curve 
(c) range 52 – 56 (cm3)  1

working shown on the grid  1

(d) the graph steeper and start at origin  1

horizontal / level off sooner at volume of 86 cm3  1

(e) The reaction is completed/finished or 1
All potassium chlorate used up 
(f) Test: glowing splint  1
Result: relights 

1
[13]

Question 4

(a) This was fairly answered with most learners scoring at least one mark, mostly for the aluminium or Al3+.

(b) (i) This part was very poorly answered. It seems many learners are not familiar with the appearance
of substances.

(ii) Only a few number of learners were able to give an acceptable flame colour. It was evident that
some learners were not familiar with flame tests. Some learners appeared to have just guessed
from the wide range of colours for flame tests from ANNEXE B: Notes for use in qualitative
analysis on page 46 of the NSSCO 6117 Chemistry syllabus.

(iii) Learners find negative tests challenging and this part was no exception. Many learners gave a
positive result for sulfate ion.

(iv) The best responses successfully identified a white precipitate. Some learners just gave random
colours of precipitates from the wide range of precipitate colours from ANNEXE B: Notes for use
in qualitative analysis on page 46 of the NSSCO 6117 Chemistry syllabus.

4 (a) aluminium/ Al3+  1

iodide/ I–1  1
(b) (i) White (powder/solid/crystals)  1
(ii) lilac  1
(iii) no change / no reaction / stays the same  1
(iv) white precipitate/ppt  1

[6]
Question 5

This question was poorly answered and proved to be the most challenging question in the whole question paper.

A complete range of marks was seen in this question and the quality of responses was often centre dependent. At some
centres, a significant number of learners demonstrated that they did not have an idea that the planning required caring
out titration of an acid and an alkali using a suitable indicator.

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Common errors were to use the term ‘amount or drops’ rather than volume, describing experiment with reactants
which are not provided such as react with dishwash/pine gel/detergents and heat the mixture, omit stating when the
measurement was made or to use inappropriate apparatus.

In general, other learners used wrong methods such as rate of reactions. This has shown that most learners lack
knowledge and understanding of practicals.

Overall the most common mark awarded was that of adding hydrochloric acid to the cleaning product (MP4).

5 M1 Add equal volume of each product into a beaker/flask

M2 Use a pipette/ burette/ measuring cylinder to measure the

volume of the (two) products

M3 Add phenolphthalein/ methyl-orange/ methyl-red / bromophenol

blue / thymol blue indicator

M4 add hydrochloric acid drop by drop to each beaker/flask

M5 from a burette

M6 until the indicator colour change

M7 Record/calculate the volume of the acid added to each beaker/

flask

M8 The multi-purpose cleaning product with the largest volume of

acid added is the most concentrated. (Or vice versa)

Any seven points

[7]

Positive suggestions to teachers

• The way in which learners responded to some of the questions in this paper demonstrated that they have a limited
conceptual understanding and exposure to practical experiences.

• Annexe A on page 44 of the syllabus outlines the experimental context that guide the assessment objective C skills.
At the end of each topic in the syllabus, there are also suggested practical activities. These should serve as a guide
regarding the expectations of Paper 3.

• Teachers are encouraged to use easily accessible and locally available materials to conduct practical activities in
their classrooms.

• Lastly teachers need to put a great emphasis on assessment objective C and also make practical work an integral
part of teaching ad learning.

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116
COMPUTER SCIENCE
6134
Paper 1

General Comments

The majority of candidates presented their work neatly, which is commendable. Although candidates demonstrated a
good grasp of some fundamental Computer Science concepts, there is room for improvement in providing more detailed
explanations and discussions. It was observed that candidates frequently struggled to fully explain, describe, or discuss
concepts, often providing brief statements without sufficient elaboration.

Furthermore, learners should be guided to avoid repeating the terms they are asked to define, explain, or describe, as
such responses do not demonstrate understanding. For example, when asked to identify a constant in a piece of code
and justify their choice, simply stating “because it is constant” provides no valid reasoning. To address this, teachers
are encouraged to provide learners with ample opportunities to practice explaining and elaborating on Computer
Science concepts. This practice will not only improve their performance in future assessments but also deepen their
understanding of the subject.

Practical experience with spreadsheets, databases, and programming is crucial for developing a strong understanding
of these tools and preparing candidates for both examinations and real-world applications.

The overall quality of candidates’ work remained consistent with the previous year, with established high-performing
centers maintaining their success and previously struggling centers continuing to face challenges. Additionally, it was
very concerning to note that candidates at some centers left a number of questions unanswered, highlighting a need to
address potential gaps in knowledge and exam preparation strategies.

Teachers are commended for their ongoing commitment to ensuring success in Computer Science, and are encouraged
to continue promoting deeper learning and understanding in the subject.

Question 1 Answer Marks

Candidates generally demonstrated a good understanding of screen mirroring and simulation, with most
providing accurate explanations and relevant examples.

Responses to the questions on the accumulator, TCP/IP, and feasibility studies were more varied. Some
candidates lacked understanding of the accumulator’s role within the CPU and the fetch-decode-execute
cycle, while others struggled to provide detailed explanations of TCP/IP’s role in internet communication or
confused feasibility studies with documentation.
(a) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2 2

Accumulator
- - a type of register for temporary storage of data...
- - …during the fetch-decode-execute cycle
- - …stores the results of arithmetic or logical operations performed by the ALU

//accept “…in the CPU” for the second mark

(b) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2 2

Screen mirroring
- - Sharing the content of one screen onto a second screen
- - …for giving presentations/projecting on a bigger display/TV

//accept any other valid point

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(c) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2 2

TCP/IP

Any two from:

- - Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
- - A set of communication rules // a communication language // a suite of protocols…
- - … for devices to communicate over the internet
- - TCP is responsible for reliable data transmission
- - ….IP is responsible for addressing of data packets
(d) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2 2

Feasibility study

Any two from:

- Initial task of the software development // done during the analysis phase of SDLC
- …to assess the viability of a project
- …checks whether the project is technically or economically possible
(e) 1 mark for the each correct point to max 2 2

Simulation
- the imitation/modelling of the operation of a real-world process or system.
- used in weather forecasting // training pilots in flight simulators used for training pilots //
car crash modeling

//accept any other valid point for the second mark

Question 2 Answer Marks

Most candidates performed well on this question, indicating a strong grasp of the basic principles of disk
formatting. The marking scheme was slightly adjusted to acknowledge the ambiguity of the fourth statement,
“Deactivate viruses in the storage device.”, and to avoid penalizing candidates who might have interpreted
it differently.
1 mark for any two correct answers to max 2 2
- False
- True
- False
- False

Question 3 Answer Marks

A significant number of candidates answered this question well, although only a few achieved full marks.

However, some candidates recycled words when describing the characteristics of LANs and WANs, simply
stating that LANs connect devices in a local area while WANs connect devices in a wide area.

Furthermore, there were instances where candidates suggested that LANs are always faster or connect fewer
devices than WAN.

It is essential to clarify that although LANs typically support high-speed connections within a limited
geographical area, the number of devices and speed can vary based on specific implementations and
technologies.
(a) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2 2

Any two from:

- A LAN covers a small geographical area (e.g. a building or campus).
- A LAN uses connections owned by the organization that owns it.
- More secure than a WAN

//do not accept any recycling of words e.g. local area network connects devices in a
local area

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(b) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2 2

Any two from:

- A WAN covers a large geographical area.
- A WAN often uses third party connections.
- Less secure than a LAN

//do not accept any recycling of words e.g. wide area network connects devices in a
wide area
(c) 1 mark for a valid hardware and 1 mark for the correct description to max 2 2

Advantages any one from:

- A router … … a device that passes data between two networks.
- A gateway … … a device which connects two dissimilar networks to each other.

//Do not accept “… connects LAN to WAN” for the 2nd mark

Question 4 Answer Marks

This question was very well answered, with the majority of candidates scoring between 4 and 6 marks.
However, some candidates had no understanding of what the term “ethical issues” implies, which limited
their ability to fully address this part of the question.
1 mark for each correct point to max 6 6

People: Any two from:

- connection with the rest of the world and communicate with others
- access to more information
- up-to-date with news
- people can engage in e-commerce
- can be used in schools/for education
- there are costs associated with internet access. (devices and connection)

//Accept any other valid point

Businesses: Any two from:

- sell products to wider audience/more customers via internet
- purchase items from wider range/more places via internet
- business can advertise their products online
- business can use AI for increased productivity

//Accept any other valid point

Ethical issues: Any two from:

- access to inappropriate/illegal content
- introduces digital and social divide
- risk of threats e.g. phishing/pharming/virus/identity theft
- unwanted images and videos of people may be put online, violating their privacy
- plagiarism may increase among learners

//Accept any other valid point

Question 5 Answer Marks

Part (a) was well answered, with most candidates demonstrating a good understanding of the importance of
testing programs during the development life cycle. However, candidates struggled to answer (b), with many
unable to provide a clear explanation of the importance of an implementation plan.
(a) 1 mark for each correct point to max 3 3
Any three from:
- to identify errors
- to ensure that the program meets the user requirements/specifications
- to ensure that the programming code is maintainable
- to ensure that the programming code is efficient

// accept any other valid point

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(b) 1 mark for each valid point to max 3 3

Any two from:

- allows the system analyst to choose the appropriate changeover option
- to ensure that the system deployment and transition occurs smoothly and
successfully
- it clearly shows the tasks to be completed and by who and when e.g. user
training on the new system …
- …enhance corporation among the team
members
// accept any other valid point

Question 6 Answer Marks

6 (a) proved to be challenging for a significant number of candidates, with only a few able to accurately
describe how an LED monitor works. Many candidates lacked the technical vocabulary and understanding
of the underlying technology to provide a clear explanation. 6(b) was well answered by the majority of the
candidates.
(a) 1 mark for each correct point to max 3 3

Any three from:

- light emitting diodes technology
- the display is made up of pixels…
- … that are arranged together as a matrix…
- … each is formed of three LEDs/filters
- shades of colour are achieved by mixing red, blue and green
- the screen can be back-lit/edge-lit
(b) 1 mark for the correct technology given to max 1 3
Any one from:
- Liquid Crystal Display (LCD)
- Cathode Ray Tube (CRT)
- Plasma

//accept any other correct technology

Question 7 Answer Marks

This question was fairly answered, with a range of performance observed among candidates. It is important
to clarify that compression does not eliminate transmission errors and does not prevent viruses from being
transmitted.
(a) 1 mark for each point to max 4 4
Any four from:
- a compression algorithm is used
- removes redundant/unnecessary data from the file // removes sounds that
cannot be heard by the human ear/background noise…
- …resulting in slight loss of audio quality
- reduces sample rate
- reduces sample resolution
- data is permanently removed / original file cannot be re-instated
- perceptual music shaping is used
(b) 1 mark for each correct point given to max 2 2
Any two from:
- takes up less storage space
- faster transmission speed
- lower transmission costs
- faster for files to be uploaded and downloaded

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Question 8 Answer Marks
Candidates demonstrated a sound knowledge of verification, validation, and hexadecimal number systems.
They scored good marks on this question, and this is commendable.
(a) (i) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2 2

- passwords often have flexible requirements…

- …making it difficult to define validation rules.
- to prevent typos

//accept any other valid point

(a) (ii) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2 2

- The program could ask the user to type in each of the details twice and check
that both values are the same.
- The program could ask the user to check the details on the screen and confirm
that they are correct (proofread)

(a) (iii) 1 mark for a validation rule and 1 mark for the correct description to max 2 2

Any one from:

- Presence check – makes sure the password field is not left blank
- Length check – makes sure the password entered is of a certain length
- Format check – checks if the password is of a specific required format
- Character check – checks if the password contains certain characters
- Type check – checks if the password contains only allowed characters (e.g.
numeric only)
- Password history – prevents users from reusing their previous password

//accept any other valid validation rule in the context of a password

(b) (i) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2 2

Any two from:

- it’s human-friendly than binary code
- hexadecimal digits are easily converted into binary…
- … making it faster to load webpages
- hexadecimal digits reduces the length of the code…
- ….will take up less storage space
- option for more colors
(b) (ii) a. 1 mark for the correct point to max 1 5

- A register is small, high-speed storage location that is part of a processor

b. 1 mark for each correct nibble (4 bits) to max 2

E5 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 1
c. 1 mark for each correct hexadecimal digit to max 2

//do not award marks for A7

Question 9 Answer Marks

Most candidates could identify the freeze pane feature for part (a). However, many struggled with the COUNT
and IF functions, and most had no understanding of absolute referencing at all. Only a few scored more than
2 marks, with some leaving the question blank. This indicates a general difficulty with spreadsheet skills,
and teachers are encouraged to cover all aspects of the syllabus, including practical skills in various topics.
(a) 1 mark for the correct feature to max 1 1
- Freeze pane
(b) 1 mark for each correct point to max 1 1
- 2

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(c) (i) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2 2

Any two from

- Absolute referencing refers to a specific cell (points to the same cell) …
- …regardless of the position of the cell containing it.
- uses a $ sign before the column name and before the row number.
(c) (ii) 1 mark for =IF, 1 mark for the correct condition, 1 mark for correct true and false 3
values to max 3

=IF(B2>=$E$2,“Approved”,“Rejected”)
OR

=IF(B2<=$E$2,“Rejected”,“Approved”)

//Do not award a mark if the = sign before IF is missing.

//Do not award a mark if true and/or false values are not in quotation marks.

Question 10 Answer Marks

Most candidates could identify the number of fields and records in the player table. However, candidates at
specific centers struggled with the concepts of relationships between database tables and queries. Some
candidates showed little understanding of how to create relationships and formulate queries, often providing
generic answers instead of applying the concepts to the specific context of the “player” and “team” tables.
For instance, they stated that “a field that is a primary key in one table becomes a foreign key in another
table”, instead of saying “teamID, which is a primary key in the team table, becomes a foreign key in the
player table”.
(a) 1 mark for the correct fields and 1 mark for the correct records 2
- 3 fields
- 6 records
(b) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2 2

- teamID is a primary key in team table…

- …linked to teamID a foreign key in player table
(c) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2 2

- By querying the player table…

- …query condition: teamID = “F03”

Question 11 Answer Marks

Performance on this question varied across different centers. Candidates from centers where logic circuits
are taught well scored some good marks on this question. However, candidates at specific centers could not
answer the question correctly, with some opting to leave it blank.

It’s crucial that learners can derive a truth table not just from a circuit diagram, but also from a textual
description of a system’s logic. The candidates who completed the truth table in part (b) from the system
description generally did well, even if they found the circuit construction in part (a) challenging.

Teachers are encouraged to emphasize how to analyze and interpret textual information to represent logical
relationships accurately and to test the derived truth table against the given statement to ensure it reflects
the system’s logic.

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(a) 1 mark per correct logic gate symbol with correct inputs to max 3 3

//accept any other working solution

(b) 1 mark for each correct entry in column Z to max 4 4

X Y Z
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0

Question 12 Answer Marks

Candidates needed to be better prepared for this question. A significant number of candidates demonstrated
sound knowledge of monitoring and control systems in general. However, some could not focus on the
“feedback” aspect of such systems and did not provide their responses within the context of the given
scenario: “maintaining the water temperature at a constant level of 27°C in a swimming pool”. They gave
general answers such as “sensors collect data and send to the computer for processing…”, instead of saying
“temperature sensor measures the temperature...”.

It is important that learners are able to apply key concepts into real-world contexts and communicate their
understanding effectively, which are part of key assessment objectives in Computer Science.
(a) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2 2

Any two from:

- Feedback ensures that the system operates within the required parameters.
- It enables the system to adjust its actions based on the output…
- ….creating a loop where the output affects the input…
- ….allowing for self-regulation and achieving the desired outcome.

(b) 1 mark for each correct point to max 4 4

- Temperature sensors continuously measures the temperature of the water in the

swimming pool
- The readings are sent to the processor, which compares them to the desired
temperature of 27ºC
- If the temperature is out of range, then the actuators turn the cooling/heating
system on or off as necessary
- Feedback ensures that the water temperature remains at 27ºC

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Question 13 Answer Marks
Question 13 was well answered by most candidates.
(a) 1 mark for each correct point to max 3 3
- Hackers can access the confidential recipes…
- …and sell the recipes
- …causing the factory to lose money
- Hackers can access the commands of the machines…
- …and stop the machines from working
- …can change what the machines are supposed to do
- …the factory can lose money

//accept any other reasonable point

(b) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2

2
- Encrypt data on the servers
- Install a firewall to block signals that do not meet the requirements
- Use strong password and change them frequently
- Use additional authentication methods e.g biometrics, Two-Factor Authentication
(2FA), One-Time Password (OTP)

//accept any other valid security measure

(c) 1 mark for each correct point to max 2 2
- Machines can learn from past problems…
- …they can adapt to stop the same problem occurring again
- … they can learn to predict what might happen and raise an alert
- Machines can learn how to work more efficiently…
- …when an action slows the system down, it can prevent this from happening
again
- …when an action increases the speed of the system, it can repeat this when
necessary to improve efficiency

//accept any other valid implication of AI related to the scenario

Question 14 Answer Marks

Most candidates could identify a variable and a constant from the given code and provided valid reasons for
their choices.

However, despite identifying the line number that would cause a runtime error in part (b), many candidates
struggled to provide a valid explanation and suggest a correct change to address the error for part (c).
(a) 1 mark each for the constant and variable, 1 mark for one valid reason of each to 4
max 4

Variable – area
Reason – the value of area is calculated and it can change

Constant – pi // radius
Reason – pi is assigned a fixed value of 3.14 and it remains the same throughout
the program // radius is assigned a fixed value of 6 and it remains the same
throughout the program
(b) 1 mark for the line correctly identified, 1 mark for a valid reason to max 2 2
- Line number: 3
//also accept line 2

Explanation:
Any one from
- Incorrect datatype of radius at line 2…
…program cannot perform calculations on text/string datatype of radius in line 3
(c) 1 mark for the correct point 1

- Allow the user to enter radius // input radius

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Question 15 Answer Marks
Several candidates attempted this question, with few scoring full marks. Algorithms remain a challenging
topic, and teachers are encouraged to place more emphasis on this area.
REPEAT 7
INPUT numberOfEggs
UNTIL numberOfEggs > 0 AND numberOfEggs <= 5
flourNeeded  numberOfEggs * 50
sugarNeeded  numberOfEggs * 25
OUTPUT flourNeeded, sugarNeeded

flowchart shown on the next page

//accept any other working solution award to max 7 marks

- 2 marks for correct input inside the loop; award only 1 mark if input is outside
the loop
- 2 marks for a Boolean condition checking for a positive number <= 5 and
correctly terminating the loop; award only 1 mark if the condition is partly correct
- 1 mark for amount of flour needed correctly calculated and stored in a variable
- 1 mark for amount of sugar needed correctly calculated and stored in a variable
- 1 mark for the output of both amount of flour and sugar needed

Flowchart to question 15

//only award mark if correct flowchart symbols are used

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6134
Paper 2

Introduction

Candidates’ work quality slightly improved for some centres compared to the previous year. Cases of AI-based plagiarism
and malpractice increased. Many teachers need to enhance the quality and consistency of their moderation practices.

General comments:

(a) Awarding of marks:

Marks should be awarded based on the evidence provided in the documentation. It is important to ensure
that all assessments are supported by documented proof. To enhance the consistency and fairness of
the grading process, teachers are encouraged to strictly follow the rubric outlined in the syllabus when
moderating projects. This will help create a more transparent and objective assessment environment for all
candidates.

(b) Attempts to create functional systems:

The project must enable the candidate to address a significant problem using skills related to computer
science. Candidates are required to thoroughly document their project and provide substantial sample
outputs, including evidence of sample documents, table designs, relationship diagrams, and program code
(or algorithms). The designed functional system should be established in accordance with the syllabus
rubric.

(c) Selection of project topics

Teachers should carefully assist students in selecting project topics that are relevant to the Continuous
Assessment-based evaluation in the Computer Science syllabus. The problems chosen should be
manageable and aligned with the skills learned in the subject.
For instance, if a student decides to tackle issues that primarily require human resource skills, such as hiring
personnel, this should prompt the teacher to provide guidance on selecting a more suitable project focus.
A more appropriate project might involve creating a database and developing queries to manipulate stored
human resource data, as this would better meet the project requirements or the rubric.
Additionally, teachers should encourage learners to explore unique and creative project ideas to promote
independence and innovation. Candidates from the same centre should be discouraged from choosing
similar project topics to prevent potential plagiarism among peers.

(d) Formatting documentation and document presentation:

Documentation and presentation are showing great improvement, with many candidates effectively using
the headings from the assessment rubric. Some centres have provided helpful documentation frameworks
(templates), and it’s important for candidates to ensure that each section is filled out in their own words. It’s
crucial that all projects reflect original work.
To enhance clarity, it’s best to avoid dark colours or complex backgrounds for forms, as these can be difficult
to read when printed in black and white.
Many centres have effectively utilised spiral binding to organise candidates’ work, which is particularly
beneficial for submitting thicker booklets. It’s essential to ensure that each candidate submits their work
individually, as this helps maintain clarity and fairness in the evaluation process. Remember, group work is
not accepted.
Additionally, using clear and high-quality images and screenshots is key to a successful submission. This
will help prevent any loss of marks, as marks are awarded only for visible work. Keep up the good effort, as
attention to these details can lead to even better results!

(e) Submission of coursework:

Most coursework was submitted on time, which is commendable and essential for fair external moderation.
Most centres provided both hard and digital copies of projects and supporting documents as requested by
DNEA. Keep it up! Complete submissions are crucial for a fair assessment process, as incomplete ones may
disadvantage candidates.

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(f) Consistency when marking:
The marking standard is generally consistent and acceptable; however, some centres deviate significantly
from this norm. Additionally, some moderators mark strictly or leniently depending on the candidates. Internal
moderators should ensure consistent marking practices.

(g) Malpractice and dishonesty cases:

Some candidates used a textbook or teacher’s notes to describe the documentation, and some didn’t write
documentation specific to their situation. Each candidate must produce unique documentation, and group
projects are not allowed. Identical work from multiple candidates results in applying the malpractice and
dishonesty procedure.
Teachers must not promote or cover up plagiarism. The candidate’s sole responsibility is to handle their
coursework, and teachers should not do it for them. Anyone found engaging in such behaviour will face
serious charges.
Encourage candidates to submit work in sections on set dates, discourage complete topic changes at the
end, and keep copies of submissions for proof and cross-checking.
The ethical use of AI-based tools is essential. Unfortunately, this has not always been the case in some
centres. Teachers should also adopt the use of AI detection tools on students’ work before final submission.
This will help guide candidates in making necessary changes before they submit their final pieces.
Candidates must submit original work, and Centres should supervise their work. Plagiarism and copying
from the internet and other candidates are strictly prohibited. Teachers should thoroughly check the
originality of the work submitted by candidates.

(h) Completion of Continuous Assessment Projects:

Some candidates couldn’t finish the Continuous Assessment project, which led to incomplete attempts—
starting early and dedicating more time to projects results in better outcomes. Teachers should ensure
learners begin in Grade 10 for 6134, as Computer Studies is a two-year syllabus.

(i) Assessment rubric interpretation:

Accurately interpret rubrics to avoid marking errors. Seek mentorship from experienced colleagues or
educational officers specialised in Continuous Assessment for Computer Science. Alternatively, utilise online
collaborative platforms for assistance.

(j) Rigorous guide to candidates:

Teachers must closely monitor students’ Continuous Assessment projects from start to finish, reviewing each
section to ensure understanding. Many students overlook essential parts due to difficulties in approaching
them, so teachers should provide guidance and constructive feedback throughout the process.
It’s important for teachers to discuss required project sections in detail and set target dates for progress
tracking, which helps identify struggles early on. Informing parents or guardians about the project can also
support home monitoring.

Specific sections

(a) Description of the problem:

The score a candidate receives is often influenced by how well they define the problem. A detailed
description of the problem can help them score highly in many other areas. Unfortunately, many candidates
need to improve in this area.

(b) Objectives
The Objectives section is a crucial component of the entire project, serving as its cornerstone. The Business
and Computer-related Objectives should be SMART (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic and
timely). Intensive guidance from the teacher in setting SMART objectives significantly benefits learners as it
determines the quality of the entire project. It may take time and effort for learners to grasp the concept. In
most cases, poorly outlined objectives mean the end product will be poor quality even if the project takes off.
The converse is also true.

(c) Description of the existing system:

Candidates must thoroughly explain how to input, process, output, and store data within the current solution,
ensuring that they maintain the context of the problems identified in Section 1. Many centres failed to provide
examples of input and output documents, and their descriptions tended to be too brief.

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(d) Description of other possible solutions:
Most Centres needed to sufficiently describe the possible solutions. Many only listed, defined, and evaluated
(giving advantages and disadvantages) other possible solutions. Candidates under this section are required
to provide a description of possible solutions and how they can be used to address the problems stated in
Section 1. An in-depth description of a minimum of 2 solutions, including the proposed solution, is expected.

(e) Action Plan:

The action plan must always align with the objectives, and the Gantt chart should reflect accurately. Include
a detailed description of each stage and an accurate depiction of time spent on each stage in the Gantt
chart. Some candidates needed to provide more details on the action plan stages, resulting in lower scores
even with correct Gantt charts. Plagiarism was rampant in this section, and teachers must be more watchful.
Some centres provided only time schedules without details of activities. Details of activities are necessary.

(f) Separate modules (top-down design)

Simply copying the textbook structure diagram without modifications will result in no marks awarded.
Teachers should discourage students from doing this.

(g) Hardware and Software requirements

The hardware and software requirements sections often needed more detail. At least two reasons, such
as hardware or software, were selected in the context of the proposed solution are expected. Suppose the
reasons provided under these sections easily fit into another project. In that case, they are likely not in the
context of the proposed solution and, therefore, do not deserve full marks.
It is also essential for teachers to be extra vigilant with these sections, as plagiarism is rife. Teachers are
encouraged to ensure candidates provide specific hardware and software requirements rather than general
hardware or software requirements. This way, plagiarism will be easy to identify and discouraged.

(h) Design of method of solution

The Design Method of Solution section requires learners to clearly show how the learner designed each
module of the system. A link from the Separate Modules section should be used to simplify the candidates’
work. It is essential to provide comprehensive documentation of the entire system, including the main menu,
modules, tables, forms, relationships, and design view of queries and reports. Most candidates did not have
the algorithms and relationships between database tables.

(i) Programming code:

When candidates use programme code or macros, they must annotate them to score two or more marks.
The programme code or macros must also be relevant to the candidate’s solution.
If a candidate uses a spreadsheet to solve their problem, they should include complete details of the
formulae, links and any macros. It is important to note that using modules in a database package should
consist of linked tables or relationships. Similarly, when using spreadsheet modules, it can be achieved by
exporting data from one worksheet to importing it into another spreadsheet, which links the spreadsheets
together.
Centres should encourage candidates to use validation checks, lookup tables and what-if analysis to ensure
the accuracy and completeness of the solution.
To earn full marks, candidates must provide programming codes for a complete solution, including each
module’s tasks as described in section 7. Teachers need to ensure that candidates receive hands-on
experience in programming, as this will help them in Paper 2 of the AS Level. Candidates must practice
programming in various languages.

(j) Testing
Testing should include a complete test strategy with expected results. Actual results should be compared to
the expected results and labelled printouts that match the test strategy should be provided.
Many candidates still need to develop a test strategy to evaluate the success or failure of their project,
making it easier to evaluate if objectives were met under Section 16.

(k) User documentation

User documentation should be easy to understand. There are many guidelines available to help create
clear user documentation. It is essential to create a separate front page, index, introduction, FAQs, problem
description, and user documentation that guides the user step by step on how to use every feature and
button in the proposed solution.
Candidates at some centres provide instructions on creating a database instead of using the system as the
users require. Such work is not creditworthy.

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As we move forward:

Whether new or experienced, teachers should understand the assessment criteria and methods used for project work
before marking.

Seek help from experienced peers and challenge yourself to improve.

Collaborate with peers to overcome space and time challenges through face-to-face workshops and online methods.

To achieve a good score in the project, candidates must create functional systems. Teachers should guide their
candidates to accomplish this goal.

All Centres must submit the required project materials to DNEA. Incomplete submissions disadvantage candidates.

Conclusion:

The candidates have the potential to elevate their projects through enhanced objective-setting, hardware and software
requirements, programming code, testing, and evaluation.

Some centres have not yet achieved acceptable standards due to either candidates’ submissions, the internal moderators’
assessment criteria, or both. However, we can overcome these challenges and enhance the quality of our projects and
assessments. Let’s work together to uphold academic integrity and actively prevent all forms of plagiarism, particularly
those related to AI. With determination and collaboration, we can improve the quality of coursework and assessments,
paving the way for a brighter future.

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

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130
DESIGN AND TECHNOLOGY
6187
Paper 1

General Comments

2024 was a good year for this Examination on this syllabus. The syllabus was well developed by the DNEA in
collaboration with CIE and was accepted by both institutions. All this was done to upgrade the level of Education in
Namibia. Therefore, the two institutions with their teams should be applauded for the exceptional work done to improve
the living standards of the Namibian Child.

Thanks, should also go to other role players like the entire Ministry of Education, Regional Offices, Schools, Communities
and of course the Candidates who wrote this examination for the first time. It is also worth mentioning that a few new
centres entered for this subject.

Very good responses were received from the centres regarding the quality and standard of the question paper. It could
be well interpreted regarding the style, language and graphics.

From the responses of the candidates on the questions, there were no problems answering the questions, although in
a few cases a follow-up question was misinterpreted. However, good responses were given for certain questions and
candidates could score good marks. Another concern which is worrisome is that only a few candidates attempted the
Technology Question (Q13).

Evidence also show that quite a few candidates did not have the knowledge to answer certain questions successfully
and some did not attempt certain questions. This situation can only be mastered when more training is given to teachers
on how to teach the syllabus successfully and that teachers cover the entire syllabus thoroughly. It can illuminate this
situation. By the spread of marks for this question paper, it looks acceptable, but there are a lot of areas which needs to
improve. It should also be mentioned that this year a slight improvement in the upper grades were evident. However, a
decrease of standard in the lower grades were also evident.

Section A consisted of compulsory short questions across the syllabus. In some cases, candidates scored good marks,
but in most cases improvement is needed. This can only be done with more training to the teachers.

This year we had 320 candidates in comparison to the previous year’s 311, an increase of 9 candidates. But we believe
the number of entries will increase in 2025.

Part A

1 State two methods of preventing safety hazards when sweeping a dusty floor.
Almost all candidates scored maximum marks here.
Possible answers
Any two possible hazard prevention measures relating to:
• Cover hair against dust
• Goggles to prevent dust in the eyes
• Nose masks (prevent dust inhalation)/respirator
• Ventilation (any 2 × 1) [2]

2 (a) State one suitable material for the handle.

This question was answered fairly by most of the candidates.

Possible answers
suitable materials to include
• Ash wood
• Beech wood
• Acrylic polypropylene
• Nylon
• Urea formaldehyde
• Hi Density polythene/rubber
• Stainless steel

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• Aluminum
• Rose wood
• Wood
• Metal
• plastic (any 1 x 1) [1]

(b) State two reasons why the spiral is made of stainless steel.
Almost all candidates scored good marks in this question.
Possible answers
Reasons to include
• Non corrosive
• Shiny/attractive
• Tough
• Hard
• Resistant to chemicals
• High tensile strength (do not except strong /durable) (any 2 x 1) [2]

3. Describe how the principles below were considered when designing the trolleyshown in Fig. 3.
There are still candidates that are confused about the two terms, thus could not score full marks’
Possible answers
Description of factors should refer to
Functionality:
• State suitable materials used (1) stability and easy movement of
the trolley (1)/castor wheels (1)
• The handle (1) to have a comfortable grip (1) (any 2 x 1) [2]

Appearance:
• Size
• Shape
• Texture
• Aesthetics [2]

4 Complete the table by adding the appropriate joining methods from the list.
Solvent adhesive
Arc welding
Riveting
PVA glue
Staples

Most of the candidates scored full marks here and some could not score any marks.

Possible answers
Appropriate joining methods
• Acrylic- solvent adhesives
• Mild steel- arc welding
• Teak- PVA glue
• Hard board-staples (4x1) [4]

5 Most of the candidates scored good marks here.

Possible answers
Sketches and notes
• Procedure for joining referred to (1)
• Sketches and notes/labels relating to method shown (1)
• Sequenced and clear demonstration of understanding of method (1) [3]

6 Draw a flow chart to show four stages in the manufacture of the drawer.
• Flow chart to indicate and include:
• Flow chart drawn [1]
• Flow chart drawn with correct shape boxes and arrows between [1]
• Four production stages added [1]
• Four production stages added in correct order [1] (max 4)

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7 (a) Evaluate two aspects of the railings in terms of safety.
evaluation to refer to:
Quite a few candidates scored full marks here and some could not interptret the question correctly
and could not score good marks.

Possible answers
• Balliste/Vertical rails (1) needs to be spaced so that child cannot fall through the gap (1)
• Smoothen (1) all sharp points to prevent injuries (1)
• Height (1) of the rails must be of appropriate height for easy handling (1)
• Material must be finished (1) with chemical resistant finishes (1) (max 4)

(b) Use sketches and notes to show one possible modification to the staircase that would make it more
user friendly for disabled pupils in wheelchairs.
Some candidates did well, but a few demolished the staircase instead of modifying it.
Possible answers
Sketches and notes
Modification should be suitable for pupils with wheel chairs (1)
Clear sketches and notes relating to modifications (1)
Sequenced and clear demonstration showing understanding of modifications (1)
Presentation of modification (1) [4]

8 (a) Identify two aesthetic features of the chair that have been considered bythe designer.
Most of the candidates answered correctly.

Possible answers
aesthetic features to refer to and include:
• Texture/water proof
• Decorations
• Colour
• Shape (1x2) [2]

(b) Outline two features that could be added to improve the stability of the chair.
Most of the candidates scored full marks here.
Possible answers
• leg support
• arm rest [2]

9 (a) Explain the shape of the handle with reference to ergonomics.

Most of the candidates scored maximum marks here.
Possible answers
explanation to refer to:
• Hand to size
• Fingers and grip
• Smoothness of handle [2]

(b) Explain the term anthropometric data.

This question was answered correctly by almost all candidates.
Possible answers
Explanation to refer to:
• The scientific study of the measurements and proportions of the human body
• The study of the sizes of people in relation to products [2]

10 (a) Discuss the inefficiencies of the energy conversion that takes place in the electric kettle.
Most of the scored good marks here.
Possible answers
Inefficiencies to refer to:
• Small amount of energy used to heat a plate kettle
• The rest is lost as” unwanted heat”
• Heat must be transferred (conduct) from plate element to the pot water [2]

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(b) Explain the concept finite energy supply.
Finite energy supply to refer to:
• Non-renewable resource
• A resource that does not renew itself at a sufficient rate for sustainable economic extraction in meaning
human time-frame
• An example is carbon-based organically-derived fuel. [2]

[40]

PART B

11 Design Communication
Only a few candidates attempted Q11, from those attempted the marks
Achieved varies from fair to worse.

It is evident that training was not done at all. The candidates just did not show any signs of knowledge and skills
about drawing techniques and drawing principles.

(a) Draw to a scale of 1:1 in first angle orthographic projection

(i) sectional front view:

• Front view drawn correctly to scale 1:1 (2)
• 2x ribs shown (1) at 60º (1) (3)
• Centre line (1)
• Foot pieces shown correctly (2)
• 8x quarter circle (4)
• hole shown correctly (1)
• correct shading or rendering shown (1) [14]
(ii) Left view:
• Left view drawn (1)
• Rib shown (1)
• 4x curved section (2)
• Top section + hidden detail (2)
• Middle section + hidden detail (2)
• Bottom section + hidden detail (2) [10]
(iii) Top view:
• Drawn free hand (1)
• 4x base holes (½ per curve) (2)
• Large hole (1)
• Foot pieces (2)
• 2x rib (1)
• Centre piece (1) [8]

(b) insert the name “BRACKET” centrally underneath the sectional front view drawn in (a)(i).
“BRACKET” written (1)
“BRACKET” using some form of gothic lettering (1)
“BRACKET” using neat gothic lettering
- styling
- styling
- spacing (3) [5]
Possible answer
Front view

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Left view

Top view

(c) (i) Draw a scale 1:1 single point perspective view of the model shown inFig. 11 using the following
information:
1. Picture Plane (PP) is 90 from the Ground Line (GL)
2. Station Point (SP) is 30 from the (PP)
3. Vanishing Point (VP) is 70 from Ground Line (GL)
4. VP is 30 mm from the front view
5. <=30˚ (to the right of front view).
Show all construction lines and indicate major lines and points.
one point perspective:
• PP drawn correctly 90 from ground (2)
• SP drawn correctly 30 from picture plane (2)
• VP drawn correctly 70 from ground line (2)
• VP angle drawn correctly (2)
• Correct presentation of the drawing (2) [10]

Construction lines:

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• Most construction lines shown (1)
• All construction lines shown (2) [3]
Main lines and points:
• P-P indicated (1)
• G-G indicated (1)
• VP indicated (1)
• SP indicated (1) [4]
(ii) Render:
1. the bottom part of the model to resemble natural timber [3]
2. the top part of the model to resemble plastic. [3]
Rendering:
• Bottom part
• Some form of rendering (1)
• Rendering resembling natural timber (max 3) [3]
Top part:
• Some form of rendering (1)
• Rendering resembling plastic (max 3) [3]
[60]

11 (c)

Possible answer

12 Resistant materials

(a) Use sketches and notes to show a design for a fishing tackle box. The fishing tackle box should be
made from natural timber or manufacturedboard and have a handle for carrying.
Most of the candidates scored good marks here.
Possible answers
Sketches and notes to include:
Suitable design for box (1)
Finer details shown with suitable notes and labels (2)
Sequenced and clear demonstration for understanding of production (1)
Presentation (1) [5]

(b) (i) Use sketches and notes to show an appropriate method of producing a fish shaped badge from
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a sheet of hardboard.
Most of the candidates scored full marks here.
Possible answers
• Sketches and notes to include:
• Suitable method (1)
• Finer details shown with suitable notes and labels (1)
• Sequenced and clear demonstration for understanding of production (1)
• Presentation (1) [4]
(ii) Describe a method of attaching the hardboard badge to the wooden fishing tackle box.
Most of the candidates scored full marks here.
Possible answers
• Method of attachment:
• Suitable method referred to (1)
• Sequenced and clear description of attachment of method (2) [3]

(b) (i) Use sketches and notes to show a design for a locking mechanism to keep the fishing equipment
safe in the fishing tackle box.
Most of the candidates scored good marks here.
Possible answers
sketches and notes to include:
• Suitable design of locking mechanism (1)
• Sensible diagrams with suitable notes and labels (1)
• Sequenced and clear demonstrating for understanding of production (1)
• Presentation (1) [4]
(ii) Evaluate the design of your fishing tackle box in terms of keeping thefishing equipment safe.
Most of the candidates scored good marks here.
Possible answers
• Evaluation to refer to:
• Keeping gear inside
• Enable box to be carried without gear falling out
• Preventing children to open it (fish hooks, etc.) (max 3) [3]

(c) (i) Name a suitable surface finish for the fishing tackle box.
Almost all candidates answered this question correctly.
Possible answers
suitable surface finish:
• Varnish
• Oiling
• Painting/spray painting (any 1x1) [1]
(ii) Describe how the surface finish named in (d)(i) should be applied.
Not all candidates could give the correct procedure.
Possible answer
• Description should refer to:
• Surface finish referred to in (i):
• Preparation of surface.
• Correct application
• Finishing (max 3) [3]

(d) Explain the following proper plastic.

Most of the candidates scored good marks here.
Possible answers
Heat resistant:
• Able to resist heat
• Heat prove
• Resistant to but not entirely proof from the effects of fire or intense heat
• Not easily damaged by heat. [2]
Chemical resistant:

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• The ability to resist chemical changes/toxic influences
• Influence of chemicals for an extended period of time does not cause any or only small defects [2]

(e) (i) Explain why the lens of the safety goggles would be made from acrylic.
Most of the candidates scored good marks here.
Possible answers
explanation to refer to:
• Transparency
• Shatter proof
• Easy to shape/cut
• Light
• Durable
• tough [3]
(ii) Use sketches and notes to show how the lens could be measured andcut out from a sheet of acrylic.
Most of the candidates scored good marks here.
Possible answers
• Sketches and notes to include:
• Suitable measuring method (1)
• Suitable cutting method (1)
• Finer details with notes (2) [4]
(iii) Evaluate the safety goggles in terms of ergonomics.
Most of the candidates scored maximum marks at this question.
Possible answers
Evaluation to refer to:
• Curved to fit on face
• Space for nose
• Width to cater for face
• Spacing of the “lenses”
• Strap to secure the goggles to the head during use (max 3) [3]
• Smooth edges
• Light weight

(e) Use sketches and notes to show how the strap could be adjusted to fit different head sizes.
Most of the candidates scored fair marks.
Possible answers
Sketches and notes to include:
• Suitable design for adjustment (1)
• Finer details with notes and labels (1)
• Sequenced and clear demonstration for understanding of
adjustment method (1)
• Presentation (1) [4]

(f) Fig. 16 shows a jewellery box made from natural timber.

PVA glue and screws were used to join parts of the jewellery box.

Fig.16

(g) Give two reasons why screws, rather than nails were used to join theparts of the jewelry box.
Some candidates could not differentiate between screws and nails, but quite a few scored full marks.
Possible answers
Reasons to include:
• Will not split the wood
• More durable, will not come apart
• Stronger jointing methods (any 2x1) [2]
(ii) Use sketches and notes to show how countersunk screws could beused to ensure the heads

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are flush with the surface of the timber.
Most of the candidates did not understand what countersunk is.
Although a few candidates could score good marks.

Possible answers `
Sketches and notes to include:
(a) Correct: sketches (2)
Relevant: notes (1)
Clear: labels (1) [4]

(b) Correct: sketches (1)

Relevant: notes (1)
Clear: labels (1) [3]
(ii) Suggest a curing time for the PVA glue.
A lot of candidates could not answer correctly, because they did not know what “curing”means.
Possible answer
Curing time:
Between 18-24 hours [1]

(I) Describe how each of the components could be manufactured.

Manufacturing of components to refer to:
Only a few candidates could score some marks here. The rest did not show any knowledge of manufacturing
processes.
Possible answers
Bow:
• Turning on metal lathe /die casting / round bar / brass bending
• Filling and sanding to smoothen
• ……………………………….. (max 3) [3]

Shank:
• Turning on metal lathe /die casting / round bar / brass bending
• Filing and sanding to smoothen
• …………………………………. (max 3) [3]

Bit:
• Cutting with hacksaw/power saw /milling machine / grinder
• Filing
• ………………………………… (max 3) [3]
[60]

13 Technology

(a) (i) Identify the class of lever shown in Fig. 18.

Most candidates answered correctly.
Possible answers
Class lever
• 3 [1]
(ii) Calculate the amount of force that is exerted on the person’s hand.
Most of the candidates could not do this simple calculation and scored
poor to zero marks.

Possible answer
Calculation to show:
F = kg x g (1)
= 5 gk x 10m/s2 (1)
= 50N (1) (max 3) [3]

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(iii) Calculate the amount of force that will be required to lift the 5 kg weightshown in Fig. 18.
Most of the candidates shown poor knowledge of calculations.

Possible answer
Calculation to show:
LHM = RHM (1)
E x 50= 50 x 350 (1)
E = 50 x 350 / 50 (1)
E = 350N (1) (max 4) [4]

(b) None of the candidates could draw the circuit correctly.

(i) Circuit to show:

Possible answer
• Battery
• Buzzer
• Hoop
• Wire loop [4]

After testing the simple circuit, it was decided to use a 555 timer circuit asshown in Fig. 20.

(ii) Explain two advantages of using the 555 timer circuit.

None of the candidates could answer correctly.
Possible answer
Explanation to refer to:
• Compact / (1) easy to install (1)
• Variable frequency / (1) more sensitive (1) (max 4) [4]
• Label the 555 IC in Fig. 20 to show the missing pin numbers. [3]
(iii) Name the type of capacitor shown at B.
None of the candidates could answer correctly.
Possible answer
Capacitor:
• Electrolytic [1]
(iv) Some of the candidates scored some marks here, more acceptable responses were expected.
Possible answers
Block diagram to show:
• Resistor
• Capacitor
• Symbol for switch
• Sketch of switch
• Name of resistor/capacitor
• Symbol for resistor/capacitor
• Name of speaker (5x1) [5]
(v) Explain the purpose of component A in Fig. 20.
Very poor responses from candidates.
Possible answers
Purpose of A
• To allow adjustment (1)
• To vary frequency of speaker (1) [2]
(c) (i) Calculate the gear ratio of the gear mechanism shown in Fig. 22.
Poor calculations by candidates
Possible answer
calculation to show:
Ratio: = driven/drive (1)
= 12/18 (1)
= 2:3 (1) [3]

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(ii) The input speed of the gear mechanism shown in Fig. 22 is 200 rpm. Calculate the output speed.
Poor calculations demonstrated.
Possible answer
Calculation to show:
200 x 3/2 (1)
600/2 (1)
300rpm (1) [3]
(iii) Use sketches and notes to show how the gear mechanism shown in Fig. 22 could be modified to
ensure that the output motion is the sameas the input motion.
Candidates attempted this question could not give the correct diagram.

Possible answer

[3]

(d) (i) Name the type of drive mechanism shown in Fig 23.
Candidates answered correctly.
Possible answer
drive mechanism:
Chain and sprocket [1]
(ii) State one advantage of this type of drive mechanism.
Candidates answered correctly here.
Possible answer
Benefit to refer to:
• Relatively easy to install
• Can be easily redesigned and reconfigured compared to gear driven systems
• Performs better than gears under shock loading conditions
• Spread operating loads over many teeth whereas the operating loads acting on gear drives are
concentrated on one or two teeth.
• Do not require tension on the slack side (Belt drives do) therefore bearing loading is reduced.
• Require less space for a given loading and speed condition than pulleys and belts.
• Are (usually) less costly to build and maintain. [1]
(iii) Give two reason why it is important to lubricate this type of drivemechanism.
Candidates scored good marks here.
Possible answer
Reason to include:
• To limit wear (1)
• To reduce friction (1)
• To prevent rusting (1)
Any other suitable answer (Any 2 x 1) [2]

(e) (i) Name the force present in the rope of the pulley system,
Only one or two candidates could answer correctly.
Possible answer
Forces:
• Tension (1)
• Compression (1) [2]
(ii) The efficiency of the pulley system is 90%. Calculate the mechanical advantage of the system if
the velocityratio is 4:1.
Poor calculation skills demonstrated by candidates.

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Possible answer
Calculation to show:
Efficiency = MA/VR
90% = MA/4:1
90/100 = MA/4:1
0.9 x4 = MA =3.6 (max 4) [4]

(f) Structures can be subjected to static and dynamic forces. Use sketches and notes to show the
difference between static and dynamicforces.
static force and
dynamic force

Candidates scored good marks here.

Possible answer
(iv) Diagrams and notes to include:

For each diagram:

• label force
• object shown
• arrows direction shown correctly [5]

(g) The table below shows two methods of joining structures. Complete the table below by adding a
sketch to show each joining method and twouses of each joining method.
Table to show:
Joining
Diagram Uses
method
• Gussets are used to connect beams and girders to columns
to connect trust members.
• Can be fastened to a permanent member.
• Used in steel buildings to connect bracing members to other
Gusset plate
structural members in the lateral force resisting system.
• A metal plate used to strengthen a joist.
• A structural member used to stiffen or support a frame work.
[2]
Bolts and nuts:
• Are used to join pieces together either permanently or
temporarily.
• Steel structures, including buildings, are simply bolted
Bolt and nut
together.
• Nuts and bolts can also be used to fix together small
structures such as furniture, etc.
[2]

Some of the candidates scored good marks for this question.

Possible answer
Diagram
Gusset plate – correct sketch (1)
– presentation (1) [2]

Bolt and nut – correct sketch (1)

– presentation (1) [2]
(4x2) [8]
[60]

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6187
Paper 2

GENERAL COMMENTS

It is essential to identify specific challenges faced by the candidates and provide additional support or resources,
particularly for the centres that did not perform well. Preparation and regular practice are key to enhancing candidates’
performance. Structured learning schedules and targeted exercises can help address weaknesses and build confidence.
Varied efforts among centres in preparing candidates could be noted in the performance. Regions must Investigate the
underlying causes of under performance and where possible, consider offering additional support or resources
to struggling centres, NIED official for TVET and Design and Technology should be consulted regarding CPD
workshops.

Consistent under performance at certain centres highlights the need for targeted support. Identifying specific challenges,
such as gaps in teaching methods or resource availability, and providing tailored interventions, like teacher training or
resource allocation, could help these centres improve. Regular monitoring and feedback would also be beneficial. This
suggests that teachers may need more training in interpreting and presenting the syllabus. Once again, centres do
not seem to study and analyse examiner’s reports. As a result, the same mistakes are repeated by the same centres.
Therefore, emphasis must be put on the importance of studying the examiner’s reports and addressing specific problem
areas highlighted in these reports. Paper 2 is a repetition of Paper 3 on specific topics. Despite being the fourth year of
testing the syllabus, some centres did not perform as expected. Most centres chose Question 2 (Resistant Materials)
and Question 1 (Design Communication) whereas very few candidates opted for Question 3 (Technology). DNEA
encourages a more balanced approach to question selection and the provision of additional support for less popular
topics like the technology option.

Candidates lost marks for small errors like line work, shading, colouring, enhancing, evaluation, testing,
dimensioning, etc. Some candidates used pencils instead of black or blue pens while some candidates did
not number their questions. Others wrote in the official answer book instead of the provided A3 drawing sheets.
Reinforcement concerning the adherence to exam instructions, including using appropriate writing tools and the correct
answer sheets can never be overemphasised.

In conclusion, it’s crucial to address these concerns to improve overall performance. Providing additional support, and
training, and emphasising the importance of following instructions can contribute to better outcomes for both centres
and candidates.

1 (a) List four points about the appearance of such a template that is important.
Specification points
• safe in use
• light in weight
• display clear information
• should be cost effective
• prevent rain from entering [4]

(b) Use graphics to show two possible lettering styles of the template.
Graphics / letter types
• accept any two suitable graphics / font, size, colour, embolden
• presentation of each type [4]

(c) Three suitable ideas/solutions shown [3 x 1 = 3]

• Ideas presented in 3 D [3 x 1 = 3]
• Each idea/solution notated and labelled [3 x 1 = 3]
• 3 concepts shown [3 x 1 = 3]
• Each idea/solution rendered/enhanced [3 x 1 = 3]
[15]

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(d)
L General overall appraise/with little reference to specification 0-2
M Appropriate reporting on specific cation and possible conclusion to realise a product 3-5
Detailed and meaningful conclusion with specifications leading to proposals to justify
H 6-8
your selection to be developed.

(e) - Suitable drawing method applied [1]

- Suggested scale correctly applied [1]
- Construction and hidden detail shown [2]
- At least four dimensions inserted [4]
- Dimensions according to SANS code [1]
- Additional detailed communicative sketches shown [3]
- Shown in exploded view [3]
- Rendering/enhancement [1]
- Quality of linework and graphics [1]
- Overall neat presentation of work [1]

[18]

(f) - CAD designs are more accurate than hand-drawn designs [1]
- CAD designs is digital, thus can be edited and modified as ideas develop [1]
- Due to internet, designs can be outsourcing to anyone anywhere to work on the design. [1]
- CAD software can be used to stimulate the behaviour of the design in software [1]
- Using CAD enables the designer to automatically check if the design is within design specification [1]
- CAD software enables clients to view designs at an earlier stage in the design process [1]
- Computer generated designs can be altered without erasing or redrawing [1]
- CAD systems offer “Zoom” features whereby designs can magnify certain elements of a model at a
closer range [1]
- Computer models are typically three dimensional and can be rotated on any axes for the designer
to gain fuller sense of the object [1]
- CAD systems also lend themselves to modelling cutaway drawings, in which the internal shapes
parts are revealed [1]

[Any 4 x 1 = 4]

(g)
Limited description of the process with unclear sketches and notes to support the
L 0-2
description process
Fair description of process with some clear sketches and notes to make the description
M 3-4
clear with some materials suggested
Excellent description of process, with clear sketch work and show to process the
H 5-7
materials to realise a successful process to make a flawless product

[60]

2 (a) Acceptable points had to include references:

GENERAL COMMENTS

FINDINGS

The centres are applauded for submitting the following: Course work assessment summary form, Checklist, Head of
Examination Certificate, a printed spread sheet, a USB and the Design folders. The Centres are highly appreciated and
commented for their efforts in ensuring adherence to instructions and meeting the deadlines. They are encouraged to
sustain the standard.

The number of photographic evidence presented gave enough information to the moderator to make an informed
decision on the product, however some centres are submitting their photographic evidence in black and white as a way
to cover up the blemishes on the products. Centres are encouraged to send all the Design Folders to DNEA for external
moderation.

There is a slight improvement in the quality of coursework for NSSCO 2024 its evident that most of the centre have
received the centre report and have implemented the recommendation, but there is a small percentage of centres that
are still failing to adhere to the guidelines shared through the centre reports. Mistakes are picked up from some centres.
It is the wish of the DNEA that centres should improve on the listed concerns encountered this year during external
moderation.

• A need to make it clear to candidates what is expected for the analysis, the Design brief and Testing and Evaluation.

• Clear sequence for the sub-topics in the design folder needs attention from some centres which is clearly laid out in
the coursework assessment criteria form. It is recommended that Criteria for assessment of project form be given
to learners to know the order of contents and how much marks they expect to receive, what they need to do at each
stage and the extend they need to go in producing the design folder.

• Despite centres given direction on the previous year’s report, mistakes are still persisting on the table of contents
for some, centres.

• The Centres should ensure that all candidates submit their folders by the end of the second trimester to be evaluated
since coursework covers 50% of the total mark for the assessment.

• It is not acceptable to see centres with ten candidates but only six could submit their folders and the other four did
not and no proof of measures taken to address the situation on time is shared with DNEA e.g.: management should
be involved as well as schoolboard and parents of these candidates who did not submit their design folders and
course work for the year. Such action must be taken way before coursework is submitted for external moderation.

• Some centres have not been putting in the much-needed efforts from the beginning of the Senior Secondary
phase. The Design folder starts in Grade 10 and should be completed in the first term of Grade 11, yet some folders
submitted show that very little time was spent on them.

• Regional Office should give Continuous Professional Development (CPD) Programmes for teachers teaching
Design and Technology. If possible, networking with DNEA, NIED and other regions with Senior Education Officers
as well as relevant stakeholders should be initiated to have teachers capacitated and assisted on a regular basis.

• Some Centres marks were awarded slightly lenient which points to the need that centres have to improve on
assessing of coursework. Once again, Regional Offices, principals and HOD’s are pleaded to take responsibilities
in ensuring that folders and projects are monitored throughout Grades 10 and 11.

Towards the end of term 1 of the Grade 11 year, all folders should be internally moderated before the marks are
dispatched to DNEA for external moderation. Once again, Regional Offices are implored to make sure that NSSCO
schools are provided with the necessary materials and tools on time for candidates to build quality products. DNEA is
still concerned about centres’ projects that are compromised by the lack of adequate resources. Example, a candidate
indicated to make a tool box out of wood but due to lack of materials, a candidate made the tool box out of card boards.

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It is unacceptable to see candidates not submitting any folder or coursework and zero marks are given without
explanations why learners do not submit while on the other hand no evidence or proof is shared and efforts done by
teacher/HOD/ Principal Schoolboard / Regional Office (SEOs). Since the folder is supposed to be completed over a
two-year time span it should not be done in one week’s time which is the case at some Centres.

There is an improvement with regard to the submission of photographic evidence from the centres, as only marks are
awarded for the quality of products by the centres. There were a few cases where candidates made poor problem
selections and outcomes and showed little evidence of imaginative interpretation and creativity. The sample of work
presented for moderation was suitable in most cases and centres generally applied the assessment criteria appropriately,
although, in some cases, this was not at the correct level. It is expected that all folders must include clear (colour)
photographic evidence. Quality and quantity of photos matters the most as it gives moderators an informed decision
when awarding marks.

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC ASSESSMENT HEADINGS

Referring to the assessment criteria, the following is expected under this heading:

Defining

Situation

Analysis & Brief

Situation: It is a short paragraph stating the need or situation that arose or was noticed or is a short description of the
problem that needs solving. (Do not write “ I have to make a Design project……”) Analysis: This is where the candidate
must explore, by mentioning different possible solutions, available materials, possible processes, available tools and
the abilities of the candidate that could solve the problem mentioned in the situation). It is a summary of everything
that has to be considered when designing the project. It can typically be done in the form of a spider diagram or it can
be in paragraph for or bulleted points. The points given in the spider diagram should be just the headings of possible
considerations, those points must be answered in your analysis, not just given.

Analysis of the situation was exceptionally well done in most cases by the centres however in some cases it was too
long.

Brief:
A short paragraph stating what is going to be made to solve problem stated or is a short explanation of what you are
going to design to solve the problem mentioned in the situation and analysis. All the candidates did well during this
stage that is commendable and the marks awarded were fair by the teachers.

Research
Find at least 6 or more pictures of articles that already have been designed to solve the same or similar problem.
Evaluate what you like about the articles and what you dislike about them.

Evaluation:
Advantages: Examples: very comfortable - looks modern - durable

Disadvantages: Examples: Too difficult to make - Has no arm rests - will not fit with the wooden desk
Further research needed was done by all candidates Materials, processes and measurements should also be
researched…Candidates are not all familiar with all available materials, joining methods and fasteners & fittings
or possible finishing methods. Referring to the assessment criteria, the following is expected under this heading:
Candidates should research similar existing products as mentioned in the Design Brief. A photo of a similar product
should be shown and the product shown must be evaluated regarding the needs that were stated. Then the
availability of materials, fittings and finishes should also be researched. It is advised that pictures of the materials or
items researched also be shown. Then a conclusion on the research is to be written

They also have to check if the required materials are available locally. If the manufacturing of the product would require
specialised processes, or if special equipment is needed, then this should also be researched.

All candidates researched on the existing products giving a whole lot of information. The centres are again highly
commented for their efforts.

Specifications:
Candidates should write down the specific requirements of the project that are to best solve the problem. Write

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it to at least cover the following headings: Functionality, Aesthetics, Ergonomics, Appearance, Materials and
construction. More can be included: Durability, movability, target group of people to use it, cost and its weight
or the weight that it must support.

The candidate should first do research before listing the specifications. These specifications must be relatively specific
and justified. Generic specifications like “it must be safe”, “must look nice”, etc. must be avoided. This section should
give clear and specific requirements for the design outcome that can be evaluated when the product is completed.

Exploration of ideas/ Conceptualisation

Candidates came up with variety of ideas. The ideas are neatly sketched and well evaluated.

It is expected that at least 5 to 6 ideas. The ideas must include freehand sketches that are in colour and are shaded
neatly. Parts of the sketches must be drawn separately to show more detail. A lot of notes and the main measurements
must be added. Every idea must be evaluated by considering the specifications. Referring to the assessment criteria,
the following is expected under this heading: Sketches should be three dimensional and not two dimensional, and
should be rendered neatly with notes pointing out detail.

Additional sketches and notes showing construction detail should also be included. An evaluation of each idea must also
be written. The main dimensions should be added to the sketches. Development of proposed solution is well done by all
candidates giving an impression that candidates are well guided on how to go about this stage.

Some testing should be done at this stage.

Development of proposed solution

Presentation / Working drawing: (This will be similar to the concept / idea sketches shown, but with more detail.)
Candidates should make a large neat Isometric drawing or sketches of their chosen idea and colour them neatly
and add measurements and notes. Make sketches with a lot of notes to show each process that has to be done
e.g measuring and marking out, how wood must be cut to size, drilling of holes and / or joints that have to be made,
how it is to be assembled, how it is to be smoothed and sanded and how it is to be finished. Draw an isometric view
and include all the measurements in detail and also some notes. The sketch must be coloured neatly. Draw an
orthographic drawing showing front, top and side view with measurements and notes. (Colouring optional)

Exploded view of the whole or parts of the article including notes should make part of development.

Candidates should clearly illustrate / sketch and explain each of the processes, showing the steps that are to be
followed in the correct manufacturing sequence. Drawings and other information given should include full details and
dimensions of the final product and should be rendered neatly. Photographs of the candidate doing the process cannot
be used. The development is done before the product is made.

All assessment criteria were considered. The centres are again urged to sustain this level of standard. An Isometric
sketch or drawing with notes and dimensions and an Orthographic drawing including dimensions. The three-dimensional
drawings are to be rendered neatly showing what the final product should look like.

Planning of production
It include flowchart showing the order of processes that are to be followed and a cutting list of the materials that are to
be cut to size with the measurements.

Planning of the time that you will spend on a certain part of the project from start to finish, to determine an estimated
time of completion.

Product realization (Control; Technical)

Products shown in the evidence are of high standard there is a slight improvement on the photo submitted this year
(2024) compare to academic year 2023. Photographic evidence shown in the samples received, only had one photo
of the completed project. Clear photos of the candidate doing each process should be included, as well as clear
photos of the finished product are to be shown to make it possible for the marks allocated to be verified.

Testing and Evaluation

Testing: (Compare to your specifications)
1. Feel if the surfaces are smooth. – All surfaces were smooth.
2. Sit on the chair to see it is comfortable: - The chair is nice to sit on.
3. Place a mass of 160 kg on the chair to see if it is safe. – It could withstand the mass.
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Evaluation:
1. All surfaces are smooth.
2. The chair is nice to sit on
3. It can withstand the mass of 160 kg.
4. It fits in nicely with the furniture in my room.

Future improvements: All learners should give through their own personal improvements on the product. All candidates
could clearly show through their photographic evidence how they have carried out the testing of their products. It is
advised that candidates should include photographic evidence in colour to show how functional the product is. They are,
however, encouraged to link the outcome of the original specifications and make objective judgements on the success
of their products. The section should also include suggestions for further modifications or possible future improvements.
Therefore, the centres are urged to ensure that the specifications are fully evaluated and tested in this section, which
will guarantee good marks for the candidates.

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DEVELOPMENT STUDIES
6136
Paper 1

General comments

The overall performance of the learners showed a slight improvement compared to the previous year, but it is still not
satisfactory. Many learners continue to struggle with reading and interpreting diagrams or sources, as well as providing
accurate definitions, indicating a lack of content mastery. Most learners failed to use the correct terminology when
defining concepts.

It is important to pay more attention on the command words used in the questions, as these words such as “why,”
“describe,” and “explain” are essential for helping learners understand and answer the questions correctly.

1 (a) (i) Well answered. Most learners were able to provide alternative names for informal settlements.

Answer:
Shanty towns/slums/squatter camps/ghettos [1]
(ii) Fairly answered. Some learners did not refer to the source when answering the question.

Answer:
The buildings are very close together/no space between houses [1]
(iii) This was generally well answered.

Answer:
Services absent in informal settlement
- Water supply
- Electricity/power supply
- Sewage disposal
- Refuse removal
- Proper roads
- Telecommunication/Network
- Financial institutions [3]

(b) (i) Well answered. Most learners scored full marks by listing the materials used to build houses in
informal settlements.
Answer:
Material used to build houses in informal settlements
- tins/cans/scrap materials are cheap and can be picked up from dump site
- wood/poles /sticks/mud/ clay are locally available
- corrugated iron/hard board/card board can be easily dismantled for relocation.
- plastic can be picked up to erect temporally shelter [3]

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(ii) Fairly answered. Some learners addressed why people cannot live in formal settlements instead
of focusing on why they choose to live in informal settlements, which resulted in a loss of marks.

Answer:
Why so many people who move to urban areas live in informal settlement?
- Prefer to live with their families
- Do not have to pay rent/little rent
- Cheap to build houses/build house with cheap material
- No water and electricity bills
- Can work from their homes/start their own business. [3]

(iii) Poorly answered. Most learners were unable to mention why houses in informal settlements are
prone to catching fire easily, they merely listed the building materials.

Answer:
Why houses catch fire easily?
- Houses are too close to each other
- Houses are built with poor material
- People are using candles/gas/ making fire inside houses
- Using of illegal electricity connections. [3]

(c) (i) This was generally well answered.

Answer:
Land pollution [1]

(ii) Poorly answered. Most learners failed to describe the health problems caused by land pollution
but only listed various diseases without connecting them to land pollution.

Answer:
Health problems caused by land pollution
- Bad smell can cause breathing problems

- Malaria caused by mosquitoes that used old tins filled with water as breeding sites

- Diarrhoea/dysentery caused by water contaminated by wastes

- Cholera/hepatitis caused by dirty environment [3]

(d) Fairly answered. Some learners referred to the advantages of working in the informal sector instead
of characteristics for which they could not score a mark.

Answer:
Characteristics of work in the informal sector
- No government interventions
- Income is low and unreliable
- No tax is paid/registered
- Labour intensive/manual
- No fixed working hours/Job security/holiday or sick pay
- Unregulated/no health and safety
- Small scale/based on streets/home/no premises
- Self-employment/family labour/children may work

- Few skills required/no qualification (Any three) [3]

[20]
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2 (a) (i) Well answered. Most learners were able to clearly identify the activity presented in the sources.

Answer:
Activities on farms
2A – Sowing
2B – Irrigation/watering [2]
(ii) Well answered. Only few learners referred to modern technology, traditional, instead of simple
and advanced.

Answer:
Types of technology
2A – Simple technology
2B – Complex/Advanced technology [2]

(b) (i) Well answered. Most learners defined what subsistence farmers are.

Answer:
Subsistence farmers refer to farmers that produce only for the immediate family. [1]

(ii) Poorly answered. Most learners referred to difficulties in production such as no rainfall,poor soil
etc. instead of marketing challenges.

Answer:

Problems in marketing
- Lack of knowledge on marketing
- Poor quality products
- Poor transport/ no proper roads
- Shortage of storage facilities
- Lack of markets [3]

(iii) Fairly answered. However, some learners referred to the characteristics of co-operatives instead
of describing the advantages of the farmer’s co-operatives.

Answer:
Advantages of farmers’ co-operatives
- Share ideas and get advice on farming/agricultural extension offices
- Buy equipment/ seeds/ fertilisers together
- Save on transport costs
- Save on marketing costs
- Reduce rural inequality
- They organise storage facilities of equipment and harvested crops.
- Buying in Bulk
- Gain access to credit facilities for loans [4]

(iv) Poorly answered. Most learners could not score full marks, as they explained how the government
could develop rural areas instead of listing development schemes.

Answer:
Rural development schemes
- Loans/credit schemes
- Collective farming
- Resettlement schemes /Land reform
- Integrated rural development
- Grassroots development
- Small scale project/ Self-help scheme [4]

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(c) Poorly answered. Most learners failed to explain why it is important for governments to develop rural
areas in developing countries

Answer:
Importance of rural development
- Increase food production to feed the nation
- Increase the amount of cash crops and animal products to sell to local markets and export
- To reduce poverty and malnutrition and increase rural income
- To create a market for goods produced in towns
- To slow down the rate of migration to towns
- To stimulate economic growth by encouraging income earning activities [4]

[20]

3 (a) (i) Poorly answered. Most learners failed to do a comparison between the types of work done by the
women in Figs. 3A and 3B.

Answer:
Difference between modern and traditional women

Fig. 3A Fig. 3B
Working in office e.g. teaching Working on the field e.g. cultivation
Pays somebody to look after the children Take care of the children themselves
Pays somebody to do household chores Do household chores themselves
Paid job/fixed salary No paid job/no fixed salary
Fixed working hours No fixed working hours
Use simple technology/washing clothes with
Use complex technology/washing machine
their hands
[3]

(ii) Fairly answered. Some learners referred to modern women or women in general instead of
traditional women.

Answer:
Ways to improve the traditional women’s position
- Bring water closer to their homes/tap water
- Provide electricity/solar power
- Providing education/Literacy classes/training for skills
- Providing education on family planning and health care
- Providing equal job opportunities
- Providing small interest loans to set up small businesses.
- Provide day care centre/ crèches [4]

(b) Poorly answered. Only a few learners gave the correct answer. The majority of the learners failed to
do a simple calculation to arrive at the correct answer.

(i) Answer:

South – East Asia [1]
(ii) Fairly answered. The majority of the learners scored 1 mark, only for the difference, but could
not work out the percentages.

Answer:
857 − 525 = 332 ÷ 857 × 100 = 38.7 % or 39 % [2]

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(iii) Fairly answered. Some learners could only list the factors without providing an explanation, and
could not score full marks.

Answer:

Factors contributing to a healthy nation

- Clean drinking water - reduce water-borne diseases

- reduce infant mortality rate

- Balance diet - reduce diseases caused by malnutrition

- strengthen the immune system to resist diseases

- Absence of diseases - reduce absence from work

- increase production

- Improved sanitation - reduce spreading of diseases

- reduce flies spreading germs

- Absence of stress - people become productive when there is no constant worry

- Proper hygiene - cleanliness reduce diseases

- Absence of poverty - people have enough money to meet their basin need hence they
remain healthy.

(Any 3 factors explained) [6]

Answer:

How the spread of HIV/AIDS can be reduced

- promotion of safer sex practices such as faithful to one partner
- consistent use of condoms/availability of cheaper or free condoms to reduce unprotected sex
- awareness campaign on how the disease is spread and methods of prevention
- encourage male circumcision to reduce sexual transmission
- avoid sharing needles/razors/wear gloves to treat open wounds to prevent transmission by blood
- awareness to prevent child transmission programmes/MTCT
- free testing service so people can know if they are HIV positive
- abstinence as it can be sexually transmitted
- Promotion of gender equality
- provision of social services to OVCs/social grant
- Provision of ART/ARV/PREP/PEP [4]

[20]

4 (a) (i) Well answered. However, some learners failed to score a mark by defining the concept using the
wrong terms, such as send out or take out instead of selling.

Answer:
Export means the selling of good and services to other countries. [1]

(ii) well answered.

Answer:
18.0 % or 17.5 % (64°/360 = 0.177 × 100 = 17.7 %) [1]

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(iii) Well answered. Most learners managed to score a mark, only few learners referred to industrial
or industrialisation.

Answer:
Newly Industrialised countries [1]

(iv) Fairly answered. Some learners repeatedly used synonyms in answering the question, e.g.,
profit, income, foreign currency for which they only scored 1 mark and some gave reasons for
why countries produce goods and services.

Answer:
Reasons for trade
- Differences in natural resources
- Differences in the level of technology
- Differences in climatic conditions
- To create markets
- To meet the deficit production
- To earn foreign currency
- Promote strengthen good international relations [4]

(v) Fairly answered. Some learners referred to the reasons countries trade with each other (as
above) instead of focusing on the benefits of global trade to a country like Namibia.

Answer:
Benefits of global trade
- Easy access to goods and services
- Leads to better standard of living
- Leads to foreign investment/new technology/skills development
- Leads to the development of infrastructure
- Can get help easily from other countries in times of need.
- Made countries benefit from donor funds/loans
- Increase tax/revenue
- Create employment opportunities [4]

(b) (i) Fairly answered. Some learners failed to identify the trading pattern in Fig. 4.

158
Natural Gas
- It can be burned to provide electricity in power station
- It is used for heating as well as cooking
- Manufacturing Coal
- It is used in generating energy/electricity/power
- It is used in making steel and iron
- Used in manufacturing

Uranium
- It is used to generate electricity/ nuclear power

Propane
- It is used for powering industrial equipments
- It is used for heating and cooking
- Used in Manufacturing [6]

(c) (i) This was answered correctly.

Answer:
Changing/Transformation of raw materials into semi or finished goods
OR creation of goods and services. [1]
(ii) This was answered correctly.
Answer:
Factors of production [1]
(iii) Fairly answered. The majority of learners could score at least two marks, although some failed
to identify a capital good in Fig. 3.
Answer
Truck/Tractor
- To transport raw material to the production plant and transport finished goods from the industry.
- Transport finished goods to the market
- To transport workers to and from the industry.
- To plough/harvesting/weeding/sowing

Computers/Laptop
- To communicate with the supplies and customers
- Advertise/market/order goods and services online
- Source of storing/searching/ saving information

Factory/ Building
- For the proper layout of the machineries and proper ventilation
- For storage purpose
- Proper ventilation

Hammer
- For shaping/fitting/adjusting/jointing
- For breaking [3]
(iv) This was answered correctly.
Answer:
- Machines are expensive/expensive to buy/maintain
- Highly skilled workers are needed to operate them
- Not all spare parts are available locally
- Uses more electricity/power
- Cause unemployment as most of the work is done by machines. [3]
(v) This was answered correctly.
Answer:
- Site for factories/ business
- For farming/ conservancies/ mining/Agriculture/growing crops
- Sources of raw material/natural resources/minerals [2]

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(vi) This was answered correctly.
Answer:
Enterprise [1]
(vii) Poorly answered. The question was misunderstood. Most of the learners mentioned the different
sectors of the economy only while others explained without listing the sectors.
Answer:
- For example, a meat processing plant may receive its raw materials (animals e.g cattle from the
farm (primary sector)
- Animals are slaughtered and the meat has to be processed into different products, e.g. canned
meat, biltong, mince (Secondary sector)
- The meat products are transported by means of road, railway to the consumers (Service sector)
tertiary
- The service sector also supply electricity for the machinery/ computers and water for different
processes
- Skilled workers to do marketing on internet or newspaper and distribution are trained by
(Service sector) [5]

2 (a) (i) Fairly answered. The majority of the learners wrote either age or sex and left one out. Most of
them referred to the birth rate and death rate.
Answer:
Information on the age and sex/Gender/male and female structure of the population [1]
(ii) This was answered correctly.
Answer:
2.3 million + 2.3 million
Accept 4.5, 4.6, 4.7 million [1]
(iii) Poorly answered. Most learners failed to analyse the pyramids to arrive at the correct answer.
The majority of the learners described the structure instead of referring to the shape of the pyramid.
Answer:
How the shape of South Africa’s population pyramid is predicted to change between 2014 and
2050
- Base will be narrower/smaller
- It will be less pyramid shaped/more rounded/base will have straighter sides/Pyramid will become
bell shaped
- Wider in the middle, and stays quite wide until the very top
- It will change from the concave to a convex shape
- Base is narrow which is indicating low birth rate
- Middle is wider indicating more economical/working group
- Top becomes wider indicating high life expectancy [4]
(iv) This was answered correctly.
Answer:
Reasons for the decrease
- More women would be better educated/knows about the danger of
having a lot of children/ women are educated
- More women will have careers/more money/desire of more wealth
- Better medical and health services needed/slow down IMR/drop in IMR/ better hospitals + clinics/
improved health facilities
- Knowledge about contraceptives/family planning methods
- Emancipation of women/can decide for themselves
- Late marriages
- Laws to prevent child labour
- Government population policies/one child/ Legalising abortion. [4]
(v) Fairly answered. Though a number of learners scored one mark for listing the social services only.
Answer:
- More medical services to a bigger number of old people/free medicine.
- More social services needed/more old age homes/more pension money/More money spend on
funeral services
- Heavy workload on those of working age/ working class under pressure/High dependency on the
working class.

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- May lead to higher retirement age
- Lead to maltreatment of the elderly [3]
(vi) Poorly answered. Once again learners failed to analyse the pyramids to help them answer the
question appropriately. Most learners referred to the death rate, birth rate and life expectancy
as well as the shape including the base, middle, and top of the pyramid, instead of the structure
(age groups).
Answer:
- There will be more economically active/working people between the ages of 15 – 64/ More adults
- There will be more elderly/old (dependants)/64+
- Less young 0 – 14/5 – 14
- The numbers in age band up to 19 will become more even
- Fewer young dependants in 2050
- More economically active group
- More elderly/old people
- Less/few young people
- More dependant 65+ and above.
- Fewer young dependants

(b) (i) Fairly answered. Some learners referred to formal and informal education instead of traditional
and modern education.
Answer:
Fig. 6 – Traditional education
Fig. 7 – Modern education [2]
(ii) Poorly answered. Most learners failed to list the skills children learn when using the traditional
education system.
Answer:
- Singing/dancing
- Fighting
- Wood carving/Craft making
- Making clothes from furs and wool
- Story telling
- Iron making/work/tool making
- Pottery
- Basket weaving/ Weaving
- Cooking/Traditional brewing
- Hunting/Fishing/Milking
- Traditional healing
(iii) Fairly answered. Some learners could compare the education systems while others failed to do so.

Fig. 6 Fig. 7
- Learning takes place outside/out doors - Learning takes place in a school
building
- There are no desks and chairs used - Desks and chairs are used
- No decoration/ No posters displayed - Decoration are displayed
- Taught by parents - Taught by qualified teachers
- There is no use of modern technology - It uses modern technology
- No qualification - Qualification
- No chalkboard - Chalkboard available
- No Electricity available - Electricity available
- Learners do not have stationeries - Learners have stationeries
[4]
(iv) Fairly answered. Some learners were unable to come up with the benefits Namibia will gain if the
majority of the population attends the modern education system. They rather focused much on
health education and its benefits.
Answer:
- For proper economic development / Economic growth
- The country can deal on equal terms with other countries/ International trade.
- Talent and skills will not be wasted
- In order to build a modern society/
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- To improve the health of the nation/ disease prevention
- The people will understand modern technology/be skilled/ use technology
- To decrease poverty/ combat unemployment/improve/better/ increase living standards.
- Participate in politics
- equal job opportunities/ avoid discrimination/ know their rights.
- decision making
- Innovation and new ideas/ invention of new ideas [5]

(c) (i) This was answered correctly.

Answer:
Information communication and technology [1]

(ii) Fairly answered. Most learners could score one or two marks. They focused on the internet and
computers.
Answer:
- Broaden access to quality education
- Provide teachers with a wide range of teaching resources/information
- Create efficiency in educational administration (e.g., keeping records and writing reports)
- Create greater enthusiasm for learning
- Encourage online/distance learning/education
- More skilled people/ICT literate people
- People can communicate easily worldwide via internet
- Makes work easier as problems can be solved via communication
- Preparing learners for the real world

Positive suggestions to teachers

• Teachers should expose learners to graphs and other sources to help develop source analytical skills.

• Teachers should teach learners the comparison word and how to compare.

• Teachers should put more emphasis on the abbreviations/acronyms and definitions.

• Teachers should teach learners the command words.

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6136
Paper 3

General comments

The overall performance was moderate, however, the full-time learners slightly improved compared to the part-time
learners. Some centres ignored the examiners’ reports, as common mistakes similar to the previous years were
observed, e.g. giving one topic to the whole centre. The examiner’s report must be studied thoroughly by all the teachers
responsible for the subject. It is unacceptable to see centres repeating the same mistakes year in and year out. The
question paper covered the whole syllabus thoroughly with clear instructions and simple English. Individual questions
were well structured. Learners showed the capability of getting answers from the source provided. The allocation of
marks was fair. The application of knowledge is lacking in most learners. There are still more centres where learners
scored less or no marks in section B, and it is evident that some teachers did not guide the learners properly in carrying
out the research. Teachers must refrain from giving one topic to the whole centre.

SECTION A

1 (a) (i) Well answered. Although a few learners wrote Okavango instead of Kavango.
Answer
- Kavango
- Kunene
- Omaheke (Any 2) [2]
(ii) Well answered. Most learners were able to get the percentage from the source.
Answer
11 % [1]
(iii) Fairly answered. However, several learners failed to refer to the word schools in the definition but
gave the general definition of random sampling.
Answer
Randomly selected schools
These are schools that were chosen by chance and each school stood equal chance to be selected. [1]
(iv) Fairly answered. Most learners were able to give at least one advantage of random sampling.
Answer
Reasons for random sampling
- To reduce bias
- More representative
- It is easy, fast and simple to use
- Every school has equal chance to be selected [2]
(v) Fairly answered. Most learners mentioned the other sampling method but failed to describe how
it could be used to select a sample of schools referred to in Fig. 1.
Answer
Other ways of sampling methods
Systematic sampling
Choosing every 4th school from each region

Stratified sampling
Choosing a certain number of schools from the region based on their performance. (Any 1) [2]

(b) (i) Fairly answered. Most learners could name the two primary methods but failed to describe how
the researcher used them to collect data for school dropout. Others copied directly from the source.
Answer
Questionnaire
The researcher designed a questionnaire about school dropout in different regions, handed the
questionnaires to the respondent to answer/complete and collected those questionnaire for data
presentation and analysis
Interview
The researchers designed interview questions about school dropout and those questions will be asked

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to the respondents face to face.
During interview the researchers will take notes/ use a notepad/ tape recorder/ video camera to record
the respondents answers for further analysis and presentation
NB: Award 2 marks for the identification of the two primary methods used and or extra 2 marks for the
description/development [4]
(ii) Poorly answered. Most learners gave the advantages of the methods without indicating their
choices, hence lost marks. Fewer learners mixed up the advantages of different methods of data
collection.
Answer
Reasons for choosing the method
Questionnaire
- Collect large amount of information in a short period of time
- Easy to compare answers from different respondents
- They are usually reliable
- Usually cheap (making copies) and efficient
- Information is first hand

Interviews
- Information is first hand/ direct/ original from the people
- Good for those who cannot read and write/ illiteracy
- Interviewer can explain unclear questions
- You are able to probe
- Respondents can give detailed information
- Response rate is high
- Sometimes it is possible to detect whether the respondent is lying or telling the truth.
(Any 3) [3]

(c) (i) Well answered. Most learners were able to identify the main reason for school dropout from the source.
Answer
due to pregnancy [1]
(ii) Fairly answered. However, most learners copied the reasons for school dropout from the source
instead of providing solutions to high school dropout.
Answer
Solutions to high dropout
- Train/ provide more teachers
- Build new schools
- Free education/ compulsory education
- Provide transport to schools/ boarding schools
- Provide contraceptives/ family planning/ sex education
- Awareness campaign on effects of school dropout (Any 3) [3]
(d) (i) Poorly answered. Most learners could not correctly draw a pie chart and convert percentages to
degrees. It made it difficult for learners to plot the data on a pie chart. Learners could not write
the title and key, calculate the degrees and plot accurately. Additionally, the majority do not know
how to use a protractor.
Answer
Level 1: Use of an attempt with two or more weaknesses (1 mark)
Level 2 : Drawing with one weakness, e.g. segments not labelled or some inaccuracy in
plotting (2 – 3 marks)
Level 3: Pie chart titled, information plotted accurately and segments labelled accurately (4 marks)

(ii) Fairly answered. Most learners could explain the advantages of using a pie chart, however, a few
of them could not give full answers.
Answer
The suitability of the pie chart
- Easy to read/ understand/ analyse/ interpret
- Easy to compare information
- Shows clear information (Any 2) [2]
0 = easy to draw/ set up/ saves time/ provides lots of information
[25]

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2 (a) Poorly answered. Most learners failed to mention examples of small-scale practical activities, such
as tree planting, gardening, pottery, aquaculture, craft, chicken farming, brick making, etc. They could
not indicate the aim of the project. The majority gave large-scale projects like green schemes.
Answer
Description of a small – scale project (an example) [2]

(b) Fairly answered, most of the candidates managed to score at least one mark however, some
candidates confused organisation with project funding.
Answer
Organisation
- Community divide themselves in groups/ cooperation/ teams
- Work in shifts
- Division of labour
- Everyone contributes tools and equipment
- Request unemployed people/ volunteers
- Select team leaders
- Bring experts/ professionals for advice
- Chiefs/ leaders ask people to participate
- Set time for meeting/ organise meeting [2]

(c) Fairly answered. However, most learners failed to explain how the project could be funded. They could
not provide examples of funders/sponsors at the community level but referred to the government
giving loans.
Answer
Finance
- Community members each contributes a certain amount/ pooled funds
- Fundraising for money
- Community applies for loans/ grants/ subsidies
- Got donations from aid organisations/ charities
- Ask the government to supply/ sponsor equipment
- Ask sponsorship from local business community/ chiefs [2]

(d) Fairly answered. Most of the learners were able to give the problems which the community may face
but failed to suggest possible solutions to these problems.
Answer
Problems and Solutions
Problem – No cooperation between community members
Solution – Educating them about the possible consequences of the project

Problem – No enough money to finish the project

Solution – Apply for low interest loan/ grants/ sponsorship

Problem – Lack of skilled labour

Solution – Apply for experts to come and train community members/other aid organisation

Problem – Lack of equipment

Solution – Group members can donate equipment [4]

[10]

SECTION B

(a) (i) Well answered. Most learners were able to come up with a good topic. However, fewer learners
were still writing issues that were not researchable or too broad to research. Fewer learners
repeated school dropout assessed in Section A of the question paper.
Answer
Identify a topic and naming an area [2]
(ii) Fairly answered. Fewer learners could not use suitable words when formulating their aims. Most
learners scored one mark because they failed to link their second aim to their research question.
Learners who used the hypothesis in (iii) could not score marks because they could not formulate
aims from the hypothesis. It proved to be difficult for the learners..

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Answer
Brief statement of two aims based on hypothesis or research questions [2]
(iii) Well answered. Most learners could formulate appropriate research questions. However, those
who attempted the hypothesis could not score a mark.
Answer
Full statement of hypothesis or research question. [1]
(iv) Fairly answered. However, most learners failed to mention the data collection instrument but
referred to research questions instead of questionnaires or interview questions. Most learners
scored marks on the reasons for the pilot study and not on the application of the pilot study.
Answer
The researcher gave interview questions or questionnaire to a development studies teacher/ classmate
in order to
- pick up mistakes
- identify poorly constructed sentences/ questions
- make some adjustments
- identify offensive or difficult words
- test practicality or relevancy of the assessment tools
0 = for the meaning of a Pilot study [2]
(v) Poorly answered. Most learners failed to give proper findings with evidence and implications
based on the problem they investigated. The solutions suggested were without implementing
agencies or institutions. Most learners referred to the government and municipalities instead of
Regional and local authorities or village councillors as implementers.
Your answer will be marked using the following levels
Level 1 - Some findings drawn, but poorly related to aims/not well supported by recommendations
and solutions (1-2)
Level 2 - Findings based on recommendations/ solutions and related to aims though not fully
developed. (3-4)
Level 3 - Full valid report on findings supported by evidences,recommendations/ solutions and
implications (5-6)

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ECONOMICS
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Paper 1

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

This question paper seems fair. The standard of learners’ work was slightly better than that of 2023.

There is an improvement in the answering techniques and most of the learners could interpret the questions correctly.

There is also an improvement in the drawing of graphs, but learners could not use the correct terms when analysing
these graphs.

Most learners could not answer evaluation questions correctly as they provided one-side responses.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Q Answer Marks Guidance

1 Well answered. Most of the learners could score full marks. 2 Accept
-- Want to avoid misuse of
Answer resources for 1 mark.
Why do choices have to be made about how resources
are used?
• Scarcity / resources are limited (1) needs are unlimited. (1)
OR
• The use of resources involves an opportunity cost (1) wants
are unlimited. (1) Any two

172
18 Well answered. 2

Answer
Explain what is meant by the term life expectancy.
• A measure of number of years/time (1) that the average
person expects to live. (1)

19 Fairly well answered. Most learners could score one mark, but 2 -- (1) mark for reference to income
they could not refer to income/GDP per capita. level and second mark for
another relevant characteristic.
Answer No mark for
Define a developed country. -- high GDP – must be GDP per
• A country with a high GDP per capita/head/high income. head.
• A country with high living standards/high life expectancy/high
productivity.

20 Well answered. Most learners could score full marks. 2

Answer
State two factors that can be used to measure living
standards.
• Income per capita.
• Life expectancy.
• Level of education/literacy rate.
• The employment rate in the country.
• Availability of medical facilities/ratio of patient to doctor.
• Infant mortality.
• Housing and sanitation. Any two

21 Poorly answered. Most of the learners could not refer to 2

spending or expenditure.

Answer
Explain the differences between public expenditure and
private expenditure.
• Public expenditure refers to government spending. (1)
• Private expenditure refers to the spending by private
individuals or groups. (1)

22 Fairly well answered. Most of the learners could give the 2 -- Award (1) mark for private
definition for external costs and scored only one mark. and/or external cost if clear
understanding is shown of the
Answer terms/term.
Define social cost.
• Refer to the sum of private cost and external cost (2).
• Total cost to society/country. (1)

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SECTION B
Q Answer Marks Guidance
23 (a) Well answered. Many learners could list the correct functions 6 -- Application and analysis.
of the central bank, but failed to describe them.
-- Any three functions (P+D)
Answer OR
Describe the functions of a central bank. -- Any six
• Lender of last resort.
• Issuing of notes/coins.
• Involved in monetary policy e.g. determination of interest
rates.
• Management of the national debt.
• Holds reserves of foreign currency.
• Possible involvement in exchange rate determination.
• Government’s bank.
• Banker’s bank.

(b) Fairly well answered. Most of the learners referred to the 7 -- Evaluation and decision making.
effects of low interest rates.
-- Any three effects (P + D) + one.
Answer OR
Examine how the high interest rates might affect -- Any seven effects.
businesses in Namibia.
• Borrowing becomes expensive / cost of borrowing
increases. (1)
• Therefore, businesses will borrow less. (1)
• Higher interest rate may reduce firms’ profits. (1)
• More money is being saved (1) and that leads to less
expansion. (1)
• Because have less finance / capital to invest (1), production
will decrease (1) which leads to higher prices (1) and lower
demand (1).
• Demand for products will also be lower (1) because people
borrow less money. (1)
• Some businesses may close down (1) many people might
be retrenched from their work leading to unemployment. (1)
• New entrepreneurs are not able to borrow and their
activities might be restricted. (1)
• Multinational companies / FDI may be attracted (1) may face
less competition from Namibian firms. (1)
• Higher interest rates will encourage foreigners to deposit
their money in the country (1) for them to earn higher returns
on their capital. (1)

(c) Fairly well answered. Most of the learners could identify the 7 -- Evaluation and decision making.
policies, but failed to analyse how these policies could be
used to reduce inflation. -- Decision on the policies to use –
three.
Answer -- Discussion on policies to use –
According to the extract, inflation was high in 2022. four
Suggest policies that the Namibian government can use
to reduce inflation in the country.
Price controls /price fixing (1)
• Setting maximum price (1) below market / equilibrium price (1)
but may cause shortages (1) illegal markets. (1)
Income policy (1)
• Attempt by the government to slow the rate at which costs of
production (1) are rising by controlling the incomes such as
wages (1), interest rates, rent and profits.
• Fiscal policy (1)
• Government can increase income tax and VAT (1), people will
have less disposable income, (1) which will reduce demand
of goods/services (1).
• Decrease government spending. (1)
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Monetary policy (1)
• Government can increase interest rate (1) which will
reduce borrowing (1) decreasing the demand of goods and
services. (1) Reduce money supply (1) and availability of
credit in the economy. (1)
• Supply-side policy. (1)
• Government could cut taxes (1) could remove regulation /
privatise industries (1) provide subsidies (1) to encourage an
increase in output / total supply (1) spend on education and
training (1) to increase productivity. (1)
24 (a) Poorly answered. Most of the learners referred to balance of 2 -- Application and analysis.
trade.
-- Allow (1) mark for reference to
Answer exports – imports or exports and
Define the term balance of payments. imports.
• The balance of payments is an account/record of all the
money coming into a country as a result of exports and
foreign investment (1) and all the money leaving a country
as a result of imports and investment by local investors in
other countries. (1)
• A country’s economic transactions (1) with another country.(1)
(b) Fairly well answered. The majority of learners could identify 4 -- Application and analysis.
the benefits of increase in the gross domestic product, but
failed to develop them correctly. -- Any two effects (P+D).

Answer
Explain two benefits of an increase in the gross domestic
product.
• Higher living standards as people can consume more goods
and services.
• Higher employment as more workers will be needed to
produce the higher output.
• More tax revenue as higher incomes will generate more direct
tax revenue/ higher spending will generate more indirect tax.
• Higher export can reduce poverty as incomes will rise.
• Less government spending on merit goods, will enable the
government to spend more on other goods/ less opportunity
cost.
• Attract MNCs/FDI which can increase employment and
further increase GDP.
• Less government spending on unemployment benefits.
(c) Well answered. A few learners could not link it to quantity 7 -- Evaluation and decision making.
supply, but rather quantity demand.
-- Up to four marks for the
Answer application.
Using a demand and supply diagram, analyse the effect of -- Up to three marks for analysis.
an increase in the costs of production for uranium on the
price and quantity of uranium.

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Ap (4 marks)
- Original E (1)
- Shift S to S1 (1)
- All labels correct (D S P Q) (1)
- P to P1 and Q to Q1 (1)
An (2 marks)
• Higher costs will discourage output/causing a decrease in
supply. (1)
• Price will rise (1) while quantity supplied will fall. (1)

(d) Poorly answered. The majority of learners gave a one-sided 7 -- Evaluation and decision making.
answer. Most of the learners could only score one mark.
-- Both sided seven marks.
Answer -- One-sided four marks.
Discuss whether a rise in the demand for uranium would
cause Namibia to experience a current account surplus. No marks
Why it might -- For more foreign investment (as
• Buyers may choose to buy uranium from Namibia / demand part of the financial and capital
for Namibian uranium may increase (1) if Namibian uranium account section) unless linked
is price competitive, e.g., due to low exchange rate (1) quality to foreign MNCs producing more
competitive. (1) This may increase the price Namibians gain exports of uranium.
from selling their uranium. (1)
• Namibia’s exports may rise (1) Higher export revenue /
more foreign currency may improve the trade in goods
position (1) an improved trade position may turn a deficit into
a surplus. (1) (4/3)
Why it might not
• The demand for uranium may be the result of a fall in the
price of uranium (1) more may be purchased but export
revenue may fall. (1)
• The demand for uranium may rise but it may not be possible
to supply more. (1) as e.g., mines may be working at full
capacity there may be a lack of skilled workers. (1)
• Other countries may have become more price (1) or quality
competitive (1) so the rise in demand may affect other
counties become more price (1) or quality competitive (1)
so the rise in demand may affect other countries’ current
account positions. (1)
• Namibia may have a large current account deficit (1)) so
even with higher export revenue, a surplus may not be
generated. (1)
• A trade in goods surplus may be offset by an increasing
deficit/ lower surplus on another part of the current account
(1) e.g., trade in services position may deteriorate (1) or by a
rise in imports.
• Higher demand for uranium may increase demand for labour
(1) this could push up wages (1) increasing costs (1) making
Namibian uranium less competitive in the long run.
• Higher demand for uranium may push up the exchange rate
(1) and so may, in the long run, reduce a surplus. (3/4)

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

The teachers are advised to cover the whole syllabus effectively and on time, and do revision as many learners lack
subject content knowledge.

Teachers must train and guide learners to answer evaluation questions and should use examiner’s reports.

Teachers are encouraged to consult various sources of information to enrich their subject knowledge. Teach the syllabus
and not just from the textbook.

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6145
Paper 2

GENERAL COMMENTS

Finish the syllabus on time.

Use all assessment objectives when setting tests and examinations.

Assess learners fully/give quality assessment weekly and provide feedback to the learners on time.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

SECTION A
Q Answer Marks Guidance
1 (a) Poorly answered. The majority of learners scored zero for 4 --Must not repeat bad weather/
this question. Learners copied answers from the case study. natural disaster and swarm of
The majority gave static answers where they did not indicate locusts.
change (increase/decrease).
Accept
Answer --An increase in demand for
Except for the factors mentioned in the extract, outline (1) mark as an alternative
four factors which may cause an increase in the price of to increase in the price of
maize meal. substitutes, increase in
• Fall in the production of maize. population and/or increase in
• Increase in the price of fertilisers/cost of production. income, increase in taxes.
• Increase in water.
• Increase in price of substitutes.
• Increase in population.
• Increase in income.
• Currency depreciation.
• (Successful) advertising. Any four

(b) Fairly well answered. The majority of learners lacks 4 --Any four clearly linked to maize
knowledge of elasticity of demand. Most learners could not meal.
evaluate so they provided one-sided answers.
--No definition.
Answer
Explain whether the demand for maize meal might be
price elastic or price inelastic.
Price inelastic (1)
• Because it is a necessity/basic need/staple for many in the
region. (1)
• % household income spent on the product is low. (1)
• Cultural significance/cultural traditions or importance. (1)
Price elastic
• Because of availability of substitute such as rice, wheat or
macaroni. (1)
• It is regarded as a luxury product by some people. (1)

(c) Poorly answered. The majority of learners still do not know 7 --Remember the labels mark
how to draw a demand and supply diagram correctly. Most includes O (for origin).
learners scored two marks for the application on the graph.
Learners could not label the graph correctly. Most of the --On the diagram, the ‘Price below
learners had knowledge on the shifting of demand and supply equilibrium mark’ can be given if
curve, instead of the fixing of the price below the market a lower price is indicated. Ignore
equilibrium. any shifts in the demand and
supply curves.

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Answer --
Explain, with the help of a demand and supply diagram,
what might happen if government fixed the price of
maize meal below market equilibrium.

Ap (4 marks)
• Original equilibrium (1)
• Price below equilibrium is P1 (1)
• Indicating shortage (1)
• All labels must be indicated (O, P, Q, S, D) (1)
An (3 marks)
• At a price of OP1 the demand will be more than quantity
supplied. (1)
• Shortage, more will be demanded than supplied. (1)
• Disequilibrium between price and quantity. (1)

(d) Well answered. The majority of learners scored three marks 5

and above for this question.

Answer
Justify why the government might be willing to subsidise
maize farming.
• To make it affordable for everyone because it is a necessity.
• Increase supply/production/productivity.
• Protect a strategic industry.
• Because in the end the government will receive income tax
from farmers/businesses.
• The country will be self-reliant and depend less on foreign
imports.
• Could lead to more exports.
• It creates employment.
• To have a competitive advantage. Any five

SECTION B
2 (a) Poorly answered. The majority of learners could not define 2 --Accept any correct definition. (1)
the term investment. Instead they referred to the investment --Accept any correct example. (1)
at banks and in foreign countries. The majority scored zero.

Answer
What is meant by investment?
• Increase in stock of capital goods. (2)
• Example: building, equipment, machinery. (1)

(b) Well answered. Learners knew the difference between public 4

and private sector. The majority of learners scored three
marks.

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Answer
Outline the differences between public and private sector.
Private sector
• Includes businesses that are owned/ controlled/ funded by
the private individuals/is the sector involving individuals/
funded by customers (1)
• and basic objective is to make/earn profit. (1)
Public sector
• It is made up of businesses that are owned / funded /
controlled by the government/is the sector involving the
government. (1)
• Made up of essential goods/services (1) and to serve the
citizens of the country/funded by taxation. (1)

(c) Fairly well answered. Most learners failed to discuss the 7 Accept
characteristics of developing countries. Instead, they were --Any correct characteristics of
listing and scored a maximum of 3 marks for listing. the developing countries well
explained.
Answer
Discuss the characteristics of a developing country such
as Namibia.
• Low GDP per capita.
• High levels of poverty.
• Rapid population growth.
• High birth rate.
• High death rate/low life expectancy.
• Low living standards.
• High rate of unemployment.
• Dependence on agricultural/primary sector / low
industrialisation / low capital outlay.
• Lack of infrastructure.
• Poor housing/sanitation.
• High dependence on export of raw-materials.
• High levels of debt.
• Low GDP/economic growth. Any seven

(d) Fairly well answered. Some learners based their answer on 7 One sided answers maximum four
people and businesses instead of the government. They were marks
able to mention what the government could use the loan for.
Both sides were considered.

Answer
Consider whether you agree with the government’s
decision to acquire such a loan.
Yes, I agree
• Creates employment.
• Increases living standards/reduces poverty.
• Better infrastructure.
• Increases economic activities.
• Subsidies to firms to produce more.
• Increases technical progress.
• Adds pay off debts.
• Capital goods might increase output.
• May reduce imports/increase exports. (4/3)
No, I disagree
• Become dependent.
• Problem only solved for the moment.
• Encourage corruption.
• Loss of control over resources.
• Political interference.
• Loans need to be paid back/debts increase.
• Sometimes this loan comes with certain conditions/strings
attached.

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• High local unemployment due to technical problems.
• Scare investors.
• High interest rates to be charged. (3/4)

3 (a) Well answered. However, some learners missed the key 2 --Two marks for the definition.
words such as persistence and appreciable increase in their
definition, thus scoring one mark.

Answer
Define the term inflation.
• Inflation is the persistent, (appreciable) increase (1) in the
general price level of goods and services. (1) fall in the
purchasing power of money/value of money falls. (1)

(b) Well answered. Learners demonstrated good knowledge of 4 --Two marks for types of inflation
causes of inflation. and two marks for explanation.

Answer
Explain the causes of inflation.
Cost-push inflation (1)
• Inflation that is caused by an increase in the cost of
production. (1)
Demand-pull inflation (1)
• Inflation caused by overspending/excess demand/rise in
total (aggregate) demand. (1)
• Money supply/Monetary inflation (1)
• The price level may rise as a result of a large increase in the
money supply/ central bank increasing the money supply. (1)

(c) Well answered. The majority scored six marks. 7 --Up to seven marks for explanation
of how inflation is measured.
Answer
Explain how inflation is measured.
• It is measured by using a system known as Retail Price
Index (1)or consumer price index. (1)
• Select a basket of goods and services (1) - that is a list of
goods and services on which an average family spends
their income. (1)
• Attached weight to goods and services in the basket (1) -
each item is given a weight which represents its share in the
total spending of the average household. (1)
• A base year is selected. (1)
• The base year is given a weight of 100. (1)
• A system of monitoring prices is introduced. (1)
• Weights are multiplied by price changes/prices in the following
year are expressed as a change on the base year.(1)

(d) Fairly well answered. Most learners listed the answers, thus 7 --Up to seven marks for evaluative
scoring a maximum of four marks. comments of why Namibian
government might have been
Answer concerned about the high rate of
Why might the Namibian government have been concerned inflation.
about the high increase in the rate of inflation?
• Inflation affects creditors negatively
• It affects the distribution of income and is likely to affect those
on low incomes more than the rich may increase poverty.
• It reduces purchasing power, resulting in lower demand for
some goods and services/expensive.
• It may increase imports and decrease exports and that leads
to a balance of payment problem.
• Cost-push and demand-pull inflation tends to accelerate.
• It has a negative effect on those who live on a fixed income,
like pensioners.

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• Government spending will increase because it will have to
pay more transfer payments and provide more public and
merit goods.
• It reduces the standard of living because people can buy
fewer goods and services.
• If hyperinflation, it may result in money ceasing to carry out
its functions.
• Low savings.
• Affect GDP of the country. Any seven

4 (a) Well answered. The majority scored full marks 2

Answer
Apart from the economic system mentioned in the
extract, name two other economic systems followed by
countries worldwide.
• Command economy/planned economy.
• Free market economy/market economy.

(b) Fairly well answered. Learners scored two marks for defining 4 --Any two correct differences
merit goods and stating that public goods are not paid for
directly. However, some learners do not know the difference --No marks for examples.
between free goods and public goods.

Answer
Outline the differences between public good and merit
goods.
• Public goods are supplied/funded by the government (1)
while merit goods are provided by both the government and
private sector. (1)
• People do not pay (directly) for public goods (1) while merit
goods maybe paid for / it is cheaper when provided by the
government and expensive by the private sector. (1)
• The consumption of public goods cannot be restricted to
those who pay for them, (1) while consumption of merit
goods can be restricted to those who pay for them / may be
paid for. (1)

(c) Poorly answered. Most learners gave characteristics of --Three x 2 +1

command and market economy. --Point and development.

Answer
Discuss why most countries have decided to adopt a
mixed economic system.
It promotes a quick economic development
• In this type of economic system, both the public and private
sectors can operate equally, which means that economic
development will be quicker/economic resources will be
utilised efficiently.
• Increasing employment.
It creates a balance in regional development
• The planning commission of a country will be able to create
policies for the improvement of every region/increasing
employment.
It encourages lesser income inequality
• There will be less inequality when it comes to income/
government will do it through its welfare programmes.
It provides the freedom to own private property
• People are free to obtain property in a mixed economy,
which means that they will be encouraged to work harder so
that they will be able to own property.
It helps to overcome market failure
• Will provide public and merit goods and will take external
costs and benefits into account.

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Freedom of choice
• Consumers will have a variety of goods/services to chose
from.
• Consumers will be able to influence what goods/services
are produced through their purchases.
Greater competition
• Competition will increase amongst rival firms, increasing
quality of products and lowering prices.
Foreign investment might increase

(d) Poorly answered. Most learners scored three marks, because 7 --Learners should look at both
of the mirror effect in most of the answers. sides.
--One sided answers maximum
Answer four marks.
Examine whether education should be offered by the
private sector or public sector.
Why it should be offered by the public sector
• Education is a merit good (1) and should be offered by the
government. (1)
• It is very essential/important in the society. (1)
• Government will make it affordable/ (1) which will increase
literacy rate in the country. (1)
• Government will ensure education is accessible to all,
including in rural areas. (1)
• High employment. (1) (3/4)
Why it should be offered by the private sector
• Since private sector has profit motive (1), competition will
increase efficiency (1) and offers quality education. (1)
• Results in well educated workforce. (1) (4/3)

5 (a) Fairly well answered. Most learners scored a mark for 2

defining unemployment. Learners failed to include key
words, such as seeking and unable to find work, but were
rather general.

Answer
Define the term unemployment.
• Unemployment refers to the number of people who are
willing and able to find a job/looking for jobs (1) but cannot
find work. (1)

(b) Fairly well answered. Most learners referred to a 4

type of unemployment instead of the reasons for high
unemployment.

Answer
Outline possible reasons why the unemployment rate is
so high in Namibia.
• Fewer job opportunities.
• Lack of industries.
• Technological improvements/firms becoming more capital-
intensive.
• Lack of education and skills.
• Most graduates being job seekers instead of job creators.
• Low rainfall.
• High prices energy products such as fuel and gas.
• Supply disruption around the world.
• Voluntarily leaving one job to find another.
• Recessions.
• Covid-19 pandemic.
• Corruption Any four

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(c) Well answered by the majority of learners. However, some 7 Up to seven marks for the
learners focused more on social problems that come with discussion
unemployment and could not refer to the economy and
government.

Answer
Why do you think government will be concerned about
the high unemployment rate in the country?
• Causes a waste of resources.
• Unemployed people become unemployable.
• There is a loss of skills of unemployed people.
• Leads to a fall in people’s living standard as their income
decreases, with some people falling into poverty.
• Have damaging effects on morale for those out of work
leading to crime, suicide.
• Unemployment is expensive for the economy as a whole.
• More unemployment benefits have to be paid out to the
unemployed, increased government spending, which will
involve an opportunity cost.
• Reduction in tax income for the government.
• Dependency ratio increases.
• Less GDP/output/economic growth.
• Emigration of unemployed people seeking employment.
• Political unrest may occur.
• Regions become depressed. Any seven

(d) Poorly answered. Most learners lacked knowledge about 7 --Both sides should be considered.
economic growth. Some learners confused economic growth --One sided answers maximum of
with population growth. four marks should be awarded.

Answer
Examine whether economic growth is always desirable to
the economy.
Why desirable to the economy
• Economic growth raises the living standards for people in the
country.
• Economic growth creates more job opportunities.
• People will have access to more goods and services/
produces more goods/services.
• Government will able to raise more revenue without
increasing the rates of taxation.
• Government will be able to spend more on merit goods and
public goods.
• It gives the country a good reputation. (4/3)
Why it is not desirable to the economy
• Economy growth can impose some heavy external
costs on the community, such as air and noise pollution,
overcrowding and congestion.
• Reduced output of consumer goods while more capital
goods are being produced/increase opportunity cost of
consumer goods.
• More non-replaceable resources are used up such as oil,
coal and other valuable minerals.
• Economic growth can result in excess demand, increasing
inflation. (3/4)

6 (a) Poorly answered. Lack of knowledge on current accounts. 2

Answer
How are earnings received by a country from foreign
tourism recorded in the current account of its balance of
payments?

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• Invisible trade. (1)
• Export (of services). (1)
• Credit item. (1)

(b) Fairly well answered. The majority mentioned currency 4 --Two well explained factors.
appreciation and depreciation. Natural resources rather than
natural beauty. Lack of knowledge on tourist attractions in --Maximum of 2 marks for a static
Namibia. approach e.g. low exchange rate
rather than a lower exchange
Answer rate.
Explain two possible factors that could cause an
increase in foreign tourists to a country.
• An increase in incomes abroad (1) will increase foreigners’
ability to afford holidays in the country. (1)
• A reduction in the country’s exchange rate (1) making
holidays in the country cheaper. (1)
• A rise in the price of holidays in another countries/lower
price in domestic market (1) some people will switch to
a substitute holiday/cost may be lower in the domestic
market.(1)
• An improvement in tourist attractions in the country (1)
natural beauty e.g. landscape, wildlife, hot springs. (1)
• Special events occurring in the country (1) e.g. the World
Cup. (1)
• Lower inflation rate than other countries (1) may make
holidays more price competitive. (1)
• Advertising (1) may persuade foreigners to visit the country.
(1)
• Unique infrastructure (1) better hotels, good roads, old
buildings. (1)
• Political stability. (1) Any two

Answer
Explain why workers with the same skills may be paid
different wage rates.
• Some workers may have stronger bargaining power. (1)
because they are in trade unions/in stronger trade unions.
(1)
• Some workers may be more willing to accept lower paid
jobs, (1) because they e.g., regard job security to be more
important. (1)
• The demand for workers may be different in/areas/industries
(1) the demand for labour may be different in the different
industries/countries/different areas/companies. (1)
• Workers may be in the public or the private sector. (1) In
some countries, the private sector is better paid. (1)
• Workers may have more experience. (1)
• May have more responsibility/seniority/promotion. (1)
• Some workers may not be aware similarly skilled workers
are being paid more (1) and so may remain in a lower paid
job. (1)
• Overtime may be paid at a higher rate. (1)
• Bonus payment. (1)
• Risk jobs or unpleasant jobs. (1)
• Geographical immobility. (1)
• Discrimination. (1)
• Differences in effort/piece rates. (1)
• May work outside contracted working hours (1) paid higher
overtime rates. (1)

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• Qualifications (1) e.g. a lecturer with e.g. a PhD may be paid
more than a lecturer with a first degree. (1)
• Fringe benefits (1) a worker may be paid less if provided
with fringe benefits. (1)
• Commission. (1)
• Regional differences/short supply. (1) Any seven

(d) Fairly well answered. Learners wrote advantages of 7 --No listing

developing countries instead of problems faced by developed
countries.

Answer
Evaluate problems which a developing country might
experience as it becomes more developed.
• Increase in urbanisation.
• Increase in traffic congestion.
• Over-crowdedness (shortage of shelter).
• Increase pressure on infrastructure, such as road network,
telecommunication, sanitation services and harbour facilities/
depletion of resources.
• Increase in demand for merit and public goods and services/
increase in government expenditure.
• Increase in pressure on demand for natural resources.
• Increase demand for industrial land.
• Corruption/high crimes.
• Inequality/less equal distribution of income.
• High unemployment.
• Increased external cost (e.g., pollution). Any seven

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Teachers are still encouraged to consult various credible sources of information to enrich their subject knowledge, such
as old prescribed textbooks, You Tube and Tutor2U channels.

Teachers are encouraged to complete the syllabus by the end of the first trimester of Grade 11. This will enable them
to practise more on past question papers, by giving many exercises, tests and class work.

Teachers must test different levels of assessment objectives.

Teachers are still strongly advised to study the content from various sources such as textbooks, online materials shared
on various social platforms before handing them out to learners in terms of reliability and relevance to the syllabus
content.

Teachers are strongly advised to teach the syllabus and NOT only from textbooks.

Learners must be coached on how to interpret questions, by focusing on the command words and key words in the
question.

Teachers should broaden their knowledge of the economic syllabus to encourage learners to be open-minded.

Teachers should give practical examples, in real life situations during lesson presentation. They could use newspapers
and economic magazines articles in class.

Teachers should encourage group discussions to enable learners to gain in-depth knowledge of economic issues locally
and abroad.

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186
ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE
6109
Paper 1

KEY MESSAGE
The overall standard of responses this year appeared noticeably lower than in previous years. The majority of the
candidates struggled at identifying and retrieving relevant information. However, the majority of candidates effectively
utilised the allocated time and successfully completed the question paper.

The six exercises in the question paper encompass a variety of tasks, requiring the candidates to showcase a range
of skills. These include scanning for details to be presented in note form or short answers, as well as addressing more
complex tasks such as extended writing in various styles and for diverse purposes. Each exercise featured varying
levels of difficulty and differentiation was achieved both within individual questions and across the paper as a whole.
Some candidates still struggled to provide appropriate responses, which could partly be attributed to issues such as
copying incorrect information, incomplete ideas, wrong answers written first and failure to read the questions carefully.

Handwriting and the presentation of answers continued to pose challenges for many candidates. Punctuation issues
are worsening and require urgent attention. Candidates should be encouraged to write using black or dark blue ink
and strongly be discouraged from using a pencil when writing their responses. Additionally, the practice of writing
in pencil and then overwriting in ink should be avoided at all cost, as it often results in unclear and difficult-to-read
piece of writing, often difficult to judge.

PLEASE TAKE NOTE: It should be noted that no mark will be awarded for any answer written
in pencil.

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

In Task 1, candidates are advised to read the questions carefully in order to be able to identify the key requirement of
each question and avoid being tempted by the distractors in the text. Candidates should also be precise in writing their
answers, as including other details in the text may affect their responses.

Excessive verbatim lifting remains the preferred method of answering questions for many candidates. Additionally,
candidates often failed to demonstrate an understanding of question words and how to pick out the most important
points. Carelessness with spelling was also evident, leading to the loss of valuable marks. Some candidates did not
delete their initial responses on the provided answer lines but instead wrote a new answer elsewhere. This means that
they ended up with two different answers to the same question. Other candidates deleted the question rather than their
unwanted responses. Some candidates deleted their initial answers without providing replacements, while others wrote
multiple answers on a single line. It is essential for candidates to delete unwanted answers clearly to avoid confusion
and ensure their intended responses are clearly written.

The majority of candidates struggled to attain the maximum marks for this task.

1 This question was well attempted. however, the inclusion of other unnecessary information or details led
to the loss of marks. Incorrect spelling, such as: ‘quit’ and ‘quite’ and incorrect lift: ‘natural surroundings
make this quiet town a real escape’ were not accepted. Correct response: quiet.

2 This question was very well answered by most candidates. A few candidates wrote the complete lift:
‘notices reminding us to refrain from littering’, which resulted in no mark. Correct response: littering.

3 This question proved to be challenging, as most candidates provided the direct lift ‘you love it or out of
curiosity’, as their response, which did not score a mark. They failed to pinpoint the exact detail required
by the question. Correct response: curiosity

4 This was generally well attempted. however, incorrect phrasing, such as ‘bright coloured’ resulted in no
mark. Correct response: bright colours

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5 This was very well answered. However, some candidates were careless in writing their response,
using incorrect words such as ‘on’ instead of the intended term, leading to a loss of marks. Correct
response: no development.

6 This was generally well attempted. however, poor sentence structure or incomplete responses occasionally
altered the intended meaning, e.g. ‘He waved at the car guard’ or ‘a wave from a car’. Correct response:
A wave from a (car) guard.

7 Very few candidates provided the correct response, with many offering incorrect options such as:‘1852’,
‘about 300 years ago’ and ‘two decades later’. Correct response: 1846

8 There was a mixed response to this question, largely due to the incorrect use of pronouns. Many candidates
wrote sentence such as: ‘He failed to hide my disappointment’ or provided incomplete phrases such as:
‘hide my disappointment’, which affect the response. Another common incorrect response was ‘he was
disappointment’. Correct response: disappointment

9 The majority of candidates responded very well to this question. The candidates who failed to locate
the right answer included unnecessary information such as: ‘passing unusual rocks…’ and ‘towering
trees’. Where a plural answer was provided, ‘sunsets’, the mark was not awarded.. Correct response:
(magnificent) sunset.

10 Candidates provided numerous incorrect answers as they had to focus on what appeals to the writer about
Hondeklip Bay. it was obvious that most candidates did not understand the essence of the question.
Many incorrect responses included phrases/sentences such as: ‘life is moving too quickly’, ‘a slower life’,
‘Life goes on everywhere’, ‘I could get use to such a lifestyle’ and ‘fulfills a need I occasionally have’ were
provided. Faulty sentence phrases such as: ‘to be a manageable pace’ could not be awarded a mark.
The correct response ‘manageable pace’ was frequently overlooked by most candidates.

In Task 2, the information in the texts/extracts will always be expressed using different words and sentence structures
from those in the questions, so candidates should be on the lookout for synonyms and paraphrases. Candidates are
required to identify opinions and attitudes as well as to show awareness of information that is implied but not explicitly
stated. Candidates achieved the greatest success in answering questions 17, 18 and 19. The most challenging
questions were 11, 12 and 15.

The presentation of answers remains a problem. Candidates should be advised to write the letter options clearly and
legibly as some letters were difficult to decipher. Candidates should cross out the wrong answer clearly and then
write their final choice alongside and not elsewhere. Candidates should further be reminded to follow the
instructions by writing A, B, C or D as their response AND not the names used in the extracts. An increased
number of candidates wrote names instead of letters. Candidates are also advised to write capital letters instead of
small letters. Still a few candidates left blank spaces or did not attempt some questions. It was more disturbing to
observe that a number of candidates added extra letters such as E, F, etc. that do not form part of the letter
options provided. Some candidates wrote two letters on one line, expecting the markers to make a choice for them.
this practice must be discouraged as a mark may not be awarded. This incorrect answer method does not benefit the
candidate in the end. Use of pencil when writing answers remains a serious concern and should be addressed
at school level as this practice will not be tolerated.

ANSWERS
11 B
12 D
13 A
14 B
15 C
16 D
17 B
18 A
19 C

In Task 3, the requirement is to provide short notes. Candidates do not have to use their own words and it is
recommended that they use words from the text. when candidates attempted to use their own words, they negate
their responses. Each note should be written under the correct heading and on a separate line.

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This task proved challenging for the majority of candidates, as most were unable to provide the correct responses
under the appropriate headings. When candidates used their own words to reformulate their responses, it often
risked obscuring the exact meaning, which impacted the marks to be awarded. Short notes could not be credited if
key information was missing or if the responses were placed under the wrong heading. Some candidates included
two correct notes on the same line, which also affected their marks. Most candidates wrote this point: “write and
edit dictionaries,” on separate lines which led to incomplete ideas and no mark being awarded. Additionally, some
candidates failed to cancel the existing bullets properly when adding a new bullet or only cancelled the bullet without
deleting the answer on the line, causing confusion to the markers. Candidates must ensure their answers are clearly
presented to avoid losing marks unnecessarily.

The responses that were the least used were: ‘in the Krieger household’, and ‘petition’. A common spelling error that
resulted in no mark being awarded was when ‘readership’ was spelled as ‘leadership’. The word ‘Sustainable’ is also an
incorrect response as it does not answer the heading appropriately. Poor sentence structures/phrases were a concern
and responses such as ‘considered must have sustained use’ could not be awarded.

Possible answers

20
Where the word is already used/found
(Award 1 mark for each acceptable response, up to a maximum of 3 marks)

• T-shirts
1. In the Krieger household
2. Urban Dictionary
3. Online crossword puzzle
4. Comic strips
5. Petition

The criteria to get words into the dictionary

(Award 1 mark for each acceptable response, up to a maximum of 3 marks)

PLEASE NOTE: the verb should form part of these responses under heading 2

6. Used in a variety of contexts

7. Used in publications with large and broad readership
8. Frequently used
9. (have) sustained use
10. Describe a concrete experience

The roles of lexicographers

(Award 1 mark for each acceptable response, up to a maximum of 2 marks)

11. Write and edit dictionaries
12. Search through databases
13. Track word for years/decades
14. Judge whether there is enough evidence

NOTE: Correct responses only apply if they are placed under the correct heading.

In Task 4, candidates are required to identify and retrieve the accurate information, as well as understand implied
meaning, rather than just what is explicitly written. Candidates should ONLY tick one correct option and ensure it is
clear which option is intended as their final choice. Any uncertainty about which option is meant as the definitive answer
may not being credited. It is important to emphasize to the candidates that if two boxes are ticked instead of one, no
marks could be awarded. Various answering methods were observed this year (2023), including candidates
ticking next to the correct letter rather than in the provided boxes, circling their options, marking with a cross,
or writing the letter options (A, B, C, D) in the boxes instead of ticking. Some candidates ticked more than one box
or all the boxes and this resulted in no mark awarded. Use of pencil when writing answers remains a big problem,
and candidates should be strongly discouraged from using pencil. It should be noted that no mark will be awarded for
any answer written in pencil.

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ANSWERS
21 B
22 C
23 D
24 B
25 D
26 A
27 C
28 B

TASK 5
Report

It should be noted that many candidates wrote too long pieces of writing. This does not always benefit the candidate,
as a longer response typically leads to more language and content errors, which could result in lower marks.

For this task, candidates were required to write a report, but the majority struggled with this format. Most candidates
could not relate to the topic so their responses lacked purpose and idea development. While many used paragraphs,
there was little connection between them and the responses did not make much sense. Many candidates found it
difficult to produce a well-organized and realistic piece of writing. Successful responses recognised the need for a
formal tone and register so candidates adopted the appropriate style for a report. Weaker candidates wrote a letter or
speech instead.

Most responses addressed all three prompts, but they were underdeveloped and not satisfactory. Better responses
provided a substantial amount of detail for each prompt, while most candidates misinterpreted prompt 1 or 2. When this
happened, prompt 3 would no longer be aligned with the topic’s requirements.

For prompt 1, candidates were required to describe how they raised funds. However, the “how” aspect was often not
clearly described, with many candidates resorting to listing activities. Some misinterpreted “fundraising” and instead
wrote about increasing fees, such as school fees or grants, or raising awareness for causes such as pregnancy or
AIDS. It seems that some candidates misunderstood the meaning of “funds” and wrote about “fun” instead. Additionally,
while the fundraising activity was meant to take place at school, most candidates described activities outside the school
setting. Instead of focusing on fundraising, many candidates wrote about asking for or receiving donations. Candidates
who wrote about Entrepreneurship day also missed the point most of the time as the funds raised were often for own
enrichment and not for the community. The activity the candidates had to do was often regarded as homework or a
classwork exercise which could led to it being off topic.

Prompt 2 was the least well-developed and hugely misinterpreted. This prompt required candidates to explain who
or what they chose to help and why, but many struggled to address it effectively. The majority, including stronger
candidates, wrote about the people who helped them instead of focusing on who or what they chose to help and why.
Rather than explaining their reasoning, the responses often shifted to what they would do for others or what others had
done for them. Additionally, many responses included unrealistic content, for example, candidates would describe a car
wash activity in prompt 1 and then mention building a library or a installing an elaborate water system for the community,
which was not aligned with the scope of the task.

Although candidates could address prompt 3 effectively, when a direct link to the previous prompts (prompt 1 and 2)
were not there, the content became inappropriate and the purpose for writing would not be addressed. In the context
of the question, the last point, ‘say what you have learned’, is asking the candidates to reflect on what they learned
from participating in the fundraising activity. The expectation is for the candidates to share their personal insights or
lessons they took away from the experience. This could include ideas such as: ‘learning about team work’, which many
candidates could relate to or ‘understanding the importance of community service’, ‘realising how to organise an event’
or even ‘developing empathy for the cause they were supporting’. The goal was for the candidates to think critically
about the activity, how it impacted on them and to show personal growth as well as an understanding of the significance
of the task beyond just completing it. Strong candidates managed to address these prompts quite well, whereas weaker
candidates could not make appropriate connections to the topic.

Off-topic responses increased significantly due to the misinterpretation of various parts of the topic. Phrases like “good
cause” led to ideas such as a university course, while “raise” was misinterpreted as a race, such as running a race or
horse racing. Many candidates also mistakenly wrote a report to the Life Skills teacher about bullying or other school
offences, which was not relevant to the task. The biggest concern with Task 5 was that candidates often focused solely
on the prompts without considering the topic in its entirety. Instructions such as “an activity,” “at school,” “for a good
cause” and “in your community” were either ignored or only partially addressed, resulting in incomplete responses.

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Candidates should be taught that their ideas need to be linked and that the prompts are interconnected. Most
candidates submitted work that did not meet the task’s requirements and even stronger candidates struggled to make
meaningful connections between the three prompts. Candidates need to understand that when asked to describe, they
are expected to provide detailed information about something. Additionally, candidates should be taught that explaining
something involves going deeper into the specifics and offering reasons to support their points.

Most candidates demonstrated a limited range of language in their writing. Few candidates successfully constructed
varied sentence structures, including complex ones, or utilised a diverse and appropriate vocabulary. The target
audience, the ‘Life Skills teacher,’ was largely overlooked, leading to the use of overly informal language. A common
issue was the overuse of phrases such as ‘used to,’ often applied incorrectly, for example, ‘I used to ask my mother
to help me” or “I used to sell a lot of items.’ Please take note: USED TO is a phrase that can mean “accustomed or
habituated to” or refers to something from the past that is no longer true.

Candidates struggled with tense usage, despite the requirement for the report to be written predominantly in the past
tense, with some flexibility allowed for the final prompt. Many wrote in the future tense, which rendered the content
inaccurate. Additionally, linking words were often overused, and inappropriate idioms were consistently applied,
detracting from clarity.

To perform better in this area, candidates need to expand their topic-related vocabulary and focus on tense accuracy.
While many responses were well-organised into paragraphs, punctuation remains a big concern, with even basic
conventions frequently ignored. Improving these fundamental skills is essential for achieving higher marks in the
language band.

TASK 6

All topics appeared to be above the level of most candidates. The majority misinterpreted the topics and it was clear
that candidates did not adequately think through the topics or engage in any planning. As a result, their responses were
often incoherent and lacked purpose. It was also evident that many candidates lack knowledge on contemporary issues
or their general knowledge is limited.

Many candidates initially wrote their responses in pencil and then rewrote them in ink, which often led to time
management issues. Candidates must be instructed to use only the examination question paper booklet
provided, as additional materials, such as loose papers or duplicated copies of the original question paper, are
not permitted.

It is a significant concern that many candidates were unable to differentiate between the various types of essays, as the
majority failed to recognise that each topic correspond to a specific essay type. Descriptive and argumentative essays
were frequently written from a narrative perspective. Furthermore, many candidates incorrectly structured their essays
as letters or speeches, while narrative essays were often presented in the form of a report rather than as a story.

(a) Should the government give each young person a social grant of N$2000.00 a month for five years after
they complete high school?
This is the argumentative essay and the most frequently selected topic. however, most candidates struggled to
establish a clear stance and develop ideas that supported their point of view effectively. Their responses often
consisted of random thoughts with minimal idea development, lacking connections and smooth transitions. Many
focused on a single idea, such as further studies and repeated it throughout the essay. Instead of providing
reasons to support their stance, candidates often offered advice to the government on the selection process or
suggested alternative uses for the money, which did not align with the topic’s requirements.

For some candidates, the N$ 2000.00 was perceived as a large sum capable of solving various problems, including
covering university tuition, which weakened their arguments due to irrelevant reasoning. Additionally, some
candidates argued both sides without clearly stating their position. Counter arguments, when included, were often
poorly executed and disconnected from the main point of the essay. Paragraph organisation was another issue, as
candidates struggled to group ideas logically and create smooth transitions between paragraphs.

(b) You were given the responsibility of planning a day out for a group of friends, but things did not go
according to plan.
This topic was poorly addressed, with most candidates demonstrating a lack of creativity and an inability to narrate
a story effectively. A significant number wrote letters or reports instead of a story, failing to adhere to the genre.
Many also disregarded the topic instructions. for instance, the narrative was meant to cover a single day, but
candidates often described events spanning a weekend, several days or even a holiday.

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Misinterpretation of the word “responsibility” was common, leading to off-topic content. Some candidates wrote
about being responsible for presenting a topic in class, while others offered long-winded explanations about what
responsibility means and how responsible they are. Many attempted plausible stories but struggled with structure
and presented long, meaningless build-ups. In several cases, the build-up occupied the entire story, leaving only
the final paragraph to explain what went wrong. This imbalance hindered the effectiveness of their narratives.
Unrealistic ideas were another recurring issue, reflecting limited awareness of real-world scenarios. Additionally,
many stories relied on inference without explicitly stating the failed plans, leading to vague and incomplete
narratives.

Off-topic responses were also a concern, with some candidates writing about irrelevant subjects, such as drawing
up a house plan. Only a small number of creative candidates achieved marks in the higher band, while most scored
average or below average. Paragraphing posed a significant challenge, as many stories lacked chronological order
and coherent connections between paragraphs. Moreover, many narratives were left unresolved, with candidates
failing to provide proper conclusions and leaving their stories unfinished.

(c) My favourite hang-out spot.

The majority of candidates struggled with this topic, failing to address its two distinct aspects: (i) describing the
hang-out spot and (ii) expressing their feelings the first time they visited it as learners generally struggled to merge
these two parts effectively. Most candidates demonstrated difficulty in describing places, frequently using vague,
non-specific phrases such as, “the place is interesting,” “it’s a vibrant place with a unique atmosphere” or “the spot
has a positive energy.” While these statements might appear descriptive, they lack tangible content and fail to
provide a clear picture of the spot. Essays often contained underdeveloped ideas, with descriptions presented as
lists of incomplete sentences or random phrases, such as “the beauty of the blue water,” “the fragrance in the air”
or “beautiful, colourful flowers.” These disjointed phrases left the overall description unclear and uncoordinated.

The second part of the topic, focusing on first-time feelings, posed significant challenges. Many candidates
misinterpreted this section, instead writing about general emotions or their motivations for visiting the spot. Few
candidates addressed their initial feelings in any detail and when they did, the response was typically limited to one
or two sentences. Repetition was also a prominent issue throughout the essays.

For many, the hang-out spot was described as a once-off experience, such as a holiday destination or a celebratory
venue, which resulted in narrative accounts rather than descriptive essays. Common examples included places
like Etosha or an imagined or futuristic location, often with a fantastical element resembling something from a
storybook, like “Alice in Wonderland.”

Misinterpretation of the topic was common. Many candidates misunderstood the word “hang-out” as simply spending
time with friends and some confused “spot” with “sport,” leading to essays describing soccer, netball,volleyball,
etc. as their hang-out spot. Some abstract hang-out spots mentioned were the brain, thoughts, imagination, etc.
These responses failed to align with the requirements of the topic, highlighting a need for clearer comprehension
and planning skills.

The majority of candidates did not observe the word limit and wrote pieces that were too long. This did not always
play in their favour.

The language used by most candidates revealed significant challenges, particularly when attempting responses
requiring complex grammatical structures. The key issues identified are outlined below:

Weak and Unambitious Language Usage:

• Candidates demonstrated limited variety and range in their vocabulary. Words and expressions chosen
were often unsuitable for the context or the topic.
• Incorrect sentence structures, such as:
- “The most thing I like…” instead of “What I like most is…” or “I like… most.”
- “It hurts to see people sleep with hunger.”
- “People would no more be poor.”
- “I met some few people…”

Tense and Sentence Construction Issues:

• Candidates frequently used inconsistent tenses within their responses, which affected clarity and cohesion.
• The incorrect pairing of two options within a single sentence, such as:
- “We need to avoid/to stop…”
Candidates must be guided to select the word that best fits the sentence rather than presenting multiple
options.

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Misuse of Punctuation:
• Punctuation errors persist as a major issue, even among stronger candidates.
• Neglecting of basic punctuation, such as capital letters at the beginning of sentences and periods, often
resulted in unseparated ideas that weakened organisation and coherence.
• Lack of paragraphing was frequently observed, with some responses written as a single block of text.

Incorrect Use of Words and Phrases:

• Misapplication of transitional adverbs, e.g. “Suddenly, I woke up,” “Unfortunately, I was very lucky,” and
“We apparently went to the park,” demonstrated a lack of understanding of their proper usage.
• Repetition of pronouns after nouns, e.g. “The people they will...” or “My friend she helped...”. Candidates
should be taught that the pronoun should not directly follow the noun.

Frequent Errors with Infinitives and Verb Sequencing:

• The use of an infinitive before another verb (e.g., “to go drive the car…”) was identified as a recurring issue.
This construction often results in awkward phrasing, redundancy and ambiguity.

Limited Grasp of Grammar Fundamentals:

• Candidates struggled with degrees of comparison, tense consistency and article usage. These foundational
aspects require urgent attention to improve sentence construction and clarity.

COMPREHENSIVE RECOMMENDATIONS FOR TEACHERS

Based on the analysis of candidates’ performance across all tasks, the following recommendations are suggested to
enhance teaching strategies and learner-outcomes:

1. Improve text comprehension:

• Familiarise learners with different text types to help them recognise tone, purpose and structure in passages.
• Teach skimming for general ideas and scanning for specific details to enhance learners’ ability to locate
relevant information efficiently.
• Provide practice with distractor-heavy questions and information to improve focus and discernment.

2. Question Interpretation:
• Train learners to differentiate between types of questions and question words.
• Provide guidance on responding to specific prompts in a question.
• Use exercises where learners analyse sample questions to ensure they fully understand what is being
asked.

3. Enhance answer quality:

• Teach learners to write clear, concise and focused answers, avoiding unnecessary repetition or off-topic
details.
• Provide exercises where learners identify key instructions in questions and match their answers accordingly.
• Use past examination papers as a tool to highlight examples of common misinterpretation and how to avoid
them. Do not use past examination papers as a replacement for the syllabus.

4. Integrate writing and reading skills:

• Reinforce vocabulary and grammar learned in writing lessons during reading comprehension activities to
create synergy between the two skill sets.

5. Spend more time teaching writing skills:

(i) Teach learners to read and interpret all parts of a task carefully, ensuring they address all components explicitly.
(ii) Train learners on identifying the key purpose of a task and linking ideas cohesively across prompts or sub-
topics.
(iii) Introduce topic-specific vocabulary and encourage its use in writing to avoid vague or meaningless descriptions.
(iv) Teach learners to avoid overused or generic phrases by providing alternatives and examples of richer,
descriptive language.
(v) Focus on correcting common errors, such as inconsistent tense usage, inappropriate infinitive constructions
and redundant pronouns after nouns.
(vi) Use exercises that encourage sentence variety, incorporating complex structures and different sentence
lengths for fluency and clarity.
(vii) Teach learners how to elaborate on ideas and provide relevant details to avoid listing, undeveloped or
random phrases.
(viii) Emphasize the importance of logical connections between paragraphs and smooth transitions.
(ix) STRESS THE IMPORTANCE OF PLANNING before writing. Encourage brainstorming and creating outlines
to ensure clarity and coherence.

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(x) Teach learners to use paragraphs effectively, dividing content into clear, logical sections.
(xi) Explain the difference between essay types and their specific conventions.
(xii) Offer guidance on maintaining focus and stance in argumentative essays, avoiding contradictions or
irrelevant content.
(xiii) Teach learners the importance of realistic and engaging narratives with a clear sequence of events.
Emphasize concise build-ups and effective resolutions.
(xiv) Reinforce basic punctuation rules, including the use of capital letters, full stops, and commas to improve
coherence.
(xv) Encourage the consistent and correct use of linking words as well as phrases, to avoid their overuse or
misuse.
(xvi) Highlight the importance of neatness and legibility. Discourage the use of pencil in final drafts to avoid time
constraints caused by rewriting.
(xvii) Use real-world examples and relatable scenarios to inspire creative yet realistic ideas.
(xviii) Highlight the value of staying grounded in fact-based ideas while allowing for creativity within the
requirements of the task.
(xix) Teach learners time management strategies to ensure they complete their tasks within the allocated time.
(xx) Emphasise the importance of adhering to examination protocols such as writing within the provided booklets
and avoiding additional materials.

By re-emphasizing these suggested recommendations, teachers can help learners improve their task interpretation,
language proficiency and overall writing skills, resulting in better performance across all assessments.

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6109
Paper 2

KEY MESSAGES
• Candidates should be encouraged to read and listen to the instructions for each part of the paper very carefully to
ensure they meet the exact requirements of each particular task.
• Candidates are reminded to write their answers in the spaces provided on the question paper.
• Candidates should be encouraged to double-check that their responses are written under the correct questions.
• Candidates should be reminded to use a pen, and not a pencil when writing their responses. Responses written in
pencil will not be credited as it is contrary to the instructions to the candidates on the cover page of the Learner’s
Text. Candidates should be discouraged from writing their responses first in pencil and then rewrite over the pencil
in ink.
• Spelling skills have deteriorated to such an extent that even the basic words are misspelt. It was evident that many
candidates could identify the key details for each question, but could not spell words correctly.
• Candidates should be reminded to pay special attention to their handwriting, particularly the formation of individual
letters. Candidates should try to provide clear and legible responses. Attempts, which cannot be read, may not
be credited.
• When altering the responses, candidates should simply cross out responses which need to be altered and not write
over.
• Candidates should avoid using punctuation marks (e.g. commas, brackets, etc.).
• Candidates must be discouraged from using own words/synonyms when answering the questions, they should
instead use the words they hear from the audio.
• In Task 1 and 5, candidates should try to understand what type of answer each question requires by taking note
of the question words, such as: where, what, when, who, how, as well as the other key words in the question.
Candidates should be encouraged to provide concise answers (three words or a number) as per the instructions
in the rubric (Task 1). They should not writing long sentences when giving their answers to avoid losing marks for
adding inaccurate extra details.
• In Task 2, gap-filling, candidates should try and predict the answers in the gaps (e.g. a number, a name).
Candidates should listen for the correct form used in the audio and make sure the word forms used fit each gap on
the question paper. Candidates should be reminded not to include words which are already printed on the question
paper before or after each gap, as part of their answer.
• In Task 3, multiple-matching, candidates should be reminded to only use letters and not numbers and to only
write one letter per line. If two letters are written on one line, no marks can be awarded.
• In Task 4, multiple-choice, candidates should be encouraged to only tick one box and to tick inside the box. If
two boxes are ticked rather than one, then no marks can be awarded.

GENERAL COMMENTS
• The majority of candidates appeared not to be aware of the appropriate examination techniques to help them listen
for the specific details. Teachers are encouraged to train candidates on how to approach different tasks.
• The majority of candidates adhered to the required word limit for Task 1. However, some candidates wrote their
answers as complete sentences, which is not advisable.
• There were many instances where candidates’ handwriting was illegible, which made it difficult to mark their work
accurately.
• Many candidates seemed not to be aware of the distracting information in the listening texts, thus, including these
in addition to the correct detail. Some candidates opted for the distractors instead of the correct detail. candidates
should, therefore, be reminded to listen with understanding.
• Some candidates did not attempt to answer all questions, they should be encouraged to try and answer all questions.
• It is also advisable to expose candidates to vocabulary sets on a wide range of topics and practice spelling of such
words. Most candidates seemed to be unfamiliar with everyday words, for example, week, hall, teenagers, etc.
• Candidates need to be reminded not to use the same letter more than once in Task 3 and only write one letter on
each line. There were instances where this was an issue.
• in Task 4, candidates should also encouraged to tick one box even when they are not sure about the answer.
There were instances where some candidates did not tick in any of the four boxes.
• Candidates would benefit from practising a wide range of listening skills including listening for grammatical detail
(e.g. singular/plural, homophones, nouns, conjunctions, pronouns and prepositions and other word forms). Though
candidates managed to select the correct detail, they did not always write down the words in the correct form. By
changing the word forms, candidates’ final responses did not always make sense.
• Overall, many candidates could not deal well with listening for gist and speakers’ opinions, thus, more practice
of listening for correct specific detail is recommended. Listening to longer texts proved challenging to many, and
candidates would benefit from more practice throughout the year to ensure they can follow and navigate through
longer texts (e.g. interviews, talk, etc.).

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COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

Task 1
Questions 1 – 4
Overall, many candidates attempted this task well. Most of the candidates could select the correct detail for each of
these questions, but struggled to spell the words correctly. Marks were lost when candidates opted for the distracting
information, added inaccurate extra details, or wrote long sentences and repeated details. Marks were also lost due to
the unclear formation of the individual letters. Candidates’ responses should be as brief as possible.

1 (a) This question was answered exceptionally well. Most candidates provided the expected answer ‘four
thirty/4:30’. Though most candidates could write the time format as expected, those who attempted
to write the time format in words could not spell all the words correctly. As a result, no mark could
be awarded. some candidates could also not differentiate between the 12-hour and 24-hour clock
notation. Some candidates lost the mark for repeating details, e.g. ‘16:30 in the afternoon’ or 16:30pm.
Few candidates lost the mark for writing 04:30, which is four-thirty in the morning.

(b) This question was also well answered, with many candidates providing the expected answer ‘N$150.00/
One hundred and fifty Namibia dollars. However, a few candidates lost the mark for repeating the
details, e.g. ‘N$150.00 Namibia dollars’ or for just writing ‘150 dollars’ without specifying. Others who
lost the mark wrote this answer ‘$150 US currency’ or were tempted to write the amount in words, and
could not spell all the words correctly.

2 (a) This question was answered fairly well by the majority. However, some weaker candidates struggled
to spell the word ‘hall’ correctly. The expected answer was ‘next week’. Some candidates wrote
‘tomorrow’ instead of ‘next week’ or misspelt the words ‘next’ as ‘nex’ and ‘week’ as ‘weak’ or ‘wek’.
These spelling attempts could not be credited. The plural form of ‘weeks’ was not allowed as it
changed the targeted idea. Most marks were lost due to the inclusion of extra information such as:
‘until next week’, ‘next week until the mid-term break’, and ‘delayed until next week’.

(b) The candidates who could spell both words ‘school and hall’ correctly dealt extremely well with this
question. However, those who struggled to spell both words correctly did not score any mark. These
spelling attempts could not be credited: ‘schools hall’,‘ school wall’, ‘school hole’, ‘school holle’, ‘school
whole’. Unsuccessful responses also included the distracting detail:‘school garden’.

3 (a) The expected answer was ‘banana bread’ which the majority could provide. Some candidates
struggled to spell the word banana or included the distracting information, ‘coconut biscuits or
doughnuts’. Those who struggled to spell the word ‘banana’ wrote it as, ‘bannanna’ or ‘benana’.

(b) Many candidates provided the expected response ‘(to) buy books’. Those who could not score a
mark, either wrote the ‘buy textbooks’ or merely ‘books’ which was incomplete. The misspelling of
‘buy’ posed a challenge to some candidates, as they wrote ‘by’ or ‘bye’ instead of ‘buy’.

4 (a) Though well attempted, some candidates could not spell the word ‘teenagers’ which was the expected
answer. These spelling attempts were observed: ‘teenangers’, ‘teaneger’, ‘teenages’, ‘tinenger’ and
could not be credited. Some candidates wrote ‘former’ or used wrong prepositions before the answer
such as: ‘to’ or ‘on’ and lost the mark.

(b) This question provided a low level of success, with only a few candidates who could spell the word
‘voluntary’ correctly’ and were able to write both words ‘voluntary services’ as the correct response.
Most attempts could not be awarded a mark, e.g., ‘volonteer’, ‘involuntary’, services to the voluntary,
cultural voluntary services, as they created a new meaning. To add on, the word ‘services’ was
misspelt as some candidates wrote ‘servises’ or ‘serveces’.

Task 2
Questions (a) – (h)

Generally, this task was poorly answered. Candidates could only answer Questions (a) and (h). Some candidates
failed to attempt most of the questions. There were a few cases where candidates wrote their responses in the wrong
spaces. Candidates failed to comprehend the text and wrote the distractors as their correct responses. Candidates

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could not use the correct word form as heard from the audio. Some candidates disregarded the instruction of ‘not more
than three words or a number’.

(a) Although many candidates could select the correct answer ‘innovation’, they struggled to spell the word
correctly. Marks were lost where candidates misspelt the targeted detail as ‘inovetion’, ‘more innovation’,
‘enovation’ or for adding inaccurate extra information.

(b) Only a few candidates could provide the correct answer ‘values’. Some candidates lost the mark for
adding: ‘this’, ‘that’, ‘his’. Some candidates added an adjective before the word ‘value’ such as ‘more
value’ and could not be credited.

(c) Some candidates attempted this question fairly. the expected answer was ‘working overtime’. Some
candidates missed the correct details. However, those who got the correct answer lost the mark for
writing ‘work’ instead of ‘working’ or could only provide one word, e.g. ‘overtime’ instead of both words.
The attempt such as ‘work overtime” could not be credited, as it does not fit in grammatically. Where the
attempt put the meaning in doubt (e.g. ‘working over’), no marks could be given.

(d) The question targeted the word ‘data’ as the correct detail and many candidates could not select the
correct answer. A few candidates who got the correct detail lost the mark for adding ‘reliable’ to the answer.

(e) There was a very low level of success for this question. Most candidates failed to write both words, ‘online
and visibility’, and therefore, could not score the mark. Some candidates merely wrote ‘online’. Also, there
was a frequent misspelling of ‘visibility as ‘possibility’, ‘visibilitie’ ‘visability’ and some wrote ‘visibility’ in
plural form.

(f) This question was not answered well. Many candidates misspelt the expected answer ‘trend(s)’ as “trand”,
‘trans’ or ‘trades’. Additionally, they lost the mark for adding ‘new’ or ‘learn about’ to the answer.

(g) A few candidates selected the expected detail ‘320 000’. Many of them omitted or left out one ‘0’ and wrote
‘3200’ or ‘32 000’, thus could not be credited. Others wrote the distractor ‘420 000’. Those who attempted
to write the figure in words were not always successful due to the misspelling of the words.

(h) The candidates attempted this question fairly well. The expected answer was ‘coast’. A few candidates
confused ‘coast’ for ‘cost’. This made the candidates lose their mark on this particular question, it had
changed the intended meaning. Others also lost the mark for writing ‘coastal’ instead of ‘coast’.

Task 3
Candidates performed poorly in this part of the examination. Many candidates could not match different speakers with
the expected letter. The majority of the candidates could not get the correct answers as they failed to carefully pay
attention to the keywords in the questions. This led them to opt for distracting information instead of the correct details.

there were also instances where a single letter was used more than once. These attempts could not be credited. A few
candidates used numbers instead of letters and others wrote more than one letter on one line, such answers were not
credited. The use of pencil was also observed in this task, and this practice must be stopped.

The expected answers were:

Speaker 1: G
Speaker 2: D
Speaker 3: A
Speaker 4: C
Speaker 5: E
Speaker 6: B

Task 4
Generally, this part of the test was fairly well answered. There were still a number of candidates who ticked more
than one option for individual questions or ticked outside the box. Such attempts were not credited. A few candidates
encircled their answers instead of ticking which should be discouraged. There were quite a few instances where
candidates did not provide any answers to some of the questions in this task. The use of pencil was observed in this
task, and this practice must be stopped.

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The expected answers were:
1 D
2 D
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 A
7 C
8 B

Task 5
In general, this task was well attempted. The most common incorrect responses included the distracting details or
the wrong extra details. Some candidates attempted to paraphrase their responses and in the process the intended
meaning was changed.

(a) This question was well answered, many candidates provided the expected answer ‘(my/his) surroundings’.
Spelling attempts such as ‘sarrounding’, sorondings, ‘sorrounding’,‘surronding’, could not be credited.
Some incorrect responses included inaccurate extra information.

(b) The expected answer was ‘team effort’, however, this question was poorly answered. In most instances,
candidates provided a response which put the intended meaning in doubt (e.g. ‘team work’, ‘teams effort’,
‘parents input or effort’, ‘help from parents’, ‘family input’, ‘team effort from people’), which could not be
awarded the mark.

(c) The intended answer for this question was ‘sun protection’ and the majority of candidates provided
this detail. Spelling attempts which changed the intended meaning such as (e.g. ‘suns protection’ son
protection’, sunny protection’, ‘sun protaction’, ‘sum protection’) could not be credited.

(d) This question was well answered. Most candidates could provide the correct detail ‘15 km’. Only few
candidates got it wrong, and this could be because they could not spell ‘kilometres’. Some also included
distracting information which could not be credited.

(e) This question was also well answered. The expected answer ‘to add (something extra) to the challenge
was provided by most candidates. However, some were unable to spell the word ‘challenge’ correctly or
left out keywords and wrote an incomplete answer. Some misspelt the word as: ‘challange’.

(f) The correct answer was ‘cold nights’, which was selected by the majority of candidates. Only few who
wrote ‘colds night’, could night’, ‘coldness night’, ‘colder night’ which could not be credited as they changed
the intended meaning.

(g) For this question, the expected answer was ‘sleeping in the original family house’ and it was poorly
answered. Many candidates wrote ‘origin’ instead of ‘original’ which make the answer wrong or could
not spell the word ‘original’. Or left out the words ‘family’ or ‘house’, which make the answer incomplete.
Some lost the mark for switching the adjectives.

(h) This question was well answered, except for those who spelled the word as ‘pround’, ‘ploud’, ‘proude’
instead of ‘proud’ or for adding the word ‘more’ to the answer.

(i) This question was attempted with a mixed level of success. Candidates were able to give at least one of
the two details. (i) ‘Practical skills’ was provided as the correct answer by some candidates. Some could
not score a mark because they wrote ‘particles’, ‘pratical’ or‘pactical’ or left out the word ‘skills’. (ii) The
second part of the answer was partially attempted. The expected answer was ‘lifelong friendships’. Many
incorrect responses included extra information such as; ‘making lifelong friendships’, ‘provide lifelong
friendships’, to find lifelong friendships’, ‘longlife friends’. The answers for this question may be written/
provided in any order.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teachers are encouraged to frequently practise listening comprehension activities with the learners (throughout

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the phase Grade 10 – 11). By exposing learners to a variety of listening texts throughout the year will help them
cope with different texts presented to them during the examination. Teachers should expose learners to time
notations and presentation of monetary values.
• Teachers should explain the format of the question paper and give learners tips on how to answer each task.
• Teachers should emphasise the importance of spelling words correctly and writing clearly/legibly in dark blue
or black pen. No answers must be written in pencil. Learners are losing marks due to unnecessary spelling
mistakes. More practice is required.
• Teachers should encourage learners to read as extensively as possible to improve their vocabulary or have a wide
vocabulary. Having a wide vocabulary allows learners to express themselves clearly and precisely as expected in
this examination. It also enhances comprehension of texts in different fields.
• Teachers should train learners how to delete wrong answers (any word or part of the answer) that should not be
considered. And not forgetting to replace the deleted answers. Please use real examples to show learners how
they should draw a line through a wrong answer that should not be considered by the markers.
• Teachers should explain the different functions of the punctuation marks.
• Learners would also benefit from studying how different grammatical forms change the meaning of a word.
• Teachers are encouraged to focus on question words (WH-questions).
• Teachers are encouraged to study the Examiner’s Report and address the areas where learners need to improve.
• Techers are advised to help learners learn to discern main details from distractors. Learners should also be
discouraged from including unnecessary details in their answers.

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6109
Paper 3

GENERAL COMMENTS

It is still important to start this report by exploring the fundamental definition of the word ‘conversation’ as most of the
interviews that we listened to were just mere monologues. A conversation is not a monologue nor is a conversation
of a question setting exercise. In this context, a conversation refers to a two-way exchange of information between
the examiner and the candidate. It is expected that when the candidate expresses an idea or statement, the examiner
responds by seeking clarification, prompting further elaboration, or encouraging deeper reflection. The examiner may
also ask follow-up questions related to the candidate’s prior comments. A conversation, therefore, is an interactive
process where the examiner actively engages with the candidate’s input to create meaningful dialogue.

Here is an outline of how to conduct the Speaking Test:

Examiners are advised to have a separate file for the introductory statement before the first sample recording. The
examiner should, therefore, begin the first recording for each sample with a clear introduction, stating the centre number,
name of centre, examination details, examiner’s name and the date of the examination. This should be a stand-alone
track which should be recorded once. If there is more than one examiner at the centre, each examiner records his/her
individual introductory statement that accompanies his/her sample recordings.

For each subsequent candidate the following steps should be followed:

Step 1 Introduction: Start the digital voice recorder and do not pause it until the end of the whole conversation.
Give the candidate’s number and name
Welcome the candidate and briefly describe the procedure involved in conducting the
Speaking Test.
Step 2 Warm-up section: Conduct a general conversation by asking the candidate a few questions about
himself/herself to put the candidate at ease. The examiner does not have to say, “Tell
me about yourself”. This section lasts for 2 – 3 minutes.
Step 3 Preparation: Hand out the Speaking Assessment Card and announce the card (some examiners
do not announce the card). The Speaking Assessment Card must be chosen by the
examiner and not by the candidate.
Candidate can ask questions on the speaking card.
The candidate has 2 – 3 minutes to prepare IN THE EXAMINER’S PRESENCE. (Do
not pause or stop the digital recorder during the preparation time).
Step 4 Main part of the test: Conduct a conversation based on Speaking Assessment Card.
The examiner must start the conversation and be vigilant not to allow
monologues. The main part of the test lasts for approximately 6- 9 minutes.

Examiners should be mindful that moderators will evaluate their technique during both the Pre-test and the test stages
as well as the severity or leniency of their assessment.

PLEASE NOTE that the total duration of the Speaking test, from the beginning of Step 1 to the end of Step 4,
should be approximately 10 – 15 minutes. PLEASE NOTE that while Step 1 to Step 4 is recorded, ONLY STEP
4 is to be assessed.

Transfer the selected sample recordings correctly to the USB for the external moderation process (which is
submitted to the DNEA annually).

Please take note of the following:

1 If there is ONE examiner at the centre, only 10 sample recordings are required and ALL sample recordings can
go into ONE folder on the recorder.
2 If there is MORE than one examiner at the centre, then each examiner must record his/her candidates in a
separate folder. (5 recordings per examiner)
3 After recording all the candidates at the centre, these recordings are then transferred on to a computer. Use
Media Player or any compatible format.
4 Now, each examiner selects the candidates for the specific sample from all the candidates who were recorded.
5 You now have all the folders on the computer with the selected candidates in each folder.
6 Arrange the candidates according to the order you want them.
7 Label each candidate’s recording with the candidate’s number and name.

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8 All the folders that have been organised can be transferred on to the USB provided by the DNEA.

The necessity for the recordings to be transferred correctly on to the USB (provided by the DNEA) can never
be overemphasized.

During the moderation process, the moderators follow these steps:

• The USB is inserted into the computer’s USB port.
• The folders for each examiner appear on the screen.
• The moderator selects the folder corresponding to a specific examiner.
• The folder is opened, revealing the sample candidates.
• The moderators then listen to the candidates’ recordings, assigning marks based on the conversations between
the examiner and the candidates, using the prescribed Speaking Assessment Criteria Grid found in the ‘Examiner’s
Notes’.
• After reviewing all samples from a particular centre, the moderator compiles a summary of the entire centre’s
results. Marks are then scaled to address any discrepancies between the examiners’ assessments and those of
the moderator. It is essential that examiners apply the grid accurately.
• A detailed report is written for each examiner at every centre, which is provided to the examiners at the start of the
following year.
• Therefore, it is crucial that examiners interpret the marking grid correctly to ensure that no candidate is either
advantaged or disadvantaged within their centre.

In order to achieve the most accurate and fair assessment for each candidate, it is vital that the above guidelines are
followed diligently.

The Application of the Speaking Assessment Criteria Grid

Guidelines for Awarding Marks in the Speaking Test:

1. The Speaking Assessment Criteria Grid is categorically divided into three distinct bands: Structure,
Vocabulary and Development and Fluency.

2. Structure pertains to the construction of sentences, including the correct use of tenses, verbs, subject-verb
agreement, correct use of pronouns, active and passive voice, types of sentences (simple, compound and
complex) and overall sentence coherence.

3. Vocabulary focuses on the choice and variety of words employed, the ability to paraphrase and the
effective use of synonyms. This band assesses both the range and appropriateness of the vocabulary
used by the speaker.

4. Development and Fluency examines the candidate’s ability to navigate the direction of a conversation,
particularly when the examiner’s questions elicit detailed responses. It includes the speaker’s capacity to
expand on responses, the accurate pronunciation and intonation of words, as well as the natural flow of
speech with minimal hesitation, repetition or self-correction. Additionally, it assesses the appropriate use
of pauses in conversation, natural flow of speech, minimal hesitation, repetition or self-correction.

5. Each band is allotted a maximum of 10 marks, leading to a total score out of 30 for all three bands.

6. As the moderator listens to a candidate, marks are assigned to each band, ultimately resulting in a final
score out of 30.

Please take note: These bands, although evaluated independently, are intrinsically interconnected as there
exists a clear correlation between them. It is, therefore, not permissible to skip a band when allocating marks. For
example, a candidate cannot be awarded 8 for Structure, 4 for Vocabulary and 7 for Development and Fluency.
Examiners are, therefore, advised to study and apply the Speaking Assesssment Criteria Grid appropriately.

GENERAL OBSERVATION ON THE DESCRIPTORS

STRUCTURE

During the evaluation of candidates’ work in terms of structure, the majority of centres showed precision, although this
was the least consistently judged aspect. There was a noticeable inclination to award higher scores, especially for
responses in the lower performance range. Variations among candidates in the mid-to-lower categories were apparent;
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some displayed determination and self-assurance but lacked precision, frequently trying advanced grammar while
making mistakes.

VOCABULARY

The evaluation of vocabulary generally matched the expected standards for this level. However, there were cases where
advanced candidates were awarded higher scores for their fluency rather than their precise use of vocabulary. Less
proficient candidates, despite showing good subject-specific vocabulary, were occasionally penalised for hesitation. In
some instances, examiners’ appreciation of a candidate’s familiarity with the topic seemed to influence the grading of
vocabulary, even when their use of more precise vocabulary was overlooked. Additionally, some examiners tended to
assist candidates by offering suggestions, clarifying questions, or completing their sentences. This is not permissible.

DEVELOPMENT AND FLUENCY

The evaluation of development and fluency showed that candidates generally displayed accuracy, but shortcomings
were more evident in the lower-performing groups. While a tendency toward leniency was noticeable in the higher
bands, examiners often awarded elevated scores when candidates communicated with ease, even if the responses
lacked depth or detail.

KEY MESSAGES
• Examiners are strongly advised to review the Examiner’s Notes thoroughly prior to the speaking test.
• English teachers should engage in comprehensive discussions with Grade 10 learners about the Speaking
Assessment Criteria Grid at the beginning of the academic year, ensuring that both learners and teachers are
well-versed in the criteria. It is also recommended that educational centres conduct regular mock speaking tests
throughout the year to prepare learners properly for the formal examination.
• A considerable number of examiners dedicate time and effort to understand the demands of the curriculum fully as
well as the procedural requirements of the speaking examination.
• While most examiners are adept at striking a balance between fostering meaningful discussions with candidates
and providing them ample opportunity to express themselves, there remains a subset who fail to adhere to
established procedures for the speaking examination and the application of assessment criteria. This oversight
has, unfortunately, resulted in many candidates being disadvantaged.
• Prior to the commencement of the Speaking Test, it is crucial for examination centres to verify the functionality of
their recording equipment.
• During the speaking test, examiners must be well-organized, ensuring the efficient management and delivery of
speaking cards. It is important to adhere to the time guidelines for each segment of the conversation as outlined
in the ‘Examiner’s Notes’.
• Prepare suitable warm-up questions relevant to the context of the speaking test.
• Examine the Speaking Assessment Cards prior to the examination and prepare additional open-ended questions
as necessary.
• The primary objective of the speaking test is to provide candidates with ample opportunity to express themselves
verbally for assessment. Examiners are encouraged to foster a conversational atmosphere during the test.
• Examiners must be mindful that there are no ‘clicking’ sounds in the English language, and ‘native’ words are not
acceptable in the speaking tests. As the speaking test is conducted in English, examiners should inform learners
and assist them in overcoming this issue by promoting more frequent use of English in daily conversation.
• Encourage candidates to speak clearly, positioning the recorder in close proximity to them.
• Treat the interaction as a genuine conversation, listening attentively to the candidates.
• Ensure all USB recordings are clearly labelled with the candidates’ names and numbers for proper identification.
• Avoid using wrapping or cellotape on the USB, as it causes unnecessary delays during handling and leaves the
device sticky.
• While Steps 1 to 4 are recorded, only Step 4 should be assessed.
• Maintain thoroughness and neatness in all administrative tasks, using pen or, preferably, typed text for clarity on
the SASF.
• Clearly mark absent candidates on the SASF with ‘999’ or ‘A’.
• Organise names on the SASF numerically, matching the order on the Mark Sheet (MS1). Ensure that the names
are copied directly from the MS1, not from the checklist.
• Ensure that all cell phones are turned off during the entire recording process.
• Maintain a quiet and appropriate environment suitable for a formal examination.
• Internal standardisation must occur prior to the speaking tests, with examiners gathering to discuss the Speaking
Assessment Criteria Grid and practise effective interviewing and assessment techniques. Following this, internal
moderation must be conducted, involving all examiners. It is essential to establish reliable internal standardisation
and moderation processes, particularly when multiple examiners are involved in centres with large learner entries.

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If any mark adjustments result from internal moderation, it is recommended to reflect these changes across all
categories on the SASF, a step that is often overlooked.
• A pressing concern has arisen regarding the significant decline in the spoken English proficiency of some English
examiners. This is alarming, as it suggests stagnation in improving the spoken English skills of our learners. It is
imperative for candidates to refrain from using their native language during the Speaking Test.

GENERAL COMMENTS ON HOW THE TEST WAS CONDUCTED AND ADVICE TO EXAMINERS
• There is evidence of the presence of mobile phones in the examination rooms. Centres should arrange alternative
means for use by the examiners to keep track of time during the test.
• It appears most centres are not aware of the Oral/Communication Form which must be included in the package and
is sent to centres together with other Speaking Test materials.
• It became apparent that at most centres, the Speaking component is not taught throughout the Ordinary Level
course. Teachers wait until towards the examination to start training their learners.
• It also became apparent that examiners do not take time to read the document ‘The Examiner’s Notes’, which
contains information on the procedure of conducting a Speaking test, as many examiners either skipped steps or
did not follow the time stipulated for the steps (please refer to page 4 of the document).
• Examiners are encouraged to have extra relevant questions to augment the prompts when needed. The sample
has two faces (a) all Speaking Cards should be represented (b) the range should be representative of the weak,
middling and the good. Also, a centre with one examiner submits 10 recordings and where there are two or more,
then each examiner submits five recordings.
• When a centre has few candidates, only one examiner should conduct the Speaking test even when two people
taught the candidates, so that we avoid situations where there are two examiners for only twenty candidates.
• In many instances, the FOUR steps for conducting the speaking tests were not followed. The steps are: Step 1:
Introduction; Step 2: Warm-up section; Step 3: Preparation and Step 4: Main part of the test. All these steps
should have been recorded. However, the majority of the examiners did not record the preparation period or it was
very brief.
• It is crucial to adhere to the guidelines outlined in the ‘Examiner’s Notes’ regarding the speaking test duration and
the time allocated for each of its four steps. Unfortunately, the warm-up segments varied in length, being either
excessively prolonged or too brief. Additionally, some of the conversations were often too short or at times too long,
which made it difficult for the examiner to assess the candidates accurately.
• In the places where speaking tests are conducted, examination conditions must prevail. Unnecessary background
noise must be eliminated. The examiner should ensure, prior to the recording, that all the items are placed securely
on the table, so as to avoid any disturbances while the speaking test is being conducted.
• It was evident that some examiners left the examination rooms during the speaking test. The examiner is not
permitted to leave the examination venue during a speaking test.
• The appropriate vocabulary for the speaking examination must be used: refer to learners, learner numbers,
speaking cards, etc. (See the Examiner’s Notes).
• Many examiners were unprepared and caught off guard when the conversations suddenly stopped or
when the prompts were exhausted. It is, thus, important to read widely about the topics and to do some
research beforehand in order to expand on the topics. An examiner should always be well-prepared,
display confidence and be in control when conducting the speaking tests.
• The warm-up section is meant to put candidates at ease, not agitate them, hence, the suggestion that the candidates
should talk about themselves. However, this does not mean that examiners should say to the candidates: Tell me
about yourself. Rather, they should ask questions that will enable candidates to talk about themselves e.g. tell
me about your hobbies and why you like them. In addition, examiners should avoid asking questions that may put
candidates in an awkward position e.g. who is your favourite teacher at this school?
• Please refrain from choosing topics such as school discipline improvement, gender-based violence knowledge-
based questions or defining terms. Some candidates may already feel nervous and introducing such topics can
heighten their anxiety.
• Examiners should avoid dominating the conversations by not discussing their own situations or experiences.
Instead, provide candidates with the opportunity to express their thoughts on the given topic.
• Examiners should avoid sounding bored, impatient or simply aggressive with learners. Remember they are under
pressure. Examiners should be friendly but formal at the same time.
• Let candidates finish speaking before interjecting to avoid interrupting their flow.
• Examiners should get deeper into individual prompts, connecting their questions to what candidates have already
shared. Remember, this is a conversation, not an exercise in setting questions.
• Examiners are encouraged to engage in a conversation with candidates to prevent long monologues. Fluency
should not be solely judged on speed; some speakers who take their time can be very effective. Examiners should
avoid awarding marks based solely on how quickly a learner speaks.
• Examiners are encouraged to support the weaker candidates during the Speaking Test by offering guidance. It is
crucial to show extra understanding towards these candidates, who face greater challenges. If a speaking topic
proves too difficult for them, consider moving into areas that are more productive. There is no need to stick rigidly
to the examiner prompts. Please be patient and remember that the focus is on spoken language.

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• Many examiners began each recording with details such as the centre number and name, examination, examiner’s
name, date, candidate’s number and name. However, the introductory statement is intended to be stated only
before the first recording to identify the centre. Examiners are advised to have a separate file for the introductory
statement and place it before the first recording. The Examiner should, therefore, begin the first recording for
each sample with a clear introduction, stating the name of centre, examination details, examiner and the date of
the examination. This should be a stand-alone track which should be recorded once. If there is more than one
examiner at the centre, each examiner records his/her individual introductory statement that accompanies his/
her sample recordings. All subsequent recordings should clearly identify each recorded candidate by stating the
name and the last four digits of the candidate number. The introductory statement should not be repeated for every
candidate.
• Please ensure that examiners choose the speaking cards and not the candidates.
• Examiners are strongly advised to study the speaking assessment criteria grid thoroughly before the examination
starts. It is important to understand the competencies required for each category to assess candidates accurately.
While the marking grid is lenient, assess candidates accordingly, avoiding undue leniency for higher-ability
candidates and excessive severity for lowerability candidates.
• PLEASE refer to the Speaking Assessment Criteria Grid, where each band has a maximum of 10 marks, adding up
to a total of 30. On assessment, some examiners appeared oblivious that there is a correlation among the bands
as they would skip bands and award Structure 4, Vocabulary 7 and Development and Fluency 9.
• It is recommended that when there is more than one examiner at a centre, conduct internal moderation and
standardization to ensure a consistent understanding of the assessment criteria grid. This ensures fair assessment
relative to other candidates at the centre, as the sample represents all candidates.
• Though the provided recordings generally had good sound quality, it is recommended to use a voice recorder
instead of a cell phone for better recording quality. Please use the USB provided by the Directorate of National
Examinations and Assessment (DNEA) for the recordings.
• The decline in the pronunciation skills of examiners is a serious issue. Several teachers struggled to pronounce
key words such as: ‘examiner’,‘careers’,‘conversation’ among others. As emphasized before, if an examiner
is unsure about the pronunciation of a word, it is recommended to consult a dictionary. This is crucial because
candidates tend to mimic the pronunciations of examiners.

During the process, several administrative issues were encountered, including the following:
• In certain instances, the Speaking Assessment Summary Form (SASF) did not accurately reflect the candidates’
names and numbers as they appeared on the Mark Sheet (MS1). It is imperative that this information be transcribed
correctly from the Mark Sheet to the SASF.
• There were cases where the SASF and/or Mark Sheets were not submitted as required.
• The SASFs were found to be untidy, with the use of correction fluid or initial information being written over.
• Some SASFs had incomplete columns, particularly the ‘Teaching Group’ column, which is crucial for identifying
examiners during the moderation process. Examiners must ensure their initials are included in this column and
that the form is completed fully. Some SASFs lacked the necessary signatures from the examiner and internal
moderator at the centre.
• Instances were noted where Mark Sheets were left blank, or marks were not entered in accordance with instructions.
Two copies of the Mark Sheet are required: one to be included with the USB and SASF, and the other to remain
at the centre.
• Discrepancies were observed between the marks recorded on the SASF and those on the Mark Sheets.
• In some cases, absent candidates were not properly indicated on the SASF and Mark Sheet. It is essential
that absent candidates be marked with “999” on the SASF, not ‘0’. It should be noted giving a (0) zero
signifies a complete lack of achievement in a given test and does not mean absent.
• There were occurrences of two candidates sharing the same candidate number or a single candidate being
assigned two different numbers.
• The required asterisk (*) was missing on the SASF next to the names of recorded candidates.
• Viruses were detected on the USB drives.
• The Oral/Communication Form was missing in certain submissions.
• Calculation errors were noted on the SASF.
• Marks were incorrectly transferred from the SASF to the MS1.
• Some centres submitted recordings of all candidates, rather than a representative sample from various mark
ranges, as per the guidelines in the Examiner’s Notes.
• In certain instances, marks were recorded on the Mark Sheets, but there were no corresponding marks on the
SASF, suggesting that the candidate did not participate in the speaking test. Additionally, some candidates were
marked as absent on the checklist, showed no marks on the SASF, but had marks on the MS1.
• The sample of candidates either included too few or too many recordings. For a centre with a single examiner,
the sample should consist of 10 recordings. For centres with two or more examiners, the sample should include 5
recordings per examiner, as outlined on the reverse side of the SASF.

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QUALITY OF RECORDINGS
• The overall sound quality of the recordings was generally satisfactory, though some were compromised due to
recorders being positioned too far from the candidates. It is strongly recommended to utilise a dedicated recorder
for speaking tests, as the continued use of cell phones by certain examiners has resulted in significant audibility
issues.
• In a few isolated instances, cell phones belonging to either examiners or candidates were left on and their sounds
were audible in the recordings. This is strictly prohibited.
• Background noises are a recurrent issue during the speaking test. Disturbances such as learners yelling, laughing,
and screaming, as well as cell phones ringing, teachers handling papers, or making scribbling sounds, were
commonly observed. Additional disruptions included the scraping of chairs on the floor and examiners moving
around or exiting the examination room during the test. Such issues are readily identifiable during the moderation
process.
• Some candidates’ conversations were abruptly cut off in the middle or towards the end. This is against the rules,
and spot checks at the centre should be conducted to prevent such occurrences.

Range of Sample
• Several examiners failed to adhere to the guidelines outlined in the ‘Examiner’s Notes’ concerning the range of
the sample. As a result, certain centres did not submit recordings that accurately represented the full spectrum
of abilities, with both the weakest and strongest candidates insufficiently represented. Conversely, some centres
submitted only the recordings of the highest and lowest performing candidates, neglecting to include samples from
average candidates.
• Additionally, some examiners failed to mark the samples recorded on the Speaking Assessment Summary Form
with an asterisk (*), as required. In particular centres, the names of candidates on the sample were not accurately
transcribed on the Oral Communication Form and in some instances, the required USB was not submitted at
all. Furthermore, a number of centres mistakenly included recordings of candidates who were not part of the
designated sample.

EXAMINING TECHNIQUES
• Although it was evident that many examiners demonstrated thorough preparation and posed relevant questions,
there were instances where long monologues were permitted and candidates did not receive adequate support
throughout the conversation. It is essential for examiners to avoid prolonged silences and ensure that they prompt
candidates regularly, asking relevant questions to maintain a fluid, conversational exchange.
• It was noted that some examiners whispered answers to candidates or excessively repeated questions, which led
to the test resembling a knowledge-based assessment rather than a speaking conversation. Additionally, certain
candidates provided identical responses to questions, giving the impression of memorised answers. Examiners
should be vigilant in fostering genuine conversation, rather than allowing rote responses.
• The practice of reading the Speaking Topic Card aloud without posing a question and allowing candidates to select
their own topics contradicts the instructions in the ‘Examiner’s Notes’. Furthermore, while the warm-up section
should ideally last 2-3 minutes to help candidates feel at ease, some examiners either rushed this section or
extended it unnecessarily. Effective use of this time has a significant impact on candidates’ performance during
the test.
• The preparation period (Step 3) should also span 2-3 minutes, but some examiners either omitted this step or
allowed excessively long preparation periods, disadvantaging candidates in the process. Similarly, the main
portion of the speaking test, which should last 6-9 minutes, was sometimes rushed by examiners, again to the
detriment of the candidates.
• Examiners must refrain from asking multiple questions at once, particularly with weaker candidates and should
avoid completing candidates’ sentences or statements. In certain instances, some examiners penalised slower-
speaking candidates or awarded high marks to fast speakers without adequately considering the structure and
content of their responses. Careful, attentive listening is critical when awarding marks.
• Inconsistencies in marking according to the criteria grid were observed, indicating that some examiners may not
have sufficiently studied the speaking assessment criteria. Additionally, some examiners chose topics to which
candidates, particularly weaker learners, could not relate. Understanding the candidates’ interests during the
warm-up section is essential to ensure that the conversation remains relevant.
• Several examiners did not allow candidates sufficient time to express their opinions and, in some cases, dominated
the conversation, which hindered accurate assessment. Sticking rigidly to prompts without taking into account
individual candidates’ abilities or familiarity with the topic was also noted. Instances of impatience, particularly with
weaker candidates, led to discourteous behaviour, such as insults and rudeness. Examiners should also avoid
asking sensitive or overly personal questions.
• Pronunciation and grammatical issues were evident, likely stemming from insufficient preparation on the part of
some examiners. It is crucial to address candidates by their first names, as is customary in their school environment,
and avoid using titles such as Mr or Ms or endearments like “sweetheart” or “darling,” which are considered
inappropriate.

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Recommendations
• Examiners must be thoroughly prepared to enable candidates to perform at their best during the Speaking Test.
This preparation involves not only familiarising themselves with the topics but also conducting research to ensure
accuracy, mastering correct pronunciations and crafting well-structured questions. Examiners should be able to
expand on questions when necessary and respond appropriately to candidates’ answers, facilitating a dynamic
conversation.
• Strict adherence to the instructions in the Examiner’s Notes is essential, particularly in conducting and recording
the warm-up section as well as the preparation period. Examiners should prepare engaging, relevant and
grammatically correct questions to encourage thoughtful responses from candidates.
• It is crucial to remember that the Speaking Test assesses spoken language proficiency rather than subject
knowledge. If a candidate struggles with a chosen topic, the examiner should feel free to shift to a more appropriate
or productive aspect within the same theme. There is flexibility in deviating from the prompts on the Speaking Card
to ensure an effective and fair assessment.
• Active listening is a vital aspect of the Speaking Test. Examiners should engage candidates in genuine conversations,
avoiding any impression of boredom or disinterest in the recordings. This will ensure a more accurate reflection of
the candidate’s abilities.
• Speaking slowly should not be seen as a sign of weakness. Examiners must remain objective and not allow the
pace of speech to unduly influence their assessment. Candidates who may not speak continuously but demonstrate
a rich vocabulary should not be regarded as weak or average.
• Examiners should carefully consider the selection of topics, particularly when working with weaker candidates.
Knowledge of the learners’ strengths and weaknesses allows examiners to choose appropriate topics that will give
each candidate the best opportunity to perform.
• When recording the sample, ensure that all provided speaking topics are included to guarantee a comprehensive
representation of each candidate’s abilities.
• Examiners should feel confident in awarding higher marks when appropriate, especially for weaker learners. The
marking grid is designed to be lenient and it is essential that examiners use it to its full potential.
• To ensure consistency in the marking process, examiners must thoroughly study the Speaking Assessment Criteria
Grid before the examination. Marks for vocabulary, structure and fluency should align and reflect the candidate’s
overall performance. Consider using the same marking grid for speaking activities from Grade 10 onwards to
familiarise candidates with the criteria early, facilitating a smoother transition to the Speaking Test procedures.
• Part-time tutors should ensure that candidates are well-acquainted with the speaking test process, either during
class time or through holiday workshops. It is essential that part-time candidates receive the same information and
preparation as full-time candidates. Tutors are responsible for ensuring this consistency.
• Examiners at Part-time Centres must uphold the same standards and quality of work as those at Full-time Centres
to maintain uniformity in the assessment process.
• Examiners and candidates should be instructed to refrain from using foul language during the interviews, as such
language is inappropriate and offensive. Examiners should also avoid using inappropriate language.
• Emphasise to candidates that the total mark for the English Second Language Speaking Test is out of 30. This
information is clearly indicated at the top of the Mark Sheet on the USB provided by the Directorate of National
Examinations and Assessment (DNEA), and candidates should be made aware of it.
• Following each annual examination training session in each region, the Head of Examinations must ensure that
all teachers are informed about the correct procedures for completing and submitting documents for the NSSC
external examination. The Head of Department is responsible for verifying that all submitted documents are
completed accurately and in accordance with the required standards.

Please Note:

1. Each centre should carefully select and record 10 candidates to ensure a well-balanced sample, ideally
consisting of 3 top performers, 4 average candidates, and 3 from the lower range. In centres with multiple
examiners, the sample should be comprised of 2 of the best, 1 average and 2 of the weakest candidates.

2. It is strongly recommended, where feasible, to adhere to the directive in the ‘Examiner’s Notes’ by assigning
only one examiner per centre. The use of multiple examiners should be avoided, particularly in full-time
centres, unless the candidate load is too large for a single examiner to manage effectively.

3. In larger schools with several English as a Second Language teachers, the number of teachers contributing
to the sample should be limited. Ideally, 2 or 3 teachers should be chosen as examiners each year,
rotating them annually to ensure a broad range of assessments.

4. Examiners must ensure that the names recorded on the Oral Communication Form correspond exactly
with those of the candidates featured in the sample. Rigorous internal moderation and administrative
checks are essential to maintain accuracy.

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5. When more than one examiner is involved at a centre, each examiner should organise his/her speaking test
recordings into separate folders to facilitate the moderation process. During the introductory statement,
only the examiner responsible for the recordings in a given folder should be identified on the USB.

COMMENTS ON THE INDIVIDUAL SPEAKING CARDS:

Speaking Card A – Communication:
Prompt 1 was a challenging card for most candidates especially the weaker ones. A few candidates could not even
pronounce the word “conversation.” Their biggest challenge was their failure to understand the meaning of the word
communication. Some examiners worsened the situation by asking candidates to start a conversation. Most candidates,
however, could not differentiate a good conversation from a bad one. The majority of the candidates responded well to
the first prompt with the majority giving details of what it was about and what led to that conversation. Some went on to
specify whether it was face-to-face or telephonic/online.

Prompt 2, most candidates struggled to think of different ways in which young people communicate, especially those
whose examiners failed to simplify the prompts for them. Candidates in urban areas and those with smart phones would
at least talk about the different applications they use for communication purposes, as well as state which ones were
their favourites. However, those from the rural set ups could not fully explore the prompt due to lack of exposure. Most
candidates did not seem to know how adults communicate among themselves. Very few spoke about the issue of letter-
writing and face-to-face communication. Some candidates could not explain why adults and the youth seemed to favour
different ways of communication. A few explained that adults favoured face-to-face communication as they hardly got
the chance to socialise or they tend to discuss issues that need concentration. A few learners talked about the changes
in communication nowadays compared to the olden days. They talked about people using smoke and drum signals long
ago as a means of communication.

Prompt 3 was an easy prompt for most candidates as they could easily relate to it. Most candidates said that they found
it difficult to start a conversation with people they did not know as they were afraid of how people would react.

Prompt 4 was a bit problematic for most candidates as some did not even know how social media affects communication.
Some candidates did not know the meaning of social media and as such, could not elaborate more on it. However, the
stronger candidates could explain the impact social media has had on the younger people in particular. The weaker
candidates highlighted the fact that social media makes it less likely for people to talk to people around them. A few said
social media has resulted in cyberbullying among young people.

Prompt 5 was a challenging prompt. Most candidates, because they did not understand what is meant by communication,
could not satisfactorily respond to the prompt. They felt that animals could not communicate since they do not have
verbal means of communication. The stronger candidates were able to relate to their home situation and explained how
they communicate with their pets at home.

Speaking Card B – Shopping:

This was the most used Speaking Card in general amongst the examiners as it was relevant to both genders. The
candidates, in most cases, were able to answer the prompts fairly well. However, they failed to develop the prompts
successfully and were not very creative in certain cases. For example, the location of the shops, the description, price
etc of commodities sold in specific shops were lacking. Responses were very short and detail was limited which forced
the examiner to put more effort into encouraging the learners to respond at length.

The word “often” in prompt three made it difficult for the weaker candidates to answer because they could not comprehend
the meaning of the word and as a result this prompt was poorly answered. Many candidates could not distinguish
between the local shops in their neighbourhood and large shopping malls due to the lack of exposure. This was evident
amongst candidates coming from the schools in more remote areas of the country.

Online shopping also proved to be a very challenging prompt because candidates could not justify why they had taken
a certain standpoint because of the lack of knowledge in terms of this relatively new and unfamiliar mode of shopping.
Many of the weaker candidates misunderstood the word ‘online’ and interpreted it as being a line or a queue which forms
at a checkout or pay point in a store or shop.

Speaking Card C – Parties:

Stronger candidates used a broader range of vocabulary and more complex sentence structures to describe different
types of parties e.g. cultural, birthday and formal parties. Candidates from urban centres performed better than those
from remote areas probably because of exposure issues. Examiners and candidates should refrain from discussions
where the candidates are involved in alcohol and violence. Stronger candidates elaborated on the planning, atmosphere
or social aspects and discussed why parties are significant in their daily/social lives. They contributed original ideas.
Some candidates misinterpreted the topic and referred to political parties and this limited their ideas and thoughts. The
words/concepts of neighbourhood and uninvited guests were challenging to some candidates. The weaker candidates
found it difficult to list or mention different kinds of parties that are popular in their neighbourhoods. This prompted

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the examiners to elaborate on the prompt. Some failed to elaborate on how people organise parties. Some of these
candidates struggled to elaborate why they enjoyed the parties. Overall, candidates related to the prompt on music and
most singled out Amapiano as their favourite genre of music.

Speaking Card D – Daily Life:

Candidates found this topic a little challenging. Candidates were required to speak about their lives on a daily basis.
The prompts were easily available but some examiners did not understand what was required of them. Examiners
should ask questions that make it easy for candidates to gain a grasp of what the topic really is about. The Speaking
card was a little difficult on average.

Speaking Card E – Making Decisions:

Candidates were expected to look at challenges they face on a daily basis and what they do to solve them. This was
the least favourite topic for examiners. Stronger candidates could respond at length while weaker candidates found it
challenging even to understand the concept.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Thoroughly study the Examiner’s Notes: Examiners should familiarise themselves with the Examiner’s Notes,
studying all details related to conducting speaking tests. They should avoid deviating from the guidelines outlined
in this document. PLEASE TAKE NOTE: Prepare well in advance and refrain from practices not endorsed by the
Examiner’s Notes.
• Examiners should carefully examine the speaking assessment criteria grid, understanding the competencies
associated with each category (band). It is important to recognise the clear correlation between the different bands
on the marking grid to ensure accurate assessment. There should be consistency across all categories when
awarding marks.
• It is crucial for the examiners to study the speaking cards in advance to acquaint themselves with the prompts.
Gather additional information on the topics and devise extra questions related to the given theme. Please make
sure that you have a solid grasp of the meanings of all words and terminologies used in the various speaking cards.
• Use the correct forms and understand how to complete them accurately. Familiarise yourself with the Mark Sheet
(utilizing ‘999’ for absent candidates), Speaking Assessment Summary Form (SASF), and the Oral/ Communication
Form. This ensures proper documentation and submission of required information. The Examiners should put their
initials in the column for Teaching Group/set on the SASF for easy identification. The Internal Moderators must also
write their names and sign on the space provided on the SASF.
• Administrative checking at the centre must be performed to detect and rectify any addition errors or potential issues
with transferring marks incorrectly to the Mark Sheet.
• It is VERY IMPORTANT to maintain the same order of names on MS1 and on SASF.
• Use an asterisk (*) on the SASF to identify candidates whose interviews are part of the sample on the USB, aiding
clear distinction and reference.
• Opt for a single examiner per centre whenever possible to uphold fairness and consistency in the assessment
process.
• It is very important to arrange internal moderation sessions where there are multiple examiners to apply a
standardised assessment approach.
• Examiners are advised to refrain from including learners with speech impairments in the sample to ensure fairness
and avoid putting specific learners at a disadvantage during recording.
• It is strongly recommended for the Head of Department (HOD) responsible for English as a Second Language
or Subject Head to spearhead the discussion of the Examiner’s Report at a subject meeting before the speaking
examination for collective insight and coordination.

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ENTREPRENEURSHIP
6146
Paper 1

SECTION A

1. AOA: Define the following terms:

(a) Research
Comment on specific question:
The question was fairly answered.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
The candidates did not experience a lot of problems to answer this question. The majority of candidates
scored 1 mark.
Wrong answers:
Candidates did not give the full definition with key words. Some candidates wrote methodical instead of
methodical investigation. The key words are: methodical investigation and to discover facts.
Correct answers:
Is a methodical investigation into a subject (1) in order to discover facts. (1) [2]

(b) Negotiation.
Comment on specific question:
The question was fairly well answered.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
The candidates did not experience a lot of problems answering this question. The majority of candidates
scored 1 mark.
Wrong answers:
Candidates did not give the full definition with key words. Some candidates were repeating the word
”negotiation” in their definition. The key words are: reaching an agreement, discussion and compromise
Correct answers:
It is the process in which conflicting parties (1) aim to reach an agreement/common goal. (1)
The reaching of an agreement (1) through discussion and compromise/give and take (1) [2]

2. AOA: State four stages in the origin of entrepreneurship.

Comment on specific question:
The question was well answered.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
The candidates did not experience a lot of problems answering this question. The majority of candidates
scored 4 marks.
Wrong answers:
Some candidates did not add the word, ”perspective”, as some wrote ”economist perspective” and
”entrepreneur perspective” instead of ”economic perspective” and ”entrepreneurship perspective.”
Correct answers:
- The Economic associate’s perspective
- The Behaviourists’ perspective
- The Management Science perspective
- The Social Perspective
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- The Entrepreneurship perspective Any four [4]

3. AOA, AOB: Describe random input as a technique to enhance creativity. Use an example to support
your answer.
Comment on specific question:
The question was fairly well answered.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
The candidates did not experience a lot of problems answering this question. The majority of candidates scored
1 mark.
Wrong answers:
Most of the candidates are giving the description of problem reversal as well as discontinuity principles instead of
random inputs. Some gave the correct definition but could not give a correct example.
Correct answers:
- Is a technique to stimulate creative thinking processes through the development of words, pictures and
images.
- For example: Pick up words from a box randomly and come up with any business idea at that moment you
got the word.
Consider learners ideas
AOA: 1 mark
AOB: 2 marks [3]

4. AOA: State four examples of bad customer care.

(b) AOA: List two institutions at which Caroline would have registered her enterprise.
Comment on specific question:
The question was generally well answered as most of the candidates could score 2 marks.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
The assessment objective was clear; candidates are expected to list.
Wrong answers:
- Bank of Namibia
- NAMFISA
Correct answers:
- Ministry of Industrialisation, Trade and SME development/BIBA
- Local Authorities (municipalities/village councils/town councils) or Traditional Authorities
- Social Security Commission
- NAMRA/Directorate Inland Revenue Any two [2]

(c) AOB: Explain the form of funding used for Caroline’s enterprise.
Comment on specific question:
The question was fairly well answered. Few candidates could score full marks in this question.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
Most of the candidates confused the question with the type of capital, thus lost marks.
Wrong answers:
- Working capital
- External capital
- Borrowed capital
- Retained profit
- Human capital
- Physical capital
- Financial capital
Correct answers:
Own capital/Internal capital/Own Fund/Own Savings (1) – is the money invested in the enterprise (1) by the
owner (1) [3]

(d) AOA, AOB: Identify two different types of capital. Use an example from the case study to
support each type.
Comment on specific question:
The question was fairly well answered, however, few candidates could score full marks.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
Most of the candidates failed to answer this question correctly. They could not identify the type of capital,
instead provided an example from the case study.
Wrong answers:
- Working capital
- Own and borrowed capital

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Correct answers:
Financial capital (1) – She invested N$ 700 (1)
Human capital (1) – She is an expert at running errands (experience) (1)
– She write books (education) (1)
– She employed six workers to assist her (1)
Physical capital (1) – Truck that she bought (1)
AOA: 2 marks
AOB: 2 marks [4]

(e) AOA: Explain two benefits of Caroline’s enterprise to society.

Comment on specific question:
This question was fairly well answered, however, most of the candidates could only score 2 out of 4 marks.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
The assessment objective was clear and it expected candidates to recall their knowledge.
Wrong answers:
- The benefits of Caroline’s enterprise to the nation and to the individual (entrepreneur)
Correct answers:
- People do not need to stress running errands.
- Create jobs: the enterprise will create employment for the society.
- Develop entrepreneurial idea: people may start businesses based on her business
- Transfer skills to the farmers through her books.
- Donations: her enterprise may donate money to charities that improve the living conditions of community
members.
or
- Sponsorships: the business may sponsor individuals, for example, it may fund a child orphanage.
or
- Scholarships: her business may give money to less privileged learners for studying.
or
- Philanthropy: her business may practise what we call social entrepreneurship, through social welfare
programmes, through which they give back to the community.
- Her business may develop society by bringing services closer to the people.
- Improve the living standard: when employees earn an income, they will be able to afford luxury products
- Reduce poverty: when employees earn an income, they will be able to afford basic needs.
Any 2 x 2 marks [4]

(f) AOC: Suggest four businesses you could start based on Caroline’s farming books
entrepreneurial idea.
Comment on specific question:
The question was fairly well answered, but many candidates interpreted the question wrongly, thus, could
not score full marks.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
Although the question referred to businesses one could start based on Caroline’s farming books
entrepreneurial idea, many candidates gave answers based on the model of entrepreneurship and types of
business.
Wrong answers:
- Steps in the model of entrepreneurship
- Types of businesses
- To sell animals (should be livestock)
Correct answers:
- Selling livestock food

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- Open a foreign exchange centre
- Sell livestock
- Sell overalls and safety boots
- Courier service enterprise
- Start a language editing company
Any four [4]
Consider learners’ ideas

(g) AOD: Advise Caroline on one way that she can protect the entrepreneurial idea in her farming books.
Comment on specific question:
This question was fairly well answered. Only a few candidates could score 2 out of 3 marks.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
Candidates could advise on the way that she can protect her farming books but they could not justify.
Instead, they defined the means of protecting an idea.
Wrong answers:
- Patent
- Confidentiality clause
- Institutions where enterprise should be registered and purpose of registration
Correct answers:
Trademark
Trademark will protect the brand of the books such as a logo
Copyright
She can have the legal right of producers of intellectual property or publishers to control the use and
reproduction of her original works
Point (1) + Dev (2) [3]
Business right clause
- to prevent employees from copying her ideas. (2)

(h) AOD: Analyse whether job production or mass production is the best production system to
use when Caroline will publish her books. Justify your choice.
Comment on specific question:
This question was poorly answered as many candidates could not score a mark on the question. However, a
few candidates could score 2 out of 4 marks. Some candidates also failed to read the question fully as they
referred to mass media and job creation.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
Most of the candidates seem to lack knowledge of the production system. Most of the candidates could
indicate which production method is the best to use but failed to analyse by looking at the advantages and
disadvantages.
Wrong answers:
- Advantages and disadvantages of mass media
- Advantages and disadvantages of job creation
Correct answers:
Mass production is the most suitable production system to produce books.(1)
Reasons:
- Makes a high number of books of the same kind
- The books are identical
- Low level of production cost

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- Few workers will be required
- High level of efficiency Any three [4]
Consider learner’s ideas

Job production - produce a single product according to the client’s specification

Reasons
- High cost of production
- Need skilled labour
- It takes long to be completed

(i) AOD: Evaluate whether Caroline’s enterprise is successful or not.

Comment on specific question:
This question was well answered. Most of the candidates could score full marks.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
Few candidates could not make a decision whether Caroline’s enterprise was successful or not, thus lost full
marks.
Wrong answers:
- Success does not depend on gender
- Both men and women can be successful
- Use a business plan
- Do a market research
Correct answers:
Her enterprise is successful because: (1)
- recently bought a truck worth N$ 300 000 (1)
- recruited six employees to assist her with errands. (1)
- She has international clients (1)
- She is trustworthy and that makes her flourish (1)
- She is an expert at scouting the best quality cattle (1)
- She has a good record keeping system (1) [3]

[30]

13 A young business management graduate has ventured into the manufacturing industry, turning
thorns into toothpicks.

(a) AOB: Identify two examples of electronic marketing strategies used by Embula.
Comment on specific question:
This question was well answered; most candidates could score full marks.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
The assessment objective was clear so learners could recall knowledge and apply.
Wrong answers: advertising, distribution, mass media and social media
Correct answers:
Facebook
WhatsApp [2]

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(b) AOB: Describe one component of the marketing mix mentioned in the case study.
Comment on specific question:
The question was fairly well answered; candidates could only score a mark for identifying the marketing mix
but could not describe how it was used in the case study.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
All the components of the marketing mix were in the case study, making application difficult to assess.
Wrong answers: Press, Person, Process
Correct answers:
Product: anything that is touchable and can be exchanged for money/selling toothpicks
Price: the amount of money that customers will pay for goods or services/selling a pack of toothpicks for
N$7.50
Promotion: form of communication used to inform, persuade or remind people about product or services/
she advertises on whatsapp and facebook
Place: direct channel/offer services directly to the clients Any one explained x 2 [2]

(c) AOC: Explain one characteristic that has made Embula a successful entrepreneur.
Comment on specific question:
The question was fairly well answered, as many candidates interpreted the question wrongly defining the
characteristic instead. There was no application to the case study, thus, they could not score full marks.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
Candidates were explaining the characteristic according to the case study, however, they failed to analyse.
Wrong answers: General definition of characteristics, not applicable to the case study.
Correct answers:
Information seeking/opportunity seeking (1): read an article in which former industrialisation and trade
minister spoke about needs. (2)
Creativity/innovativeness (1): she changed camel thorns into toothpicks (2)
Risk taking (1): she took a risk to start a new toothpick enterprise
Goal setting (1): her goal is to have toothpicks on every dining table.
Persistent/perseverance/determination: not giving up even though she had financial difficulties.
Problem solving: she needed a place to rent, therefore she negotiated with the landlord.
Any one of the above points
[3]

(d) AOD: Unemployment is an opportunity for job creation.

Discuss to what extent you agree with this statement or not. Relate your answer to the case study.
Comment on specific question:
The question was fairly well answered. The majority failed to apply their knowledge.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
The Assessment objective was correct.
Wrong answers: Learners did not indicate whether they agree or not.
Correct answers:
I agree with this statement, because when you are unemployed, you will be forced to come up with an
enterprise to earn an income.
Embula started a toothpick business after she could not find a job.
1 mark: decision
1 x 2 marks: examples/explanation based on Embula [3]

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(e) AOA: Explain two ways culture could be a barrier to creativity, in starting an enterprise such
as making toothpicks.
Comment on specific question:
Very poorly answered.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
Clear assessment objective.
Wrong answers: Candidates mentioned examples of cultural beliefs in general, but could not explain how
they hinder the entrepreneur from starting an enterprise.
Correct answers:
- Namibian culture has characteristics that at some point influence creative development negatively
especially for Embula who is a lady.
- Some cultures do not buy toothpicks, therefore, some entrepreneurs might be discouraged from
producing toothpicks.
- In some cultures it is a taboo to touch a camel thorn tree, therefore, it will be a challenge to find the raw
materials.
- She has to complete all phases of education before she can start an enterprise.
- Because her enterprise is something new, culture will assume that which is unknown is unsafe.
- She will be discouraged by the fact that people believe that you always have to be practical and think
economically before you generate ideas.
Consider learners’ ideas Any two 2 x 2 marks [4]

(f) AOC: Explain two ways that Embula can practice to act in an environmentally sustainable manner.
Comment on specific question:
Most of the candidates could not answer this question at all.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
Wrong assessment keyword was used, confusing the candidates.
Wrong answers: Social responsibility, environmental sustainability, campaigns, lead by example
Correct answers:
- She should plant more camel thorn trees
- She can import raw materials
- She can recycle toothpicks
- She can look for a substitute raw material, instead of using thorns
Consider learner’s ideas Any two 2 x 2 marks [4]

(g) AOA: State two government incentives Embula can benefit from to support her new enterprise.
Comment on specific question:
The question was well answered by most candidates.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
Clear assessment objective.
Wrong answers: Team Namibia, paying tax to the government, Bank loans, Bank of Namibia, Finance
Minister
Correct answers:
- Industrial revenue bonds
- Tax refund/incentives
- Industrial enterprise Direct/subsidized loans
- Site advantage
- Public utility rate break (water, electricity)

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- City projects/Infrastructure improvements
- Subsidies
- Economic Processing Zones (EPZ)
- Low interest loans
- Tax rebates
- Government grants
- Collateral free loans
- Education and training
- Tax exemption
- Government support structures/Networking support structures
Consider learners’ ideas Any two [2]

(h) AOC: Use your entrepreneurial knowledge to assist Embula to complete the following financial
components of her business plan:
Comment on specific question:
Fairly well answered but most of the candidates could not score full marks.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
Clear assessment objective
Wrong answers: N$3 000-N$5 700 or N$3 000÷ N$7,50
Correct answers:
Calculate her monthly profit
Income – Expenses = Profit
N$ 22 500 (1) - (N$ 10 000 + N$ 5 700) (1)
N$ 22 500 - N$ 15 700
N$ 6 800 (1) [3]

(i) AOD: Suggest three questions which Embula could use in an interview for her market research
to establish if her toothpicks had market potential.
Comment on specific question:
Fairly well answered as most candidates could score two out of three.
Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
Assessment objective was clear.
Wrong answers: Candidate asking: When did you start your marketing? What products do you offer?
Correct answers:
- How much are you willing to pay for a pack of toothpicks?
- Where do you buy your toothpicks?
- How often do you use toothpicks?
- Do you prefer peppermint flavoured toothpicks?
- Do you want to buy toothpicks in bulk or small scale?
- Would you like to re-use your toothpicks?
Consider learners’ answers Any three x 3 [3]

(j) AOD: Evaluate whether the negotiation between Embula and the landlord was effective or not.
Comment on specific question:
The question was fairly well answered.

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Problems experienced in the Assessment objective:
Candidates did not evaluate; they only applied what was in the case study.
Wrong answers: Writing it was not effective, while supporting it with positive views.
Correct answers:
It was effective because (1)
- Embula established that the essential elements of the negotiation process were followed.
- Both parties were able to reach an agreement.
- The rent was reduced by 15%.
- It was a win-win situation for both parties. Any three [4]

[30]

[100]

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6146
Paper 2

General comments

There was an overall improvement in performance of task 1 this year. Most of the candidates have completed task 1
and there was a clear evidence that teachers have guided the candidates correctly. However, there are still centers that
are struggling with task 1.

Task 1: FINDING YOURSELF

1 Creative test tool

A. Assessment objective C: Analysis (2marks)
Creativity test tool
Comment on specific question:
Most of the candidates have included the correct creativity tool with task 1. Very few candidates that did not
provide a signature/date or left out the comments.
HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:
Sheet scored, dated and signed: 1 mark
A suitable comment: 1 mark
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
Tool included but candidates left out one of the following:
Signature, date or comment
Few comments were not aligned to the scored
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Some teacher awarded full marks just because the tool was included and did not verify if the tool was signed,
dated or if there were comments.

INCORRECT
Example: Score: 37 Signature: SN Date: 20.10.24
Comment:
I am unsure of my creative talent. Maybe I have not been given opportunities to be creative, or maybe I am
convinced that I am simply not a creative person.
(the above example is incorrect because the score does not match the comment, the candidate will score 1/2)

CORRECT
Example: Score: 36 Signature: SN Date: 20.10.24
Comment:
I am unsure of my creative talent. Maybe I have not been given opportunities to be creative, or maybe I am
convinced that I am simply not a creative person.
(the above example is incorrect because the score does not match the comment, the candidate will score 2/2)

B. Assessment Objective A: Knowledge and Understanding (8 marks)

Problem reversal definition
Comment on specific question:
Most of the candidates were awarded full marks for this question, however, some candidates omitted the
definition completely and did not score marks.

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HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:
A technique creative thinking processes (2 marks)
By forcing one to see things backwards, inside out and upside down (2 marks),
Thereby enabling one to analyse the whole concept or problem (2marks)
Choose the best solution (2 marks)

Problems experienced and wrong answers:

Candidates did not give the prescribed definition.
Candidates gave some random definitions and left out key words, thus, lost some marks.

What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Teachers were not sure where to award the marks and just awarded full marks for any definition that a candidate
wrote.

2. Assessment Objective A: Knowledge and understanding (4 marks)

A. A general outline of the ways in which the challenges will be solved or met.
Comment on specific question:
This question was well answered; most candidates scored full marks because they wrote the general outline as
it should be and did not leave out any steps. Very few candidates did not score full marks as they left out some
steps or omitted the general outline.

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

State the challenge (1 mark)
State the problem (p) (1 mark)
Make assumptions of what caused the problem (a) (1mark)
Reverse the assumptions (r) (1 mark)
Explain how each reversal can be accomplished (e) (2)
Choose one and explain how it can solve the problem (s) (2)
Conclusion on new ideas that are suggested (c) (2)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
Some candidates completely omitted the general outline.
Some candidates left out one or two steps.
Candidates wrote some steps incorrectly

What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Teachers did not read all the steps and awarded full marks while some of the steps were written incorrectly.

B. Assessment Objective B: Application and investigation (6marks)

A general outline of the ways in which the challenges will be solved or met.
Comment on specific question:
This question was well answered; most candidates scored full marks because they wrote the general outline as
it should be and did not leave out any steps. Very few candidates did not score full marks as they left out some
steps or omitted the general outline.

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

Application of how each reversal can be accomplished (e) (2 marks)

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Choose one and apply how it can solve the challenge (s) (2 marks)
Conclusion on the application on the new ideas that are suggested (c) (2marks)

Problems experienced and wrong answers:

Some candidates completely omitted the general outline
Candidates left out one or two steps.
Candidates wrote some steps incorrectly.

Incorrect:
Especially the second one, some candidates wrote (Choose how each reversal can be accomplished, or choose
one and explain how each research can solve the problem.)
Correct:
Choose one and explain how it can solve the problem (s) (2)

What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Teachers did not read all the steps and awarded full marks while some of the steps were written incorrectly.
Marking the problem reversal.

Comment on specific question:

Assessment Objective A: Knowledge and Understanding (1 mark)

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

Stating of the challenge (1 mark)

Problems experience and wrong answers:

Some candidates choose their own challenge and not the one in the syllabus, for example writing about their own
challenges.
How to stop rape cases in society, (this challenge is not as per the list below).
Some candidates chose the challenges from the syllabus but they changed them in their own words.

Incorrect
For example: How to get learners to pass some of their subjects.
Correct
How to get learners to pass all their subjects.

What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Most teachers were awarding marks to wrong and own challenge.

The correct challenges are:

a) How to boost one’s self-esteem
b) Having a place to complete homework
c) How to get learners to pass all their subjects.
d) How to stop gender based violence in your society
e) How to reduce noise pollution from shebeens in residential areas

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f) How to enhance entrepreneurial thinking in the community
g) How to curb corruption through accountability
h) How to make the community aware of a greener environment
i) How to make Namibia self-sufficient with food provision.
j) Candidates are not passing all their subjects.

3. Assessment Objectives B: Application and Investigation (1 mark)

The challenge was stated
HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:
The problem was applied in a detailed context: 1 mark.

Problems experienced and wrong answers:

Candidates struggled to present a relevant problem to the challenge
Once a candidate has identified the wrong problem the challenge is also wrong.
Challenge: How to get learners to pass all their subjects.

Incorrect problem: Learners are not doing their homework. (this is wrong)
Correct: Learners are failing all their subjects.

What teachers are doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Most teachers were awarding marks to wrong and own challenge.

4. Assessment objective C: Analysis (5 marks)

Comment on specific question:
Most candidates scored full marks, however, some candidates lost marks because their assumptions were not
relevant to the problem / challenge.
Example:
Problem: Learners are failing all their subjects.
Incorrect assumption: couples are always fighting.
Correct assumption: Learners are not doing their homework.
HOW QUESITON IS MARKED:
(Give five analyzed why there is a problem: five assumptions) [five x 1]

Problems experienced and wrong answers:

Candidates did not come up with relevant assumptions that caused the problem
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Most teachers awarded marks for incorrect assumptions.

5. Assessment Objective B: Application and Investigation (5 marks)

Comment on specific question:
Most candidates scored full marks for this question, although some candidates struggled to reverse the
assumptions,
HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:
(Change the given assumptions to positives) [Five x 1]

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Problems experienced and wrong answers:
Candidates did not come up with relevant assumptions that cause the problem
Correct assumption: Learners are not doing their homework.
Incorrect reversal: Learners are attending classes.
Correct reversal: Learners are doing their homework.

What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Most teachers awarded marks to incorrect reversal.

6. Assessment Objective B: Application and Investigation (5 marks)

Comment on specific question:
Most candidates scored full marks for this question, although some candidates struggled to reverse the
assumptions,
HOW QUESITON IS MARKED:
(Change the given assumptions to positives) [Five x 1]
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
2 marks
Candidates were in some cases explaining the assumptions instead providing the reversals.
Some explanations were not relevant to the problem
Some explanations were not detailed, as very short points were given
Reversal: Learners are doing their homework
Incorrect explanation: Learners are not doing their homework.
Correct explanation: The management of the school develops a homework policy, that gives clear guidelines of
the consequences of not doing homework.
How it should be done
Candidate should explain how each reversal can be accomplished, so what must be done to reach the reversal.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Teachers did not read thoroughly and just awarded marks, even-through the candidates did not really explain how
the reversal can be accomplished.
NB: It is a two or zero questions

7. Assessment Objective D: Evaluation, Judgement and Decision making (6 marks)

Comment on specific question:
Most candidates scored full marks in this question. Some candidates lost out on marks because they chose an
assumption instead of a reversal.
HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:
One of the reversals was chosen and evaluated on how it can solve the challenges.
Choose one: the reversed statement (1x2 marks)
Explanation of at least two ways (2x2 marks)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
Candidates were again explaining the reversal instead of explaining how one of the reversals will solve the
problem.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Teachers were awarding marks even though the candidates were only explaining the reversal, not stating how it
could solve the challenge.

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8.
C. Assessment objective C: Analysis (6 marks)
Assessment Objective D: Evaluation, Judgment and Decision making (6marks)
A written paragraph that analyses the likely impact of implementing the new ideas suggested.
Comment on specific question:
Most candidates could score a maximum of 6 marks because they only explained, the old ideas as already
explained at the part of; “An explanation was given of how each reversal can be accomplished.” Candidates did
not discuss any new ideas.
Example of new ideas
Point: Well-equipped computer lab (two marks)
Development: a well-equipped computer lab will assist learners with searching for information on different
subject related aspects, which will enable them to gain knowledge in all their subject areas. This will result in
learners passing all their subjects. (two marks)
HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:
3 Points 6 marks (Analysis)
3 Development 6 marks ((evaluation of the three new ideas) [three x2]
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Teachers awarded full marks even though the candidates only repeated what they have already discussed at the
explanation of the reversals.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS:

• Teachers should explain to the candidates that they can only use the challenges that are stated in the Entrepreneurship
syllabus page 22.
• It is compulsory to attach a completed creativity tool, so teachers must make sure candidates have signed, dated
and written their appropriate comment before awarding them the 2 marks.
• Guide the candidates the correct definition of problem reversal so they can score full marks.
• Make sure that the GENERAL LAYOUT is written in the correct sequence and no step is left out.
• Guide the candidates in the construction of what the problem is to make sure it is relevant to the challenge.
• Assumptions should be short and to the point/ relevant to the problem.
• Discourage candidates from making lengthy assumptions, because they find it hard to reverse them.
• The reversals are supposed to be exact opposite of the assumptions.
• Teachers should guide the candidates to give an explanation of each REVERSAL to be accomplished so make sure
candidates are not explaining the ASSUMPTIONS.
• Once the candidates have chosen one reversal they should explain how THAT reversal will solve the challenge and
not just explain the reversal again.
• Lastly, in the paragraph candidates can discuss the old ideas but they will only score up to 6 marks. In order to
score the 12 marks, candidates should come up with 3 new ideas and explain how those new ideas will solve the
challenge.

TASK 2

Comment on specific question:
Well answered. Most learners could provide fully developed reasons for choosing the most viable idea.
Assessment Objective D: Evaluation, Judgment and Decision making (10 marks)

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

The motivation/justification why the specific idea was chosen (the positive aspects/benefits and the negative
aspects/challenges).
Use the number 1 ranked
Make an evaluation on why choice was made. (5 x 2 marks)
Basic evaluation: 1 mark
More detailed evaluation: 2 marks
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Problems experienced and wrong answers
Few learners lost marks because they could not provide reasons for the viable ideas.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Mistakes were so minimal in this part compared to previous year.

6. The learner described how the best idea can be transformed into an entrepreneurial venture.
Comment on specific question:
This question was answered fairly well. Candidates have demonstrated some understanding.
Assessment Objective B: Application and Investigation (4 marks)

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

Application of the elements on how to go about finding an idea for an enterprise e.g.
- Type of business
- Description of the business
- Form of ownership and justification on the chosen form of ownership
- Steps needed
- Time frame
- Cost implications (Any 4 x 1 mark)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
Learners failed to describe the types of business. Learners’ answers were mostly focused on general
understanding instead of giving a clear description of how the intended business will operate. This led them to
lose marks. Thus, an ideal description of a business would include the type of goods or services the business
offers, location, operating hours as well as distribution of goods.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
The performance of candidates indicated a lack of adequate guidance regarding the specific content to be written
for each subcomponent of this section.
Assessment objective C: Analysis (10 marks)
Comment on specific question:
This part was well answered.

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

Analysis of the costs (5 marks) and benefits (5 marks) of whether the best idea can be transformed into an
entrepreneurial venture. (any 5 x 2 marks)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
Most candidates were unable to provide the proper analysis of the costs and benefits to determine whether the
best idea can be transformed into an entrepreneurial venture.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
No proper guidance was given to candidates.
Assessment Objective D: Evaluation, Judgment and Decision Making (11 marks)
Comment on specific question:
Poorly answered

HOW QUESTION WAS MARKED:

Decision made on: Whether the best idea can be transformed into an entrepreneurial venture. (1 mark).
Evaluation of the costs or benefits of the analysis of the best idea being transformed into an entrepreneurial
venture. (4 x 2 marks)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
No decisions were made to justify if the best idea can be transformed into an entrepreneurial venture.

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What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
No determinations were reached to ascertain whether the optimal idea could be transformed into an
entrepreneurial endeavor.
POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS:
• Teachers are encouraged to seek guidance from their colleagues or senior advisory officers to ensure proper
support for candidates.
• They should utilize examiner reports to familiarize themselves with common errors made by CANDIDATES AND
TEACHERS, thus avoiding their repetition.
• It is essential to adhere to the subject manual and syllabus guidelines.

TASK 3

General Comments:

- The general standard of the task was similar to that of the past years, however, the overall performance of the
candidates has slightly improved.

- There was an improvement in the handling of data collected, through well labelled tables, charts and graphs.

Candidates lost a lot of marks upon moderation as the teachers were just dishing out marks even where
candidates were not supposed to be given marks. Please consult the examiners’ report to see how the question
was marked.

Task 3: Testing the idea (Feasibility study, using research methods)

1. Planning research

- Choice (1)
- Analysis of the benefits of the chosen choice (2 marks)
- Any two research methods not chosen (1 mark each)
- Analysis of the costs of the two research methods not chosen (any 2 x 2 marks)

Problems experienced and wrong answers:

- Some candidates chose a method that was not part of the three research methods explained and was
not the method used to carry out the research.
- Some candidates defined the method instead of giving the reasons why they chose the method but the
advantages of the chosen research method were not given.
- Candidates lost marks because they added other research methods that are not part of the three
research methods defined.
- Candidates explained any two not chosen that were not part of the three defined.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
- Some teachers awarded marks to candidates who chose a method that was not part of the three defined
research methods.

(d) There is evidence that the learners identified the target market/population and sample.
Assessment Objective B: Application and Investigation (5 marks)
Should be relevant to idea chosen.
Comment on specific question:
Most candidates performed above average. Some candidates failed to define their target marked or
population as well as their sample, thus lost marks in this part.

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

- Target market at whom the product is aimed (population) (2)
- Correct linkage between market and the product (1)
- Description of people targeted with research (sample) (2)
EXAMPLE:
Target market:
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My target market is the people from Okamuku village. My business will target people with cars and those
who prefer their cars to be washed at a car wash.
Sample:
My sample consists of 10 participants. It comprises of 5 teachers, 2 learners and 3 other community
members.
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
- Most of the candidates did not specify the name of the village or town aimed at. E.g My target market
will be my community. A target market is your potential customers, so andidates should be specific and
not generalize, e.g My target market is the people from Okamuku village.
- Most candidates failed to show the link between the market and the product. Correct linkage of a car
wash business idea: e.g My business will target people with cars and those who prefer their cars to be
washed at a car wash.
- Most candidates failed to describe their sample. Candidates are expected to provide a description of
their participants and their total sample which should be the same as the number of tools attached.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
- Most of the teachers awarded full marks for this part, however, there are still some candidates who did
not indicate their population and their sample total.
- Teachers failed to judge the link, thus, awarded full marks for incorrect linkage between the market and
the product

(e) The tool designed prescribed to the criteria above.

Comment on specific question:
Fairly well answered. Most of the candidates could not obtain full marks.
Assessment Objective B: Application and Investigation (5 marks)

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

Check if tool is in line with the application of the idea chosen and is applicable to the chosen idea e.g.
research method chosen, sample audience stated, information needed, product described. (any five x 1)

Problems experienced and wrong answers:

- Some of the candidates’ tool was not in line with the application of the idea chosen in task 2, thus they
lost marks in this section as well as in the data analysis section.
- Most candidates lost marks as they failed to address all the relevant information mentioned in the
planning part, when they developed their six questions. In many cases candidates developed correct
questions addressing the same thing, thus lost marks for repeating the same information. Relevant
information that needed to be address is: target market, competitors, customers’ needs/preferences,
location, time, appropriate price and others. Each should be addressed only once.
- Candidates developed more than six questions instead of six questions.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
- Some of the teachers did not award marks according to the research method chosen and also if the tool
has relevant information. Instead they awarded marks as long as there is a tool attached.

2. Use of research tool (carrying out the research)

Assessment Objective B: Application and Investigation (5 marks)
Comment on specific question:
- Most of the candidates obtained 1 mark, because candidates failed to define their sample in 1(d).

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

- Learner has all the tools for the sample (5)
- Learner has tools to complete sample (at least 50%) (3)
- Learner has less than 50 % of the tools to complete sample (1)

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- Learner has no tools to complete the samples (0)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
- Some of the candidates failed to attach all the completed tools equivalent to the total sample.
- If the total sample is 10, candidates are expected to attach all 10 completed tools.
- Some candidates lost marks for attaching only one completed tool.

What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
- Most teachers do not understand the 50% attached, and candidates where awarded full marks which is
wrong.
- Correct way: all tools completed and attached award 5 marks, if only 3/5 attached teacher should only
award 3 marks (candidates at least attach 50% and above) while if its less than 50% learner only gains 1
mark (2/5 completed tools attached).

- If candidates failed to define their target market, teacher should award only 1 mark.
- Some teachers awarded marks for no tools attached. No marks should be awarded.

3. Analyse data
Assessment Objective B: Application and Investigation (18 marks)
Compile findings according to the data with the aid of tables, diagrams and/or explanations. Produce a
summary per question asked.
Comment on specific question:
- Most candidates struggled to analyze. Most of the candidates failed to present/ compile findings according to
the data with the aid of tables, diagrams and explanations.

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

- If only explanations used (6 x P1 + D2) (18)
- If diagrams used the diagram is seen as the D2 e.g. pie chart (6 x P1 + D2) (18)
- If tables are used P1 refers to headings and D2 to the summarised details (6 x P1 + D2) (18)
EXAMPLE, if diagram used:
1.
Customer preferences 


OR
EXAMPLE, If only explanations used
1
Customer preferences 
Explanation: The result shows that 50% of the participants prefers sugar, 30% of the participants prefers butter
and 20% of the participants prefers salt. 

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Problems experienced and wrong answers:
- Candidates failed to label the graphs/charts fully.
- Many candidates analysed information that was not part or mentioned in the tool.
- Diagrams/graphs /charts were not accurately scaled, thus lost marks.
- Some candidates failed to formulate a title from the questions. Instead, they wrote the whole question. The
title should either be: location, price, target market, time, customer needs/preferences, competitors,
business idea or potential problems.
- Candidates wrote the tittle in a question form, thus lost marks.
- If no completed tools were attached, no marks should be awarded for this section.

Assessment objective C: Analysis (12 marks)

Analysing findings and drawing conclusions
Comment on specific question:
- This question was fairly well answered. Most of the candidate could not differentiate between findings and
conclusion.

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

Conclusions drawn (6 x P1+D1) (12)
EXAMPLE:
Conclusion: Most of the participants preferred sugar. 
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
- Most of the candidates failed to draw conclusions based on data collected. Some of them made
comparisons of their findings using figures e.g 90% of the participants like white sugar while 10% prefer
brown sugar.
- Conclusion should be brief, for example, most of the participants preferred sugar.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
- Teachers awarded marks even if no tools were attached, or tools attached were not completed.
- Teachers failed to guide students on the findings and conclusions correctly.
- Teachers did not monitor the labelling of the graphs used whether they were done correctly before awarding
marks.
- Teachers marked more than six questions.

4. Market feasibility report

Assessment Objective A: Knowledge and Understanding (5 marks)
Comment on specific question:
- Most of the candidates could not obtain full marks in this section.

HOW THE QUESTION IS MARKED:

The report conforms to the format:
- Introduction
- Methodology
- Findings
- Conclusion
- Recommendations (5 x 1 marks)

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Problems experienced and wrong answers:
- The minority wrote the format wrongly and earned marks for the first 3 correct answers. The correct format
should be as follows: introduction, methodology, findings, conclusion and recommendations.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
- Some teachers failed to award marks to candidates whose reports conformed to the format but did not have
the table of contents.
Assessment Objective D: Evaluation, Judgment and Decision making (20 marks)
Comment on specific question:
- Most of the candidates did not write the correct format of the feasibility report.

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

Introduction (2)
Assessment Objective D: Evaluation, Judgment and Decision making
- Why the research was done
Comment on specific question:
- The ajority did well.

How question is marked:

Why the research was done (2 Marks)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
- Few failed to provide why the research was done.
- Some candidates wrote findings of their research part.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
- Some teachers awarded 3 marks in this part instead of 2 marks.

Methodology (3)
Assessment Objective D: Evaluation, Judgment and Decision making
- Methodology used refer to no. 2

Comment on specific question:

Fairly well answered. The majority of candidates could not score full marks.

How question is marked:

Evaluation of the methodology used whether it was the correct one or not.

Basic evaluation: (1 marks)

Detailed evaluation: (2 marks)
More detailed evaluation: (3 marks)

Problems experienced and wrong answers:

- Some candidates mentioned the method they had not used, thus lost marks.
- Candidate only mentioned the method and did not describe how it was used or provide a detailed evaluation

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(costs and benefits analysis).
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
- Teachers awarded full marks for a research method that was not used.
Assessment Objective D: Evaluation, Judgment and Decision making
Findings
- Evaluate data as summarised in no. 3

Comment on specific question:

Poorly answered.

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

Basic evaluation: (1 marks)
Detailed evaluation: (2 marks)
More detailed evaluation: (3 marks)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
- Some candidates’ findings did not correspond with the analysis.
- Most of the candidates failed to use figures. Correct example: 50% of the participants liked my business
idea. Or only 5 participants showed interest in my business idea.
- Some candidates drew tables or graphs in the findings.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
- Teachers awarded marks even if no figures were used.

Conclusions (8)
Assessment Objective D: Evaluation, Judgment and Decision making
- Draw at least four conclusions from summarised data (four x 2)

Comment on specific question:

Poorly answered.

Basic conclusion: (4 x 1 marks)

More detailed conclusion: (4 x 2 marks)

EXAMPLE:
Most candidates preferred sugar.
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
- The majority of candidates concluded with figures or totals and their conclusions were not part of the data
analysis.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
- Marks were awarded for incorrect conclusions

Recommendations (4)
Assessment Objective D: Evaluation, Judgment and Decision making
Comment on specific question:
Poorly answered.

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HOW QUESTION WAS MARKED
- Make at least two valid recommendations from the conclusions (two x 2)
Basic recommendation: (4 x 1 marks)
More detailed recommendation: (4 x 2 marks)

EXAMPLE:
I should sell sugar in my tuck shop.
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
- The majority of the candidates’ recommendation was based on their personal experience on how the
research went. Candidates should make at least two recommendations from the conclusions.
References / sources

Assessment Objective A: Knowledge and Understanding (5 marks)

Comment on specific question:

Poorly answered.

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

At least two sources stated (1)
- Correct referencing of two sources using the same method (two x 2)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
- The majority of the candidates did not use the correct APA format.
- Some candidates wrote the title of the books, name of the person, library or internet. The APA correct
reference should be: Surname. Initial. (year published in brackets). Book tittle. Edition. Publisher. Town/City
published in (place).
- If there are several authors, they are listed alphabetically.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
- Most teachers lacked understanding in this section. Teachers gave marks for incorrect answers.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS:

• Teachers should give clear guidance of what is expected in this task. Teachers should mark according to the
marking guideline in the NSSCO Entrepreneurship assessment manual Grades 10-11, NIED 2018, page 48.
• Novice teachers should seek help from experienced teachers to be able to help candidates to execute their task
correctly.

TASK 4

General Comments
Task was not well executed by candidates.
Teachers’ application of the marking rubric is wrong.
Please read the examiners’ report to familiarize yourself with how the task should be done and marked.

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HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:
Price: 1 mark
Promotion: 1 mark
Place: 1 mark
Product: 1 mark
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
Product: Some candidates could not give the main service/product the business undertakes. For instance, a
candidate having a car wash business idea will write that the service is Sedan, Taxi, Bus or Truck instead of
stating their service is washing cars.
Price: Most candidates scored 1 mark.
Place: most candidates could not obtain 1 mark because they gave the location of the enterprise instead of
the channel of distribution (Direct or Indirect).
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
A few teachers were awarding marks at Products/Services where candidates could not clearly indicate their
main business activity but listed the services to be provided.

• Teachers need to read and study the examiner’s report carefully. It is advisable to seek help from other teachers
who have been teaching/marking the task so that they can guide the candidates properly. Most of the candidates
lose unnecessary marks because the teachers awarded them marks incorrectly. Teachers are instructed to inform
candidates not to change their business idea from Task 2 and 3. Teachers also need to be cautious and not mark
Task 4 independently from Task 3 because some information has to be transferred from Task 3.
• This task requires candidates to do thorough research on their enterprise idea and teachers need to help
candidates to search for the correct information. Candidates cannot be expected to know or search for certain
information because they would not know where to obtain the correct information.

Task 5

General Comments
Candidates’ performance in task 5 has improved. Most candidates have completed and included the task this year.
Task was not well executed by candidates.
Teachers’ application of the marking rubric is wrong.
Please read the examiner’s report to familiarize yourself with how the task should be done and marked.
Candidates lost a lot of marks upon moderation as the teachers were just dishing out marks even where candidates
are not supposed to get marks. Please consult the examiner’s report to see how the question is marked.

Task 5: Giving back (Social Entrepreneurship)

1. The learner introduced her/his understanding of a social enterprise

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Assessment Objective A: Knowledge and Understanding (4 marks)
The learner introduced her/his understanding of a social enterprise
Comment specific question.

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

- Definition (2 marks)
- Explanation of opportunities (2 marks)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
Candidates failed to define a social enterprise, as most of them defined social entrepreneurship and lost out on
marks.
NB: Therefore, the candidates were supposed to define it as follows: The enterprise has minimal impact on
society and does not focus on profit.
ERROR: Teachers awarded marks for the definition of social entrepreneurship, while the candidates were
expected to give the definition of a social enterprise.
Most candidates struggle to come up with social entrepreneurial opportunities, as they only explain already
existing social enterprises.
Guideline: There are too many street kids and I will come up with an Orphanage home
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Teachers gave full marks to candidates for explaining existing social enterprises, while it was expected of the
candidates to offer other opportunities that can be turned into social enterprises

2. The legal form 1

The question was well answered by most candidates.
Assessment Objective A: Knowledge and Understanding (1 mark)
Comment on specific question
This question was well answered.
Problems experienced: Some teacher mark the candidates wrong while they have the correct legal form, for a
social enterprise. Teachers need to acquaint themselves with the legal forms of a social enterprise.
HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:
The learner identified the legal form of the enterprise (1 mark) e.g. Section 21 company, Community trust,
NGOs, Charitable organization.

3. The learner identified and explained the aims of the chosen social enterprise (existing or new) and
analysed the problems in the community that it is trying to solve.
Assessment Objective A: Knowledge and Understanding (5 marks)
Comment specific question

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

The learner identified the aims of the chosen social enterprise (existing or new)
Identify and explain (three X P1+D2).
Analyse the problems in the community that it is trying to solve (three x 2)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
(a) Some candidates have formed their own enterprise, but gave the aims of the enterprise where they have
done their task, instead of giving the aims of their own enterprise.
(b) Some aims were not in line with the social enterprise.
(c) Most candidates gave problems as aims

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What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Teachers warded marks without, thoroughly reading the aims
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
Instead of analyzing the problems in the community that the social enterprise is trying to solve, candidates were
discussing their personal problems they experience while doing the task.
Guideline: a lot of learners are dropping out of school because they do not have food to eat and they
cannot concentrate at school
NB: It should not be a point and a development must be a well detailed explanation.
Assessment Objective B: Application and Investigation (5 marks)
Comment on specific question:

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED

The learner applied his/her role to the social enterprise (5 x 1)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
Some candidates did not explain their individual role in the enterprise and just explained what the whole group
was doing. Even though the tasks can be done as some group work, candidates should explain their individual
role in this part.
For example: I cleaned the blankets
I mopped the area and the list goes on.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Teachers awarded marks for group tasks and not individual roles as expected.

4. The learner explained all the stakeholders in the social enterprise

Assessment Objective A: Knowledge and Understanding (5 marks)
Comment on specific question

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

The learner explained all the stakeholders in the social enterprise (five x 1)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
Most candidates could list the stakeholders but failed to explain them. The instruction clearly states: Learner
explains all the stakeholders in the social enterprise.
Some candidates included their entrepreneurship teacher in the list of stakeholders and stated the teacher
explained the task to the learners, which does not make the teacher a stakeholder; teacher was just doing his or
her job.
Unless the candidates stay in the hostel and need permission from the principal to leave the school premises, the
principal should be listed as a stakeholder.
Guidelines: Spar- donated food
Shoprite-donated sanitary pads
Agriculture teacher helps with the tools e.g spider, lakes
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Most teachers were marking according to the rubric although there were some who just awarded marks for stake
holders that were just listed without explanation.

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5. The learner drafted and explained a detailed action plan
Assessment Objective A: Knowledge and Understanding (5 marks)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
This question was better but, candidates were giving the history of the social enterprise instead of the activities
they were doing at the social enterprise.
Guideline: Activities and time frames

Activities Time frames

Mopping the house 12/10/2024
NB: Applied any five relevant steps undertaken (actions) in the learner’s enterprise (five x 1)
Assessment Objective B: Application and Investigation (5 marks)

6. The learner analyses the major challenges faced in the enterprise (funds, political, managerial
issues, staff capacity, technical and organisational know-how, social barriers, competitors or
regulations).
1. Assessment objective C: Analysis (10 marks)
Comment on specific question:

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

- Learners analysed any three challenges faced in the learner’s enterprise (3 x 2)
- Learners analysed two ways on how to overcome challenges (funds, political, managerial issues, staff
capacity, technical and organizational know-how or social barriers) (2 x 2)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
Most candidates struggled with the challenges. Instead, they pointed out the challenges and gave general
challenges, challenges were supposed to be explained. For example: We did not have enough funds to buy
the washing detergents.
Most candidates could explain how the challenges were overcome. For example: We asked the local
business man, Mr Karl to help us with funds which he did.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Teachers marked according to the rubric.

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What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Teachers marked according to the rubric.

Assessment Objective B: Application and Investigation (10 marks)

Proof has been included to substantiate that the enterprise’s actions did improve people’s lives and/or that the
learners were involved
Comment on specific question:

HOW QUESTION IS MARKED:

- Explanation of how proof was applied to substantiate the claims above. Examples of application can be
seen as proof.
- Any different forms of proof that learners were involved and applied by their enterprise.
(5 proofs x 2 marks each)
Problems experienced and wrong answers:
Most candidates had included photos, graphs, testimonials or certificates of appreciation. A lot of documents were
not signed, explained or stamped. Candidates did not explain the proof.
What teachers were doing wrong in the application of the marking rubric:
Teachers were awarding full marks as long as there was proof. They did not check whether the candidates has
explained the proof or if the proof was signed or dated.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS:

• Teachers should encourage the learners to form their own social enterprises at school.
• Assist them to draw up the Aims of their own social enterprise and the social problem that the enterprise wants to
solve in the community and in this way candidates will not lose out on marks.
• Candidates can only complete this task at a social enterprise and not at a profit-making enterprise.
• In case the candidates go to a social enterprise to perform their task they should write the aims of the social
enterprise as well as the problem that social enterprise is trying to solve in the community.
• Even though the task can be done as group work, candidates should write their individual roles and not that of the
whole group.
• Action plan of the enterprise includes any five relevant steps undertaken (actions) in the learner’s enterprise.
• Challenges faced would be that of the enterprise (existing social enterprise or the one learners have formed at
school) and not the candidate’s individual problem.
• Teachers should guide candidates on the recommendation on the importance of the enterprise and the viability.
• In the tool to monitor and evaluate their work, candidates should make sure that everything correlates with what
they have mentioned already in the tasks, eg. aims/problems are the same as listed in the beginning of the task
or the stakeholders are the same as explained under the heading stakeholder involved. Under social impact,
candidates should state the situation before the enterprise existed and how the circumstances of people are
better after/due to the enterprise.
• Proof to be included can be: 1 photograph explained, testimonials signed/dated and explained, attendance
register signed/dated and explained, certificate of appreciation signed/dated and explained or letter from the
headman signed/dated and explained.

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FASHION AND FABRICS
6153
Paper 1

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
There was a slight improvement in the standard and manner in which candidates responded to questions in Section B,
compared to the 2023 examination. Misinterpretation of questions in Section B such as questions 3 and 4 was still a
common challenge that teachers still need to help candidates address before answering, reading and understanding
questions. While Questions 2, 5 and 6 were responded to well by most candidates.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

SECTION B

(a) (i) Most candidates answered this question well; they were able to give the correct answers following
the description of the jacket.
The correct answers were:
Unlined/semi-fitted/below waist/shoulder pads/above elbow sleeves

(ii) Most candidates answered this question well; they were able to give the correct answers following the length
of the dress.

The correct answers were:

Above ankle/ above mid-knee

(b) Most candidates wrote the correct answers, but a few candidates could not write the correct unit.
The correct answers were:
83 cm
64 cm
88 cm

The correct answers were:

(i) 6 mm
(ii) 55 cm
(iii) 25 mm

(d) Most candidates wrote the correct answers, but a few candidates could not write the correct unit.
(i) 115 cm = 2.0 m OR 150 cm = 1.5 m
(ii) 115 cm = 1.5 m OR 150 cm = 1.1 m

(e) Most candidates answered this question well; they were able to give the fabrics suitable for making a jacket.
The correct answers were:
cotton fabrics
Linen/lightweight linen
Damask
Knits

(f) This question was not clear to most candidates, that the fabric made from Viscose which is suitable for the
dress, should be taken from the pattern envelope.
The correct answers were:
(i) crepe
(ii) cotton, polyester/viscose

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(iii) is not strong/ reasonably strong
Its strength decreases when it is wet
(iv) Absorbs moisture quickly without feeling damp and clammy/
Absorbs moisture and is more absorbent than cotton/ highly absorbency
Poor absorbency for polyester

(g) (i) This question was poorly answered by most candidates, who could not state the four parts of the
facing which must be correctly matched to ensure a neat finish.
The correct answers were:
The Centre front lines
Shoulder seams
The Centre backlines
Pattern notches
Facing edges
Neckline
Collar edges

(ii) This question was fairly well answered, as some candidates gave the correct answers to why seams
are graded and clipped after the facing has been attached.
The correct answers were:
To ensure the seam lies flat without pulling because the collar is stitched on the curve
To make it easier when it is turned on to the right side
To create a smooth edge finish/ stress-strain in the collar/shape the collar
To reduce/avoid bulkiness/ thickness around the collar
To avoid/prevent the facing from showing on the outside/ R.S of the garment.

(iii) This question was poorly answered as most candidates could not identify the stitches used in A and
B as shown in the diagram.
The correct answers were:
A under stitching
B Stay stitching

(iv) Most candidates answered this question correctly, as they name a stitch used to attach the edge of
the facing to the shoulder seam.
The correct answer was:
Hemming stitch

SECTION B

2 (a) This question was fairly well answered; some candidates compared wool and cotton fabrics in terms of
flammability and colour fastness. Some candidates gave any properties of wool and cotton.
The correct answers were:
Wool Cotton
Flammability Wool does not catch fire easily/ Cotton catches fire easily and burns
Flame resistance. rapidly because of its fluffy surface.
Wool smoulders when it is set alight/
It does not burn fast.
Colour fastness Wool is easily dyed and is fairly Cotton is easy to dye and does not
colour fast. lose colour easily.

(b) Most candidates answered the question correctly, but could not explain the reason why clothes made
from wool are comfortable to wear.
The correct answers were:
- Wool absorbs moisture without feeling wet so is very comfortable.
- Wool is a poor conductor of heat and is, therefore, warm to wear, especially in winter.
- it insulates the body from the surroundings. The air which is trapped in between the wool fibres
- prevents the flow of heat from our body to the cool surroundings.
- The wool fibres trap a lot of air, which does not conduct the body heat away.
- Wool has a natural crimp so is flexible when worn, even if the fabrics are woven.

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(c) This question was misinterpreted, as most candidates gave the properties of wool instead of how to
wash a hand-knitted article made from pure new wool.
The correct answers were:
- Use soft water, rainwater being the best
- Use a soap free from caustic soda and other strong alkalis
- Hand wash in lukewarm water and avoid changing the temperature of water.
- Diluted acids will not damage wool, so coloured wool articles may be rinsed in weak vinegar water.
- Avoid friction as this will cause the fibre scales to hook into one another and the fabric will fade and
shrink.
- Do not rub but knead and squeeze gently in the soapy water
- Keep the fabric submerged in the water while you wash it. If you lift it, the weight of the water may pull
it out of shape
- Once you have started complete the washing processes as quickly as possible to help prevent
shrinking.
- Add fabric softener to the last rinse water to make the fabric feel soft and downy.
- Do not wring out moisture by twisting the garment in the hands because wool stretches easily.
- Do not hang the article, it will stretch, lay it flat on a towel and shape it.
- Leave it in a draughty place in the shade to dry.
- When dry, press lightly on the wrong side with a cool iron and a dry pressing cloth.

(d) Most candidates answered this question correctly, as they were able to discuss the benefit of using
polyester fabrics for a summer dress.
The correct answers were:
1 Strength - polyester is strong and resists rubbing well
- it is not harmed by alkalis, bleaches or even acids
- mildew and moths do not affect it
- it withstands sunlight very well
2 Absorbency - polyester is non-absorbent
- it is hydrophobic and resists water
- it dries even more quickly
- does not absorb stains
- is very easy to launder
3 Resilience - polyester is particularly resilient
- it requires very little ironing or pressing
- it resists stretching
- it keeps its shape well
- is not elastic
- it holds pleats permanently
4 Washing - is very easy to care for
- drying is extremely quick and ironing is minimized
5 Effect of heat - polyester melts at a higher temperature
- will withstand slightly more heat
6 Flammability - polyester does not burn readily

3 (a) This question was misinterpreted by most candidates, who gave the fibres instead of fabrics that
require the process of sanforizing.
The correct answers were:
- Cotton – calico, denim, towelling, velvet, gabardine, gingham, poplin
- Linen – Irish linen, damask
- Rayon – viscose rayon/acetate/triacetate
- Wool – tweed, flannel

(b) This question was poorly answered as most candidates could not give the advantages and
disadvantages of using the durable press finish on a viscose summer shirt.
The correct answers were:
Advantages
- All creases and pleats are pressed into shape
- The garment keeps its shape while it is being washed
- The garment will have a pressed appearance when dried
- Resiliency is improved as it will never shrink or stretch

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Disadvantages
- If a pleat is incorrectly pressed into a pair of slacks, it will be permanently set into the fabric.
- It stiffens and hardens the fabric considerably
- The care instructions are very strict

(c) This question was poorly answered by most candidates, who could not explain how to apply
Herringbone stitch to the hem of a jacket made from a thick woven fabric.
The correct answers were:
- Insert the needle from right to left and sew from left to right.
- Insert the needle under the raw edge of the hem and bring it out 3 mm above the edge.
- Pull the thread through and tuck the short end under the hem edge towards the right.

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- cut them out carefully
- iron on a non-woven fabric (Vilene)
- buttons, beads and lace may also be applied
Basic stitches - there should be various basic stitches that may be used for Applique work
- blanket stitches
- chain stitches
- cross-stitches
- knotted stitches
- stem stitches

6 (a) This question was fairly well answered but most candidates could only give two edge finishes that can
be applied on the raw edge of closed single seams.
The correct answers were:
- Blanket stitched seam edge finishes
- Overcast seam edge finish
- Zigzagged seam edge finish
- Serpentine stitching by machine edge finish
- Stitched seam edge finish

(b) Most candidates answered this question correctly, as they were able to draw and label the dress with
a Peter pan collar, puffed sleeve and knife pleats.

Peter Pan collar

puffed sleeve

knife pleats

(c) Most candidates answered this question poorly, as they were not able to describe the steps on how
to apply a plain hem on a dress with knife pleats.
The correct answers were:
- Before turning the hem, reduce the bulkiness within it by trimming the seam allowances
- Turn up the hem along the marked hemline
- Press the hemline with the aid of a hem guide
- Tack next to the folded edge
- Neaten the hem edge by using a zigzag stitch seam edge finish.

(d) This question was correctly answered as most candidates were able to discuss the use and care of
pressing equipment which could be used when making summer dresses.
The correct answers were:
The iron
- Before filling a steam iron, unplug it or set the dial in the off position
- To prevent spilling, use a container with a spout to fill the water reservoir
- Be careful not to overfill the iron
- Always test a heated iron on a scrap piece of fabric first
- Always turn the iron off and stand it on its heel when you are not using it, never leave an iron on when
not in use.
- Empty the iron before you put it away, water remaining inside might become stained with rust and spoil
the fabric when used next time.
The sleeve board
- Always have some detachable cotton covers to replace soiled ones
- Do not store the sleeve board while it is damp/wet, allow it to dry completely
- Store the board in a cool dry place or storeroom
- Do not use the board when it is damp as it will stain the fabrics.
- Detachable covers should be laundered when soiled

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Ironing board
- The padded cover of the ironing board should be dry before the board is folded and put away in a
cupboard.
- Detachable covers should be washed and pressed when they are soiled and should be dry when they
are put away.
Seam roll
- A loose cover should be washed regularly to ensure that the seam roll remains clean and neat.
Pressing cloths
- Always wash them when they become soiled.
- Do not put them away in a cupboard while they are still damp.
Summer dresses (garments)
- Press on the wrong side of the fabric
- Press carefully up to the folds of gathers
- Lightly press hems so as not to show hem marks on the right side
- Use a pressing cloth if pressing a fabric with decoration or embroidered details, to avoid damage

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6153
Paper 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

It was noticed that most teachers are in possession of the Coursework Manual for Fashion and Fabrics, as it has been
shown by the order of work procedures and pattern pieces for all specimens when completing the specimens.

It was shown by the work that teachers have the total ability to assist and guide candidates during the process of the
coursework. However, there were a few centres that showed a lack of supervision and proper guidance from the subject
teachers during the practical lesson, as it seems candidates were left alone to do their work.

Nevertheless, the dedication, hard work and honesty shown by most teachers towards their tasks and exercises of this
coursework cannot be ignored. Most centres submitted most of the required and relevant information as well as all
assessment forms for the moderation process. It was also noted that most centres submitted folders of high quality.
Good workmanship was noticed in some of the centres, which was a good improvement.

2. COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC ISSUES

The following criteria should be met and achieved by all candidates during the construction of both specimens,
accessories and a garment.

A. PRACTICAL FILE (40 marks)

1. Planning organisation and presentation (5 marks)

• The file should have:
• Clear index with an indication of pages which are numbered
• Samples well mounted, not pasted to a backing page
• Samples easy to handle so that the wrong side could be evaluated
• Each sample labelled neatly with handwriting legible/clear
• All samples/samplers available and grouped together

2. Accuracy (15 marks)

All specimens A, B & C
• Width of seams and edge finishes correct
• Width of hems correct
• Width of waistband/casing correct
• Width of sleeve cuff correct
• Width of all opening finishes correct
• Fasteners evenly spaced and fit well e.g. button and buttonhole match
• Collar points even; collars neat on the right and wrong side
• Insertion of zipper correct
• Pleats/darts lie in the correct direction, are of the same/correct width and are evenly spaced
• Tucks evenly spaced and well finished off
• Gathers evenly distributed
• Facings same width and neatly finished off on the wrong side
• Top stitching correct
• Sleeves accurately inserted
• Processes accurately and correctly ironed/pressed

3. Machine skills (10 marks)

All specimens A, B & C
• Stitch length correct
• Stitching accurate
• Machine tension correct
• Overlocking neat/zigzag neat; tension correct
• No loose threads on the wrong side
• Stitching straight on seams, hems, tucks and pleats
• Buttonhole neat with the bar not too thick

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• Curved areas neat and accurately stitched
• Zipper neatly inserted with zipper foot/stitching close to the edge
• Top stitching: stitches even/well-spaced

4. Hand skills (5 marks)

All specimens A, B & C
• Correct stitch used for fabric
• Correct stitch used for process e.g. hems – hemming/slip hemming/herringbone
• Fasteners finished off with correct stitch, secure and tension correct
• Variety of hand-sewing skills used
• Appearance of stitches on the right side of the garment e.g. hemming stitch

5. Decorative stitches (5 marks)

All specimens A, B & C
• Stitches evenly spaced
• Stitches the same size and properly formed
• Stitch tension correct
• Stitches correctly started and ended
• Neat on the reverse side of the item/garment

B. ACCESSORY (20 marks)

1. Sewing (hand and machine) skills (10 marks)

• Stitches evenly spaced and same size
• Correct stitch used for fabric
• Variety of decorative stitches used
• Creative use of decorations
• Overlocking/zigzag neat, length correct and tension correct
• Stitching straight on seams
• Hems neatly stitched on the edge
• Fullness
• Accessory neatly finished off on the wrong side
• Accessory pleasing to the eye on the right side

2. Interpretation (4 marks)
• Correct fabric suitable for the chosen style
• Colour combination suitable
• Fastenings fit style
• Thread corresponds with the colour of the accessory

3. Manipulative skills (3 marks)

• Edge finishes neat
• Fasteners properly and securely attached
• Overlocking/sewing used to improve the accessory

4. Accuracy (3 marks)
• Width of hems correct
• Fasteners fit well
• Processes accurately and correctly ironed/pressed

C. GARMENT (40 marks)

1. Machine skills (10 marks)

• Stitch length correct
• Machine tension correct
• Overlocking/zigzag neat, length correct and tension correct
• No loose threads on the wrong side
• Stitching straight on seams, tucks and pleats
• Curved areas with neat and accurate stitching
• Zipper neatly inserted with zipper foot/stitching close to the edge
• Top stitching: stitches even/well-spaced
• Re-enforced at the beginning and end of seams
• Facings neatly attached/finished

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• Hems neatly stitched on the edge
• Fullness e.g. darts or tucks neatly secured at the back of the garment
• Openings neatly finished off
• Garment neatly finished off on the wrong side
• Garment pleasing to the eye on the right side

2. Hand skills (7 marks)

• Stitches evenly spaced and same size
• Stitch tension correct
• Stitches properly formed, correctly started and ended
• Correct stitch used for fabric
• Correct stitch used for process e.g. hems – hemming/slip hemming/herringbone
• Neat on the reverse side of the garment
• Variety of hand-sewing skills used
• Stitches should hardly be visible on the right side of the garment e.g. hemming stitch

3. Interpretation (7 marks)
• Correct fabric suitable for the chosen style
• Fits well, styles suit the candidate
• Colour combination suitable
• Fastenings fit style
• Decorations coordinated
• All pattern parts are the same length e.g. sleeves, trouser pants or front of jackets
• Thread corresponds with the colour of the garment
• Correct interpretation of pattern

4. Manipulative skills (7 marks)

• Seams are graded
• No bulky parts at facings, collars or sleeves
• Collar points are sharp (all edges)
• Sleeves/collar points are the same length
• Edges neat
• Fasteners properly and securely attached (buttons, zipper)
• Overlocking/sewing used to improve the garment
• Curves on sleeves neatly sewn and sewing machine well used

5. Accuracy ( 9 marks)
• Width of seams correct
• Width of edge finishes correct
• Width of hems correct
• Width of all openings correct
• Fasteners fit well e.g. button and buttonhole match and are evenly spaced (if applicable)
• Collar points even
• Collars neat on the right and wrong side
• Facings same width
• Facings neatly finished off on the wrong side
• Sleeve accurately inserted
• Processes accurately and correctly ironed/pressed

Points for improvement:

1. The wrong sides of buttons should be correctly completed with a blanket stitch.

2. Candidates should not wear their garments for a longer period except for a fitting purpose. Some centres
submitted soiled, dirty garments with bad odour which is not acceptable and equally reduces, the overall
appearance of the garment.

3. NB: The kinds of hand stitches that can be demonstrated are hemming/slip hemming/herringbone stitches.
Stitches should be properly formed, correctly started and ended well.

4. Stitches should hardly be visible on the right side of the garments and very neat on the reverse side of the
garment.

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5. Teachers should make sure that none of the processes are omitted from any specimens. Candidates
should only include specimens A, B and C, 1 garment and 1 accessory in the file with no other extra item.

6. The wrong sides of buttons should be correctly completed with a blanket stitch.

7. Most garments show good colour combinations with the threads corresponding with the colour of the
garment. However, candidates should be strongly encouraged at all times to cut off all loose threads after
neatening.

8. Teachers should award realistic marks for the work correctly done, by ticking/or placing a cross on the
processes indicated on individual record cards, not by totals only while observing the candidate’s item.

9. Avoid awarding high marks for underserving work.

10. The teacher should inform candidates that the practical file is part of coursework and that, should some of
the processes not be completed, it will affect the total mark at the end of Grade 11.

11. It is important to note that photographs of candidates in their garments should accompany the final
consignment sent for external moderation.

12. Two individual photos of candidates in their garments (front and back view) should be included.

13. All specimens should be stamped with a dated school stamp on the wrong side.

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FIRST LANGUAGE AFRIKAANS
6094
Paper 1

Oor die algemeen het kandidate goeie werk gelewer. Enkele kandidate het nie netjiese werk ingegee nie, doodgekrap
of alles op een bladsy probeer indruk. Netjiese werk merk net soveel makliker.

Daar was heelwat minder kandidate as die vorige jare. Dit wil voorkom asof al hoe meer kandidate, ook moedertaalsprekers,
eerder Afrikaans as Tweede Taal neem.

Foute wat in die verslag van 2023 uitgewys is, het baie afgeneem. Dit lyk asof die eksaminatore wel die verslag
bestudeer.

AFDELING A
Vraag 1 –5

Vrae 1 – 3 was veelvoudige keusevrae. Leerlinge het net die simbool neergeskryf.
1 A
2 D
3 A

Hierdie vrae het elk een punt getel.

Vraag 4 In watter opsig is hip-hop-musiek tot voordeel van arm gemeenskappe?

Oor die algemeen het kandidate hierdie vraag redelik maklik gevind.
Dis vir hulle toeganklik./ Hulle kan identifiseer in hulle stryd vir gelyke regte en regverdigheid.
Die vraag het een punt getel.

Vraag 5 Waarvoor kan hip-hop as spreekbuis in die sameweling gebruik word?

Die meeste kandidate kon die vraag redelik maklik beantwoord.
Het die potensiaal om jou stem te laat hoor/kragtige medium.
Dit bied die geleentheid om krities te reageer op knelpunte (ras, klas, kulturele probleme) in die samelewing.
Hierdie vraag het 2 punte getel.

Vraag 6 Watter bewyse is daar dat die skrywer ’n gebalanseerde houding teenoor hip-hop het?
Kandidate het nie probleme met die vraag ondervind nie.

Van kandidate is verwag om na positiewe (goeie dinge) en negatiewe (slegte dinge) te verwys en dan ’n voorbeeld van
iets positiefs en ’n voorbeeld van iets negatiefs te noem.

Positiewe is onder meer:

Mense moet anders dink oor hip-hop, dit het baie voordele vir tieners (noem voordele), “probleemmusiek”los baie
probleme op, beheeroor hulle emosionele toestand , belangrike beweging in musiek.

Van die negatiewe kan kandidate o.a. noem:

Mense dink soms dis aggressief en maak mense depressief, luisteraars van dié musiek is geneig tot misdaad en
gebruik van dwelms, ens.

Ander relevante antwoorde het ook punte verdien.

Hierdie vraag het 4 punte getel.

Vraag 7 Skryf ’n praatjie vir die kultuuraand by jou skool oor die voordele van hip-hop- en rap-musiek vir
tieners. Verduidelik jou mening hieroor.

Van die kandidate het algemene en vae antwoorde verskaf waarvoor hulle nie punte gekry het nie, bv. hulle het die
geleentheid om krities te reageer op knelpunte in ons samelewing (rassekwessies, klasseverskille en kulturele probleme)
wat nie kwessies is wat die gemiddelde tiener eintlik aanspreek nie.

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Sommige kandidate het bv. geskryf oor die behoefte aan die oplossing van sake soos gelyke regte en regverdigheid wat
nie regtig kwessies is waaaraan die meeste tieners dink nie.

Daar is ’n magdom van feite wat hulle kon noem, bv.

Dis ’n manier om hulleself, hulle lewens en werklikhede uit te beeld.
Dit vervul in hulle emosionele behoeftes.
Vul hulle ledige ure.
Luister alleen daarna.
Dis ’n uitlaatklep (selfmedikasie) om hulle emosies uit te druk.
Dit verminder gevoeens van woede.
Het ’n positiewe uitwerking en dien as inspirasie.
Hartseermusiek verbeter hulle gevoelstoestand.
Hulle kom vinniger oor hartseer.
Dit leer hulle waardes (soos sosiale geregtigheid, vrede, respek ens.)
Bied ’n gevoel van veiligheid (vir dié uit onstabiele huise).
Bied geleentheid vir selfkennis, leer, groei.

Algemene foute by die vraag:

Sommige kandidate skryf ’n opstel oor die onderwerp en nie ’n praatjie nie.

Enkele kandidate speek die kutuuraand aan, bv. Geagte Kultuuraand, Geagte Kultuurraad.

Hierdie vraag het 20 punte getel.

Vraag 8 Gebruik die inligting in leesstuk A en B om die volgende opdrag uit te voer. Maak ’n opsomming van
die positiewe invloed van hip-hop en rap-musiek.

Moontlike antwoorde:

Leesstuk A:
Manier om lewenswerklikheid uit te beeld.
Voorsien in emosionele behoeftes.
Tydverdryf, uitlaatklep.
Leer om emosionele toestand te beheer.
Hartseermusiek verbeter bui/gemoedstoestand.
Kom vinniger oor hartseer.
Bevestig waardes (vrede, sosiale geregtigheid, selfwarde ens.).
Identifiseer met ander sosiale probleme (gelyke regte, regverdigheid, verdraagsaamheid).
Skep ’n gevoel van veiligheid en hoort in ’n gemeenskap.
Geleentheid om krities te reageer op knelpunte.
Geleentheid vir selfkennis, leer, groei, tuisvoel.

Leesstuk B:
Gee hoop.
Voer jou terug na plekke en tye met goeie herinneringe.
Wys op gawes en karaktereienskappe van ons voorvaders.
Musikale erfenis.
Menslikheid (deernis vir medemens), samesyn.
Liefde en respek om die lewe vir ander makliker te maak.
Oorspronklikheid van musiek word oorgedra na ander geslagte.
Vorentoe kyk en struikelblokke oorwin.
Lief wees vir jouself.

Probleme met die vraag:

Soms het kandidate in hulle eie woorde die vraag beantwoord en dan die feit verdraai.
Sommige gee iligting oor die geskiedenis van hip-hop . (Dit was nie gevra nie).
Sommige noem van die plek van hip-hop in die toptientreffersparades wệreldwyd).
Sommige het klakkeloos uit die teks oorgeskryf en dan punte vir die taal verloor.

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Enige redelike antwoord het ook punte verdien.
Hierdie vraag het 20 punte getel en kandidate kon 15 punte vir feite verdien het en 5 vir taal en styl.
Die onderstaande skema word gebruik om die taalpunt te bepaal.

Kandidate moes 15 feite noem en het 5 punte vir taal en styl gekry.

Vraag 9 Onderhoud met twee kletsrymers.

Baie kandidate het oulike onderhoude gevra. Die inhoud was soms nie voldoende nie, want kandidate het eers oor
beuselagtighede gepraat voor hulle met die werklike onderhoud begin het.

In sommige gevalle het die onderhoudsteller verkeerde vrae gevra wat veroorsaak het dat die kletsrymers dan irrelevante
inligting gegee het.

Kandidate moes die inligting in Leesstuk B gebruik.

Vrae wat onvanpas is, is onder andere:

Wat is erfenis vir jou? (die vraag handel oor die rol van hip-hop en rap in hulle lewens).
Wat verstaan jy onder erfenis?
Iets wat jou pla?
Jou van klink bekend?
Hoe het julle begin (drank, ouers baklei ens.)
Wat kan jy onthou van jou kinderdae? (Moenie konsenteer op die verlede nie).

Hierdie is gerigte skryfwerk en die opdrag was duidelik: gebruik inligting uit leesstuk B. Sommige kandidate het allerlei
ander nonsens geskryf. Enige ander relevante inligting uit die leesstuk is ook bepunt.

Hierdie vraag het 20 punte getel en word gemerk volgens die merkskema in die sillabus.

Algemeen

Sommige kandidate sukkel om hulle korrek uit te druk met die gevolg dat hulle direk uit die teks oorskryf of feite verkeerd
weergee.

Van die taal- en spelfoute wat voorgekom het, was:

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Reggekry deur om (deur) te hoor ...
Gevoelings (gevoelens)
Allerdaagse (alledaagse)
Afgebreuk (afgebreek)
Op ’n mense (op mense)
Meer makliker (makliker)
Meeste mense (die meeste mense)
Skool klaarmaak (met skool klaarmaak)
Geleer in skool (geleer in die skool)
Liedtjie (liedjie)
Tiepe (tipe)
Wardeer, waardeur (waardeer)
Proebeer (probeer)
Ek doen (wat) beslis
Gemeente (gemeenskap)
Vorseer (forseer)
Nogsteeds (nog steeds)
Musiek wat (waarna) almal luister
Druk op hulle gesit (druk op hulle geplaas)
Oorals (orals)
Beruik, beryk (bereik)
Gewoontlik (gewoonlik)
Neem aksie (doen iets daaraan)
Positiewe impakte (’n positiewe impak)
Skooliere, skolliere (skoliere)
Mense hanteer (mense behandel)

Dankie aan al die onderwysers wat hard gewerk en hulle kandidate goed voorberei het.

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6094
Paper 2

Continuous Writing
Daar was hierdie jaar enkele uitstekende opstelle. Bydraende faktore was ’n wye woordeskat, ’n eie kreatiewe vertolking
en eenvoudige, natuurlike taal. Ongelukkig is sommige taalfoute wat in die vorige verslag genoem is, herhaal. Dis uiters
belangrik dat onderwysers die eksaminatorsverslag sal bestudeer en dit OOK onder die leerlinge se aandag sal bring.
Wees baie streng op hierdie foute. In hierdie verband kan woordorde-foute, anglisismes, spelfoute en onvolledige sinne
as die algemeenste genoem word.

Swak punte is hoofsaaklik te wyte aan opdragte wat nie behoorlik gelees is nie en swak taalgebruik. Die meerderheid
kandidate het die verhalende opstel gekies, maar het dan bloot vertel wat met hulle gebeur het. Kreatiwiteit het nie na
vore gekom nie en die opstelle was’n doodgewone relaas van gebeure. Geen spesifieke verhaallyn is ontgin nie.
Daar was enkele gevalle waar onderwerpe heeltemal verkeerd verstaan is, maar gelukkig by verre die uitsonderings!

Kommentaar op spesifieke onderwerpe:

1 Skryf ’n verhalende opstel waarin die volgende woorde voorkom: ”Ek was seker ek sou hom/haar
kon oortuig…” ’n Baie gewilde onderwerp met gemiddelde punte.
2 My unieke woonbuurt. Gebruik hierdie titel en skryf ’n beskrywende opstel oor jou woonbuurt en
wat dit spesiaal maak. Ook ’n gewilde onderwerp wat uitstekende punte opgelewer het. Ongelukkig het
’n paar leerlinge ’n woonbuurt verwar met plaas, dorp of huis.
3 Deesdae is mense se optrede teenoor mekaar beslis bedagsamer en sensitiewer as in die verlede.
Bespreek hierdie stelling in ’n beredenerende opstel. Enkele leerlinge het hierdie onderwerp gekies
en die meerderheid het “sensitiewer” as ’n negatiewe aspek gesien en so die onderwerp verkeerd geïnterpreteer.
4 “Ek het geweet: Nou moet ek vlug vir my lewe.” Skryf ’n verhalende opstel. Baie gewild met goeie punte.
5 Skryf ’n beskrywende opstel met die titel: Dit is my spesiale plek. Baie gewild met uitstekende punte!
6 Skryf’n verhalende opstel met die titel: Die groot verrassing. Gewild met enkele goeie punte.
7 Skool is ’n oorlogveld en jou enigste wapen is die sosiale media. Bespreek die stelling in ’n
beredenerende opstel. Gekies deur enkele kandidate wat nie ’n sukses van die onderwerp kon maak nie.
8 Skryf ’n beskrywende opstel oor die dinge wat jou laat voel dat jy werklik lewe. Kandidate het
“dinge” uit die oog verloor, maar enkeles het werklik goeie opstelle opgelewer.
9 Deesdae behoort meer jong mense hulle eie ondernemings te begin. Lug jou mening in ’n
beredenerende opstel. Geen kandidate het hieroor geskryf nie.

Probleme wat punte negatief beïnvloed het

1 Lomp sinsbou, foutiewe woordorde en lang, aaneenlopende sinne.

2 Anglisismes was oorweldigend teenoor sms-taal wat selde voorgekom het. Engelse woorde in
aanhalingstekens is ook min teëgekom.
3 Die tydsaanbieding is nie konsekwent volgehou nie.
4 In enkele gevalle is die nommer van die vraag nie aangedui nie en moes die eksaminator mooi kyk wat gekies is.
5 Gebrekkige woordeskat het sommige leerlinge punte gekos, so ook foutiewe leestekens.

Spesifieke foute

1 Woorde soos daai, rêrig, pel, en watse is onaanvaarbaar.

2 Algemeen verkeerd gespel: sister, ontsmaaklik, all, will, famielie, aktiewietyde, oupa’s, ouma’s, tannie’s,
oom’s, trug, alhowel, gladnie, person, helfde, vluit, waardeuring, vluister, eweskielik, gehuim, ooral, nognie,
enigeiets, stuig, sopas, gevoelings, duk, skein.
3 ANGLISISMES. Die volgende anglisismes verdring die korrekte Afrikaans: sonsak/sonsondergaan i.p.v.
sonsondergang. Meeste van die tyd i.p.v. die meeste van die tyd. Mens i.p.v. ’n mens. Ek gaan saam jou
i.p.v. ek gaan saam met jou. Ek vir een het i.p.v. ek veral het. Hy verstaan my beter dan ander i.p.v. hy
verstaan my beter as ander. Jy nodig iemand i.p.v. jy het iemand nodig. Dit maak hom swak speel i.p.v.
dit laat hom swak speel. Sommige tye i.p.v. soms. Met die kan ons sê i.p.v. hiermee kan ons sê. Sy het

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op hom verneuk i.p.v. sy het hom verkul. Ongelukkig moet jy met alles deel i.p.v. ongelukkig moet jy alles
verwerk. Myself en Ben i.p.v. Ek en Ben. Aan die slaap geval i.p.v. aan die slaap geraak. Op die ander
hand i.p.v. aan die ander kant. Hierdie lys is glad nie volledig nie!
4 Woordverwarring: eens vs eers, rys vs reis, ly vs lei, hard vs hart, bruin vs brein, blyk vs bleik, behandel
vs hanteer, mans vs manne, gehad vs gehaat, moet vs met, lewe vs liewe, breuk vs breek, aandagtig vs
oplettend, eintlik vs eindelik, karre vs motors, lug vs lig.
5 Onthou: moenie i.p.v. moet nie, iemand wat die mooi kan raaksien, infinitief is losstaande woorde, deur te
praat i.p.v. deur om te praat, My ma roep my vs Ek hoor Ma roep my, onsmaaklik i.p.v. ontsmaaklik, ek het
tot die besef gekom i.p.v. ek het tot die beseffing gekom, ek dink i.p.v. ek persoonlik dink, ’n groot, swart
perd i.p.v. ’n perd wat groot en swart is, belangrikste i.p.v. mees belangrikste, maak ’n keuse, maar neem
’n besluit, tou opgooi, handdoek ingooi, moed opgee, die onderwysers in ons skool i.p.v. die menere in ons
skool, motors i.p.v. karre, gemeente vs gemeenskap.
6 Kyk mooi na die eenwoord-reël in Afrikaans!
7 ‘n Honderd mans het gesterf i.p.v. 100 Mans het gesterf. Dit is ’n redelike groot spasie i.p.v. dit is redelik
’n groot spasie.
8 Kyk mooi na die dubbele ontkenning in Afrikaans.
9 Onvolledige sinne het baie algemeen voorgekom bv.: Met wit duine wat rondom is. Die klank van voëls wat sing.
10 Die beredenerende opstel verdien BAIE aandag. Om dit onder die knie te kry, kan ook in vraestel 1 tot die
kandidaat se voordeel strek.

In die algemeen het kandidate hierdie jaar baie beter gevaar as verlede jaar. Dis duidelik dat daar sentrums is wat
die aanbevelings ter harte neem en dit so vir hulle klasse leer. Baie dankie daarvoor!
Lees, lees, lees… Dit bly steeds die beste manier om jou taalidioom en woordeskat te verbeter.

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6094
Paper 3

Vraestel 3 (skriftelike take oor literêre tekste)

Daar is groot waardering vir die netjiese versorging van die skriftelike take. Dit is nie nodig om die skriftelike take in
aparte lêers te sit nie, want dit word uitmekaar gehaal. Dit is aanvaarbaar as die twee skryfstukke aanmekaar vasgekram
word. Die aanbring van die totale bepunting (uiteensetting ook) vir beide take op die voorblad maak administrasie
soveel makliker. Die tien kandidate wat deel uitmaak van die streekproef, se informasie moet ook in dieselfde volgorde
op die “summary form” verskyn as op die “excel sheets”. Die kandidate wat die steekproef verteenwoordig moet op
beide “summary forms” aangetoon word. ŉ Bronnelys is ook nie nodig nie.

Literêre begrippe het duidelik meer deel gevorm van die bespreking. Kandidate moet ook die begrippe kan verduidelik.
Dit help nie daar word na die “protagonis” verwys met geen verklaring nie. Die bespreking van “Raka” moet ook
digterlike terme bevat en daar moet waardering gegee word vir die digter se gebruik van taal. Daar is ŉ merkbare
verbetering met onderwerpsformulering. Dit moet nie ŉ vraag of ŉ opdrag wees nie, maar ŉ stelling. ŉ onderwerp
soos: “Bespreek die kontras tussen Raka en Koki”, is nie ‘n onderwerp nie. Dit moet lees: “Die kontras tussen Raka
en Koki is simbolies van beide se karakters.” Persoonlike respons beteken nie dat die kandidaat subjektief moet
skryf nie. “Ek dink dat…” of “Ek het opgemerk dat…”, kan vervang word met: “Die leser…” Die kandidaat moet dus
objektief skryf. Dit moet ook nie net deel vorm van die slot nie. Persoonlike respons wys of die kandidaat ŉ ingeligte
respons teenoor sy/haar onderwerp het. Dit wys of hulle die inligting wat hulle kry kan verwerk, verstaan, interpreteer
en weergee en nie notas klakkeloos afskryf nie. Geen halwe punte moet toegeken word nie. Tussen vraestel 3 en 4
veroorsaak dit groot punteverskille wat dan reggestel moet word.

Eksaminatore moet in ag neem dat kandidate wat kwalifiseer en aangaan om Afrikaans Eerste Taal op die AS-vlak te
neem aan ŉ uitdagende sillabus blootgestel gaan word wat baie meer gaan verwag as die O-vlak. Onderrig moet dus
dien as voorbereiding daarvoor sodat kandidate die nuwe sillabus met selfvertroue kan aanpak. Temas moet ontgin
word en in diepte met die kandidate bepreek word voordat die skryfstukke aangepak word. Daar is wel sentrums wat
uitsonderlike werk doen wat opreg waardeer word. Kandidate se skriftelike take het oor die algemeen voldoen aan die
riglyne wat die sillabus vereis. Die eksamintor kan wenke gee en aanbevelings doen om te voorkom dat take slegs
inhoudelik is. Sterker kandidate wat dus meer as die beperkte 600 woorde geskryf het, is NIE gepenaliseer nie. Die
bespreking van die onderwerpe is deeglik gedoen en het gewys dat die kandidate oor die nodige vaardigheid beskik om
langer te skryf. Die wat by die woorde aantal gehou het, is OOK NIE gepenaliseer nie.

Kandidate moet ook hulle verantwoordelikheid om take betyds in te handig besef. Dit bemoeilik die taak van die
eksaminator wat duidelik die beste vir die kandidate wil hê.

Werkstukke is oor die algemeen taalkundig goed versorg. Die tik van die vraestelle moet ook sorgvuldig gedoen word.
ŉ Lettergrootte van 12 is aanvaarbaar. Aanhalings moet in vetdruk of skuisdruk getik word Daar word aanbeveel dat
sentrums vroegtydig met die afronding van die skryfstukke begin sodat daar genoeg tyd is om aandag daaraan te gee.
Kandidate moet gewys word hoe om “ŉ” as letter reg te tik deur die “insert” en dan “symbols” applikasie te gebruik.

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6094
Paper 4

Vraestel 4 (gesprek oor literêre tekste)

Die standaard van vraagstelling was oor die algemeen bevredigend. Daar word ook moeite gedoen om kandidate gerus
te stel voordat daar met die gesprek begin word.

Om ekstra afskrifte van die skryfstukke te maak en elke kandidaat se vrae direk op die skryfstuk self op te stel bleik
duidelik ŉ wenresep te wees. Dit help ook die eksaminator om nie heeltyd toepaslike vrae op die aparte blaai te soek
nie. Dit gaan outomaties daartoe lei dat die onderwerp verder ontgin word. Omdat die eksaminator ook vertroud is
met die kandidaat se skryfstuk, gaan die gesprek beter verloop. As die eksaminator rondspring tussen die vrae, word
die kandidaat ook ontsenu! Eksaminatore moet dus baie goed voorbereid wees, want die sukses van die mondeling
hang van hulle af. Stel genoeg vrae op en maak voorsiening vir oomblikke waar die kandidaat nuwe idees kan ontgin
om die gesprek in ŉ ander riting te dwing. Dit verg oefening! Indien die kandidaat slegs uit die skryfstuk antwoord
en nie iewers in die gesprek na die inhoud van die werk self beweeg nie, is dit onrealisties om as spreker ŉ 8 of ŉ 9 te
kry. Dit is egter die kandidaat se verantwoordelikheid om vertroud te wees met die inhoud van die literêre werk asook
hulle skryfstukke. Hulle kry skryfstukke van vorige kandidate in die hande of ruil skryfstukke uit tussen sentrums.
Soms kyk hulle net die films. Tydens die gesprek is hulle meestal nie vertroud met die inhoud nie. Die uiteinde is
abnormale bepunting, want die kandidaat kry uitstekende punte vir sy of haar skryfstukke, maar die gesprek toon die
teenoorgestelde.

Om dit te voorkom kan die skryfstukke gedurende klastyd geskryf word. Kandidate moet dan hulle werk na elke periode
in die klas los. Verder kan die blaaie waarop hulle skryf geteken word om te verseker dat niks van buite ingebring word
nie. Sodra die spertyd verby is en die skryftukke met aantekeninge van die eksaminator teruggegee word, kan hulle dit
gaan tik. Die geskrewe werk moet dan weer saam met die getikte een ingehandig en gekontroleer word. Daar kan ook
ŉ oefenlopie vir die gesprek wees voor die eksamen. Sodoende weet kandidate wat om te verwag. Dit hoef egter net ŉ
paar minute lank te wees en slegs een skryftuk hoef gebruik te word. Sodra die kandidate die druk en spanning tydens
die oefensessie ervaar, sal hulle beter voorbereid wees vir die uiteindelike gesprek. Dit gee ook vir die eksaminator ŉ
aanduiding van kandidate wat gaan sukkel tydens die gesprek en hulle kan dan advies gegee word. Kandidate moet
weet dat hulle enige literêre terme wat hulle in hulle skryfstuk gebruik, moet kan verklaar tydens die gesprek. Net so
moet hulle enige aanhaling in konteks kan plaas. As die aanhaling in “Raka” byvoorbeeld gaan oor Koki as enkeling en
die kandidaat het geskryf: “getorring aan die taai knoop in sy gedagtes”, moet die kandidaat kan verduidelik dat dit
gebeur het die oggend toe Koki soos gewoonlik gaan stap het, asook wat dit beteken, waarom hy so voel en die sterker
kandidaat kan dan verder uitbrei en vertel dat Koki die oggend afgwyk het van sy normale roetine en dat hy nie soos
gewoonlik na sy poel toe gestap het nie. Sodoende beweeg die kanditaat na inligting buite die referaat.

Die kandidate mag wel tydens die gesprek hulle skryfstukke by hulle hê, maar dit is baie belangrik dat antwoorde nie
AFGELEES word nie. Dui ook daarop tydens die oefensessie. Tydens moderasie word kandidate wat hulle antwoorde
aflees afgemerk! Sodra die eksaminator agterkom dat die kandidaat lees, moet die vraag in ŉ ander rigting gestuur
word. Daar is in die vorige verslag reeds genoem dat die eksaminator byvoorbeeld die volgende stelling kan maak; “Jy
skryf in jou werkstuk dat Koki se poel simbolies is van wat hy verteenwoordig. Wat bedoel jy daarmee?” Die kandidaat
kan dan reageer deur te sê:” ŉ Simbool is (gee definisie) …en Koki se poel beeld dit perfek uit. In my skryfstuk gee ek
die aanhaling (lees aanhaling). Dit beteken dat ….”. Die kandidaat voer nou die gesprek verder.... Indien die kandidaat
gevra word om aanhalings voor te lees, moet hulle nie dit wat in hulle skryfstuk volg verder lees nie. Hulle moet
dit BESPREEK. Die kandidaat wat baie goed voorbereid is, sal spontaan na aanhalings verwys, begrippe verklaar,
voorbeelde gee en daarop uitbrei.

Die eksaminator kan ook, indien of die kandidaat, of die eksaminator self die aanhaling voorlees, vra dat die aanhaling
in konteks geplaas moet word. Sodoende kan gesien word of hulle weet waar die aanhaling inpas en kan hulle nie
net skryfstukgebonde antwoord nie. Wanneer wenke of riglyne vir kandidate gegee word voor die gesprek, kan die
eksamintor hulle aanmoedig om terme wat hulle gebruik se definisies te leer en as hulle daaroor gevra word, dit
spontaan te gee in hulle verduideliking. Dit sal voorkom dat die eksaminator klomp vrae moet vra, wat die gesprek nie
vlot laat verloop nie.

Die verbetering van die standaard by van die sentrums wat die verslae ter harte neem om te verseker dat kandidate na
die beste van hulle vermoëns presteer, is opmerklik.

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FIRST LANGUAGE ENGLISH
6095
Paper 1

General comments

It appears, once again, that many candidates who chose to write this paper were entered on the incorrect level. Many
candidates struggled immensely to express themselves clearly and had trouble answering the questioned asked of
them using the correct style and language.

Teachers should ensure that candidates are capable of doing well on the particular level that they have been entered
for. For example, candidates would have received better marks had they chosen to write the English Second Language
examination instead.

Candidates must be taught to pay attention to the comprehension question mark allocation. Many wrote entire paragraphs
to answer a question that was only worth one or two marks. Concision in this case is key.

It is unfortunate to see how many candidates were unsure of the correct format for the RDW questions, particularly the
letter to the press in question 7. All RDW formats must be taught to the candidates, and they must practise this enough
to be comfortable to tackle these questions properly.

A worrying trend was the obtrusive, extensive lifting of information from the passage. This indicates that candidates
were not comfortable with the vocabulary used in the passages. It also showed a lack of understanding.

Many colloquialisms and slang words and phrases were used throughout RDW pieces. As this showed a lack of
understanding of correct style and tone, candidates’ Style and Accuracy marks were low.

Sentence construction and punctuation continue to be a problem. The RDW pieces as well as the summary were filled
with incomplete, run-on sentences due to an unawareness of sentence construction and lack of correct punctuation.
Sentences starting with coordinating conjunctions should be avoided at all times. Candidates are unaware of how to
use commas correctly.

Candidates are clearly not editing their work. Most pieces were riddled with careless punctuation, spelling and grammar
issues that could have been remedied during the editing process.

It is frustrating to see how little planning was done by the learners. It is clear that no question analysis was done as
questions were misunderstood, information was left out and the incorrect style was often used.

Time management remains a concern. Many weaker candidates struggled to complete the examination to the best of
their ability as it seems they ran out of time. Candidates should be encouraged to answer questions in the same order
as they are asked, as one question builds on the other.

Questions need to be numbered clearly and correctly for ease of marking.

Commonly confused words

install/instil important/importance tales/tails gentleman/gentlemen
perspective/perception this/these life/live command/commend
much/many apart/a part less/fewer there/their/they’re
loose/lose it’s/its everyday/every day fowl/foul
affect/effect number/amount belief/believe critical/crucial
practice/practise ones/once complains/complaints
ensure/insure/assure than/then imply/apply whose/who’s
exploit/expose avoid/prevent loose/lose overtime/over time

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Words and expressions to be avoided
and so forth/etc/and the list goes on/and many more/just to name a few

we as people/we as citizens/we as learners/I personally/you as parents

get/got a lot of guys kids things nice

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

1 C [1]

2 D [1]

3 A [1]

4 When children’s stories do not contain any negative aspects/is bad/is evil , the stories are flat/
boring/uninteresting/meaningless/loses its lesson/simple. 
Do not accept darkness, violence, contradictory, predictable [2]

5 (Any three)
• give hope to children by reassuring them that good always prevails over evil
• provide answers to what they world is really like
• prepare children for atrocities/harsh realities in the world
• show that the world is not all positive/love and happiness/bad exists [3]

6 The author is positive about fairy tales/supports/sees the benefits of fairy tales. 
Any quote that supports the candidate’s answer may be accepted for a second mark. 
Do not award a mark for the evidence if it is not quoted.
If the first point is incorrect, but the evidence is correctly quoted, you may still award the mark. [2]
[10]
1–3 Multiple choice. Generally well answered. Candidates must be encouraged to read questions carefully
so as not to make any careless errors.
4 Most candidates could not answer the question, as they simply repeated the words in the original passage
(“darkness”, “violence”, “contradictory”, “predictable”) without explaining what the author meant.
5 Most candidates could answer the question. Candidates are allowed to lift directly from the passage when
answering this question.
6 Most candidates could answer the question, but the answers were overly lengthy.
7 Letter to the Press

Use ADDENDUM D: MARKING GRID FOR DIRECTED WRITING TASKS (PAPER 1) to mark this question.

The candidate’s address should be written in the top-right hand corner, in block format, with the date directly
underneath it.

The newspaper’s address should be written on the left-hand corner, with the title ‘The Editor’ above it. The
newspaper’s name should be underlined.

An appropriate greeting should be given. Candidates should be encouraged to either choose ‘Sir’ or ‘Madam’ and
avoid ‘Dear Sir/Madam’.

A subject line should follow the salutation.

The letter to the press should begin with reference to the article that was read and must clearly state the purpose of
the letter.

The letter should come across as candidly written, with very strong opinions regarding the article.

The letter must end with a call to action.

An appropriate salutation should be given: ‘Yours sincerely’

[20]

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The letter to the press was poorly answered. Unfortunately, it is apparent that many candidates have not been taught
the correct format. Many candidates received a low mark for Style and Accuracy, as they simply lifted the information
from Passage A, without transforming the information. The register was also far too informal, with most candidates using
“kids” throughout the letter, which is inappropriate for a more formal letter such as a letter to the press. Many candidates
failed to include the fact that they were writing as a bookstore owner: some candidates wrote as a parent, a teacher, a
writer and one candidate wrote as a psychologist. It is clear that no question analysis or planning was done before the
letter was written. Transition words from one paragraph to the other were absent, preventing a sophisticated flow of
ideas. Subject lines need work: a short, concise phrase related to the letter’s topic should suffice.

8 Summary
Content: (tick and number)
Advantages of reading fairy tales:
1. stories devoid of complexity = monotonous/predictable/no longer stimulating
2. contain important/essential life lessons/morals
3. learn about safety
4. improve judgement and critical thinking skills
5. improve decision-making skills in future
6. teach fear/enables survival
7. children stay away from dangerous situations/recall events to deal with situations
8. deal with/conquer/understand anxieties safely
9. gives hope
10. good always prevails over evil/goodness over immorality/good more powerful than evil
11. provides answers to real world/prepares for the real world
12. grow up to be independent
13. respond properly to danger and brutality
14. makes world better place/less violent/happier people

Disadvantages of reading fairy tales:

15. violence can traumatise children
16. influences children to commit aggressive actions
17. children too vulnerable/sensitive to be exposed to fairy tales
18. children interpret violent events literally
19. exposed to negative words and concepts
20. shows bad sides of other people
21. teach children things you don’t want them to know
22. children become overly curious (about killing)
23. shows something or someone can be ugly
24. children should not know harsh realities
25. too innocent and pure to be exposed
Mark up to 15 for content. Use the table below to achieve a mark up to 5 for
language use:
ASPECTS OF WRITING
5 Excellent expression and focus. Concise (measure by clusters of ticks throughout). Obeys length instruction.
Choice of vocabulary well-judged. Order excellent.
4 Good summary style, good focus throughout, own words well-chosen. Some evidence of reordering. Correct
length.
3 Generally concise and well-focused, in own words well-chosen.
2 Some extended summary style (not consistent). Reasonable focus and only occasional lifting. May be a little
too long.
1 Occasional examples of concision. Tendency to lose focus. Evidence that passages/questions have been
understood. Some lifting. Too long.
0 Descriptive, discursive/ narrative style, frequently unfocused. Lifting obtrusive, suggests
some lack of understanding. Rambles at length.
[20]

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The summaries continue to be the candidates’ weakest point. Candidates were unable to select enough relevant
information from the passages. Lifting was obtrusive. Additionally, candidates were unable to group points in a logical
manner. The summaries were written in one whole paragraph, with content from both Passage A and Passage B written
as one. Alternatively, the summaries were written in a narrative/discursive style, containing several short paragraphs
and making mention of “the author’s” points. Summaries should not consist of introductions or conclusions and should
be written in third person. Weaker candidates wrote the points from Passage B in first person or referred to “the mother”
when writing the points.

Candidates received a zero for the language component due to the following:
• obtrusive lifting
• discursive style – “the author states…” or “the mother states…”
• narrative style – “I don’t want my daughter to…”
• incomplete sentences throughout the summary
• point-form summary instead of prose-form
• quoting from the passages

9 Speech
Use ADDENDUM D: MARKING GRID FOR DIRECTED WRITING TASKS (PAPER 1) to mark this question.
An appropriate greeting, such as ‘Good evening, parents’ is acceptable.

The speech should start with a poignant statement or story. The purpose of the speech should be made clear; i.e. that
the play should go ahead.

The speaker must use points in favour of fairy tales in Passage A, and contradict the points used in Passage B.

The speaker should clearly persuade his or her audience.

A call to action or rhetorical question is an acceptable way to end the speech.

Candidates must remember that they are speaking as a teacher, and not as themselves. Therefore, the tone of the
speech will be slightly more formal. [20]

This question was poorly answered. Candidates struggled to use the correct format and tone. The greeting was absent;
there was no persuasive style at all. Some candidates misread the question and wrote as a parent or as a learner. Lifting
was obtrusive in this question. Candidates must be encouraged to use their own words. The persuasive speech required
candidates to use both Passage A and Passage B. Many candidates failed to mention both passages. Candidates
should not begin their speech by introducing themselves and should never end with “Thank you”. Register was also too
informal, with parents often being referred to as “you guys”.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Comprehension
Candidates should be encouraged to use synonyms when asked what an author means by a particular quote. No
marks will be awarded if candidates simply repeat the words of the quote.

When answering a question about the author’s attitude, candidates should be encouraged to simply answer the
question as “positive” or “negative” and provide a single, short, concise and most importantly, RELEVANT quotation
as evidence.

Candidates are not penalised for lifting from the text when they answer the comprehension questions. However,
candidates must be encouraged to respond in full sentences, punctuated correctly.

Candidates should pay attention to the mark allocation. Should a question be worth two marks, a maximum of two
sentences should be written.

Letter to the Press

Candidates should avoid starting their letters with “How are you?” or “I hope you are well”.

Subject lines should be underlined, short and concise. Discourage candidates from writing a complete sentence as a
subject line.

Paragraphing is weak. Topic sentences must be present in all paragraphs to ensure the correct focus. This will also
avoid a list-like response in which structure is weak. The addition of transition words and phrases at the beginning of

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paragraphs and throughout paragraphs will help create sophistication.

Summary
Encourage candidates to work out a point-form summary before converting their points into a prose-form summary.

It should be noted that candidates could have chosen to separate their summary points by “Passage A” and “Passage
B” or “Advantages” and “Disadvantages”. Regardless of how the candidates structured their summary, they were
awarded content points.

Sentences should be short and simple. No introduction or conclusion is necessary.

Candidates must be encouraged to paraphrase their points so as to avoid obtrusive lifting. Transition or linking words
should be used between sentences to ensure a better Language mark for this component.

Speech
The introduction of a persuasive speech must grab the audience’s attention and very clearly state the purpose of the
speech. A short anecdote, rhetorical question or poignant fact, among others, can be used in the introduction.
Teachers are encouraged to look up the mnemonic “DAFORESTI” to teach persuasive writing techniques. These
techniques should be used throughout any persuasive writing piece.
The audience should be address throughout the speech. “Parents” or “Ladies and gentlemen” would have been
acceptable in this case.
Candidates must use the information from the passages and transform them into an appropriately written, semi-formal
persuasive speech by using persuasive techniques.
The conclusion must end powerfully as well.

Questions should be labelled properly to assist the examiner with marking the paper.

It should be noted that marks are not deducted for incorrect format in any of the questions discussed above. However,
using the correct format is expected of a first-language level candidate. In addition, it creates a good impression
for the examiner and makes the marking a more pleasant experience. Finally, using the correct format assists the
candidates in deciding the style of the piece asked.
Candidates should be taught how to do correct question analysis for each question. Many learners lose marks for
Style and Accuracy as they do not know which tone and style to use for a particular piece.
It appears that every year, candidates are making the same mistakes. This could mean that teachers are not carefully
reading through the examiner’s reports to assist their learners as much as possible. A suggestion is that the head of
department has a meeting with the First Language English teachers in which the examiner’s report is discussed. After
all, these documents are provided as a teaching tool for us all.

Teachers are commended for their hard work throughout the year. May you have a blessed 2025.

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6095
Paper 2

General comments
In 2024, 440 candidates completed First Language English, Paper 2, more than in 2023. It is unfortunate though that
some of the candidates entered by certain centres struggled to pass with a C-symbol in order to continue on AS Level.
The assumption is made that enrolments are made on the insistence of parents or the school’s management. Teachers
should be vigilant in this regard and assist in giving realistic guidance to candidates in grade 10 and 11.
The majority of candidates revealed a mature attitude in their writing and there is a clear improvement in applying
skills in the middle score line. The choice of questions answered by the candidates played a vital role in their results.
Practising and revising all essay formats consistently is a necessity in securing that candidates can confidently respond
to the variety of questions set in the examination. Teachers need to be congratulated on the visible improvement of the
standard of written work presented by the candidates this year.
Better results is directly linked to the effective teaching of the process of proper structuring of paragraphs and
sentences, clearly indicating topic sentences and the clear distinction between the introduction, conclusion and the
rest of the embodiment of the essay. It seems that more attention were given to the development of ideas mentioned
versus just listing facts.

2. Comments to individual questions

Instructions were given to candidates to write an essay of 350 – 500 words on ONE of the NINE presented topics.
Candidates had to pay attention to punctuation, spelling and handwriting.

2.1. In your opinion, will Artificial Intelligence (AI) help or destroy humanity?
This topic was addressed by 75 out of the 440 candidates. It is evident that candidates focussed and effectively
drew ideas and examples from their personal experiences gained concerning AI. Candidates shared personal
scenarios, reflecting a realistic understanding of what AI enhances. Most candidates were able to compare and
argue whether AI is detrimental or beneficial to mankind. Some candidates listed facts without proper development
of their ideas.

2.2. Write a narrative about the way in which you made friends with a stranger in unusual circumstances.
Topic 2 was addressed by 71 out of the 440 candidates. It was a relatable topic but candidates struggled to use
creative and imaginative diction. A large amount of candidates approached the topic in a similar and pretentious
manner which was a bit disappointing as originality is encouraged. However, the candidates who achieved the
highest marks in this paper were the ones who chose this topic and expressed themselves in a creative and original
way.

2.3. Write an account of some of the ways in which music has a powerful impact on people who hear it.
This topic was addressed by only 31 out of the 440 candidates. It was evident that this topic was chosen by only
a few learners that practise music. The personal experiences gained, enabled the candidates to understand and
execute the topic well. Candidates portrayed the renewed focus of the importance of incorporating music in their
day-to-day activities, specifically in connection with mental health.

2.4. In your opinion, should people be judged by what they post on social media?
Topic 4 was addressed by only 37 of the 440 candidates. It is evident that candidates are well informed about
social media and the responsibilities that is implied when using it. Some candidates succumbed to writing an
informative rather than argumentative essay.

2.5. Begin a narrative with the following words: “Morning madness began with…”
This topic was addressed by 70 out of the 440 candidates. Candidates mostly related well to the topic whilst
others struggled to address the ‘madness’ required in the topic. Most candidates grasped the task well and wrote
imaginative and original essays. A minority of candidates lost focus and did not start the narrative as prescribed.

2.6. “The use of plastic must be banned immediately worldwide.” What is your opinion?
Topic 6 was addressed by only 23 out of the 440 candidates. Although not many candidates chose this topic,
those who did, did quite well. It is evident that candidates that excelled in this topic most probably have
Geography or Agriculture as subjects. Most essays written were factual and reflected relevant substantiated
arguments.

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2.7. Describe a gripping and life-changing sport event. Ensure that you include all the senses in your
description.
This topic was addressed by 24 out of 440 candidates. Candidates attempted to involve all senses in their
descriptions but some were hampered by the excessive usage of adverbs and adjectives, deeming their essays
as artificial and unconvincing. The instructions that the event had to be ‘gripping’ and ‘life-changing’ was not
addressed by some candidates.

2.8. “Society gives the Arts too much attention when the Sciences are more important for our
development.” What is your opinion?
This topic was addressed by only 11 out of 440 candidates. The candidates who chose this topic did extremely
well and prove well informed on the topic. The personal interests of the candidates were reflected in their
responses and the majority of the candidates delivered well-argumented essays. A few candidates failed to argue
on their own opinion treating the topic as an informative essay as such.

2.9. Carefully look at the photograph and write about it in any way you like.
Topic 9 was a very popular choice and was answered by 98 out of the 440 candidates. The setting proved
familiar and made the response to it more natural and original. The topic was totally open for interpretation.
Most candidates did very well, whilst others lost focus and struggled to express themselves creatively. A few
candidates wrote essays with almost no connection or reference to the photo.

3. Positive suggestions to teachers

More candidates enrolled for First Language English in grade 11 than last year. The teachers are to be congratulated
on their efforts assisting the candidates to perform at their best. However, it is still evident that some candidates were
not able to master the requirements to pass well enough to get a C-symbol to continue to AS-level in grade 12. It must
be well understood that a candidate who gets a D-symbol in grade 11 in First Language English does not - at this
moment - qualify to take First or Second Language on AS-level in grade 12. It is suggested that subject teachers are
more involved in the enrolment process at the beginning of grade 11 to guide candidates in making realistic subject
choices in grade 11.
Candidates need to be reminded to number their question selection clearly and start their essays with a proper
heading.
Candidates should be taught how to properly select and plan their chosen topic. The external and internal structure
of the text must be clearly TAUGHT and APPLIED by candidates. External structure suggesting a clearly linked
introduction and conclusion with meaningful paragraphs in-between. Internal structure suggesting the use of clear
topic sentences and the use of keywords or discursive markers to link ideas and paragraphs internally. Cohesion
is important: these links assist in the progression of a plot and developed ideas. Teachers may assist in aiding
candidates to understand the difference between listing ideas and developing ideas.
Elongated sentences should be discouraged. Sentence structure is essential as complex sentences create ambiguity.
A variety of compound and simple sentences will create a linguistic impact. Simple sentences should be used to
attract the reader’s attention to important details, whilst complex sentences should be used to convey information and
the natural flow of the storyline.
Candidates struggled to express their ideas creatively, yet naturally. Guidance in the usage of rhetorical questions,
the rule of three, idioms and the natural expressions is advised. It is advised to teach candidates how to explore the
usage of ALL examples of punctuation effectively, beyond the comma and full stop.
Teachers must explain to learners that they should deter from challenging examiners in addressing short notes
to them. You hamper your own performance and it is a challenge for any examiner to remain objective towards a
candidate that insults or challenge a system. Your answer script is not the platform to address personal grudges or
opinions.

4. General issues
Grammatical issues include:
Candidates should be discouraged to use colloquial language. Creative diction is possible by using idiomatic language
in context and paying special attention to the correct usage of abbreviations, concord and apostrophe in general. The
correct changing of tenses, the incorporation of irregular verbs and the inclusion of articles proved problematic to a
large number of candidates. Weaker candidates can be advised to rights shorter sentences. Teach candidates the
correct word order of example: me and my friend versus my friend and I. Give special attention to the correct usage
of conjunctions. Candidates tend to use although and however incorrectly. Also warn and advise on the proper and
relevant usage of discursive markers. Concerning TIME, sharpen the correct way of using references to time correctly.

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Punctuation
Using ‘i’, as a personal pronoun, is still wrongly used by certain candidates. Punctuation usage is basic. The
omission of full stops is a concern. Encourage candidates to use ALL symbols.

Spelling
Really, a lot, grateful, cannot, disappointed, receive, achieve, fuel, environment.
Words confused and wrongly used
there/their/they are/they’re where/were it is/it’s practise/practice
advice/advise principal/principle stationary/ stationery too/to/two weather/whether dessert/
desert this/ that these / those laying / lying spent vs spend every day/
everyday, cause/because get/got setup/set up your/yours less/
fewer loss/lose/loose country/countries quit/quiet/quite

Overused words and colloquial expressions to be avoided:

Okay, nice, seriously, basically, lids, wanna, ‘like’ this and ‘like’ that… and then, and then, and then… things, stuff, as
people, a lot of guys, we as citizens, we as scholars, coz.

The usage of SMS language must be discouraged.

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6095
Paper 3

General comments

The general standard was satisfactory with the large majority of candidates showing a sound knowledge of the set texts.

It seemed that apart from the compulsory component, there was a balanced selection between the other genres by
centres. The least favourite text proved to be Nothing but the Truth as no centre selected it. Answers reflecting a wide
range of performance were seen on each of the texts attempted by the candidates.

Those centres who executed the form filling and other paperwork with great care are applauded for their effort. This
eased the task of the external moderators significantly.

Please remember that both the MS 1 and 2 forms should be submitted with the printouts of the marks on the USB. Pay
careful attention when transferring the marks to the USB. In addition, remember to “please put an asterisk (*) against
the names of the learners whose interviews have been recorded”. (p 33)

Furthermore, absentees should always be indicated with a 999 on the USBs.

Comments on the written assignments

Bibliographies and word counts were often missing. It is important that candidates reference the resources from which
information was taken. It was clear that the internet was used in a number of cases which makes attention to referencing
all the more important.

Additional research should be done with great care. In addition, teachers and learners should be objective and not
merely believe any interpretations that they find on the internet. A successful approach would be to first allow the
students to analyze the given text before teachers supply additional notes. It is also highly recommended that learners
complete their assignments under the supervision of the teacher.

A huge concern is not only the integration of quotes but also the referencing of quotes. Since these are open-book
responses, it is expected that page and line references are given. Further integration of evidence needs urgent attention.

Ensure that the samples sent in for moderation are “representative of the whole mark range of the learners at the
Centre, with marks spaced as evenly as possible from the top mark to the lowest mark.” (p 32; NSSCO syllabus)

Assignments generally adhered to the prescribed word count. However, with a word count of “approximately 600 words
each” (p 22; NSSCO syllabus), it should be clear that comparisons of poems or short stories are not the conducive
questioning technique. On the NSSCO level, candidates are not expected to compare and contrast. The best approach
is to focus on one piece at a time.

Comments on the topics

“Discuss the ways in which the poet/writer/author/playwright reveals the THEME of … in … “

Formulating your questions this way may assist your candidates at an early stage to respond properly to literature
questions.

Moreover, when the discussion was based on more than one text, candidates often crammed all the literary devices into
one paragraph which led to a mere list of devices. It is far more beneficial to develop each point properly by focusing on
the specific usage of a literary device in a specific example and then explaining the specific effect created.

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In addition, discourse markers were far and few between. It is one of the first aspects that learners need to be made
aware of to create flow and cohesion in their writing. Teachers should encourage candidates to use these at all times.
The syllabus requires the demonstration of “overall coherence” (p 22; NSSCO syllabus). This is the beginning of
cohesion and flow.

Although it might be beneficial to place the text in context, it is detrimental to veer off into general discussions on the
given topics.

It is unacceptable to note that there is no evidence that certain centres covered more than 2 genres. As stipulated in the
NSSCO syllabus (p 22) literature should be “based on a reading list divided into three genres: poetry, prose and drama.
Learners should write their assignments on two of the genres”. Clearly, this should be reflected by each centre, even
if the centre is quite small “the texts [should be] evenly distributed over the three genres” (p 22 of NSSCO syllabus).

Focusing only on a percentage of the prescribed literature clearly disadvantages the candidates as they will not be
sufficiently prepared for AS levels.

Comments on the topics marking techniques

All assignments should be marked thoroughly by the examiner. This includes indicating language errors.

All components of the marking grid should be indicated on the assignments. This guides the moderator and will also
assist the moderator in discerning how the marks were awarded.

Awarding a total mark out of 15 only without indicating the skills assessed (See Addendum A of NSSCO Syllabus) does
not suffice.

It is advisable that the marks with the sub categories according to the syllabus are reflected on the cover page of the
assignments. The candidates may create one cover page for both assignments or a separate cover page for each. The
cover pages must reflect the following:
• Examination name and code
• Centre name and number
• Date of the examination
• Candidate name and number
• Genres and topics that are discussed by the specific candidate

The first page of the assignment must reflect the topic verbatim as provided by the examiner. Learners should not
merely summarize the topic for their own convenience, e.g.: “The piety of war”. It should rather be a proper statement
or question like “Discuss the ways in which Owen depicts war in Anthem for Doomed Youth.”

The word count should always be reflected at the bottom of the assignment. Please note that an Ordinary Level learner
is expected to write about 600 words. That means that each assignment should be 10% more or less than 600 words.

Teachers should also ensure that candidates have a bibliography at the end of their assignments.

It is important to consult the syllabus to adhere to the expectations of the syllabus. For instance, the syllabus clearly
states that “poetry is [a] compulsory” (p 22 NSSCO syllabus) component of the literature examination. Learners who
do not include an assignment on poetry will unfortunately be disadvantaged in their examinations.

It is also clearly stated that orals must be conducted on both assignments: poetry and prose/drama.

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6095
Paper 4

General comments
The general standard was satisfactory with the large majority of candidates showing a sound knowledge of the set texts.
It seemed that apart from the compulsory component, there was a balanced selection between the other genres by
centres. The least favourite text proved to be Nothing but the Truth as no centre selected it. Answers reflecting a wide
range of performance were seen on each of the texts attempted by the candidates.
Those centres who executed the form filling and other paperwork with great care are applauded for their effort. This
eased the task of the external moderators significantly.
Please remember that both the MS 1 and 2 forms should be submitted with the printouts of the marks on the USB. Pay
careful attention when transferring the marks to the USB. In addition, remember to “please put an asterisk (*) against
the names of the learners whose interviews have been recorded”. (p 33)
Furthermore, absentees should always be indicated with a 999 on the USBs.
Comments on the topics

Some topics were vague, ambiguous and overlong. Instead of advantaging the candidates, they seriously disadvantaged
them. Refrain from asking learners to “Analyze “Dotito is our brother”. Prompts like that often led to summaries of
line-by-line analyses of the work. Rather ensure that the questions focus on a specific theme like “Discuss how Charles
Mungoshi depicts societal prejudice in “Dotito is our brother”. Remember, this is the ideal opportunity to prepare your
learners for the literature studies on AS level. Thus, the questioning techniques of AS level can actually be practiced in
Grade 11 already. The phrasing of AS level is typically:
“Discuss the ways in which the poet/writer/author/playwright reveals the THEME of … in … “
Formulating your questions this way may assist your candidates at an early stage to respond properly to literature
questions.
Moreover, when the discussion was based on more than one text, candidates often crammed all the literary devices into
one paragraph which led to a mere list of devices. It is far more beneficial to develop each point properly by focusing on
the specific usage of a literary device in a specific example and then explaining the specific effect created.
In addition, discourse markers were far and few between. It is one of the first aspects that learners need to be made
aware of to create flow and cohesion in their writing. Teachers should encourage candidates to use these at all times.
The syllabus requires the demonstration of “overall coherence” (p 22; NSSCO syllabus). This is the beginning of
cohesion and flow.
Although it might be beneficial to place the text in context, it is detrimental to veer off into general discussions on the
given topics.
It is unacceptable to note that there is no evidence that certain centres covered more than 2 genres. As stipulated in the
NSSCO syllabus (p 22) literature should be “based on a reading list divided into three genres: poetry, prose and drama.
Learners should write their assignments on two of the genres”. Clearly, this should be reflected by each centre, even
if the centre is quite small “the texts [should be] evenly distributed over the three genres” (p 22 of NSSCO syllabus).
Focusing only on a percentage of the prescribed literature clearly disadvantages the candidates as they will not be
sufficiently prepared for AS levels.

Comments on the speaking assessment

The syllabus clearly states that “the oral test will consist of a conversation and discussion of approximately 15 minutes
based on the learner’s assignments.” (p 23; NSSCO syllabus) Some orals were a mere 9 or 10 minutes long
(including the warm-ups) and others were exceedingly long – up to 19 minutes. The actual oral test should be about
10 – 12 minutes in duration.
Beware of wandering off topic into general discussions about politics in general or the personal background of the
candidate. The main focus should remain on the prescribed texts and candidates should be able to provide relevant
evidence from the studied text.
Please note that even though the syllabus expects the examiners to record the warm-up, the external moderators
would like to dissuade the examiners from doing so.
Examiners who revert to a question-answer technique severely disadvantage candidates as the syllabus clearly states
“the teacher will raise points made in the written tasks and provide opportunities for the learner to develop ideas
and express opinions. The conversation should then develop into a wider examination of the texts studied in
which the learner will be required to demonstrate knowledge of content and to give simple critical responses.” (p 23;
NSSCO syllabus)

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“The personal response to such matters as character, style, setting and theme will also be required.” (p 23; NSSCO
syllabus) A personal response is not a discussion of the general theme of war or apartheid or a simple opinion on the
text.
Mere interviews will not be advantageous for the candidates as they cannot establish a conversation if the teachers do
not engage with the candidates. Remain focused and respond to what the candidates are talking about. Some teachers
are commended on their approach towards the learners.
Avoid asking candidates to “take you through” or to “tell you what they think of the text”. Also, avoid any praise such as
“Excellent” or “Well done”.
Always remain objective during the speaking test. Learners will eventually also calm down and be able to respond
adequately to the teacher’s prompts. Refrain from writing and making unnecessary noises while the speaking test is
conducted. Give the candidates ample time without interruption to answer their questions.
Please do not disadvantage your learners but familiarize yourselves properly with the syllabus. If you are still uncertain,
experienced teachers are always available to assist you in your endeavours. Do not hesitate to contact them. The
DNEA will also be willing to assist you with the names of experienced teachers who will assist you in this matter.
Lastly, teachers are urged to use this golden opportunity to prepare learners properly for their examinations. Perhaps
it might improve the performance and help learners to minimize the workload on AS level.

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FIRST LANGUAGE GERMAN
6096
Paper 1

GENERAL COMMENTS

To perform well in this paper, candidates need to demonstrate comprehension of the stimulus texts. Candidates must
have the ability to consolidate information from the texts and relate it to. They must express an opinion about the
issues addressed and develop own arguments. Candidates struggled less with the parts of the paper that went beyond
comprehension and the recounting of content than in previous years.

The exam paper reflected the required syllabus content and the Namibian context. No mistakes could be detected in
the presentation or format of the paper and thus no particular leniency or stringency had to be applied when marking.
Generally, candidates seemed well prepared. Language proficiency was not always first language quality, but the
majority of candidates showed first language proficiency. Almost all candidates achieved 50%-60% percent of the total
marks. The majority of the candidates delivered satisfactory to good results.

Demonstration of comprehension, knowledge, application of correct terminology as well as expression of appreciation

and opinion were clearly visible this year. However, the entry was reduced to 15 candidates for 2024.

The questions and the expected responses of the paper.

Questions 1 ‒ 7

Schreiben Sie bei den Fragen 1, 2 und 3 nur den Buchstaben A, B, C oder D neben die dazugehörige Nummer in Ihr
Prüfungsheft.

1 Der Artikel stellt die Frage, ob ...

A sich die Tourismusbranche nach der Corona-Pandemie jemals erholen wird.
B es besser wäre, gar nicht mehr zu reisen.
B die Zukunft des Tourismus im nachhaltigen Reisen liegt.
D der Tourismus auch nach der Corona-Pandemie durch Reiseverbote reguliert werden sollte. [1]

2 Laut Text ist der schnelle Massentourismus ...

A schon vor Corona problematisch gewesen.
B erst während der Pandemie zum Problem geworden.
C ein Problem der Zukunft.
D die einzige Zukunft des Tourismus.

3 Die Umfrage des Portals „Urlaubspiraten“ ergab, dass ...

A der Mehrheit der Befragten das umweltbewusste Reisen egal ist.
B die Minderheit der Befragten gerne umweltbewusst reisen würde, es aber nicht immer kann.
C die Hälfte der Befragten umweltbewusst reist und die andere Hälfte nicht.
D die Mehrheit der Befragten gerne umweltbewusst reisen würde, es aber nicht immer kann. [3]

Beantworten Sie die Fragen 4, 5, 6 und 7 in Ihren eigenen Worten.

4 Nennen Sie zwei (2) Nachteile des Massentourismus, die im Text erwähnt werden. [2]
Luftverschmutzung, Müll, Preissteigerung, Verlust der lokalen Kultur.

5 Erklären Sie, warum das Reisen zugleich ein Erlebnis und eine Bedrohung der Natur darstellen kann.
Geben Sie ein konkretes Beispiel. [3]
Beim Reisen wollen Touristen oft unberührte Natur erleben, vergessen dabei aber, das gerade das
Reisen und der Massentourismus der Natur oft schaden, z.B. durch Müll, Abgase, Zerstörung von
Vegetation etc. (1 Punkt für das Konzept des Erlebens der Natur, 1 Punkt für den Schaden durch
Tourismus, 1 Punkt für ein sinnvolles Beispiel.)

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6 Für welchen Anteil der Befragten ist Nachhaltigkeit im Urlaub nicht von Interesse? [1]
9 Prozent

7 Finden Sie im letzten Absatz des Textes ein anderes Wort für „nur“ / „gerade mal“. [1]
lediglich

[10]

Questions 1 ‒ 3 were answered well. For Questions 4 – 7, learners had difficulty to rephrase the answers. This should
definitely be practised more in the lower grades.

Question 8

Sie haben in Ihrer Lokalzeitung einen Artikel gelesen, in dem die Vorteile des Massentourismus für Namibia angepriesen
werden. Schreiben Sie einen Leserbrief, in dem Sie Ihren Standpunkt zum Thema Massentourismus darstellen.

Benutzen Sie dazu auch Informationen aus Text A. Beachten Sie dabei die Form und sprachlichen Mittel des Leserbriefs.

Ihr Brief sollte eine Länge von anderthalb (1 1⁄2) Seiten nicht überschreiten. [20]

All candidates were more or less familiar with the format of the letter to the press. A good number of candidates
demonstrated very good ability to consolidate information from the text with personal experience and suggestions.
Almost all candidates used the appropriate language register and demonstrated some level of creativity and originality.
Quality of language and expression were generally satisfactory, with some very good performances. In most cases,
grammar and spelling were faulty and sentence construction and idiomatic expression were either simple or slightly
awkward. There were some candidates with a very good command of sentence construction and idiomatic expression.
It has also to be mentioned that candidates should be able to rephrase the contents used from the text, and not just
copy the sentences.

Most candidates achieved approximately 60% or more in this question.

Question 9

Text A zeigt, wie sich unser Reiseverhalten in den letzten Jahren entwickelt hat, Text B enthält die Einschätzung der
Blogger Sina und Jan zur Entwicklung des Tourismus vor, während und nach der Corona-Pandemie.

Schreiben Sie eine Zusammenfassung der beiden Texte.

Schreiben Sie etwa eine (1) Seite in einem zusammenhängenden Text, nicht in Stichpunkten. [20]

Text A
1. Einbruch/Stillstand der Tourismusbranche durch Corona
2. Vorteile für die Umwelt durch die Corona-Pause
3. Probleme des Massentourismus bereits vor der Pandemie
4. Konflikt Naturerlebnis – Umweltschäden durch Reisen
5. Konflikt Kulturerlebnis – Verlust der lokalen Kultur durch Tourismus
6. Umfrage zeigt: die Mehrheit will nachhaltiger reisen

Text B
7. Das Reisen wird seit Corona mehr geschätzt.
8. Statt schnell und viel, sollte man weniger, aber länger reisen.
9. Dadurch Emissionen verringern
10. Außerhalb der Hauptreisezeit reisen, um Strukturen über das Jahr verteilt zu nutzen
11. Negative Auswirkungen der sozialen Medien
12. Schnelllebigkeit statt Erlebnis
13. Egoismus beim Reisen, kein Interesse an Nachhaltigkeit
14. Fixierung auf ein Foto, einen Moment
15. Die ungleiche Frequentierung von Reisezielen wird sich nicht ändern

Candidates generally achieved 55%-70% of the marks in this question. Most candidates were able to adequately
summarise both texts in one text. However, some candidates still produced separate summaries. In this examination

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most learners obtained 10 of the required fifteen points.

A considerable number of candidates had low scores (2 or 1/5) for the quality of language and expression, as some
idiomatic formulations were just awkward.

Not all summaries were within the prescribed length, with a tendency towards summaries being too short for this
examination session as compared to the past years.

Question 10

(Text A und B) Sie machen ein Praktikum bei einem namibischen Reiseunternehmen. Die Managerin muss bei einer
Informationsveranstaltung zur Berufsberatung an einer Schule eine Rede zur Zukunft des Tourismus in Namibia halten.
Da sie in Zeitnot ist, bittet sie Sie, die Rede für sie zu schreiben. Schreiben Sie die Rede.

Gehen Sie dabei auf die Auswirkungen der Corona-Pandemie auf den Tourismus und die Möglichkeiten des nachhaltigen
Tourismus für Namibia ein. Beachten Sie die Form und sprachlichen Mittel der Rede.

Ihre Rede sollte eine Länge von anderthalb (1 1⁄2) Seiten nicht überschreiten. [20]

Performance in this question was the weakest. Quality of language and expression was generally satisfactory, with
some candidates producing work of exceptional quality. Most learners seemed familiar with the format and tone of a
formal speech and produced original yet succinct texts. In many cases, however, grammar and spelling were faulty
and sentence construction and idiomatic expression were slightly awkward. Most candidates obtained 40-60% in this
question while most of the speeches were within the prescribed length, some were slightly repetitive.

COMMENTS AND SUGGESTIONS FOR TEACHERS

• Increased exposure to magazine and newspaper texts that lend themselves to comparison and summary that could
possibly further increase performance in this paper and enhance language and expression skills. No summary was
written in bullet point form during this examination. This was well appreciated by the markers.

• Continue to familiarise learners with different types of texts, and their formats and characteristics, so that they can
produce texts in the correct format and appropriate language register.

• Text production and developing of own thoughts from stimulus texts should to be practiced in class. Creativity and
originality are appreciated when marking this paper,

• Continue to encourage alongside routine answers. As many households are not pure German first language
speakers anymore, but bilingual.

• Teachers have to place more emphasis on correct idiomatic expressions.

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6096
Paper 2

GENERAL COMMENTS:

The question paper requested to write an essay with the length of 350 to 500 words, whereby the candidates had a
choice of 9 themes. The themes offered a broad variety of different contents to give the learners a chance to possibly
relate to a field of their interest.

The examination paper respected syllabus content and the Namibian context. No mistakes could be detected in the
presentation or format of the paper and thus no particular leniency or stringency had to be applied when marking.

Those candidates who planned their essays beforehand and who noted down different ideas which they could use in
their writing were more successful than those, who showed no planning. Essays without planning were more prone
to have made mistakes when there should have been chosen a new paragraph for a new line of thought. Only one
candidate did not know why an essay plan should be drafted and used the jumbled ideas for the essay without sorting
them first.

To perform well in this paper, candidates need to structure and develop a narrative, a description, an argumentation, or
discussion and are expected to respect the adequate format and language register for the topic/genre chosen. They are
also expected to show mastery of grammatical structures, spelling and punctuation at first language level.

Only two essays were not too well structured, whereby one had a too long introduction and ending, the other candidate
chose a dream profession without knowing, what would be expected to perform such a job. The other essays were well
structured and despite the two slightly off-topic approaches, it was in general a pleasure to read the variety of creative
approaches to the themes.

A few typical mistakes of candidates in a multicultural set-up and where German is not used as teaching the content
subjects need to be addressed:
• Instead of “war gewesen” --- “ist gewesen“. „gewesen war“ nur in der vollendeten Vergangenheit / Plusquamperfekt
– „Nachdem ich in Deutschland gewesen war, hatte ich kein Bedürfnis mehr, jemals dorthin zurückzukehren.“
• verschlucktes -e in der ich-Form: es muss heißen: ich sitze, ich steige, ich laufe
• verschluckte Endungen in der Akkusativform: er hatte ein-en Platz frei
• Substantivierung von Verben: das Brummen des Motors, ein Lächeln
• Ausdrucksfehler, weil sie aus dem englischen oder afrikaansen Sprachgebrauch übernommen wurden:
• statt Mathetextbuch, nur Mathebuch,
• „Braai“ ist landestypisch anerkannt, sollte aber in Anführungsstrichen geschrieben werden
• ich und er – in Deutsch und Englisch ist die Reihenfolge „er und ich“ nach der Redensart „Der Esel nennt sich
immer zuerst“, und niemand will als Deutschsprachiger ein Esel sein.
• flight place ist in Deutsch der Sitzplatz, nicht der Flugplatz, denn das wäre „airport“ in Englisch.
• Schifffahrt ist nicht falsch, aber wegen der vielen „f“ und dem Schriftbild könnte als Alternative „Schiffsreise“
verwendet werden.
• statt „Meines Vaters Freunde ...” (My father‘s friends...), lieber „Die Freunde meines Vater...“
• statt „Wir wurden schnell Freunde“, ist besser: „Wir schlossen schnell Freundschaft.“
• statt „Es war echt spannend.“  „Es war wirklich spannend. “ –Echt hat seine Berechtigung nur dann, wenn es im
Gegenzug unecht, also gefälscht wäre.
• statt „sicher machen“ (Afrikaans: maak seker),  dafür sorgen
• bitten und beten wird gern verwechselt
• einzige, nicht einzigste
• statt Zeit spendieren (Afrikaans)  Zeit verbringen – in Deutsch spenden wir Geld oder Güter
• wider und wieder wird gern in der Schreibweise verwechselt
• Tempusformen sollten nur mit spezifischem Grund gewechselt werden, ansonsten ist es einfacher, durchgehend
eine Tempusart im Aufsatz beizubehalten.
• Durch den Einfluss aus dem englischen Sprachgebrauch, sollte noch einmal wie im Fremdsprachenunterricht
der deutsche Satzbau gelehrt werden: wo steht das erste und zweite Prädikat im normalen Satz und z.B. im
Satzgefüge (Hauptsatz-Nebensatz).

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COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL TOPICS:

1 Klimawandel, Umweltverschmutzung, Endlichkeit der Ressourcen: Der Fortbestand unseres Planeten

und der menschheit ist in Frage gestellt. Worauf sollten wir uns konzentrieren: auf die Rettung der Erde
oder die Schaffung von alternativen Lebensräumen auf unserem Planeten? Belegen Sie Ihre Ansicht mit
Beispielen.

2 Ein deutsches Sprichwort besagt: „Die Guten lernen von den Schlechten stets mehr als die Schlechten
von den Guten. “Was ist damit gemeint? Erklären Sie mit Beispielen aus dem öffentlichen Leben, aus
Film / Literatur und / oder Ihrer eigenen Erfahrung.

3 „Morgen ist auch noch ein Tag. “Schreiben Sie eine Geschichte, in der dieser Satz vorkommt.

4 Sie sind morgens auf dem Weg zur Schule. Was hören, sehen und riechen Sie? Welche Gefühle und
Gedanken bewegen Sie?

5 „Geteilte Freude ist doppelte Freude!“ – Sehen Sie das auch so? Erörtern Sie und berichten Sie von Ihrer
eigenen Erfahrung.

6 Was meinen Sie? Sind wir wirklich frei in unseren Lebensentscheidungen? Argumentieren Sie und geben
Sie Beispiele.

7 „Filme und Bücher sollten nicht nur unterhalten, sondern auch immer lehrreich sein.” Nehmen Sie Stellung
und begründen Sie Ihre Meinung.

8 Sie dürfen eine Woche lang in Ihrem Traumberuf arbeiten. Erzählen Sie mehr über den Beruf selbst und
welche Erfahrung Sie dabei machen.

9 „In der Stärke der Waffen zeigt sich die Schwäche der Menschen.“

Erklären Sie dieses Zitat des indischen Dichters und Philosophen Rabindranath Tagore, (1861 – 1941). Führen Sie
anhand von Beispielen aus der Geschichte, der aktuellen Politik, ihrem Umfeld, Film/Literatur und/ oder Ihrer eigenen
Erfahrung aus, ob das Zitat auch heute noch Gültigkeit hat.

As in last year, only topic 3, 4 and 8 were chosen. The argumentative, and discursive topics of a more philosophical
nature were again completely avoided.

About 50% of the candidates chose the essay which required a story, namely question 3: „Morgen ist auch noch ein
Tag.“ Schreiben Sie eine Geschichte, in der dieser Satz vorkommt.

This question implied, that the wording had to be used specifically as given in the instructions, thus it was not allowed
to alter the given sentence into indirect speech or to add words.

About 25% of the candidates chose the descriptive essay theme of question 4: Sie sind morgens auf dem Weg zur
Schule. Was hören, sehen und riechen sie? Welche Gefühle und Gedanken bewegen Sie?

Hereby it was of vital importance to include the expected senses of smelling, hearing and seeing, as well as to indicate
the feelings and thoughts. Some candidates concentrated mainly on smelling and seeing, but ignored the hearing.
Most candidates had a short introduction to indicate that they were on the way to school and successfully ended their
essay with a suitable ending where they arrived at their destination. It is necessary to avoid a too long introduction or
ending, which may deviate from the expectation to concentrate on the descriptive part to “the way to school”.

Two candidates chose the theme of question 8: Sie dürfen eine Woche lang in ihrem Traumberuf arbeiten. Erzählen
Sie mehr über den Beruf selbst und welche Erfahrung Sie dabei machen.

Hereby, they were expected to write about their experience while being allowed to work in the field of their dream career
for one week and they were supposed to write about what they had to do in that week. Only one of the two candidates
could write a good essay, while the other candidate did not know, what the dream profession of choice implied. That
candidate also did not know the German vocabulary for the chosen career and concentrated mainly on a love story and
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a week of vacation without sharing work experience. With a short planning phase, candidates would quickly find out
that they do not have enough information to attempt a certain essay and could rather decide on a different topic of the
choices given.

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Paper 3

GENERAL COMMENTS
There were three centres, with 11 candidates overall, with 8 candidates entered in the two largest centres. The
presentation and format of written tasks were generally neat.

For the assignments, it is of importance that candidates demonstrate knowledge of the content of texts discussed as
well as terminology necessary for literary analysis. It is just as important that they show personal appreciation and
opinion on the texts chosen. They should be able to give reasons from the text and secondary sources to express
themselves adequately in written German. Demonstration of knowledge, application of correct terminology, expression
of appreciation and opinion were generally satisfactory to good.

Quality of assignments
Most assignments were of average to good quality in content and fairly well structured. Some candidates lacked first
language proficiency. Some candidates resorted to plagiarism to mask linguistic and academic challenges and had to
be marked down by the moderator.

Referencing and quoting were mostly done properly and was meaningful. There were some cases of plagiarism,
which teachers in centres did not notice and/or penalise. The moderator had to lower the marks in these cases. The
importance of discouraging plagiarism and encouraging own expression, even if it is not in perfect German, cannot be
emphasised enough. Teachers should not hesitate to penalise or point out plagiarism in ALL cases.

Topics
Within the centres the range of topics chosen for prose was usually limited to either prose or drama, and topics repeated
themselves. Learners should be encouraged to find original, creative and interesting topics and possibly be exposed to
more than one prose text. Topics and texts chosen for poetry were slightly less varied than in 2023.

The topics chosen were usually clearly stated for the assignments.
Overall, it was good to see that overall knowledgeable interpretation, analysis and individual appreciation have increased
since the implementation of the new curriculum in 2020.

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Paper 4

GENERAL COMMENTS
There were three centres, with 11 candidates overall.

For the conversation on literary topics much depends on the candidates’ ability to demonstrate factual knowledge,
analysis and comparisons in their topic discussion, but also to express these adequately in German on mother-tongue
level. If candidates are confident about using the terminology and analysis skills acquired in class as well as their
mastery of German, they will score highly. For the highest marks, it is important that candidates show that their
knowledge as well as language skills are sufficient to maintain a conversation on a prepared literary topic.
Demonstration of knowledge and application of correct terminology as well as good speaking abilities and oral first
language mastery were mostly adhered to.

Quality of conversations
Most candidates were fairly confident, some very confident in the oral presentation of their factual knowledge and the
manipulation of language structures.

Some candidates lacked first language proficiency.

Examination techniques of the examiners in all centres could be improved, stimulate candidates to display their full
ability and knowledge and flow of conversation.

Most examiners still need to take more care not to pre-empt answers and not to make evaluating remarks like “sehr gut”
or “richtig” or “genau”. For this paper, it is very important that candidates be given the chance and be stimulated to show
the full range of their knowledge and speaking abilities.

Topics
Within the centres the range of topics chosen were more varied than in 2023. Learners should be encouraged to find
original, creative and interesting topics and possibly exposed to more than one prose text. Topics and texts chosen for
poetry were diverse.

Overall, it was good to see that knowledgeable interpretation and analysis as well as individual appreciation has
generally increased since the implementation of the new curriculum in 2020. This can probably be attributed to the
fact that all Grade 11, German First Language candidates are now taking the NSSC Ordinary examination and not only
candidates considered too weak for Higher Level.

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FIRST LANGUAGE KHOEKHOEGOWAB
6098
Paper 1

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

It was quite apparent from the candidates’ responses to the question paper that reading with comprehension and general
interpretation of the questions was a common, arduous experience overall. The poor language usage and recurring
spelling errors have obstructed the meaning in most cases, which was observed throughout at most of the centres.

Many candidates were not able to use a variety of well-constructed sentences, simple to complex sentences, idiomatic
expressions, some figurative language and appropriate style of writing in their responses. It was further evident that
learners were not exposed to reading and responding to a variety of text types such as essays, letters, speeches,
reports and articles just to mention a few, because many candidates were not able to distinguish between the structure
of an essay (which is construed as a long writing piece) and the format of a speech (which is categorized as a short
writing piece). Most candidates resorted to writing either an essay, whereas in rare cases some candidates wrote a
letter when they were clearly directed to write a speech in the last question of this paper.

Teachers should emphasise, as well as advocate the correct grammar usage during normal teaching. This may be
rectified through more language usage and writing exercises as well as consistency in marking and correcting students
errors. Teachers should strive to see skills improve over the year. Teachers are, therefore, encouraged to make use of
Khoekhoegowab Orthography to guide students on accurate spelling, language usage and grammar.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

1 Questions (a – j) were contextual questions assessing reading and comprehension. Although generally
candidates did well in responding to it, it was notable that students still do not read with understanding and
rather skim for answers, consequently resulting in copying texts containing parts of the question.
This resulted in most candidates losing out on valuable marks.

(a) This question required candidates to mention two details: Why was Martin stressed at the start of the
story? Mention two details.
The candidates were expected to write one of the following to score the full mark:
• He wanted a job/needed to earn some money/cash.
• He could not find the job/kept getting negative responses

Most candidates were able to respond correctly to this question. This was a R1 level question.

(b) Why was Martin disappointed when he rang the number in the advertisement? Mention two details.
The following answers were accepted as correct:
• He received a recorded message.
• He did not expect a good outcome.

Only a few candidates were able to respond correctly to this question. This was a R1 level question as
well as R4.

(c) Why did he feel pessimistic?

The following answer was accepted as correct:
• He thought there will be many people applying/applicants or there will be several people leaving
messages.

Most candidates were able to respond correctly to this question but directly lifting from the text.
This too was a R1 level question.

(d) Why did Martin say, “Come on, Mum!”?

The following answers were accepted as correct:
• Babysitting is not appropriate for him.
• Not the kind of job for boys

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Most candidates were unable to interpret this particular question this could be due to the type of
question (R3 – Understand and collate implicit meaning and attitudes) therefore most of the candidates
just paraphrase this question. This was a R3 level question.

(e) What was it about the house that made Martin pause outside before going in? Mention two details.
The candidates were supposed to analyze and deduce from the reaction that followed after that particular
question was asked.
• The house is in poor condition (had seen better days).
• The garden is not looked after/ overgrown/there were manyweeds in the garden.

The majority did not understand this question, hence, they directly copied the reaction,
rather than decipher the meaning behind the said reaction which leads us to the only two acceptable
answers. This was a R3 level question.

(f) What shocked Martin when the door of house number 6 first opened?
The acceptable and the correct answer to this particularquestion was:
• The man looked rather strange.
• The man had an unkempt grey beard and piercing eyes.

The majority of the answers were lifted directly from the text. This is a R1 level question.

(g) What impression did Martin gain from the interior of the house?
Any of the following answers were accepted as correct:
• No one lived there.
• No one maintained or cleaned it.

Most candidates were unable to interpret this type of question, presumably due to the fact that it was
a R3 level question. (R3 – Understand and collate implicit meaning and attitudes).

(h) Why did the man’s instruction seem strange to Martin? Mention two details.
This question appeared to have been a fluke, for a lack of a better word, as the only candidates who
succeeded in answering it correctly must have had a stroke of luck on their side, because most of the
candidates gave the wrong answers. Allow us to reiterate, only a fistful of candidates managed
to score a mark for this question. Any one of these two answers listed below were acceptable
as the correct answer.

• The man wanted everything to be kept.

• Martin thought the furniture was useless.

This was a R1 and R3 level question.

(i) What particularly made this work appealing to Martin? Mention two details. This was R1 question,
therefore, several candidates faired well. However, below is a list of correct answers that were
accepted for this question.
• The remuneration (N$800) was higher than he expected.
• He would not be supervised

(j) Why was Martin hesitant about having a female helper?

The correct answer was:
• The furniture might be too heavy/ the furniture was heavy.

We were pleased to acknowledge that many candidates handled this particular question swimmingly. We
can only surmise that it was attributed to the fact that it was a R1 question.

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2 This question which was also based on Passage 1 consisted of part (a) for which the candidates were
required to mention points from the passage that suggested that the job was very important to Martin.
Most candidates were able to lift correct ideas from the passage, while a few just copied directly from the
text. Some candidates responded in paragraph format while others just wrote phrases. Teachers are
urged to teach the candidates to write in point form. The part (b) of the question required candidates to
write a summary of 100 – 150 words with the ideas written as their response in part (a). Many candidates
did not use their ideas from part (a) but rather wrote a summary of the whole passage and they missed
the correct information in so doing. Some candidates did not use the answers of 2(a) in order to write
the answer for 2(b). Paragraphs were lengthy and did not stick to the number of words given. This
caused candidates to lose out on marks. Teachers are encouraged to familiarised the candidates with the
assessment objectives of this question paper in order to prepare them for their final examination.

(a) Candidates were expected to answer in the following manner:

1. Martin needs money (much needed money)
2. Mid-term was his only chance to finda job.
3. Martin under pressure/depressed not having a job/money (gloomy/really needed a job)
4. He reacts quickly to the advertisement (without wasting a moment, Martin was on the telephone)
5. The recorded message makes his heart sink.
6. But he still responds…. (he shrugged his shoulders and left a massage anyway)
7. His spirit lifted. When the man called about the job.
8. He is very enthusiastic on the telephone: “Yes perfect!” Yes, that’s fine! Great!”
9. He is worried that something might go wrong: “fingers crossed!”
10. Enthusiastic to his mother: “Just right for me!”
11. Undettered by appearance of the house, as he thought “I don’t really have a choice”.
12. He bit his tongue: he did not want to offend the man.
13. Pay is better than expected (N$800.00 instead of N$200.00)
14. He did not show his surprise about the pay, in case the man changed his mind.
15. He was glad to have no supervisor: quietly suppressing his smile.
16. He had to have someone to help him; he might lose a great opportunity.
17. Took care to set off very early.

3 This question was based on passage 2 and the candidates were required to write a speech being invited
at a local secondary school to deliver a motivational speech to final year students about mistakes people
make in life, how to avoid them and how to recover from them. Candidates were expected to use the
content of the passage as a guideline in responding to the question. This question was assessing the
learners’ skills of in-depth reading of the passage and the ability to write clearly, extensively and showcase
appropriate language usage in their responses. This is a directed writing question and students should
be prepared at school through repeated writing activities to master the skills. Most of the candidates
were unable to respond correctly to this question. Many did not have the correct format and structure of a
speech while some opted for a letter as their response. It was again evident that the candidates responded
to questions without understanding and even more without reading the passage for understanding. Some
candidates wrote off topic. More reading of a variety of texts is, therefore, recommended. Candidates
were expected to answer in the following manner that is applicable;

Mistakes people make in life:

• Over confident (I was quite sure that I will be one of them)
• Arrogant (Coming from a middle class family, my first step on the ladder)
• She is simplistic in her view of a lawyer’s job (wearing a black coat, standing in front of the judge and
protecting poor innocent people).
• Complacent (I didn’t study all the topics as I was spending time with my new friend – Sara.
All the same, when I was in the examination hall – pass without studying)
• Look down on others (brushing aside a bunch of students)
• Unrealistic (I couldn’t believe my eyes/tears of rage … how is it possible).

How to avoid and recover from mistakes:

• Be aware, we are not perfect (in our life we make lot of blunders, some are big and some are small).
• Be optimistic (Move and on try again – if you keep on thinking that you have failed, you will never be able
to move on).
• Be realistic (Mother – that is in the past now and I have moved on).
• Stand up for yourself (my father was furious and forced me to get married. I wasn’t brave enough
to protest and I regret that still).
• Be courageous and follow your dreams (my dreams were very precious to me).
• Always be brave (prepared to take charge)
• Don’t give up (I would find a way to make things right).

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3. ADDITIONAL RECOMMENDATIONS:

Question 1

Concerning question 1, teachers are encouraged to expose learners to the assessment objectives as outlined in the
syllabus:

!HǁG 2 KHOMAIS
ǁKhāǁkhāsenaon ge nî ǁkhā în:
KH 1 ǁnâu!ā tsî ǀhaoǀhao !oa!ū hâ ǂans tsî ǂâibasendi tsîna / R1 understand and collate explicit information and
meanings.
KH 2 hō, ǀgora !gâ tsî ǁhûiǂui ǀgaura ǂansa ǀō-aisa !aromas !aroma nî sîsenūse / R2 respond appropriately to written
instructions and directions.
KH 3 ǁnâu!ā tsî ǀhaoǀhao ǂgan!gâsa ǂâibasendi tsî tanisenǀgauga; tsî mûǂgāba ǁnāpa xu ǂnuwi / R3 locate, evaluate
and select relevant information to use for a specific purpose.
KH 4 mû!ā mâtin xoa-aona ǂâibasensa ra mā!kharus tsî īsi gowabasîsenū tsî mâsiga ra ǂnuwisa, īsi gowabasîsenūs
tsîna !khōǂgāhâse / R4 recognise implicit meaning and attitudes.

!HǁG3 XOAS

ǁKhāǁkhāsenaon ge nî ǁkhā în:

X1 mâisaogu tsî mā!kharu ama !khaidi, ǂâidi tsî mûǂgāǀgaugu tsîna / W1 order and present facts, ideas and opinions.

X2 !Eream ǀgau rase ǂandi, ǂâiǀgaugu tsî tanisen ǀgaugu hîa khomai!âs xa ra ǁgâiǂuihe gu ai / W2 respond appropriately
to the information, ideas and attitudes expressed in a text.

X3 ǁGâiǂui ǂandi tsî hō!âdi tsî ǁnān hîa ra hō!âhe, ǂâihe tsî mûnanai hena / W3 articulate experience and express what
is thought, felt and imagined.

X4 Mā!kharu !gâisîsenǂuib ǀkha tsî ǀgau rase !gâ-aonǁga / W4 communicate effectively and appropriately for a given
audience.

X5 Mâisaogu tsî mâi-ai!â ǂansa māsa !amǁareǀgaugu !oa xoaǀgoradi tsî !kharaga ǂâibasen!nôaga ra sîsenūse / W5
organise and present information in given formats using paragraphs and a variety of sentence structures.

X6 Sîsenūǂōrisase xoamûǂgaib, xoasaon tsî hoaraga gowaba sîsenūs di !khaidi, ǀgausa mîdiǁuib tsî xoaǀgaub tsîna /
W7 demonstrate a clear control over internal cohesion and overall coherence in continuous prose writing.

X7 Xoa ǂnuwikhâi rase !kharaga!nâgu !aromadi ai !ammâisa xoaǁgui ǂamdi !nâ-ū / W6 handle accurately spelling,
punctuation and all aspects of grammar.

To surmarise, teachers are urged to accentuate on the various assessment levels of reading and writing. We have
identified it as a conundrum for the learners; they tend to forfeit many marks due to the levels.

Nē ǃharib ain ge ǃnāsase ǁkhāǁkhāsenaona ǂgui ǃgôaba ra ǂoaǃnâ, xui-aon ge ǁgauǃnâ-aona ra ǁgoaǂuihe in
ǁkhāǁkhāsenaona khomais tsî xoas ǃharaǃâis ǁgūbade harase mâi-aiǃâ.

We further detected that under question 1, some candidates were numbering their questions rather than alphabetizing,
hence posing a serious challenge for marking. Therefore, we encourage the teachers to instruct candidates to follow
the correct structure in the question paper.

Question 2

Pertaining to question 2, we took note of an alarming phenomenon; a confusion among some candidates who utilized
passage 2 as a source rather than passage 1 to answer question (2a) and (2b). Teachers are, therefore, spurred to
ensure that candidates follow the correct format for answering this paper.

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Question 3

With regards to question 3, we have discerned that the candidates are lifting answers straight from the passage, without
using their own words or elaborating on their opinions, and as a result many of them forfeited many marks.

4. CONCLUSION

In a nutshell, all teachers are applauded for their diligence and commitment in ensuring that candidates were prepared
for the final examination. The Senior Education Officers in the regions and the Heads of Departments at the schools
are hereby exhorted to discuss the examiner’s report with the subject teachers to guarantee that the recommendations
are implemented.

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6098
Paper 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The purpose of this document is to provide guidance to teachers and tutors who are preparing the learners for external
as well as internal examinations. It should be considered as an interaction between teachers as well as markers and
not criticism.

There is a noticeable improvement in some aspects of this component which are language, style, content and structure,
showing acceptable quality in the general performance of paper two (Continuous Writing). Some teachers indeed
prepare their learners within the authorised assessment framework, but need to focus on specific assessment objectives
and component competencies, whereas some teachers really need to improve in the discharging of their key duty. It is
worrisome that some part-time learners are neglected.

2. COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

Narrative

1 The narrative question required candidates to write about an occasion when someone they underestimated
treated them with kindness. It was one of the most favourite topics as learners could fully grasp the
requirements of the question to develop well-structured coherent content and style, using appropriate
vocabulary. Some candidates generated relevant and effective essays, whereas others confused
underestimate with disrespect and dislike.

2 This narrative question required learners to narrate a story about a dream that actually happened after
they had dreamed about it, which was based on a statement “Dreams really do come true”. This is one
of the topics, which learners could relate to, to produce satisfactory responses. There were a few who
wrote about others dreams or simply narrated a story. It is advisable for learners to practise statement,
quotation/ expression and idiom-based exercises in normal teaching and learning.

Descriptive

3 This particular descriptive essay required learners to write descriptively about a long walk they had taken
through beautiful surroundings. Just like any descriptive essay, they were to describe what they saw,
heard and felt. This was among the most selected questions and the candidates who opted for it, could
indeed relate personal experience and provide relevant style as well as language.

4 This descriptive essay required learners to give a description of their favourite place in their town/village/
farm/settlement and say what makes that particular place so special. This too was one of the most opted
for, as it was relevant for most learners who could link the responses with actual instances.

Argumentative

5 In this argumentative essay learners were to argue “Young people should be encouraged to consume
traditional foods and drinks”. They were to state if they agree or disagree and then justify their option. This
was among the least favoured questions as learners could not generate adequate style and appropriate
vocabulary to justify their answers. Some learners interpreted the question that young people should only
consume traditional foodstuff and drinks.

6 The topic required learners to give their opinions and justify their answers based on a motion that “animals
should have rights just like humans”. There was a balance of selection for this question. It was well
answered and relevant opinions as well as justifications were tendered even though some learners
provided general ideas on animal conservation. Generally, the only problem with argumentative essays
is, that learners tend to be more discursive than argumentative. Learners should be well taught about the
difference and not provide both sides of the issue. Learners should be made aware that argumentative
essays often demand relevant facts, statistics and information, and thus, should be provided as such in
certain topics.

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3. HINTS ON TEACHING, SYLLABUS COMPLETION, SYLLABUS INTERPRETATION, GENERAL FINDINGS
ON LANGUAGE, STYLE, CONTENT AND STRUCTURE

1 Xoamûǂgaisǁgaragu, (ǂan!gâsa Ortoxrafib) Gowab tsî ǀgaub

Some learners still use capital letters to write the whole essay making the marking process roblematic, while others
disregard the use of the capital letter at the beginning of each sentence. The use of degree of comparison
(ǀnûgus ǃharodi) is improperly used as in “ǁkhoaxaste”. Gaxugaxusaob tsî ǁnunu!nâbes usage is still a thorn
in the flesh as most learners degrade the quality of writing Khoekhoegowab at first language level and these are
prospective AS-Level learners for that matter. The usage of! kharaga ǂâibasen !nôagu is seemingly disregarded:
simple, compound and complex sentences are not appropriately used. Learners should be taught lguiǀnōb,
ǂguiǀnōb, suriǁgaudi, hoaǁae ra xoaǁarehe mîdi tsî xoaǁarehe tama mîdi, ǂâibasenǃamǁares (mîdi mâti nî
saogus). ǁKhāǁkhāsenaon ge ǂâǁaemîdi ǀkha ǂâibasenga tsoatsoasa nî ǂgōsen, nēn ge ǃgubidi ǃnâ ǀgôan ǀkha a
dīhe ǁkhā.

Handwriting styles are to be monitored at school to make sure that learners generate work that could be followed
by any person. Teachers must please ensure that learners’ handwriting is clear and legible. Learners should
refrain from writing the clicks (l, !, ǂ, ǀ) in cursive handwriting.

Learners are expected to produce written pieces that are largely concise and within the appropriate length. Some
learners are writing over the margin, while some are writing rather short sentences not even reaching the margin.
These should be avoided at all cost, and teachers should encourage learners to write reasonable length of
sentences.

It would serve a proper purpose to give learners the marking grids, and by so doing explain to them the description/
criteria within each band. Make the learners aware during school-based assessment how markers interpret the
marking grids for learners to be credited in higher bands. Please consult the examiner’s report of the previous
year to eliminate the repetition of mistakes annually and over the years.

Teachers should make use of the Mind-Map Approach for drafting, to guide the learners on how to generate and
group ideas in essay writing. Also, they should teach the learners about different stages of writing (planning)
drafting, editing and final piece of writing.

Some learners still answer more than two different questions at this level, this could be avoided if assessment
at school level is based on external examination format. Therefore, teachers should assess learners at schools
and give feedback timeously. Let the learners do more creative writing activities with proper feedback providing
correction and follow-up to be done. Let the learners avoid long tedious paragraphs in their creativite writing, and
always be conscious of the audience. These are syllabus requirement to be taught to learners.

2 !Khōǂgāb tsî llaposa !amǁareb

The examples given are not prescriptive:

ǁGamba/ ǁGaeba- Eto ti khoedo…, ǂgom du ge tide, xawe ǁnātsēs ge…, kō re amase ta ge ǁnā ǁaxasib tawa…,
ti axa mûhe ra hîa ǁnā gūsa ge ǂā…, titse ama tsū ge ī tsēs ge… hmmm… amase ta ge… (ǁkhoab, mûnanaib, tsî
hō!âsens lkha !âi-xoa-aona xoakai re). The elements of characterisation and theme should be prominent in these
essays.

Xoa!gā!gās/ mî!gā!gās: hoaraga soros hō!â-ūx¡n ge dîhe tama i ga ixawe nî xoahe. What you heard, saw,
felt, tasted or smelt should be included in these essays. Xoa!gā!gā ra mîdi ge !nāsase nî sîsenūhe, lonmîlarode
!khōǂgā hâse.

ǂNoagu rase - tide, tama, īǁoa, mā-amhe tide, nîmā-amhe ǁkhā/ǁoa, amase ta lgaisase !khō!gâ/mâ!oa/ ǂkhâ!nâ,
kai ǁaposasib lkha ta ra…, ǂkhā, ū!oahe ǁkhā/ǁoa/tide, tsū/!gâi, ǁgai/ ǁkhōllkhōsa, lhû!khō-am ta ra ama, ama tama
tā, lgui lkhāb ai ta ga kō, nau lkhāb ta ga kō, etc. The learners should have a firm stance from the onset and refrain
from producing discursive essays; it should be for or against and be well developed with facts, experiences and
perspectives. The tone and style should be evident in the essays.

Saogub/!hûǁarelgaub - cohesiveness - aiǁgaudi - ǂgurose… tsoatsoas !nâ…, ti ǂgaeǂguiǂgās !nâ, llî-i a ǂguro xū-
ige… (ǂGaeǂguiǂgās).

Sao rase… lgamllîse…!kharukai ta ka… sao!gâgu rase…laro rase… hālaro rase… Gorose ta ga !kharuo… lnîs hîa
hâs ge… ǁkhāti…ais ǁga da ga kō o… (omkhâis !khōǂgāb dis).
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lAmlam ta ra !nūb ai…lams ai ta ramîsge…lunis ai ta ra lgomlgom!gaos ge … !khō!namis !nâ ta ga ǁapoǁapo…
!nupu !gupuse ta ga mîo…hoan khao!gâ ta ge…!khōǁare tsî ta ge ra mî…(lamlams !aroma)

3 Substitutions and Confused words

Tawa- Sida oms tawa ta ge kurina ǁan hâ. Da- Khoese da ge xamarina nî gaoǂam. Ta- ǁîba ta ge ǁnātikōse ge
ǃgôaǁnâhâ-i. tā- Tā da ge xamarina nî ǃgamǂui. Dawa- ǁAn go ǁgan-i ge xuige dawa re. si- Amaba ta ge ra mîba
si. Sî- Kaikhoen ge ǀgôana kais ge ra sî. Sī- ǃgâise da ge ǃgaroǃās tawa ge sī.

Xū-i – Nē xū-i ge ǀamsa nî hō. Mâ khoe-i hoa-i ge ǂhanuga ūhâ. Mâ tsî da ta kō hîa ge ǂnoahe xammi ge. ǀGuruna
ǂhanuga mā re, khoen ǁkhān khami.

Xu-i- Nēpa xu-i ge khoe-e ækharu tide. ǀGôan- Hoa khoen ge ǀgôan kaikhâi ǃnâ nî ǃâǀhuru. ǃNāsa khoen ge ǀgoan
ǀkha ra ǂgari.

Teachers/Tutors are advised to put these terms/words into context with proper examples to assist the learners to
have a better grasp of their usage. There is only one acknowledged orthography beside the dialectical diversity,
and thus teachers and learners are required to write in a uniformly representational Khoekhoegowab taught in
schools and appearing in all written materials. The substitution of the digraphs (ǀgamǂgeregu) and tri-graphs
(ǃnonaǂgeregu) is very prevalent in almost all the centres. For example, ǁkharos (shoe) instead of ǁharos, which
causes the contextual matter to be compromised as the central theme is not clearly outlined. Learners should also
be made conscious of verbal articulation (informal speech/colloquial) tsînam, hoanam, xawenam, onam, gē, ti mas,
ti pab, and conventional (official) written linguistic awareness.

Informal, colloquial selections and in KKG but written in English or Afrikaans terms

Plaas, ys, nousisa, antisa, parki, aipers, basr, restaurants, vreise, phonega, soccers, videona, post, information,
aie, economic, teke, enexa, blomdi, flie, masorte, papiri, party, helega, want, dorpi, anxan, mutiba, ouman oupan,
gē.

4. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS AND RECOMMENDATIONS TO TEACHERS/TUTORS FOR FULL-TIME AND

PART-TIME CENTRES

Learners should give their essay a clear title and also indicate the number of the essay they have selected, which makes
the marking more efficient and effective.

It is still a great concern that there is a reduplication of language errors that were outlined last year as only a limited
number of teachers addressed the content of the examiner’s report. This is highly valued. The errors range from
improper spelling, inappropriate usage of parts of speech, inadequate syntax, erroneous semantics, feeble morphology,
ineffective lexis, incorrect suffixes, multiple phonemic flaws, improper terminology, inconsistent paragraphing,
inappropriate usage of idiomatic expressions, the meagre usage of clauses and phrases, incorrect syllabification,
unfitting use of monographs, digraphs and tri-graphs.

It is noted with great concern that some learners are not taught the syllabus components on pages 10 -12. It is of
paramount importance that learners are prepared on how to interpret and present ideas in the different types of essays
which is evident at some centres and acknowledged.

Learners are expected to organise, present and link their ideas clearly as well as appropriately between paragraphs.
Learners at this level (NSSCO) are expected to generate sufficient content for enough output at the appropriate level
relative to language, style, content and structure. It is a good practice to give leaners from Grade 8, names of towns,
cities, villages, and months of the year, seasons, directions, school subjects, colours, shapes, animals (wild and
domestic), days of the week and OMA’s names. Learners should be guided in the appropriate way of counting words,
not to exceed the required length or write the numbers on top of each word making the work untidy.

Language is dynamic and, thus developing some terms, phrases and concepts might be new/foreign to our native
languages and it is recommended that pro-active approaches be taken in such instances in the classrooms. It is
noted that some teachers really complete their syllabuses in appropriate time and teach the learners paper specific
competencies interpreting the specific competencies properly. Regrettably some teachers do not manage to complete
the syllabus and only teach what they are comfortable with.

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5. CONCLUSION

Ada toxopa ǁkhāǁhāsenaona Khoekhoegowab lōga (Phonology) Xrat 8sa xu Xrat 11s kōse ǁgau!nâ re, aiǁgause:
lŌmûdi, lGamlōgu, lHūlōmûdi, Namǂnaugu, ǂGeregu tsȋna. An ǁkhāǁkhāsenaona !kharagagu ǂâibasengu tsȋ
xoalgorade xoasa mâi-ai!âhe re gaxu xoaǀgorade xoasa ǂgōsenkai, kaise ǃgabu tsî ǁkhoao khomaisa ūhâ xuige, tsî
ǁkhāti ǂâibasen!amǁaresa tā luru.

Learners should be made conscious of the distinctions between formal, informal, official written language, academic,
social and communicative languages. Remember the type of learners we are promoting to AS- Level, should equally
be acceptable and produce quality written work. It is observed that numerous learners who are non-native speakers of
Khoekhoegowab are taking the subject language on First Language level, so really find it difficult to express themselves
in an acquired language. That could have been avoided should mechanisms have been put in place by the centre
following the correct procedures. It deprives such learners of learning and advancing in their respective native languages.

Thank you dearly for all the hard work, sacrifices, direct and indirect inputs regarding the development and preservation
of the language culture. It is a clear testimony that teachers are significant custodians in promoting and preserving
the language culture and its progress in general. Jointly we will attain the assessment objectives of this particular
component. Never get tired of sharing your knowledge with the learners. It is acknowledged and noted. Thank you.
Kai gangans tsȋ lkhaehesa sȋsenǁaeba du ūhâ re. Mâǀgairan ge dansa ra ǃkhōǃoa.

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Paper 3

GENERAL COMMENTS
• Presentation: The majority of written work submitted demonstrated neatness and legibility.
• Overall Performance: While most centers achieved below-average scores, some attained average to above-
average results, which is commendable.
• Spelling: Spelling errors persist, with candidates frequently misspell words, often altering their intended meaning.
Some candidates mistakenly transcribe the titles of guiding bullet points as their answers.
• Critical Response: Candidates struggle to critically engage with the text. Many simply copy or paraphrase
information from the text, either directly or in essay format. Some persist in answering in bullet points despite the
requirement for continuous prose.
• Teacher Guidance: It’s evident that teachers need to provide more effective guidance on answering this specific
question paper. Candidates also require greater exposure to reading and analytical activities in the classroom.
• Answer Booklet Usage: Some candidates skip pages in their answer booklets, highlighting the need for improved
teacher assistance and guidance throughout the academic year.
• Focus on the Question: Candidates should concentrate on the core question rather than attempting to directly
answer the prompts (bullets). The bullets should be used as guidelines to inform their responses.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

This question was supposed to be answered in the continuous prose format.

The main character’s hunting skills

Most candidates scored average marks in this part of the question, as they were mostly able to lift the answers directly
from the text although they failed to explain and substantiate what they had quoted from the text, and this caused them
to loose marks.

Candidates were expected to derive the hunting skills of the main character in relation to his quest to hunt. They were
supposed to mention/state/quote and explain the following points:

- Damab prepared himself spiritually and physically for this contest.

- He was very fast and could tip toe (urus ||khāsib) when going for hunting contest.
- He had knowledge of testing wind direction (His actions while following the elephants demonstrates this)
- He continued to follow the elephant herd for three consecutive days without giving up/losing hope.
- Damab hunted under immense pressure.
- He observed the elephant herd from the tree and noticed how Autab & |Aes battled it out so that he could easily kill the
injured elephant. (He saw the fight as an opportunity for him to get meat)

His Character
Most candidates did not score good marks because the answers to this question was implicit. They were able to lift
correct answers from the text, but they failed to explain and motivate what they quoted or they were rather quoting
without motivating and elaborating the quoted facts.

They were supposed to mention/state/quote and explain the following points:

- Damab is ambitious: – he sees an opportunity to be recognized as the best hunter – Time limit: – he is under pressure
- Damab already has status: – but wants more – This contest is important: – time that will determine Damab’s fate –
- Damab was vengeful – hatred towards Ari Khoen: by uttering the words “I will show them” – Bravery – determination,
following the herds of elephants – He have faith in God: “God heard me” God had different ways of answering”
- He was competitive – dishonesty: attempted to get rewards he did not worked for “cut off elephant’s ear he didn’t kill”
- Was respectful – He respected his competitors. The trophy that meant so much is now meaningless – His hurt and
anger are clear as he throws the meat on the ground.

Damab is determined – ready to do everything in his ability – He is already thinking about the rewards – Every lady was
expecting the best hunter in the evening – But he takes the contest seriously – He started preparing himself spiritually
and physically for the highest competition of his life – He is fair minded – He knew that he had many competitors and
had respected their abilities.
This clearly demonstrates Damab’s knowledge and skills –- And persistence – he follows the herd for 3 days – And his
feeling for his prey – he names the elephant bulls and understands their behaviour - He is devout – The Lord heard my
prayer. The Lord of wonders – He is careful – He tested the direction from where the wind blew – His success makes
Damab think about the rewards – the ladies – he will be the champion hunter – represent the tribe – called by someone
from their tribe to fulfil the obligation of the ancestors

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POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS
Statement: The author wants to demonstrate that Damab was very competitive and willing to do anything in his power
to win the hunting contest.

Quote: “He started preparing himself spiritually and physically for the highest competition of his life.”

Explain: This type of expressions shows his commitment and willingness to win the hunting quest no matter what it
takes. He was prepared to give it his all to ensure that he emerges as the winner.

• Candidates must critically analyze the text, and must refer to the intentions, views and the language of the author,they
must not paraphrase.
• Teachers are urged to put emphasis on reading with understanding during normal teaching.
• Candidates should be taught how to evaluate the texts, motivate the answers and to develop their ideas in writing.
• Teachers should give candidates more exercises that require critical response, while addressing the spelling
errors,punctuations and general usage of the language.
• Teachers are urged to study the marking grid thoroughly and apply it accordingly.

CONCLUSION
Finally, all teachers are commented for their hard work and dedication in ensuring that candidates were prepared
forthe final examination. The Senior Education Officers and Head of Departments at the schools, are hereby urged
todiscuss examiner’s reports with their teachers, to ensure that the suggestions and recommendations in this report is
implemented.

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Paper 4

GENERAL COMMENTS

Comments on the interpretation of the assessment criteria

It is noticed that there is a general improvement in the overall conduct, approaches and performance of examiners
and candidates in this assessment component. Although most examiners master the interpretation of the assessment
criteria, it is worrisome that some examiners misinterpret the assessment criteria and thus are being too lenient or
severe with awarding marks. It is recommended that examiners ensure access to the centre specific reports and
general language definite examiner’s report. Once more examiners are advised to monitor each chapter or part of the
research report in order to spot mistakes or render desired assistance. It is noted that at some centres this practice is
not carried out at all, both full-time and part-time centres.

1. Sampling

Some centres still do not indicate the candidates who were in the sample with an asterisk (*) as required. This made the
moderation process cumbersome. When selecting candidates for the sample, examiners should consider the cultural
aspects which were researched to include a variety, even though the main focus is on the abilities; to facilitate external
moderation.

2. Interpretation of the Assessment Criteria

Examiners misinterpreted the Assessment Criteria or simply ignored it, or else did not make use of the marking grid at
all. Examiners should not be subjective when awarding marks. Only candidates who can evaluate data from various
sources and who can develop personal responses may be placed in higher bands. A significant number of candidates
were able to evaluate the information they collected.

Topic formulation appeared to be a thorn in the flesh for many centres. Most research topics are too broad with the
particularity aspect lagging.

ǂÂǂamǃkhais- Sara-anaǀgaub

Xoaǂams- Mâtin ǀKhaua Naman ǃAutsabises ǀkharib dina ǃhâuǁharode ǁîn ǃhaoǃnâsi xîn ase ra ǃgawaǀî? Instead of
Naman sara- analgaub xa.

ǂGaeǂguiǂgās/ Introduction

This component should be well thought out as it should be a mind-arousing and eye-catching for the reader. Some
candidates indeed nailed it, while others struggled.

The main Turaxasib/ Purpose or interest in the topic /object/artefact

Most candidates improved in the formulation of the particular part, while some still just narrate in general about the topic
instead of giving an overview of why they opted particularly for the topic/object/artefact.

ǀUruǁgūbas Ôaǀnâs dis/Main Research Objective

Tare-i ǃaroman ǀKhauna ǃhâuǁharode ra ana tsî mâtin ra kuruhe ǃkhaisa ǂanǂui.

Contain a functional verb e.g. to know, to find out, to understand, to establish, to draw a conclusion etc. Most candidates
managed to come up with a main research objective competently, but candidates formulated it as a question. It should
be similar to the competencies in the syllabus. What would the researcher like to achieve?

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Ôaǃnâs Dîdi/Ôaǀnâs ǁGūbadi/Research Questions/Research Objectives

State what the researcher wants to know, find out, determine, establish, understand, and conclude about the topic /
object / artefact? This was well executed by most candidates with exceptional accuracy.

ǂAnshare-ūxūn/Data collection methods

Information collection methods such, observation, (mûǃharas) interview, (dîǃnâǁgamǁares) questionnaires

(dîǂuiǃnâǂaweb) and participation (ǁhaoǃnâs). Which of these methods were used to gather information from the
informants? There is no necessity to provide explanations about the methods, unless otherwise stated. ǁGamǁares:
Kaira taras hîa ǀKhowesen ǃhaoǃnâsib xa ǃnāsa ǂansa ūhâs ǀkha, Khaxatsūs tawa 24 Gamalaeb 2023.

Mâi-aiǃâs hōǂuin dis/Presentation of the Findings

This component should in refined detail outline what the researcher has gathered about the topic and how sufficiently
the main research objective was addressed. It was observed that at certain centres this part was not even attempted.

ǃHoaǂams tsî tsoaǃnâs hōǂuin dis/Discussion and Analysis of findings

With reference(saying where the researcher got the information from) evaluate the information gathered.

Relate the findings with his/her own knowledge and draw conclusions/contrast and make judgements. This is equally
one of the vital aspects of the research and should contain sufficient information. If sources are not acknowledged it will
be considered as academic theft (plagiarism). Very few candidates could do this part although it was well formulated.

ǃKhōǃnamis/Conclusion

Explain how satisfactorily the main objective is answered or addressed by informants. This was well highlighted in many
instances.

ǃUrudi/ǁNaeǁgauǀîxūn/Sources/References

There is still a slight confusion between sources used and information gathering techniques. Candidates should
be advised to acknowledge sources used whether in-text referencing of in the reference list. In the Orature Guidelines
from NIED under the heading !Urudi, on page 11, section 9, Ûitsama ǁhaoǃnâs and ǁGamǁaredi falls under data
collection techniques, gonīsigu falls under ǂÂkhaogu, Names of people, websites, books, magazines, newspaper
articles, learners books all fall under references and sources. Although there is no prescribed referencing style for this
CW, it is ideal to have a comprehensive academic reference list, in alphabetical order. Most candidates wrote the data
collection methods as their references. Possible referencing format for the same Kaira taras with whom an interview
was contacted fall under data collection methods: Tsūses, M. E. (2023). Khaxatsūs.

ǂÂkhaogu/Add-ons/Appendages

Any pictures, images supporting as evidence used in the research should be accompanied by a brief explanation as how
it is linked with the research content. Some candidates added passive materials with no elaborative notes. Candidates
should not enclose liquids or too wet substances as evidence as it causes untidiness in all papers.

OTHER RELEVANT COMMENTS

Examiners are advised to observe the preparation and supervision stages of the report as outlined in the School-
Based Assessment Guidelines (Discussion + Selection + Draft + Final). The multiple language and typing errors
made are clear demonstrations that these stages are neglected at some centres. Please encourage the candidates
to select a variation of topics from the same centre, rather than candidates choosing one or two of the same topics. A
variation in the sampling will do justice to the external moderation. Examiners are advised to discourage mortal and
hurting themes related to death during topic selection for the research. Many candidates did not attain the required
number of words (700‒1000). Some reports are very short, especially candidates who typed the reports are making
use of bigger font size. The correct Khoekhoegowab fonts like (Namibian Arial) should be used to avoid the multitude of
language errors. The purpose of this exercise is to explore and expand the knowledge of local or native traditional and
societal customs as well as contemporary issues.

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Even though language usage is not marked, please encourage the candidates to use correct spelling, diction and syntax
to add value to the reports. Candidates should be made aware as the need to acknowledge sources the information is
taken from, in-text as well as reference lists. Some candidates still submit untidy work with ragged margins and dirty
papers scratched all over, presenting a bad impression of the language in general. It is worth mentioning that most
examiners and centres observe a positive paradigm shift in this assessment component. There should be a clear
table of contents attached. Candidates should be informed to select only one object/issue/artefact and do research
about it instead of many. An example is Damara traditional medicine: Aukoreb ǀguiba ǁhûi re, or Nama traditional
food: Tsaoperes xa ǀgui ôaǃnâ re. The external moderation team observed duplication of course work, candidates in
same or different towns and centres sharing certain if not the all components of the research. Some examiners do not
mark nor does the supervision of the reports of candidates take place. Some centres submitted course work that was
never seen by the examiner. This can easily be authenticated by the amount of grammatical and structural flaws in the
course work. Please, even if the handwriting is indecipherable just read the work, but not disadvantage the candidate.
If and when a particular establishment introduces the Senior Secondary Phase, please, liaise with the circuit, cluster or
regional teachers or education officer for assistance relative to all pedagogical and assessment matters. ǀGui ǀkhunub
urisa ǃkhō tama hâ xuige.

Administration issues

Examiners are required to fill in the manual OASF and ASF, from which the marks are to be transferred electronically on
a USB in the MS1. All these forms must be enclosed in the pre-prepared envelope from the DNEA. Please, ensure with
the internal moderation that all relevant documents or and material are packed, functional and dispatched.Once more
examiners and HEC are informed that the course work of all candidates is to be submitted, not only the samples. It is
well established that some candidates are given merits they indeed do not deserve, juxtaposed with the quality of work
submitted. It is prudent to award realistic and assessment credible marks.Its also worth mentioning that some examiners
do not peruse the centre specific and generic examiner’s reports, resulting in the same types of slipups resurfacing.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS

• Some centres and examiners are indeed applauded for the efforts they exert in the realisation of the written course
work.

• A few examiners observed the assessment procedures and there were no language, or structural flaws in the
reports.

• A good number of examiners provided proper guidance and many candidates enclosed relevant evidence to
substantiate their research findings.

• Kaise kai gangans! Thank you very much. Let us retain the strengths and endlessly toil to overcome the
shortcomings.

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Paper 5

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

Centres collected sufficient information on various cultural artefacts, contemporary issues and objects. It was indeed
an immense effort by some centres under extenuating circumstances which is worth appreciation! Recorded evidence
of voices of informants, videos and pictures are very important showing the candidate went out on fieldwork for Section
A (Presentation). Overall there is great improvement on almost all aspects of the speaking and listening component.

Quality of recording

There were really no major challenges to this component as the examination centres ensured quiet locations for the
oral examination, even though at a few centres there were background sounds and disturbances experienced. Centres
should make sure to display “Silence! Examination in Progress” posters to avoid unwanted chatting and turbulences.

Range of sample

There were no challenges experienced in this regard, except that some centres had few entries to provide a variety
of abilities in the sample. The SBA Guidelines are clearly stipulating the formula for the sample such as the number
of examiners at the centre and the sampling in such instances. DNEA determines the number of candidates to be
moderated, therefore, all the audios should be dispatched.

2. COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC SECTIONS

The oral examination consists of two sections: Section A (Presentation) and Section B (Discussion). The two should
be treated separately.

Section – A (Presentation) (10 Marks)

There is visible evidence of improvement from most centres, though there is still a challenge for the particular section
for some centres. Examiners are advised that Section A is the presentation of the candidate relative to the research/
topic of choice. This is not the warm-up session or a part where candidates introduce themselves. No questions,
interjections or any form of interference is entertained in this section. Warm-up is not part of the assessment and
examiners are not compelled to record the warm-up, it could be done off record to put the candidates at ease. There is
a need that centres work on the overall presentation skills of the general school populace. Once more do not give any
particular candidate the impression that he/she did fine or badly with body gestures or verbal annotations.

Interpretation and application of assessment criteria

Examiners demonstrated clear understanding of the assessment criteria and marks are warded as outlined in the
marking grid, even though there are still some examiners whose interpretations are not on standard with the majority
of examiners.

Section B (Discussion) (20 marks)

This section is well conducted as most of the examiners engaged the candidates effectively. Examiners should ask
open-ended questions to engage the candidates more in the discussion. Avoid examiners dictating the discussion
to make it look like a monologue or an interview. The questions are based on what the examiner picked up during
the presentation done on the particular day and also during the marking of the research report. Examiners should
avoid questions based on testing the knowledge of the candidates on the topic. Examiners should avoid showing any
form of satisfaction or dissatisfaction with the contributions made by the candidates and thus refrain from drawing
conclusions for candidates. Examiners should not initiate the discussion duration by cutting off the candidates in their
contributions or telling the candidates that they are approaching the end. Some discussions are relatively very short, not
even stretching over 5 minutes! Can the examiners please look into this important assessment aspect. It is observed
that some examiners are subjective and show resentment towards certain candidates.

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Examination Techniques

The atmosphere was generally good as most candidates were tranquil and cool under the circumstances. Centres are
congratulated for this! Some interesting thought-provoking questions were asked: “If you are to repeat the research
project, what will you do differently?”

Interpretation of the Assessment Criteria

The higher bands (1 and 2) are for candidates who are unprompted, initiate and lead the discussion not for candidates
who need to be prompted. These bands are also not for candidates who narrate what they were told by the informants,
but paraphrase and refine the information they received, acknowledging the sources. They are for candidates who
extend the topic, candidates who are confident and who analyse or evaluate different perspectives. These type of
candidates were observed during this session. Candidates should not read from pre-prepared notes during this
section, nor should they memorise all the content of the written course work.

4. RECOMMENDATIONS
• Examiners should discourage the use of English and Afrikaans terminology for existing vocabulary. No coinage or
creolization is allowed.
• Examiners do not need to repeat centre particulars and the examiner’s name for every candidate. Examiners
should ask different questions to individual candidates instead of general questions or predetermined questions for
all the candidates.
• Centres are once again requested to ensure that the USBs are functional and virus free. Once a devise is scanned
all the information on the devise might be lost.
• Please inform HEC to ensure that the administrative part is carefully done, tick all the boxes on the respective Pre-
prepared labels and pack the components separately as indicated on the adhesive labels.
• Some examiners do not indicate or make samples for the centres, making the moderation more cumbersome.
• If there are numerous candidates who are not native speakers of the language and really struggle to express
themselves to conduct the exam, consult the DNEA earlier to be advised on possible interventions.
• Examiners must be wary not to elicit general questions about the topic, as if they want to corner the candidates.
They should rather ask questions based on the research and predominant situation.
• Examiners should avoid statements such as: ǀams aim ta ǀkhī ǃnūbai, ǀam ǃgûm ra ǁaeb ai, ǀuniga dîros hîa ta ūhâs
ge, ǁaeb xam ra ǃkhōhe xuige ts.ǁn.ts.ǁn.
• Examiners should avoid the use of slang, colloquial/tsotsi/unprofessional, non-academic language during the
assessment process. e.g. aweh, esja, salute, sharp, just to mention but a few.
• Please let us retain all the strengths and proactively labour around the shortcomings. ǀÛsen tamase ra ǁgoran ge
ǀams ai danis di ǁkhoaba nî ǀama, xuige tā ǂgoab xa ǃkhōmâihe. ǁGûs ǁâb ai abahe tsî ā tama ǀgôaro-i ge ǁō hâ
ǀgôaro-e xuige tā ǀguri ǃgomma tani, huiba ¸gan. Kaise kai gangans! Thank you very much!

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FIRST LANGUAGE OSHIKWANYAMA
6099
Paper 1

GENERAL COMMENTS
This was the fifth year of the NSSCO examination. This year, it is evident that most of the candidates were not trained on
the assessment objectives. Many candidates struggled to answer contextual questions based on specific assessment
objectives. For example; instead of attempting a specific question that required an R3 response, they attempted it with
R1 response. Candidates’ answers are evident that the summative assessment set at the school, circuit and regional
level are not of good quality and they are not preparing candidates for the national examination. Teachers should teach
or train learners on the assessment objectives, as they are stipulated in the syllabus, by integrating them practically
using a variety of texts with different types of questions to train learners in their everyday teaching. Schools, circuits and
regions should set examinations of the same standard of the national examination to fill up the gap.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

SECTION A

QUESTION 1

(a) The question was fairly well answered. It required candidates to answer why Martin was stressed at
the start/beginning of the story. The candidates were expected to give two details which are: Okwa
li a hala oilonga / okwa li a pumbwa okulimonenqa okafilinga/ina mona oilonga / okwa kala ta pewa
omanyamukulo a faafana oo ina teelela. It was difficult for the candidates to answer correctly. Some
wrong answers were: Omutima waye ohau kala wa lindimana shama a pewa enyamukulo/ ondi wete
nda ya kokwena kwa xula/ okwa nyamukulwa kokatumwalaka komongodi kakeshe umwe; and they
were not awarded marks.

(b) The question required candidates to give two details as to why Martin was disappointed when he
rang the number in the advertisement. The following answers were accepted: Okwa nyamukulwa
kokatumwalaka komongodi kakeshe umwe / kape na ou e mu nyamukula / ondi wete nda ya kokwena
kwa xula/ ke wete ta mono omhito ei yoilonga / kakwa li a teelela a alukilwe komuyandji woilonga.
Some candidates gave wrong answers, such as: otapa ka kala pe na onduba yovanhu vahapu va
fiya po outumwalaka / omhito ei nayo nandi i xupule ashike. This question was answered poorly as
candidates only managed to give one answer correct.

(c) This question was answered well by most of the candidates. It required candidates to answer why
Martin felt pessimistic. Candidates were expected to provide the following answers: Okwa li e udite
kutya otapa ka kala ovanhu vahapu tava kongo oilonga / otapa ka kala pe na onduba yovanhu vahapu
va fiya po outumwalaka. However, a few candidates answered as: Ondi wete nda ya kokwena kwa
xula, which was wrong.

(d) This question was poorly answered by most of the candidates. It required candidates to answer
this question “Why did Martin say, “Come on, Mom!”? It was supposed to be answered as: Oilonga
yokukala nounona inai mu wapalela / fi shi oilonga yokulongwa kovalumenhu. Most of the candidates
answered this question poorly by giving the following answers: Shaashi ina okwe mu pula ngeenge
oilonga oyokukala nounona / okwa lulilwa komapulo aina / oku wete ina te mu pula omapulo mahapu.

(e) This question was poorly answered as most of the candidates managed to earn one point only. The
question asked, “What was it about the house that made Martin pause outside before going in?” The
two required details were: Eumbo ola li tali monika inali filwa oshisho/ oshikunino inashi filwa oshisho/
oimbodi oile neenghono / moshikunino omwa li mu yadi oimbodi yomaludi e lili nokulili. Those who
failed it gave the following answers: eumbo ola li tali monika la fa la pewa ombuda / eumbo leenduda
da londafana loudjeko.

(f) Most candidates responded well to this question. The question asked, “What shocked Martin when
the door of house no-6 opened?” The following answers were considered to be correct: omuvelo
owa yeululwa komushamane e na oukwatya utilifi / omuvelo owa yeululwa komushamane e na
omandjedi matoka inaa filwa oshisho nomesho ihae litwikwa. Some of the wrong responses provided
by candidates were: eumbo ola li tali nyika ombukuku ngomunhu oto ti eputu / konyala olukolongo

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alishe ola li li na emate lakulupa lo oli yadi ondwi, nekuma la li la fewekwa neembapila dokekuma da
fiilila domaluvala a yoolokafana.

(g) This question was poorly answered. The question asked, “What impression did Martin get from inside
of the house?” The answer to this question was: meumbo omwa li tamu monika mwa fa ihamu kala
omunhu / kape na ou he li file oshisho ile he li wapaleke; candidates gave wrong answers such as:
okwa li a kumwa / okwa li a limbililwa.

(h) This question was fairly well answered by most of the candidates. The question asked “Why did
the man’s instructions seem strange to Martin, mention two details.” The correct responses were
supposed to be: omushamane okwa li a hala keshe shimwe shi li meumbo shi pakelwe / Martin okwa
li e udite kutya oipundi noitafula oyo yakulupa inai pumbwa okupakelwa / keshe shimwe nashi tulwe
melandulafano paludi lasho nokupakelwa noukeka. Some candidates failed this question for they
have written the following answers: omushamane okwa li a hala oinima i yele mo manga oshivike
inashi pwa ko / omushamane ota popi a lulika oshipala / omushamane okwa nyamukula kutya kai shi
oilonga yaye / okwa li ta futwa oimaliwa i dulife poN$200.

(i) This question was answered fairly well. The question asked “What particularly made this work
appealing to Martin? mention two details.” The following responses were considered to be correct:
ondjabi oya li i li pombada (N$800) shi dulife eshi kwa li a teelela / Martin kakwa li a teelela ondjabi i
dulife pomafele avali / itapa ka kala omutonateli. The candidates who failed this question responded
as: Okwa li a pewa omhito a konge kaume kaye; okwa li a pewa omhito yokufiya okatumwalaka
kongodi yaRobert “ngeenge owa pumbwa nge fiya okatumwalaka kongodi yange”.

(j) Most candidates responded well to this question. The question asked, “Why was Martin hesitant
about having a female helper?” The candidates who answered this question correctly, provided
the following answers: oku udite kutya oipundi noitaafula otai dulu i kale idjuu kokakadona. Few
candidates failed this question because they provided the following answers: osheshi ohava udafana
nawa naEmily / ookaume vaye okwa li va kwatakana.

QUESTION2 (a)
This question was also based on passage 1 and it consisted of part (a), for which candidates list points from the
passage. They were expected to identify facts that suggest that the job was very important to Martin. Candidates were
expected to respond in note form using the language of the original text.

Candidates were expected to give their answers in R1 and R2 and most were able to lift some correct points pertaining
to the questions. Some have lifted incomplete points (phrases) with no ideas while others lifted too long sentences or
even paragraphs. Others have lifted irrelevant points that are not answering the question.
Some candidates responded in a paragraph format which is very wrong. Some did not number their points, but used
bullets instead, while others have lifted more than 15 points which led to the marker marking the first 15 points only.

The expected answers were:

1. Martin okwa pumbwa okafilinga (okafilinga oko a pumbwa neenghono)

2. Okafudo kopokati koshikako oko ashike omhito omo ta dulu okulimonena oilonga

3. Martin te likupaula nomadilaadilo eshi ehe na oilongo/ oimaliwa (omwenyo waye ohau kala wa lindimana/
onda pumbwa shili oilonga)

4. Ine likwata eshi a mona eshivifo loilonga (diva diva, Martin okwa denga ongodi)

5. Okwatumwalaka kaaveshe oka wifa omutima waye pedu.

6. Okwa fiya po okatumwalaka… (okwa tunya komapepe, ndele ta fiye po okatumwalaka)

7. Martin okwa li ta yolifa eedi eshi omushamane e mu dengela kombinga yoilonga

8. Okwa li a hafa eshi ta popi mongodi: “eheno osha yela! ; eheno oshi li nawa; oshiwa unene !”

9. A limbililwa ta ti pamwe oinima itai ka enda nawa: “ngeenge onda ende omupadi welao, onda mona
oilonga yomokaftava popi naina, “oilonga oyo oi li ashike nawa naame.”

11. Ina sholola konghalo yeumbo; “omufyoona ke na omutima wakula / munene.”

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12. Ina sholola keholokepo lomuyandji waye woilonga/oukwatya womuyandji waye woilonga inau mu shunifa
omutwe moipeta.

13. Te lipe ombedi ina hala okuudifa nai omushamane (e livakwa kelaka, ndele te livele ombedi eshi a mona
omushamane a lulika oshipala.)

14. Ondjabi oya li iwa, eshi a li ina teelela (N$ 800.00 ponhele yo-N$200.00)

15. Ina ulika ehafo laye kombinga yondjabi, a tila kutya pamwe omushamane ota ninguluka.

16. Okwa li a hafa eshi ehe na omutonateli; okwa menya mo kashona

17. Oku na okukonga omunhu e mu kwafele, nongeenge hasho ota kanifa omhito iwa yoilonga

18. Okwa fya oshisho a kwate oxuxwa komulungu/manga omuwoyi inau denga, ove li nale ofika pondje
yeumbo lonomola oni-6, mepandaanda laIndependence Avenue

QUESTION 2 (b)
This question required candidates to write a prose summary of 100-150 words, with the ideas written as their response
in part (a). Most of the candidates listed points in a paragraph form, but there was no connection of the ideas (no
coherence) which led to an incomprehensive summary. Some candidates did not summarize points listed in (a), but
rather summarized the whole passage. Most of the candidates failed to use their own words a required. The use of
own words does not mean that candidates should use figurative language. Most of the candidates summarized in more
than one paragraph instead of just one paragraph.

To rectify the problem, teachers are urged to teach learners how to summarize well by using their own words
(paraphrasing) with linking words or conjunctions. Teachers should also encourage learners to read with understanding
instead of relying on copying the exact points from the text. Candidates should be discouraged from using figurative
language. Lastly, teachers should train learners to stick to the word limit.

SECTION B
QUESTION 3

This question was derived from passage 2 and candidates were asked to deliver a motivational speech, addressing
learners who are in their final examination at a local secondary school about mistakes people make often in life,
how to avoid them and how to recover from them. Some candidates did not answer according to the text; instead,
they generalized the mistakes that happen on daily lives. For example, alcohol and drug abuse, pregnancy issues,
committing suicide and religion. Some candidates copied the entire text, paragraph or sentences (synonymic copying
style).
Few candidates did not finish writing this piece while others did not attempt the question at all. Most of the candidates
did not stick to the word limit, hence some wrote too short and too long pieces which resulted in learners repeating
points or using irrelevant information. Few candidates did not use the correct register and format. Some candidates
wrote other pieces such as narrative essay, letter, report and article. Some candidates fully or partially misinterpreted
the question, while others addressed wrong audiences, example, parents and students were from tertiary institutions
while some are preparing others for life after school which was not part of the text or the question.

To rectify these errors, teachers should give more activities based on written textual forms. (Text to train learners how
to use the information in the text in their own pieces of writing). Teachers should desist from teaching shorter pieces
(written textual forms) in isolation. Teachers should also teach learners how to use the main ideas and develop them
in their own words. Learners should be trained to manage time wisely. Teachers should teach paragraphing (how
to write paragraphs) and brainstorm their ideas or points before writing. Learners should be trained on how to write
different pieces as prescribed in the syllabus and most of all, teachers should encourage learners to apply reading
comprehension by highlighting key words from the instruction in the question.
The following points were considered to be correct:

Omapuko haa ningwa kovanhu meenghalamwenyo davo:

• Okukala u liwete katokote (onda li nda itavela kutya ondi na okukala umwe womovahongwa ovo).
• Omulinenepeki (molwaashi onda dja ngaho medimo lovaxweponhu, oshilalakanenwa shange shotete okutwifa
ondjodi yange).
• Ta tungu odikwa okaana inaka dalwa (nda djala ondjafa ilaula, nda fikama komesho yomupanguli nokupopila
ovanhu vakalunga ovo vehe na ondjo).
• Okwa li e liwete e shi keshe shimwe (inandi lihonga oitukulwa aishe, shaashi efimbo lange lihapu onde li hepeka
nokukala nakahewa kange mupe-Sara. Efimbo alishe eshi ndi li mosaala yomakonakono- e wete kutya ota dulu
okupita okakonakono nande ine lihonga).

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• Okwa dina ovahongwa vakwao (handi kandulile ovahongwa voikwafangudu keembinga neembinga).
• Ta nyangwa okuuda ko onghalo oyo i li po (mboli oku nda twala omeva hako taku dungwa/omhumwahodi... osha
enda ngahelipi).

Nghene ve na okukeelela nokuwapaleka omapuko:

• Kala wa kotoka, inatu lixwa po (meenghalamwenyo detu ohatu ningi omapuko mahapu, amwe omakula naamwe
omanini).
• Kala u na omukumo (tu na okukala komesho tu tale vali ngee enongo taa fe ongobe- ngeenge owa kala to lipula
nedopo eli ku na efiku u ye komesho).
• Okutambula ko onghalo i li ngaashi i li (i na- naaishe ei otwe i kupula kombuda- onda pula komesho nonghalamwenyo
yange).
• Lipopila mwene (tate okwa lya meenyandi ndele ta fininike nge ndi hombolwe. Kanda li naana ndi na eenghono da
wana dokushi anya nohandi livele eembedi, fiyo okeluwa eli).
• Ninga omatokolo ndele to landula eendjodi doye (eendjodi doye oda li da fimana).
• kala alushe u na eenghono (omunhu owa pumbwa okulongifa efimbo keshe).
• Ino sholola (ohandi kendabala ndi pukulule omapuko ange).

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Teachers are commended for their hard work and dedication in ensuring that candidates were prepared for the final
examination, despite the unusual circumstances of this year that affected the school calendar. The Senior Education
Officers in the regions and the Heads of Departments at the schools are hereby urged to discuss the examiner’s report
with the subject teachers to ensure that the recommendations are implemented.

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6099
Paper 2

GENERAL COMMENTS
• The performance of the candidates has improved slightly due to the fact that most of the candidates had a better
understanding of the questions.
• Some candidates had shown a good sense of self-expression.
• Some candidates wrote their essays using the correct format.
• Some candidates were aware of the numerous essay types and were able to distinguish between them.
• At some centers, the candidates only wrote their candidate numbers but they did not write their candidate names.
Also, some candidates did not write the correct paper component.
• At some centers, some candidates’ names were not appearing in the check lists.
• Some candidates did not write the number for the correct heading.
• At some centers, the number of candidates present did not correlate with the number in the check lists.
• In their writings, several candidates have used vocabulary and slang from the English, Oshindonga and Afrikaans
languages, such as maala (ashike), eefelende (ookaume ile ookahewa), okushendja (okulundulula).

The following frequent mistakes were still appearing in the candidates’ work:

Wrong correct
andi/atu handi/hatu
di na ndi na
yi i
handje yandje

• Some candidates punctuated the title of their essay by placing a full stop at the end.
• Some candidates did not start their title or their essays with a capital letter.
• Some candidates did not write the date and some wrote it in English, while some wrote it in numbers while others
in Oshikwanyamenena. For example Taula instead of Marsa.
• Some candidates did not conclude their essays.
• Some candidates started their paragraphs with idioms and/or proverbs.
• Some candidates used idioms and proverbs concurrently. For example, Ehafo ola li ongambishi meumbo mwa
tomwa, keshe oxuxwa oya li tai tondoka nehandja nounyuni aushe oko wa li.
• Some candidates changed the proverbs. For example, Ehafo lombwa meumbo mwa tomwa onghwandabi.
• Candidates used dialogues in their essays instead of narrating, as well as monoloque (te litange).
• Candidates exceeded the limited number of words. Some essays were as long as 3 to 4 pages, exceeding 500
words.
• Some candidates failed to formulate their own headings or topics and copied the instruction or used it as a topic.
• Some candidates did not write a heading at all.
• Some candidates have translated and explained the proverbs that they have used. For example kaxuxwena hadela
nyoko, nyoko onale e ku hadela, sha hala okutya, ongokaana, kala to file ovadali voye oshisho, ngaashi naanaa va
kala noku ku fila oshisho manga wa li u munini.
• Some few candidates just copied the instruction as it appeared on the question paper and did not answer the
question at all.
• Some candidates wrote more than one essay.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

NARRATIVE

1 Shanga etotwahokololo kombinga yoshiningwanima shimwe, omo omunhu wonhumba oo wa li wa

dina e ku longela ouwa oo wa li ino teelela
• A number of candidates opted for this question.
• It was fairly well answered, as some candidates understood the question up to a certain level.
• Some candidates wrote about a number of incidents on one occasion.
• Few candidates have narrated that they were the ones underestimated, instead of them underestimating a
certain individual.
• Some candidates did not narrate “underestimation” in their essays, but focused on a specific individual
offering them an act of kindness.
• Some candidates have generalised the act of kindness and were exclusively part of the story.

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Oshihopaenenwa:
Omuhongwa okwa li a teelelwa a hokolole kombinga yoshiningwanima osho ye a ningilwa ouwa komunhu wonhumba
oo ye a dina, ngaashi molutu, moukwatya, moiniwe, ondodo yonghalamwenyo, omikalo, omalihumbato, oukashike
kookanhu, ile eedula.

2 “Eendjodi ohadi tu shili.” Shanga etotwahokololo kombinga yoshinima we shi twa ondjodi
nokonima osha ka ningwa shili
• Most candidates chose this essay topic and scored above-average marks.
• Some candidates were very pessimistic, instead of narrating positive incidences.
• Some candidates’ dreams were not detailed.
• Few candidates wrote more than one dream.
• Some candidates narrated other people’s dreams instead of theirs.
• Some candidates’ dreams did not come true.
• Some dreams were not narrated; they were just mentioned.
• Some candidates’ dreams were unrealistic and exaggerated. For example, being given a present of N$ 3
billion.
• A few candidates narrated a story that they had read from novels such as Wanashipolo a ya nomwenyo
mofuka or Nghishimwene shaMutumbo a dja nelao medimo.
• Quite a number of candidates added unnecessary reinforcements that were irrelevant to the question.
• Some candidates dreamt about something, narrated the dream to someone and expected that particular
person to make their dream a reality. For example, dreaming about receiving a telephone from their parents,
narrated it to their parents. Then their parents bought the telephone.

Oshihopaenenwa:
Omuhongwa okwa li a teelelwa a hokolole ondjodi oyo hai tuwa komunhu ngeenge a kofa, ondjodixunganeko
(ondjodifano), ile ondjodifaneko, imwe aike, yaye mwene, oyo ya ka ninga yoshili kohainga.

Hop:
Omunhu a twa ondjodi ta filwa, ndele omunhu ta xulifa shili.

A hala oku ka ninga omushingi weedila ndele te lihongo fiyo a ka ninga omushingi weedila.

DESCRIPTIVE

3 Owa talela po onhele yonhumba iwa kuhe na vali. Ndjodjomona osho wa mona ko, wa uda
nomakutwi, nonghene wa li u udite
• This essay topic was selected by a small number of candidates and the majority of those, who did so
provided good responses. A portion of the candidates provided descriptions of imagined images, whereas
the majority described physical ones. The majority, however, neglected to use sensory images.
• Some candidates described the journey, instead of the place/ surrounding.
• A few candidates were contradicting themselves by including negative aspects about the places they liked
most. For example, dirty toilets or overcrowded places.
• Some candidates wrote about more than one place.
• Very few candidates described what they heard from other people about the place and not exactly what they
saw themselves.

Oshihopaenenwa:
Omuhongwa okwa li a teelelwa a ndjodjomone onhele iwa kuhe na vali. Ta kwatele mo oihololimaliudito aasho a mona
nomesho, a uda nomatwi, osho yo nghene a li e udite pefimbo a li ponhele opo.

4 Ndjodjomona onhele oyo u hole unene modoolopa ile moshitukulwa sheni, ndele to holola kutya
oshike she i ningifa i kale onhele dingi
• Quite a number of candidates selected this question and answered it well.
• Most candidates have described the place well and vividly used sensory images.
• A negligible number of candidates described the place well, but did not describe how they felt.
• A few candidates also included the negative aspects of the place.

Oshihopaenenwa:
Omukonakonwa okwa li a teelelwa a ndjodjomone onhele yonhumba kondadalunde oyo e hole unene, i li modoolopa
ile moshitukulwa shonhumba, ndele ta hokolola kutya oshike sha ningifa onhele oyo tuu oyo i kale oyo dingi keenhele
adishe.

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ARGUMENTATIVE

5 “Ovanyasha nava tuwe omukumo va lye nokunwa oikulya noikunwa yopamufyuululwakalo.” Oto
tu kumwe netumbulo eli? Koleka enyamukulo loye
• Quite a number of candidates opted for this question.
• The majority of candidates who opted for this question received lower grades due to their general statements
regarding the consumption of traditional food and drinks, rather than providing specific reasons to support
why traditional food and drinks should be encouraged among the youth.
• Some candidates did not argue: instead they listed the answers.
• Some candidates argued for both sides.
• Some candidates only focused on the importance of traditions in general, with no specification on food and
drinks. For example, explaining the importance of traditional herbs.
• Some candidates just described a recipe for a certain traditional food.
• Some candidates separated the food from the drinks and argued for either the food or the drinks.
• Some candidates compared the health benefits of modern food and traditional food.

Oshihopaenenwa:
Omukonakonwa okwa li a teelelwa a popile ile a pataneke kutya ovanyasha nava tuwe ile inava tuwa omukumo va
lye nokunwa oikulya noikunwa yopamufyuululwakalo, ndele ta yandje omatomheno a koleke kutya omolwashike te shi
popile ile ite shi popile.

6 “Oinamwenyo nayo na i kale i na oufemba, ngaashi naanaa ovanhu.” Yandja omaliudo oye ndele
to koleke enyamukulo loye
• A minimal number of candidates opted for this question and answered it satisfactorily.
• Some candidates argued that animals should have equal rights as humans, or unrealistic rights. Such as
rights to go to school, right to earn an income, right to marry humans or right to own land.
• Some candidates failed to differentiate between animals’ rights, and the benefits of having animals.
• Some candidates just focused on the importance of animals in general.

Oshihopaenenwa:
Omukonakonwa okwa li a teelelwa a hoolole po ombinga imwe oyo ta popile ile ita popile kombinga yoshipalanyole.

Omuhongwa oo ta popile okwa li a teelelwa a popile kutya oufemba woinamwenyo aishe owa pumbiwa, ngaashi naanaa
ovanhu aveshe ve na oufemba, ngaashi eameno, oipalwifa, oukoshoki, onhele yokukala, emanguluko, oundjolowele
nokufuda po.
Omuhongwa oo ita popile okwa li a teelelwa a popye nghene oinamwenyo itai dulu okupewa oufemba ngaashi ovanhu
ve u na. Hop. okudja keshito oinamwenyo oi li koshi yepangelo lomunhu, noya shitwa po i kwafe ovanhu.

NB: please note that an argumentative essay in Oshikwanyama does not have a counter argument paragraph, the
candidates are expected to defend one side of the topic only.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teachers are appreciated for putting in the effort to prepare learners for this paper, therefore, they should continue
to do so.
The following should be taken into consideration:
• Teachers/Invigilators should instruct candidates always to fill in all the required details on the cover page correctly
as it appears in their admission permits.
• Teachers should encourage candidates always to number their essay topics and underline them.
• Teachers should encourage candidates always to start an essay with a date written in full and not underlined, a
month written in Oshiwambo e.g Novemba
• Teachers should encourage the creative use of imagination in candidates.
• Teachers should instruct candidates to always read and understand the essay topic before choosing the essay of
their choice.
• Teachers should encourage candidates to choose an essay topic that they are familiar with and have rich vocabulary
pertaining to the chosen topic.
• Teachers should teach candidates different types of proverbs, explain their meanings and how to use them correctly.
• Teachers should discourage candidates from using English terms e.g okusearchinga instead of “okukonga ouyelele”,
“okuguugela” instead of “okuhada ouyelele”, okuninga oresearcha instead of “okuninga omapekapeko” okutexta
instead of “okutuma outumwalaka vaxupi”.
• Teachers should discourage candidates from using slang such as “eshamane le lidenga po” instead of “efiku
lekwato”, “oshinima sha kula” instead of “omupondoli”.

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• Teachers should also encourage candidates to spell correctly and use the words in the correct language such as
noxo instead of “vali”, aike instead of “ashike”, nenge instead of “ile”.
• Teachers should put more emphasis on the types of essays.
• candidates should be encouraged to write essays containing realistic events, optimistic and avoiding exaggeration.
• candidates should be discouraged from writing essays with explicit contents and should be sensitized to use
euphemism in their writing. E.g okumita instead of “okuninga eteelelo”.
• candidates should be exposed to events and excursions to assist them with their essays and quality of reasoning.
• Teachers should expose candidates to different types texts or passages.
• candidates should be taught grammar with emphasis.

Tangi unene!

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6099
Paper 3

GENERAL COMMENTS
• The majority of candidates demonstrated an understanding of the question. However, some simply copied the text
verbatim without addressing the task.
• A portion of candidates struggled to comprehend the instructions entirely, leading to inappropriate responses.
• Some candidates presented their answers in bullet form rather than in essay format, while others failed to incorporate
textual evidence to support their points.
• Additionally, certain candidates merely paraphrased the text instead of directly addressing the question. Others
provided general comments rather than focusing on specific events or points relevant to the task.
• A few candidates used slang terms, such as “omutyepa,” “sobiso,” and “kandi poli,” which detracted from the formal
tone expected in their responses.
• Enyamukulo lomuhongwa nali kale pamukalo hokololo, li na oshipalanyole, etwalemo, olutu (enyamukulo).

It was deduced that most of the candidates exceeded the prescribed length of 250-300 words.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

EpuloOmushangi okwa holola Tetekela e na oukwatya wa tya ngahelipi mokaleshwa aka? Enyamukulo loye nali
likwatelele keleka noshikalimo shokaleshwa aka.
• Nghe kwa li e udite omalihumbato aye
• Nghe e lihumbatela omuyandji waye woilonga
• Nghene e lihumbatela ovanhu valwe

• Oule wenyamukulo loye nau kale pokati koitya 250-300.

• Omuhongwa na yandje oumbangi kondadalunde okuyambidida enyamukulo laye.

• Omuhongwa na yelife ile na yambidide oshitwa shaye nouyelele u li mondjila okudja mokaleshwa tau yambidida
oshitwa osho a yandja.
• Omuhongwa na yandje omanyamukulo monukalo tau shikula: okuyandja oshoshi li momadiladilo oye;
okutofa mo oumbangi mokaleshwa; nokupopila osho wa tofa mo noitya yoye mwene.
• Ovahongwa vahapu ova nyengwa okuuda ko elaka lopafano la longifwa nokaleshwa ngaashi: omuhongwa
ta hokolola eendao edi hadi liwa ponhele yokawe; Omhongwa ta yandje ehokololo ta ngaashi “Tetekela okwa li
a fya ondjala sho osho she mu vakifa eendao mokakutu kashilumbu”. Omuhongwa okwa pumbwa okuuda ko
etumwalaka lehokololo lomoule, opo a nyamukule mondjila. Omuhongwa okwa teelelwa yo a yandje omaliudo aye
omondjila ile taa wapalele. Oshihopaenenwa: Ondi wete sha puka eshi Tetekela a vaka mo okawe komuhona /
omuyandi waye woilonga, shaashi otashi dulu oku mu kanifila oilonga ile a tulwe modolongo. Eshi otashi ka eta
nokuli shilumbu ehe ke linekele vali omulaule shaashi okwa li e linekela Tetekela shili ndele paife oye vali ta vake
po omaliko aye.
• Ovahongwa vamwe ova yandja oukwatya waTetekela momukalo wokushundula ngaashi tava ti: “Tetekela okwa li
edolodolo, elai eshi a halela meme waye efyo”.
• Okwa didilikwa yo ovahongwa vamwe va uda ko okapendulifimadiladilo kotete epuko, oko ka li taka pula Tetekela
nghene a li e uditile omalihumbato aye. Ovahongwa vamwe ova holola omaliudo omushangi, omanga vamwe va
holola omaliudo ashilumbu nghene a li e uditile omalihumbato aTetekela. Apa omuhongwa okwa teelelwa a yandje
nghene Tetekela e uditile oilonga ii oyo a longa. Hano osho kwa li tashi dilonga momadiladilo aye. Omushangi okwa
li eudite kutya Tetekela ombudi shaashi okwa vaka po eendao daShilumbu ile Shilumbu okwa li e uditile Tetekela
nawa / e mu lineekela ngaashi sha hololwa mokaleshwa taku ti: “Shilumbu okwe mu lombwela a teelele kEtitano,
vati manga tava kongo omunhu e shii okulineekelawa ngaye,”
• Ovahongwa ova li va teelelwa va nyamukule ngaha: Tetekela okwa li a tila eshi ta vake po ouwe vashilumbu ngaashi
sha hololwa mokaleshwa taku ti: “Oumbada nande wa li mo muye, okwe limatipaleka netumbulo eli: Omulumenhu
ohaku tiwa tula po …”
• Ovahongwa ova li va teelelwa va yandje oukwatya waTetekela tau wapalele ngaashi: Tetekela ombudi ngaashi
okaleshwa taka ti “okwa kamata mo ekamato limwe, ndele te li xwela mokakutu kakwao oko ka li yo mokaskopa
omo”.
• Omunaipupulu “Pomulongo Tetekela okwa lekela a ye koshipangelo molwoudu momesho vati”.
• Omukengeleledi ngaashi omushangi e shi holola eshi a ti “Penya omumati oha i po ashike nelaka lokutya okwa
tumwa kushilumbu waye” ile
• Tetekela oha i kombaanga nedina lashilumbu /omuyandji woilonga ta ti na kwafelwe meendelelo opo a shune
koilonga.
• Didilika: Ovahongi nava honge ovahonngwa kutya okuninga omatokolo ovahongwa inava teelelwa va yandje

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omayele kombinga yokaleshwa, ndele nava ninge omatokolo she likwatelela koiningwanima.
• Oshihopaenenwa: Shilumbu kali e na okweefa Tetekela a ye koshipangelo oye aeke. Ponhele yokutya:
Tetekela okwa ninga oshinima sha puka, osho tashi dulu oku mu kanifila elineekelo komuhona waye notashi dulu
yo oku mu kanifila oilonga.
• Oupendulifimadilaadilo aveshe nava nyamukulwe, omuhongwa ne liufe komukalo womondjila wokushanga, ndele
hakushanga oupendulifimadilaadilo ongoupalanyole ngaashi vamwe vomovahongwa ve shi ninga.
• Ovahongi nava deule ovahongwa va didilike kutya elaka olo hali longifwa moutevo, ola yooloka kwaali hali
longifwa meeprosa nomeedrama.
• Hop: Ngeenge omuhongwa ta tofa oumbangi meeprosa nomeedrama, ina longifa oitya youkwatevo tai shikula:
omukweyovelishe, ostrofe, ostanza, ile omukweyo omutingapi ile okatendo okatingapi.
• Omuhongwa na tofe oumbangi mokaleshwa tau koleke enyamukulo laye kondadalunde.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Encourage Comprehensive Essay Writing.

Teachers should guide candidates to write in a comprehensive essay format rather than relying on bullet points or
subheadings. This approach fosters critical thinking and cohesive argumentation. Teach Expressive Writing Skills
Candidates should be trained to state their ideas clearly, incorporate relevant quotations, and articulate their opinions
effectively. This will enhance their ability to present well-rounded arguments.

Differentiate Literary Terms and Styles

Teachers should ensure that candidates understand the distinctions between various literary forms. For example, the
language used in poetry differs significantly from that used in prose or drama, and students should be able to adapt
their writing accordingly.

Reinforce General Grammar Skills

Continued emphasis on grammar is essential for clear and effective communication. Teachers should address common
grammatical errors and encourage precision in language use.

Adhere to Length Requirements

Teachers should train candidates to adhere to the stipulated length of their responses. This not only demonstrates
discipline but also ensures that students fully address the task without unnecessary elaboration or omission.

Conclusion

Teachers are highly commended for their dedication and commitment to preparing candidates for examinations. It is
crucial for senior education officers, heads of departments, and teachers to review examiners’ reports and implement
the suggested improvements with fidelity.

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6099
Paper 4

GENERAL COMMENTS

This is the fifth examination cycle under the revised NSSC Ordinary Level curriculum. Most centres adhered to
the guidelines, submitting required materials such as candidates’ written research papers [both scanned and hard
copies], Orature Assessment Forms and MS1. This year, the majority of centres successfully submitted marked written
coursework, which is commendable. However, examiners frequently failed to provide comments aligned with the
marking grid specified in the syllabus. Although the presentation of candidates’ work was generally neat and legible, a
few research papers were untidy. Notably, 90% of centres submitted scanned documents for each candidate. Some
centres also submitted well-curated research papers on cultural artefacts, an achievement that deserves recognition,
especially for newer centres. Centres submitting word-processed reports that contributed positively to a smoother
moderation processes.

However, a significant concern remains regarding the overall quality of candidates’ research projects. Many candidates
did not conduct genuine research, opting instead to fabricate their findings. This indicates a pressing need for improved
guidance on Paper 4 [Written Component].

1 Sampling
Most centres are commended for adhering to sampling guidelines, however, some centres failed to identify sampled
candidates clearly. Candidates in the sample should be marked with an asterisk (*) on the summary form, as per
guidelines, to ensure efficient moderation. Several centres omitted candidates who scored at the extreme ends
of the marking spectrum, which created additional challenges for moderators. Moreover, some centres submitted
different samples for Paper 4 and Paper 5, which further complicated moderation. Examiners must thoroughly
familiarise themselves with the guidelines for selecting samples for consistency across components.

2 Interpretation of the Assessment Criteria

Evidently, some examiners did not use the marking grid correctly when assigning marks. In many instances,
candidates were placed in higher bands than they deserved. Only a few centres had candidates scoring below
10/20, equivalent to 50%, due to a lack of adherence to assessment criteria. For candidates to be placed in the
higher bands, they must demonstrate critical thinking, showing the ability to evaluate data from multiple sources
and develop their responses. However, many candidates merely replicated information from their sources without
analysis, making placing them in Band 1 or 2 inappropriate.

3 Comments on Specific Aspects of the Candidates’ Reports

3.1 Topics (Oipalanyole)

Many centres developed well-formulated topics suitable for research, such as “Endjadjukununo lomoule
lanhumbi ekosho lomupya la fimana mOvakwanyama” or “Ekonakono lomoule loitukulwa ya fimana yombelela
yongobe oyo hai liwa kootate.” However, other centres submitted overly general or unclear topics. Examiners
should guide candidates more effectively to help them refine their topics. Basically, the research topics should
ideally relate to African cultures, especially the Ovakwanyama ethnic group.

3.2 Introduction (Etwalemo)

Most candidates wrote brief introductions that barely illuminated the chosen artefact or aspect. Some
provided overly lengthy introductions, while others were vague. An effective introduction should provide
context, clearly explain the significance of the chosen topic and lay the foundation for the rest of the research.
Unene metwalemo lepekapeko, omuhongwa na kwatele mo oinima ei ya fimana: Na ulike pauxupi kutya
omapekapeko oku li kombinga yashike. Ta yandje yo pauxupi ouyelele kombinga yoshipalanyole osho tuu
osho [Pamwe omafatululo ile ngaho keshe ouyelele wa fimana notau wapalele, opo u udife ko omuleshi].
Ota dulu yo okuyandja pauxupi kutya omapekapeko okwa ningilwe naanaa naini nonhele / eenhele oku kwa
ningilwa omapekapeko oo tuu oo.

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3.3 Purpose and Interest [Ohokwe yoshipalanyole]
Many candidates struggled to articulate a clear purpose for or interest in their research. Some explanations
were repetitive, while others lacked clarity. Candidates often used personal statements, such as “Since
childhood, I have observed these customs…” Teachers should guide learners in crafting purposeful statements
that reflect genuine research interests, instead of copying exactly what others have done in the previous years.

3.4 The Main Objective (Elalakano lakula lepekapeko)

Most candidates successfully included their main research objective. While some objectives were well-
thought-out and insightful, others were overly simplistic. Candidates are encouraged to craft objectives that
align with the scope and depth of their research to ensure relevance and rigor. Elalakano lakula olo omutima
womapekapeko, nohali kala la kwatafana nawa nepekapeko alishe lomukonakonwa. Inali pumbwa li kale
lilelile unene, ashike nali kale la yelela nawa omuleshi, noitali mu fiye mengwangwano.

3.5 Research Questions / Research Objectives (Omapulo / omalalakano epekapeko)

Many candidates submitted straightforward questions, which limited the depth of their findings. Candidates
should choose between research questions and research objectives. Research questions should address
uncertainties or mysteries related to the main objective and should not elicit simple responses. Instead, they
should encourage deeper analysis. Examiners are encouraged to guide candidates in formulating questions
that facilitate critical analysis. Omapulo omanyamukulo aheeno ile ahowe naa kelelwe. Hop: Owa hafa okukala
Omukwanekamba? Omu hole okunwa omaongo? Ponhele yomapulo a tya ngaha, naku longifwe omapulo
taa kuku, taku longifwa oityapulo ngaashi “Omolwashike, ongahelipi, nosho tuu”. Hop: Omolwashike u holele
okunwa omaongo? Oshinima shikwao, omapulo epekapeko inaa lumbakanifwa vali mumwe nomalombwelo
ile omalalakano, ngaashi ovahongwa vopeesenda dimwe va ninga.

3.6 Sources of Information and Methods of Collecting Information (Eedjo douyelele nOmikalo
dokwoongela ouyelele)
Some candidates gathered information from knowledgeable individuals in their community, who know and
can speak about relevant cultural aspects. Some explained that they would go for festivals, but unfortunately,
only a few candidates attended local festivals, weddings or funerals as part of their research. Examiners
should emphasize the importance of firsthand observation and direct engagement with cultural practices.
Ovakonakonwa ova pumbwa okupula ouyelele kovanhu ava ve na owino, eshiivo notava dulu okupopya
kombinga yoikwamufyuululwakalo yonhumba. Ovakonakonwa vamwe ova popya kutya ova pula ovanhu ile
ova ile koivilo ya yooloka, nonande eshi inashi ningwa. Vahapu otava popi unene oipupulu moshitukulwa
eshi. Moshitukulwa omu, omikalo adishe da longifwa mokwoongela ouyelele nadi yandjwe. Do nee omikalo
odo tuu odo nadi longifwe, inadi popiwa ashike. Do nadi kale yo tadi wapalele oshinyangadalwa. Omikalo
dimwepo ongaashi omapulo paenghundafana, okutongolola [okutala nomesho], omapulo a longekidwa
okunyamukulilwa pambapila, okulesha moinyanyangidwa [hop: momambo], nosho tuu.”

3.7 Findings (Osho sha monika po)

Many candidates failed to produce concise summaries of their findings. Instead, they often transcribed
information verbatim from each source, which made it challenging to present cohesive results. Candidates
should organize their findings based on their main research questions or objectives to better convey the
significance of their data. Moderators observed a general weakness in data presentation, with many candidates
failing to integrate and interpret information effectively. Ouyelele nau ngongwe nawa, ndele nakeshe omunhu
a popiwa kutya ota yandje ouyelele na yandje ouyelele, ndele nomikalo adishe da longifwa mokwoongela
ouyelele nadi longifwe. Pomhito apa, oiwedela nai kwatakanifwe noshitukulwa eshi shomapekapeko. Sha
hala okutya, omuleshi na kwatakanifwe nomafano / ouvideo ile eenghundafana odo di li koiwedela tadi yelifa
nawa oshipalanyole. Hop: Efano 10.2 otali ulike nhumbi meekulu Mukwahepo ta longifa oixwa yomudime
mokuhakula omupya.

3.8 Discussion and Analysis of Findings [Okupopya nokundjadjukununa osho sha monika po]
The majority of candidates performed poorly in this section, even those who gathered extensive information.
Most candidates merely repeated what they were told by their sources without critical examination or analysis.
This limitation often stems from ineffective questioning, which fails to uncover complexities and ambiguities
in the information provided. Examiners should guide candidates in critical thinking, encouraging them to infer
meaning and draw conclusions beyond the literal information gathered: moshitukulwa eshi ovahongwa ova
pumbwa okuhongwa nghee tava dulu okweeta po omanyamukulo avo opaumwene okudja mouyelele wa
dja mwaasho sha monika po. Nava potokonone, tava ndjadjukununa, tava popile ile itava popile, nokuninga
omaxulifo a kwata moiti, e na sha noshidjemo shomapekapeko.

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3.9 Conclusion [Exulifo]
Some candidates treated the conclusion as if it were a narrative, rather than linking back to the main objective
of the research. A well-crafted conclusion should revisit the main objective, summarise the key findings and
provide closure. Candidates are advised to avoid introducing new ideas and instead focus on reinforcing the
insights gained from their research. Recommendations, based on the findings or the topic under study should
also be provided.

By addressing these aspects, teachers and examiners can better guide candidates in conducting thorough,
meaningful research that reflects a genuine engagement with their cultural heritage and research skills.

3.10 References [Omusholondodo weedjo douyelele]

Most centres are commended for handling this component accurately. However, there are still some centres
that need support in providing this section correctly. All informants who contributed responses to the research
problem, as well as place names and book titles, should be listed in this section. Omusholondodo weedjo nau
kwatele mo ovanhu ovo va yandja ouyelele, eenhele oko kwa li kwa ka pekapekwa, ile omadina omambo oo
a leshwa komupekapeki mokumona ouyelele komapulo epekapeko laye.

3.11 Appendices [Oiwedela]

A few centres handled this section effectively. However, most centres are still struggling to address it as
required. Key elements to be included in this section of the research are: the approved research proposal
form, research photographs (with clear and detailed captions), questionnaires and interview questions, among
others. Additionally, all learners’ videos and audio recordings should be stored in a dedicated folder on the
teacher’s computer and sent together with the research papers, as they form an integral part of the entire
research process. Moshitukulwa omu namu kwatelwe: okafoloma kondungefaneko yeyokomesho loilonga,
ka ulika kutya omapekapeko okwa tambulwa komuhongi, omafano a yela nokwa fatulula nawa moule,
oshihopaenenwa shomapulo opambapila, oshihopaenenwa shomapulo a longifwa pamukalo weenghundafana,
nosho tuu. Ouvidio nouaudio nava kale mofolder yomuhongwa mokompiuta yomuhongi, shaashi navo ove na
okutumwa, opamwe nomapekapeko omunafikola.

RECOMMENDATIONS / POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS

• Strengthening guidance on critical thinking: Teachers should focus on teaching candidates how to think critically,
evaluate data from various sources and produce individual responses. Providing real-world examples and
encouraging reflective thinking can improve candidates’ analytical skills.
• Improving sampling consistency: Centres should ensure that sampling is consistent across components and that
a diverse range of candidates, from high-achievers to low-achievers, are included.
• Enhancing topic formulation and relevance: teachers should help learners formulate well-defined, researchable
topics that resonate with the cultural and linguistic context of Oshikwanyama.
• Emphasizing structured presentations: candidates should be encouraged to use headings and organize information
coherently, instead of writing continuously. Summarising findings with an emphasis on clarity can help candidates
avoid simply listing data.
• Promoting real engagement with cultural sources: teachers should encourage their learners to gather information
through firsthand observations or interviews at cultural events, where appropriate.
• Teachers should actively guide their learners over the two years, to ensure they produce a robust and authentic
reflection of their work on one of the cultural topics.
• It was observed that there are numerous typographical errors in candidates’ work. Teachers are encouraged to
review each candidate’s work thoroughly to assist in refining and enhancing its quality.
• Teachers should avoid using ticks on candidates’ work. Instead, they should provide detailed comments on each
component of research. It was noted that some teachers placed large ticks randomly even when it was unnecessary,
which can be misleading to moderators.
• Teachers should teach learners the differences between the words: Okuhenga vs Okuyenga, Okuhakula vs
Okuyakula, Okuyandja vs Okuhandja.
• By implementing these recommendations, the quality of research projects in Paper 4 could be significantly improved.
Teachers are sincerely appreciated for their continued commitment to supporting Oshikwanyama learners in
excelling in cultural research/anthropology. Thank you!

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6099
Paper 5

GENERAL COMMENTS

This marked the fifth examination under the revised NSSC Ordinary Level curriculum. Centres are commended for
gathering substantial information on cultural artifacts, which undoubtedly enriches our language and cultural heritage.
In addition, information gathered by the candidates for Paper 4 [Written coursework], on our cultural artifacts, provides
the basis for this paper. However, it is disappointing to note that the quality of presentation and discussion have not
improved significantly over the past four years. Unene ombapila ei ohai likwatelele kouyelele woikwamufyuululwakalo
ya pekapekwa komuhongwa mOmbapila Onhine i na sha nomapekapeko. Ngeenge omukonakonwa ina ninga
omapekapeko, nena kape na ekonakono laye lokupwilikina nokupopya. Okwa monika kutya inape uya naanaa
elunduluko, okuyelekanifa needula nhee da dja ko.

1 Quality of recording
For most of the centres, the recording was in most cases of good quality. The candidates, the examiners and what
the candidates played were audible in most cases. Centres are commended for such a wonderful job.

2 Range of sample
A considerable number of centres sent samples along with their full cohort, effectively representing a broad range
of abilities. This effort is appreciated. However, withholding the entire cohort is becoming problematic and is
causing delays in the moderation process. Centers are advised to consult the guidelines outlined in the NSSCO
Grade 10–11 Oshikwanyama Syllabus.

Additionally, some centres submitted two different samples, one for paper 4 and the other one for paper 5. It should
be noted that the sample selected for Paper 4 (Orature) should also be the same sample for Paper 5 (Listening
and Speaking).

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC SECTIONS

The oral examination consists of two sections: Section A (Presentation) and Section B (Discussion). These two
sections should be treated separately. A number of centres conducted this examination, on this section, starting with
the old traditional “warm-ups”. It was observed that most of the warm-ups appeared at centres where most experienced
teachers are based. They should familiarise themselves with the changes as contained in the national guidelines.
Where warm-ups were needed, they need not be recorded.

1 Section A: Presentation
It was evident that many centres did not prepare their candidates adequately to deliver a presentation. Many
candidates attempted to speak at length and in great detail, but struggled with presenting in a logical sequence.
For instance, some candidates began their presentations with irrelevant or disorganized points, such as discussing
topics that were off-track or repeating unnecessary information. This lack of structure made it difficult for candidates
to convey their ideas clearly. Some candidates also faced challenges when trying to engage with their audience,
as they seemed to lack preparation or focus on key points. It is crucial for centres to ensure that candidates are
equipped with the skills to present their ideas in a coherent and structured manner.

1.1 The quality of presentations

An unacceptable number of candidates needed to be probed as they could not speak or were not well-
prepared to present their projects (reports). Regular classroom presentations are needed to prepare
candidates. Ovahongwa nava hongwe okuyandja ohokwe yavo, elalakano linene, omapulo/omalalakano
epekapeko nokuyandja omikalo odo va longifa mokukonga ouyelele; nokonima nava fatulule oiwedela yavo
ngaashi omafano, ou-audio, osho yo ouvidio ovo va kwata pefimbo tava ongele ouyelele wavo. Nava popye
yo kombinga youyelele va ongela pauxupi kwe likolelelwa kovayandji ile keedjo douyelele, opo ku kelelwe
elongifo louyelele inau kwashilipalekwa (plagiarism – oumbudi wopauakademi).

Centres need to polish the presentation skills of candidates as part of teaching and learning.

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1.2. Interpretation of the Assessment Criteria
It has become a trend to put candidates in a higher band even if they do not deserve it. This raises the
question as to whether examiners understand the marking criteria or simply ignore the grid.

Ovakonakoni nava kwashilipaleke kutya ova lesha nova uda ko nawa okatalifo, opo va dule okuyandja oitwa
mondjila. Okatalifo otaka hangwa mOmufindahongo wOshikwanyama, Ondodo 10 – 11.

2 Section B: Discussion
In this section the examiner should probe the candidate to expand on his/her project, challenge claims (or assertions)
made by the candidate in his/her report while s/he (the examiner) is testing his/her speaking and listening skills at
the same time. The examiner can only do this if s/he has an in-depth knowledge of the candidate’s work, which
most examiners appeared not to have.

Poshitukulwa eshi ovakonakoni nava pule omapulo taa kuku, omapulo e na sha noilonga yomukonakonwa, ndele
omuhongi ine a kufa momutwe ile pamwe pe lili pehe fi mwaashi omukonakonwa ta popi, osho yo oilonga yaye
yomapekapeko. Ohashi kwafa yo, opo shi ulike kutya shili omapekapeko okwa ningwa komukonakonwa mwene,
ndele ina ningilwa ile e a kufe pamwe pe lili.

2.1 Examining Techniques

In most cases examiners and candidates appeared to be calm and composed. That was good to observe.
As with previous years some interesting probing questions were asked: “If you are to repeat your research
project, what will you do differently? How did your research purpose and questions help you to collect the
information that you wanted?”

Ovakonakoni nava kale tava pwilikine nawa osho tashi popiwa kovakonakonwa opo va dule okupula
omapulo taa kwatafana nomanyamukulo ovakonakonwa. Ovakonnakoni nava shiive kutya oshitukulwa eshi
osheenghundafana, ndele kashi fi efimbo lokukufa omahokololo kovakonakonwa aasho sha monika po.
Vamwe vomovakonakoni inava kundafana novakonakonwa, ndele ove va pula ve va pe omahokololo aasho
va mona po.
The first step in becoming a good interlocutor is to study the candidates’ reports carefully and make probing
remarks or questions on the margins. This is what many examiners seem not to do. Pefimbo lokutala
eelopota dovakonakonwa omukonakoni na fye oshisho shokukufa mo omapulo aa e wete taa ka wapalela
enghundafana davo.

Examiners should strive to create a discussion-like atmosphere and avoid using phrases such as “My first
question to you ….” Instead, they should reference the report directly, using phrases like, “In your report,
you concluded that …; don’t you think …? Would you perhaps consider …?” This approach fosters a more
engaging and analytical dialogue.

2.2 Interpretation of the Assessment Criteria

Examiners generally did not apply the assessment criteria correctly. Candidates were placed in higher bands
which did not correspond with the quality of the discussions. The higher bands (1 and 2) are for candidates
who are spontaneous, initiate and lead the discussion not for candidates who need to be prompted. These
bands are also not for candidates who narrate what they were told by their informants “meekulu ngadi okwa
popya kutya olukula ola fimana, shaashi …”, Omukonakonwa e li ngaha ina weda po nande omaliudo
aye, ye a shitilile moule wouyelele a pewa nokuholola osho ta ti ko kuwo. They are for candidates
who extend their topic, candidates who are confident and who analyse as well as evaluate different
perspectives. A great number of candidates could not do these yet they were placed in higher bands.

Ovakonaakoni otava kunghililwa va leshe nokushiiva nawa okatalifo kombapila oyo tuu ei, opo va yandje
oitwa tai tu kumwe naashi sha etwa po komukonakonwa. Ovahongi nava fye oshisho alushe motundi va
honge ovahongwa nghene ve na okunyamukula nokushitila moule pakulongifa omaliudo avo, opo va ete po
omanyamukulo e na ongushu.

3 Recommendations / Positive suggestions

(h) Why did the man’s instructions seem strange to Martin? Mention two details. The correct responses
were supposed to be: omusamane okwa li a hala kehe shimwe shi li megumbo shi pakelwe; Martin
okwa li u uvite kutya iipundi niitaafula kayi na oshilonga; okwa li u uvite kutya iipundi niitaafula yimwe
oya kulupa inayi pumbwa okupakelwa; kehe shimwe shi li mo nashi tulwe melandulathano pamaludhi
gasho nokupakelwa nuukeka. Some candidates failed to answer this question because they wrote the
following: omusamane okwa li a hala iinima yi yele mo manga oshiwike inaashi pwa ko; omusamane
ota popi a lulika oshipala; omusamane okwa yamukula kutya kayi shi iilonga yoye; okwa li ta futwa
iimaliwa yi vulithe pomathele gaali. The question was poorly answered.

(i) What particularly made this work appealing to Martin? Mention two details. The following answers
were considered to be correct: ondjambi oya li yi li pombanda (800) shi vulithe shoka a li a tegelela/
Martin kakwa li a tegelela ondjambi yi vulithe pomathele gaali; ita ka kala e na omutonateli. Candidates
who failed responded as follows: okwa li a pewa ompito a pewa ompito a konge kuume ke; okwa
li a pewa ompito yokuthiga po okatumwalaka kokongodhi yaRobert “ngele owa pumbwa ndje thiga
okatumwalaka kongodhi yandje.” It was answered fairly well.

(j) Why was Martin hesitant about having a female helper? Most of the candidates responded well
to this question for they answered as follows: oku uvite kutya iipundi niitaafula otashi vulika yi kale
iidhigu komukadhona. A few candidates failed this question because they gave the following answers:
oshoka ohaya uvathana nawa naEmily; ookuume ke oya li ya kwatakana.

QUESTION 2 (a)
This question was also based on passage 1 and consisted of part (a) for which candidates were required to list points
from the passage in which candidates are expected to identify facts that suggest that the job was very important to
Martin. Candidates were expected to respond in a note form, using the language of the original text. Candidates were
expected to give their answers in R1 and R2 and most of them were able to lift some correct points pertaining to the
question. Some candidates lifted incomplete points (phrases) with no ideas while others lifted too long points almost a
paragraph. Others lifted irrelevant points that did not answer the question.

Some candidates responded in paragraph format which is wrong. Some did not number their points but used bullets/
null instead, while others have lifted more than 15 points which led to the marker marking the first 15 points only.

The expected answers were:

1. Martin okwa pumbwa okathilinga (okathilinga hoka a pumbwa noonkondo);

2. Okafudho kopokati koshikako oko owala ompito ye yokwiimonena iilonga;

3. Martin ti ikupagula nomadhiladhilo sho kee na iilonga/ iimaliwa (omwenyo gwe ohagu kala gwa lindimana/
onda pumbwa shili iilonga);

4. Ini ikwata sho a mono etseyitho lyiilonga (mbalambala, Martin okwa dhenge ongodhi);

5. Okatumwalaka kaayehe oka gwitha omutima gwe pevi

6. Okwa thiga po okatumwalaka… (okwa tunyu komapepe, e ta thigi po okatumwalaka);

7. Martin okwa li ta yolitha oondhi sho omusamane e mu dhenglele kombinga yiilonga;

8. Okwa li a nyanyukwa sho ta popi mongodhi; “eeno osha yela!; eeno oshili nawa!; oshiwanawa unene!”;

9. A limbililwa ta ti pamwe iinima itayi ka enda nawa; “ngele nde ende omupadhi gwelago onda mona iilonga
yomokafudho;

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10. A nyanyukwa sho taya popi nayina; “iilonga mbyoka oyi li ashike nawa nangame”;

11. Ina sholola konkalo yegumbo; “omuthigona ke na omutima omunene”;

12. Ina sholola keholokepo lyomugandji gwe gwiilonga/uukwatya womugandji gwe gwiilonga inawu mu
shunitha omutse miipeta;

13. Ti ipe ombedhi ina hala okuuvitha nayi omusamane (i iyakwa kelaka e ti ipe ombedhi sho a mono
omusamane a lulika oshipala);

14. Ondjambi oya li ombwanawa; shoka a li inaa tegelela (N$ 800. 00 peha lyo N$200.00);

15. Ina ulika enyanyu lye kombinga yondjambi, a tila kutya pamwe omusamane ota ninguluka;

16. A li a nyanyukwa sho kee na omutonateli: okwa menye mo kashona;

17. Oku na okukonga omuntu e mu kwathele nongele hasho ota kanitha ompito ombwanawa yiilonga;

18. A si oshimpwiyu a kwate ondjuhwa komulungu/manga omugoyi inaagu dhenga, oye li nale othika pondje
yegumbo lyonomola onti-6 mepandaanda lyaIndependence Avenue.

QUESTION 2 (b)
This question required candidates to write a prose summary of 100-150 words, with the ideas written as their response
in part (a). Most of the candidates listed points in a paragraph form, but there was no connection to the ideas (no
coherence) which led to an incomprehensive summary. Some candidates did not summarize points listed in (a), but
rather summarized the whole text or passage. Most of the candidates failed to use their own words as required. The
use of own words does not mean that candidates should use figurative language. Most of the candidates summarized
in more than one paragraph instead of using one paragraph only.

To rectify the problem, teachers are urged to teach learners thoroughly how to summarize using their own words
(paraphrasing) with linking words or conjunctions. Teachers should also encourage learners to read with understanding
instead of relying on copying the exact points from the text. Candidates should be discouraged from using figurative
language. Teachers should also train learners to adhere to the word limit and one paragraph only.

SECTION B
QUESTION 3

This question was derived from passage 2 and candidates were asked to deliver a motivational speech by learners who
are in their final year at a local secondary school, about mistakes people often make in life, how to avoid them and how
to recover from them. Some candidates did not answer according to the text; instead they generalized the mistakes
that happen in daily life. For example, alcohol and drug abuse, falling pregnancy, committing suicide and religion. Some
candidates have copied the entire text, paragraph or sentences (synonymic copying style).
A few candidates did not finish writing this piece while others did not attempt the question at all. Most of the candidates
did not stick to the word limit, hence some wrote too short and too long pieces which resulted in learners repeating
points or writing irrelevant information. A few candidates did not use the correct register and format. Some candidates
wrote other pieces such as narrative essay, letter, report and article. Some candidates fully or partially misinterpreted
the question, some addressed wrong audiences for example parents and students from tertiary institution, while some
were preparing others for life after school which was not part of the text neither the question.

To rectify these errors, teachers should provide candidates with more activities based on written textual forms. (Text
to train learners how to use the text information in their own pieces of writing). Teachers should stop teaching shorter
pieces (written textual forms) in isolation. Teaches should also teach learners how to use the main ideas and develop
them in their own words. Learners should be trained to manage time wisely. They should also be trained to count the
number of words and stick to the words limit. Teacher should teach paragraphing (how to write paragraphs in general)
and brainstorm their ideas or points before writing. Learners should be trained on how to write different pieces as
prescribed in the syllabus and most of all, teachers should encourage learners to apply reading comprehension by
highlighting key words from the instruction or from the question.
The following points were considered to be correct:

Omapuko haga ningwa kaantu moonkalamwenyo dhawo:

• Okukala wi iwete katokote (onda li ndi itaala kutya ondi na okukala gumwe gomaalongwa mboka);
• Omwiinenepeki (molwaashoka onda za ngaa mezimo lyaahwepontu, oshilalakanenwa shandje shotango okutsitha
ondjodhi yandje);
• Okwiitendela ondhikwa okanona inaa ka valwa (onda zala ondjatha onduudhe nda thikama komeho gomupanguli
nokupopila aantu yaKalunga mboka yaa na ondjo);

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• Okwa li iwete e shi kehe shimwe (inandi ilonga iitopolwa ayihe oshoka ethimbo lyandje olindji onde li hepeke
nokukala nakahewa kandje omupe-Sara. Ethimbo alihe, sho ndi li mosaala yomakonakono- e wete kutya ota vulu
okupita okakonaakono nande ini ilonga);
• Okwa dhina aalongwa ooyakwawo (tandi kandulile aalongwa yiikwathangundu koombinga noombinga);
• Ta nyengwa okuuva ko onkalo yi li ngaashi yi li (nani hoka nda fala omeya hako taku hangwa/ ompumpuhodhi…
oshe ende ngiini).
• Nkene ye na okukeelela nokwoopaleka omapuko:
• Kala wa kotoka, inatu igwana po (moonkalamwenyo dhetu ohatu ningi omapuko ogendji, gamwe omanene
nagamwe omashona);
• Kala wu na omukumo (out na okupula komeho tu tale ishewe ngele genongo taga fe gongombe- ngele owa kala to
ipula nendopo ndika ku na esiku wu ye komeho);
• Okutaamba ko onkalo ngaashi yi li (yina-naayihe mbika otwe yi umbile kombunda- onda pula komeho nonkalamwenyo
yandje);
• Ipopila mwene (tate okwa li moonyandi e ta thiminike ndje ndi hokanwe. Kanda li naana ndi na oonkondo dha
gwana oku shi tinda nohandi ipe oombedhi sigo okeluwa ndika);
• Ninga omatokolo e to landula oondhodhi dhoye (oondjodhi dhandje odha li dha simana kungame);
• Kala aluhe wu na oonkondo (omuntu owa pumbwa okulongitha ompito kehe);
• Ino sholola (otandi kambadhala ndi pukulule omapuko gandje).

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Teachers are commended for their hard work and dedication in ensuring that candidates were prepared for the final
examination despite the unusual circumstances of this year that affected the school calendar. The Senior Education
Officers in the regions and the Heads of Departments at the schools are hereby urged to discuss the examiner’s report
with the subject teachers to ensure that the recommendations are implemented.

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6100
Paper 2

GENERAL COMMENTS
• The performance of candidates has improved, as most demonstrated a better understanding of the questions
compared to the previous year.
• Some candidates exhibited strong self-expression skills, while others successfully adhered to the correct essay
format.
• Additionally, many candidates showed an awareness of the different types of essays and were able to distinguish
between them effectively.
• However, at some centers, there were instances where candidates’ names did not appear on the checklists.
• In some cases, the correct paper component and topic numbers were recorded incorrectly. Furthermore, the
numbers of candidates present and absent did not match the checklists.
• In their writing, some candidates incorporated vocabulary and slang from English, Afrikaans, and Oshikwanyama,
such as “town – ondoolopa,” “minerals – iimongwa,” “maala – ihe,” and “dange – dhandje.”

The following frequent mistakes were seen:

Wrong Correct
odholopa ondoolopa
omadhilaadhilo omadhiladhilo
ote otandi
okwa li nda onda li nda
ngaye ngame
lyi li
ontsi onzi

• Some candidates punctuated essay titles incorrectly, adding full stops or enclosing them in quotation marks.
• In writing dates, some candidates omitted them entirely, while others wrote them incorrectly, such as Kotomba/
October/Kotober – Kotoba. However, some opted for numeric formats like 14.10.2024.
• A number of candidates failed to include introductions and conclusions in their essays.
• While some began their paragraphs with idioms and proverbs, others used idioms and proverbs simultaneously,
such as Kemanya ku za wo onzi, and many more others in one sentence.
• Additionally, some candidates altered traditional proverbs, producing variations like Inatu shuna omutse miipeta
or Megumbo mwa tselwa mbishi.
• Dialogues and monologues were incorporated into essays by some candidates. However, instead of formulating
their own topics, some candidates simply copied the instructions verbatim.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Narrative

1 Nyola etotwahokololo kombinga yoshiningwanima shimwe moka omuntu gwontumba wa li wa

dhina a li e ku ningile uuwanawa mboka wa li inoo tegelela.
A significant number of candidates chose this question and responded to it fairly well. Some demonstrated a
partial understanding of the question, addressing it only to a certain extent. A few candidates focused on a single
incident, narrating it in isolation. Others misinterpreted the question, describing themselves as the ones being
underestimated rather than underestimating someone else. Additionally, some candidates failed to provide reasons
for underestimating a specific individual. Instead, they narrated instances where they offered an act of kindness
to the individual. In some cases, candidates generalized the act of kindness rather than tying it to the context of
underestimation as required by the question.

Oshiholelwa
Omulongwa okwa li a tegelelwa a nyole kombinga yoshiningwanima shimwe, edhina lyomuntu ngoka a li a dhina
kondandalunde nosho wo ondhino i.e eholokopo lye, iiniwe, ondondo, oomvula, oluhepo, uukwashikekookantu,
uutondwe nosho tuu. Omulongwa okwa li a tegelelwa a holole uuwanawa mboka wa li inawu tegelelwa.

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2 “Oondjodhi ohadhi tsu shili”. Nyola etotwahokololo kombinga yoshinima we shi lala ondjodhi
nokonima osha ningwa shili.
The majority of candidates chose this question, with most achieving above-average scores. Their responses were
generally accurate, as they provided detailed accounts of their dreams and how these dreams came true However,
some candidates took a pessimistic approach instead of focusing on positive experiences. A few wrote about more
than one dream, while others described dreams that belonged to other people rather than their own. In some
cases, candidates narrated dreams that did not come true, were unrealistic, or appeared exaggerated. Additionally,
a few candidates referenced books such as Kanakule Nuumbanda We Kothingo in their responses.

Oshiholelwa
Omulongwa okwa li a tegelelwa a hokolole kombinga yondjodhithaneko, ondjodhi yeyagumo nosho wo yopafano.
Ondjodhi oya li ihe ya pumbwa okuhokololwa nopehulilo tayi ka tsa. Elongitho lyomupersona gwotango nali dhane
onkandangala oshoka omuhokololi ota hokolola ondjodhi ye mwene.

Descriptive

3 Owa talele po ehala lyontumba ewanawa kaa ku na we. Ndjondjomona shoka wa mono ko, wu
uvu nomakutsi nonkene wa li wu uvite.
Only a few candidates chose this question, but most of them responded to it effectively. However, some candidates
omitted key aspects of the question, such as describing what they heard and how they felt. Others focused on
narrating the journey to the place rather than describing the place itself. A few candidates included negative details
about the places they described, while some wrote about more than one setting. Additionally, a small number of
candidates described what they had heard from others instead of recounting what they personally experienced.

Oshiholelwa
Omulongwa okwa li a tegelelelwa a ndjondjomone ehala ewanawa a talele po kwaa na we ngaashi ondoolopa,
omukunda, oshilongo ye ta kwatele mo shoka a mono ko, shoka u uvu ko nomakutsi nankene a li u uvite pethimbo
a li pehala mpo.

4 Ndjondjomona ehala ndyoka wu hole unene mondoolopa nenge moshitopolwa sheni, e to holola
kutya oshike she li ningitha li kale ehala dhingi.
Only a small number of candidates chose this question, but they performed above average. The candidates
provided vivid and well-detailed descriptions of the place, with most effectively incorporating sensory details into
their writing. However, while some described the place exceptionally well, they failed to explain what made it
special. Additionally, a few candidates included negative details in their essays.

Oshiholelwa
Omulongwa okwa li a tegelelwa a ndjondjomone ehala lyontumba kondandalunde ndyoka e hole unene li li
mondoolopa nenge moshitopolwa shontumba e ta holola kutya oshike she li ningitha li kale olyo dhingi komahala
agehe.

Ekwamatompelo

5 Aagundjuka naya tsuwe omukumo ya lye nokunwa iikulya niikunwa yopamuthigululwakalo. Oto
tsu kumwe netumbulo ndika? Koleka eyamukulo lyoye.
A few candidates chose this question and received average grades, primarily due to their general statements about
the consumption of traditional food and drinks, rather than providing specific reasons for their stance on the topic.
Some candidates did not present arguments but instead simply listed answers. A few argued both sides of the
issue, while others focused on the importance of culture and traditions. Additionally, some candidates described
the recipes for specific traditional foods and drinks. Some separated food from drinks, while others did not include
the perspective of the youth. In conclusion, a number of candidates compared the health benefits of modern food
and drinks with those of traditional ones.

Oshiholelwa
Omulongwa okwa li a tegelelewa a popile nenge a pataneke kutya aanyasha naya tsuwe omukumo nenge
inaya tsuwa omukumo ya lye nokunwa iikulya niikunwa yopamuthigululwakalo ndele ta gandja omatompelo taga
itaalitha kombinga ndjoka a hogolola.
Ta popile
Okukaleka po omuthigululwakalo
Opo ye yi tseye
Opo yi adhike komapipi tage ya

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Itaa popile
Onkulu yonale
Oya pumba

Yamwe yomaalongwa oya hokolola owala shoka aagundjuka yopethimbo lyopaife haya ningi osho wo omikalo
dhokulongekidha iikulya, sho hasho sha pulwa.

6 Iinamwenyo nayo nayi kale yi na uuthemba ngaashi naana aantu. Gandja omaivo goye e to
koleke eyamukulo lyoye.
Only a small number of candidates chose this question, and they addressed it satisfactorily. However, some
candidates argued that animals should have equal rights to humans, while others proposed unrealistic rights for
animals, such as paying transport fares or marrying humans. Many candidates struggled to distinguish between
the rights of animals and the benefits of owning them. Additionally, some focused primarily on the importance of
animals rather than addressing the core topic of their rights.

Oshiholelwa
Omulongwa okwa li a tegelelwa a popile uuthemba wiinamwenyo ayihe ngaashi egameno, ohole, omalukalwa
emanguluko, uundjolowele, okuthuwa po, okulya nosho tuu.

Omulongwa ngoka itaa popile okwa li a tegelelelwa a popye nkene iinamwenyo itaa yi vulu okupewa uuthemba
ongaantu nomatompelo taga landula:
Okuza keshito oyi li mepangelo lyomuntu yo yi ya kwathe.

Otayi vulu okuningila aantu omiyonena.

Otayi vulu okulundilitha aantu kutya aalodhi nenge oya pula nosho tuu.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Teachers should
• Encourage learners to number their topics
• Teach learners to use punctuation appropriately.
• Teach learners to highlight keywords and instructional word in essay topics.
• Encourage learners to stick to the number of word as stipulated in the syllabus.
• Expose learners to different places.
• Utilize reading periods fully.
• Encourage learners to take part in debates to enhance their reasoning skills.
• Put more emphasis on the distinction between structures of a narrative and descriptive essays.
• Teach all the grammar aspects.
• Discourage learners from writing about sensitive and immoral incidents.

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6100
Paper 3

GENERAL COMMENTS
• The majority of candidates demonstrated an understanding of the question; however, some merely copied the text
verbatim without engaging with the task.
• It was observed that many candidates exceeded the prescribed word limit of 250–300 words.
• Some candidates completely failed to comprehend the instructions, resulting in irrelevant or incomplete responses.
• A few candidates presented their answers in bullet form, which is incorrect for this paper, while others failed to
include the expected textual evidence to support their arguments.
• Certain candidates only paraphrased the text instead of addressing the question directly, while others made general
comments instead of focusing on specific events or points.
• Additionally, some candidates used slang terms such as omutyepa, sobiso, and kandi poli, which detracted from
the formal tone required.
• Candidates are reminded to support and justify their answers with specific evidence from the text.
• Finally, responses should include a clear introduction, body, and conclusion (eyamukulo), with coherence, structure,
and relevant analysis (efalomo, olutu, and ehulitho).

COMMENTS ON THE QUESTION

Epulo

Omushangi okwa holola Tetekela e na uukwatya wa tya ngiini mokaleshwa haka? Eyamukulo lyoye nali
ikwatelele kelaka nokoshikalimo shokaleshwa haka.
Iitsa tayi landula otayi ku kwathele mokundjandjukununa nokutula ongushu koshinyolwa shoye:
• Nkene a li u uvitile omaihumbato ge.
• Nkene i ihumbatele omugandji gwe gwiilonga.
• Nkene i ihumbatele aantu yalwe.

Uule womayamukulo goye naga kale pokati kiitya 250-300.

• Omulongwa na gandje uumbangi kondandalunde okuyambidhidha eyamukulo lye.
• Omulongwa na yelithe ye na yambidhidhe oshitsa she nuuyelele wu li mondjila oku za mokaleshwa.
• Omulongwa okwa tegelelwa a yamukule i ikwatelela kwaambi tayi landula: eyamukulo nenge omadhiladhilo ge;
uumbangi; omatokolo ge.
• Aalongwa oyendji oya nyengwa oku uva ko elaka lyopafano lya longithwa mokaleshwa. Hol: ta hokolola oondago
ndhoka hadhi liwa pehala lyokawe, ngaashi: Tetekela okwa li a sa ondjala, sho osho she mu yakitha oondago
mokampunda kashilumbu.
• Omulongwa okwa tegelelwa a gandje omaiuvo gomondjila/ taga opalele ngaashi: Ondi wete sha puka sho Tetekela
ta yaka oondago dhomuhona nenge dhomugandji gwiilonga, oshoka otashi vulu oku mu kanithitha iilonga nenge a
tulwe mondholongo ngele a kwatwa.
• Aalongwa yamwe oya gandja uukwatya waTetekela momukalo gwoku mu shundula ngaashi taya ti: “Tetekela okwa
li endanganziyo/ efakufaku/ elayi sho a halele yina eso.
• Okwa ndhindhilikwa wo aalongwa yamwe yu uva ko okapenduthimadhiladhilo kotango epuko, hoka ka li taka pula
nkene Tetekela a li u uvitile omaihumbato ge. Aalongwa yamwe oya holola omaiuvo gomushangi, omanga yamwe
ya holola omaiuvo gashilumbu nkene a li u uvitile omaihumbato gaTetekela.
Oshiholelwa: Omushangi okwa li u uvite kutya Tetekela ombudhi, shaashi okwa yaka po oondago dhashilumbu.
Nenge: Shilumbu okwa li u uvitile Tetekela nawa / e mu inekela ngaashi sha hololwa mokaleshwa taku ti:
“Shilumbu okwe mu lombwele a tegelele kEtitano, manga taya kongo omuntu e shi okwiinekelwa ngaashi ye.”

• Aalongwa oya li ya tegelelwa ya yamukule ngaashi tashi landula: Tetekela okwa li a tila sho ta yaka po uuwe
washilumbu, ngaashi sha hololwa mokaleshwa taku ti: “Uumbanda nande wa li muye, okwi imatipaleke netumbulo
ndi: Omulumentu ohaku tiwa tula po ...”
• Aalongwa oya li ya tegelelwa ya gandje uukwatya waTetekela tawu opalele ngaashi:

(a) Tetekela omufuthi ngaashi okaleshwa taka ti: “Okwa kamata mo ekamato limwe e te li hwele
mokampunda okakwawo hoka ka li mokasikopa moka.”

(b) Omuniifundja “Pomulongo Tetekela okwa laleke a ye koshipangelo molwa uuvu womeho aniwa.”

(c) Omukengeleli ngaashi omushangi e shi holola sho a ti: “Mpeya omumati oha yi po ashike nelaka
lyokutya okwa tumwa kushilumbu gwe.” nenge Tetekela oha yi kombaanga nedhina lyashilumbu /

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omugandji gwiilonga ta ti na kwathelwe meendelelo opo a shune kiilonga.

Ndhindhilika:
• Aalongi naya longe aalongwa kutya uuna taya ningi omatokolo, inaya tegelelwa ya gandje omayele kombinga
yokaleshwa, ihe naya ninge omatokolo gi ikwatelela koshiningwanima shoka ya nyola.
• Oshiholelwa aalongwa oya yamukula: “Shilumbu ka li e na oku etha Tetekela a ye koshipangelo oye awike…” Peha
lyokuyamukula: “Tetekela okwa ninga oshinima sha puka shoka tashi vulu oku mu kanithila einekelo komuhona
notashi vulu wo oku mu kanithila iilonga.
• Uupenduthimadhiladhilo awuhe nawu yamukulwe. Omulongwa ni iyuthe komukalo gwomondjila gwokunyola/
gwokuyamukula epulo, ndele hakunyola uupenduthimadhiladhilo onga uupalanyologona ngaashi yamwe ya nyola.
• Aalongi naya dhewule aalongwa ya ndhindhilike kutya elaka ndyoka hali longithwa muutewo olya yooloka kelaka
ndyoka hali longithwa mooprosa nomoodrama.

Oshiholelwa: Ngele omulongwa ta totha uumbangi mooprosa noomodrama ina longitha iitya yuukwatewo tayi landula:
omukweyovelise, ostrofe, ostanza nenge omukweyo omutingapi kakele ngele omweetipo gwepulo okwa longitha
okatewo, ihe omulongwa na gandje uumbangi mokaleshwa tawu koleke eyamukulo lye kondandalunde.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should guide candidates to write clearly and effectively in essay format, avoiding the use of bullet points
or subheadings.
• They should also teach candidates how to state their ideas clearly, incorporate relevant quotations, and express
their views or opinions effectively.
• It is essential for teachers to help candidates differentiate between literary terms and styles, emphasizing that the
language used in poetry differs significantly from that used in prose or drama.
• Teachers are encouraged to continue reinforcing general grammar rules, including correct punctuation usage.
• Additionally, teachers should train candidates to adhere to the prescribed word limits to ensure concise and focused
writing.

Conclusion
Teachers are greatly appreciated for their commitment and dedication in preparing candidates for examinations. It is
the responsibility of Senior Education Officers, heads of departments, and teachers to review the examiners’ report
thoroughly and ensure that all recommendations are implemented faithfully.

Thank you.

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Paper 4

GENERAL COMMENTS

Most centers adhered to the guidelines, submitting the required materials, including candidates’ written research papers
(both scanned and hard copies), Orature Assessment Forms, and MS1. This year, the majority of centers successfully
submitted marked written coursework, which is commendable. However, examiners often failed to provide comments
aligned with the marking grid specified in the syllabus. While the presentation of candidates’ work was generally neat and
legible, a few research papers were untidy. Notably, 90% of centers submitted scanned documents for each candidate,
demonstrating an improvement in compliance. Some centers also submitted well-curated research papers on cultural
artifacts, a commendable achievement, particularly for newer centers. Centers that submitted word-processed reports
contributed significantly to smoother moderation processes.

Despite these improvements, a significant concern remains regarding the overall quality of candidates’ research projects.
Many candidates did not conduct genuine research, instead fabricating their findings. This highlights an urgent need for
enhanced guidance on Paper 4 (Written Component).

1 Sampling
Most centres are commended for adhering to sampling guidelines; however, some centres failed to identify sampled
candidates clearly. Candidates in the sample should be marked with an asterisk (*) on the summary form, as per
guidelines, to facilitate efficient moderation. Several centres omitted candidates who scored at the extreme ends
of the marking spectrum, which created additional challenges for moderators. Moreover, some centres submitted
different samples for Paper 4 and Paper 5, which further complicated moderation. Examiners must thoroughly
familiarise themselves with the guidelines for selecting samples for consistency across components.

2 Interpretation of the Assessment Criteria

3 Comments on Specific Aspects of the Candidates’ Reports

3.1 Topics (Iipalanyolo)

Many centers developed well-formulated topics suitable for research, such as “Etapo lyomongwa kekango,
Endjandjukununo lyomuule lyankene eyogo lyomupya lya simana mAandonga, Ekonakono lyomuule lyiitopolwa
yonyama yongombe mbyoka hayi liwa kootate. However, other centres produced general and unclear topics
for example Onzimbogo, Oshinyanga nosho tuu. They also produced vague topics for example, omagadhi
goongongo ohaga yengwa ngiini? Examiners should guide candidates more effectively to help them refine
their topics. The research topics should ideally relate to African cultures, especially the Aandonga ethnic
group. Aakonakoni otaya indilwa ya kale aluhe haya lesha nawa nokutaamba iipalanyolo yaakonakonwa
ngele ya mono kutya oyi li mondjila, omanga aakonakonwa inaya ka ninga omapekapeko. Iipalanyolo nayi
kale aluhe yo odhekelwa komithigululwakalo dhOshiafrika, unene ya pamba komihoko dhAawambo.

3.2 Introduction (Efalomo)

Most candidates wrote brief introductions that barely illuminated the chosen artefact or aspect. Some provided
overly lengthy introductions, while others were vague. An effective introduction should provide context, clearly
explain the significance of the chosen topic, and set a foundation for the rest of the research. Mefalomo
lyepekapeko, omukonakonwa na kwatele mo iinima mbyoka ya simana: Na ulike paufupi kutya omapekapeko
oge li kombinga yashike. Ta gandja wo paufupi uuyelele kombinga yoshipalanyolo osho tuu shoka (Pamwe
omafatululo nenge ngaa kehe uuyelele wa simana notawu opalele, opo wu uvithe ko omuleshi). Ota vulu wo
okugandja paufupi kutya omapekapeko oga ningilwe naanaa uunake nehala / omahala hoka kwa ningilwa
omapekapeko ogo tuu ngoka.

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3.3 Purpose and Interest [Ohokwe yoshipalanyolo]
Many candidates struggled to articulate a clear purpose or interest for their research. Some explanations were
repetitive, while others lacked clarity. Candidates often used personal statements, such as “Since childhood,
I have observed these customs …” Teachers should guide learners in crafting purpose statements that reflect
genuine research interests.

3.4 The Main Objective (Elalakano enene lyepekapeko)

Most candidates accurately included their main research objective. However, while some objectives were
insightful, others were overly simplistic. Candidates should focus on formulating an objective that aligns
with the depth of their research. Elalakano enene nali kale olyo omutima gwomapekapeko, nohali kala lya
kwatathana nawa nepekapeko alihe lyomukonakonwa. Inali pumbwa li kale ele unene, ndele nali kale lya
yelela nawa omuleshi.

3.5 Research Questions / Research Objectives (Omapulo / omalalakano gepekapeko)

Candidates must decide whether to focus on research questions or research objectives. Research questions
should address uncertainties or unresolved issues related to the primary objective, and they should not
prompt simple answers. Instead, they should encourage in-depth analysis. Many candidates submitted basic
questions, which restricted the depth of their findings. Examiners are encouraged to assist candidates in
crafting questions that promote critical thinking and deeper analysis. Aakonakonwa oyendji oye na omapulo
taga iyendulula, omanga yamwe oye na omapulo ganathangwa, hol: Owa hala okukala Omukwanangombe?
Aantu mbono ihaaya nu ontaku otaya ningwa ngiini? Aakonakonwa yamwe wo oya gandja omapulo ge li
kokule naashono tashi pekapekwa. Omapulo wo ngono taga tegelele omayamukulo ga-Eeno nenge Aawe
naga kale ga keelelwa. Peha lyomapulo ga tya ngeyi, naku longithwe omapulo taga kuku, taku longithwa
iityapulo ngaashi “Omolwashike, osha ziilila peni?, nosho tuu”. Oshinima oshikwawo, omapulo gepekapeko
inaga tulwa we mumwe nomalombwelo nenge nomalalakano, ngaashi sha ningwa koosenda dhimwe.

3.6 Sources of Information and Methods of Collecting Information (Oonzo dhuuyelele nOmikalo
dhokugongela uuyelele)
Some candidates sought information from knowledgeable individuals in their community who could provide
insights into relevant cultural aspects. While some mentioned their intention to attend festivals, only a few
actually participated in local festivals, weddings, or funerals as part of their research. Examiners should stress
the value of firsthand observation and active engagement with cultural practices. Aakonakonwa oya pumbwa
okupula uuyelele kaantu mboka ye na owino, ontseyo notaya vulu okupopya kombinga yiikwamuthigululwakalo
yontumba. Aakonakonwa yamwe oya ulika kutya oya pula aantu nenge oya yile kiituthi ya yooloka, nonande
shika inashi ningwa. Oyendji otaya popi unene iifundja moshitopolwa shika. Moshitopolwa muka, omikalo
adhihe dha longithwa mokugongela uuyelele nadhi ulikwe mo. Dho nee omikalo odho tuu ndhoka nadhi
longithwe, inadhi popiwa ashike. Dho nadhi kale wo tadhi opalele oshilongadhalwa. Omikalo ongaashi
“omapulo gopaenkundathana”, okutongolola [okutala nomeho], omapulo ga longekidhwa okuyamukulilwa
pombapila, okulesha momambo, nosho tuu.”

3.7 Findings (Shoka sha monika po)

Many candidates struggled to produce concise summaries of their findings, often copying information verbatim
from sources rather than synthesizing it. This approach made it difficult to present cohesive results. To improve,
candidates should organize their findings around their main research questions or objectives, ensuring the
significance of their data is clearly conveyed. Moderators noted a general weakness in data presentation,
with many candidates failing to effectively integrate and interpret the information they gathered. Uuyelele
nawu ngongwe nawa, ndele nakehe ngu a popiwa kutya ota gandja uuyelele na gandje uuyelele, omikalo
adhihe dha longithwa mokugongela uuyelele nadhi popiwe. Pompito mpaka, iigwedhela ngaashi omafano,
uuvideo, nsho wo ilwe, nayi kwatakanithwe noshitopolwa shika shomapekapeko. Sha hala okutya, omuleshi
na kwatakanithwe nomafano, uuvideo nenge oonkundathana ndhoka dhi li kiigwedhela. Sha hala okutya
ano na yi tse kumwe. Hol: Efano 10.2 otali ulike nkene kuku Gwanamupala ta longitha omafo gomingaalipi
mokupanga omukolo ...

3.8 Discussion and Analysis of Findings [Okupopya nokundjandjukununa shoka sha monika po]
The majority of candidates performed poorly in this section, even those who gathered extensive information.
Most candidates merely repeated what they were told by their sources without critical examination or analysis.
This limitation often stems from ineffective questioning, which fails to uncover complexities and ambiguities
in the information provided. Examiners should guide candidates in critical thinking, encouraging them to infer
meaning and draw conclusions beyond the literal information gathered. Aalongwa oya pumbwa okulongwa
nkene taya vulu okweeta po omayamukulo gawo gopaumwene okuza muuyelele wa za mwaasho sha monika
po. Naya potokonone, taya ndjandjukununa, taya popile nenge itaaya popile, nokuninga omahulitho ga kwata
miiti ge na sha noshizemo shomapekapeko.

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3.9 Conclusion [Ehulitho]
Some candidates approached the conclusion as a narrative rather than connecting it to the main objective of
their research. A well-structured conclusion should revisit the research objective, summarize key findings, and
provide a sense of closure. Candidates are encouraged to avoid introducing new ideas and instead focus on
reinforcing the insights gained from their study. Additionally, they should include recommendations grounded
in their findings or the topic under investigation. Aakonakonwa oya tegelewa ya holole kutya epekapeko olya
li tali lalakanene shike, olya adha tuu omalalakano galyo, nuuyelele wuni tawu landulwa po.

3.10 References [Omusholondodo gwoonzo dhuuyelele]

Most centers are commended for handling this component accurately. However, there are still some centers
that need support in providing this section correctly. All informants who contributed responses to the research
problem, as well as place names and book titles, should be listed in this section. Omusholondodo gwoonzo
nagu kwatele mo aantu mboka ya gandja uuyelele, omahala hoka kwa li kwa ka talelwa po /kwa ka pekapekwa,
nenge omadhina gomambo ngoka ga leshwa komupekapeki mokumona uuyelele komapulo gepekapeko lye.

3.11 Appendices [Iigwedhela]

A few centres handled this section effectively. However, most centres are still struggling to address it as
required. Key elements to be included in this section of the research are: the approved research proposal
form, research photographs (with clear and detailed captions), questionnaires, and interview questions,
among others. Additionally, all learners’ videos and audio recordings should be stored in a dedicated folder on
the examiner’s computer, and send together will the research papers, as they form an integral part of the entire
research process. Moshitopolwa muka namu kwatelwe: okafoloma kondungethaneko yeyokomeho lyiilonga,
ka ulika kutya omapekapeko oga taambwa komukonakoni, omafano ga yela noga fatulula nawa muule,
oshiholelwa shomapulo gopambapila, oshiholelwa shomapulo ga longithwa pamukalo gwoonkundathana,
nosho tuu. Uuvidio nuuaudio nawu kale mo-folder yomukonakonwa mokompiuta yomukonakoni, oshoka
nawo owu na okutumwa, pamwe nomapekapeko agehe gomukonakonwa.

RECOMMENDATIONS / POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS

• Strengthening guidance on critical thinking: Teachers should focus on teaching candidates how to think
critically, evaluate data from various sources, and produce individual responses. Providing real-world
examples and encouraging reflective thinking can improve candidates’ analytical skills.
• Improving sampling consistency: Centres should ensure that sampling is consistent across components and
that a diverse range of candidates, from high-achievers to low-achievers, are included.
• Enhancing topic formulation and relevance: Teachers should help learners formulate well-defined, researchable
topics that resonate with the cultural and linguistic context of Oshindonga.
• Emphasizing structured presentations: Candidates should be encouraged to use headings and organize
information coherently, instead of writing continuously. Summarising findings with an emphasis on clarity can help
candidates avoid simply listing data.
• Promoting real engagement with cultural sources: Teachers should encourage their learners to gather
information through firsthand observations or interviews at cultural events, where appropriate.
• Teachers should actively guide their learners over the two years, ensuring they produce a robust and authentic
reflection of their work on one of the cultural topics.
• It was observed that there are numerous typographical errors in candidates’ work. Teachers are encouraged to
thoroughly review each candidate’s work to assist in refining and enhancing its quality.
• Teachers should avoid using ticks on candidates’ work. Instead, they should provide detailed comments on each
component of the research. It was noted that some teachers placed large ticks even when it was unnecessary,
which can be misleading.
• By implementing these recommendations, the quality of research projects in Paper 4 could be significantly
strengthened. Teachers are sincerely appreciated for their continued commitment to supporting Oshindonga
learners in excelling in cultural research/anthropology. Thank you!

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6100
Paper 5

GENERAL COMMENTS
This examination marked the fifth under the revised NSSC Ordinary Level curriculum. Centres are to be commended for
collecting substantial information on cultural artifacts, which greatly contributes to preserving and enriching our language
and cultural heritage. Moreover, the information gathered by candidates for Paper 4 [Written Coursework] on cultural
artifacts forms the foundation of this paper. However, it is disappointing to observe that the quality of presentation and
discussion has not shown significant improvement over the past four years. Unene ombapila ndjika ohayi ikwatelele
kuuyelele wiikwamuthigululwakalo ya pekapekwa komulongwa mOmbapila Ontine yi na sha nomapekapeko. Ngele
omukonakonwa ina ninga omapekapeko, nena kapu na ekonakono lye lyokupulakena nokupopya. Nonuumvo
mombapila muka omwa monika kutya inamu ya naanaa elunduluko enene, okuyelekanitha noomvula ne dha za ko.

1 Quality of recording
The majority of centers submitted recordings of good quality. In most instances, the candidates’ performances, the
examiners’ instructions, and the selected pieces were clearly audible. We commend the centers for their excellent
work. Thank you very much.

2 Range of sample
While we appreciate centers submitting sample recordings alongside their full cohort to showcase a range of
abilities, withholding the entire cohort is now creating significant delays in the moderation process. To expedite
the process, please adhere to the sample submission guidelines outlined in the NSSCO Grade 10-11 Oshindonga
Syllabus.

Additionally, some centers submitted two different samples. The sample selected for Paper 4 (Orature) should also
be the same sample used for Paper 5 (Listening and Speaking).

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC SECTIONS

The oral examination comprises two distinct sections: Section A (Presentation) and Section B (Discussion). It has been
observed that some centers, particularly those with experienced teachers, are incorporating traditional “warm-ups” into
Section A. Please note that the “warm-up” phase is not part of the formal assessment and should not be recorded.
Centers are advised to familiarize themselves with the revised national guidelines for the oral examination, which clearly
outline the assessment criteria for each section.

1 Section A: Presentation
A significant number of candidates demonstrated a lack of adequate preparation for the presentation component
of the oral examination. Many presentations lacked a clear and logical structure, with candidates often presenting
irrelevant or disorganized information, such as off-topic discussions or repetitive details. This lack of structure
hindered effective communication of ideas. Additionally, many candidates struggled to engage their audience,
suggesting insufficient preparation and a lack of focus on key points. Centers must prioritize equipping candidates
with the necessary skills to present their ideas in a coherent and structured manner.

1.1 The quality of presentations

Based on our observations, some candidates struggled to articulate their project ideas and lacked the
confidence to present their reports effectively. This suggests a need for increased emphasis on regular
classroom presentations to better prepare candidates for this component of the assessment. Aalongwa naya
longwe okugandja ohokwe yawo, elalakano enene, omapulo/omalalakano gepekapeko nokugandja omikalo
ndhoka dha longithwa mokukonga uuyelele; nokonima naya fatulule iigwedhela yawo ngaashi omafano, uu-
audio, osho wo uuvidio mboka ya kwata pethimbo taya gongele uuyelele wawo. Naya popye kombinga
yuuyelele ya gongela paufupi kwi ikolelelwa kaagandji nenge koonzo dhomauyelele, opo ku keelelwe elongitho
lyuuyelele inaawu kwashilipalekwa (plagiarism -uumbudhi wopauakademi). Centres also need to polish the
presentation skills of candidates as part of teaching and learning.

1.2. Interpretation of the Assessment Criteria

It has become a trend to put candidates in higher band even if they do not deserve to be placed there. This
raises questions as to whether examiners understand the marking criteria or they simply ignore the marking
grid.

Aakonakoni naya kwashilipaleke kutya oya lesha noya uva ko nawa okatalitho, opo ya vule okugandja iitsa
mondjila. Okatalitho otaka adhika mOmusindalongo gwOshindonga, Ondondo 10-11.

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2 Section B: Discussion
This section requires examiners to actively engage with the candidate by probing their project in depth. This
includes challenging claims made in the report to assess the candidate’s ability to articulate and defend their ideas.
To effectively fulfill this role, examiners must possess a thorough understanding of the candidate’s project, which
appeared to be lacking in many instances.

Poshitopolwa shika aakonakoni naya pule omapulo taga kuku, omapulo ge na sha niilonga yomukonakonwa, ihe
omukonakoni ine ga kutha momutse nenge pamwe pwi ili, kaapu shi mpoka omukonakonwa ta popi, osho wo
iilonga ye yomapekapeko. Ohashi kwatha wo, opo shi ulike kutya omapekapeko oga ningwa komukonakonwa ye
mwene, sho otashi ulike kutya ine ga ningilwa nenge e ga kuthe palwe.

2.1 Examining Techniques

The majority of interactions between examiners and candidates were observed to be calm and professional.
This positive observation is noted. As in previous years, examiners posed insightful probing questions, such
as: “If you were to repeat your research project, what changes would you make?” and “How did your research
purpose and questions guide your data collection process?

Aakonakoni naya kale taya pulakene nawa shoka tashi popiwa kaakonakonwa, opo ya vule okupula omapulo
taga kwatathana nomayamukulo gaakonakonwa. Aakonakoni naya tseye oshitopolwa shika shoonkundathana,
kashi shi ethimbo lyokukutha omahokololo kaakonakonwa gaashoka sha monika po. Yamwe yomaakonakoni
inaya kundathana naakonakonwa, ihe oye ya pula ye ya pe omahokololo gaashoka ya mona po.
The first step in becoming a good interlocutor is to study the candidates’ reports carefully and make probing
remarks or questions on the margins. This is what many examiners seem not to do. Pethimbo lyokutala
oolopota dhaakonakonwa, omukonakoni na se oshimpwiyu shokukutha mo omapulo ngoka e wete taga ka
opalela oonkundathana dhawo.

Examiners should try by all means to make this a discussion by avoiding phrases like “My first question to you
…”. Instead, make a reference to the report, “In your report you concluded that … don’t you think … would
you perhaps …”.

2.2 Interpretation of the Assessment Criteria

Examiners generally did not apply the assessment criteria correctly. Candidates were placed in higher bands
which did not correspond with the quality of the discussions. The higher bands (1 and 2) are for candidates
who are spontaneous, initiate and lead the discussion not for candidates who need to be prompted. These
bands are also not for candidates who narrate what they were told by their informants “kuku Shigwedha okwa
yelitha kutya olukula olwa simana, oshoka …”, Omukonakonwa nguka ina gwedha po nande omaiuvo ge, ye a
hitilile muule wuuyelele a pewa nokuholola shoka ta ti ko kuwo. The bands are for candidates who extend their
topics, candidates who are confident, and who analyse and evaluate different perspectives. A great number
of candidates could not do these, yet they were placed in these bands.

Aakonakoni otaya kunkililwa, opo ya leshe nokutseya nawa okatalitho kombapila oyo tuu ndjika. Shino naye
shi ninge opo ya gandje iitsa tayi tsu kumwe naashoka she etwa po komukonakonwa kehe. Aakonakoni naya
se oshimpwiyu aluhe motundi ya longe aalongwa nkene ye na okuyamukula nokuhitilila muule pakulongitha
omaiuvo gawo, opo ye ete po omayamukulo ge na ongushu.

3 Recommendations / Positive suggestions

• It is advisable for teachers to prepare thoroughly in advance for this component to minimize potential
shortcomings. Aakonakoni naya kale aluhe yi ilongekidha nawa omanga ku na ethimbo, opo ku keelelwe
nokushonopekwa omapuko.
• Learners should be taught listening and speaking skills throughout the two years to enhance their proficiency in
both areas. Omalalakano gomusindalongo naga leshwe nawa. Aalongi naya longe aalongwa yawo nkene ye
na okupulakena nokupopya, momukokomoko gwoomvula adhihe mbali, opo ya humithe komeho uunkulungu
nomikalo dhawo dhokupulakena nokupopya. Omalalakano gomusindalongo naga leshwe nawa.
• Aalongi naya tseye kutya iizemo yomulongwa otayi ikolelele unene komukalo ngoka omulongi ta longitha
mokupula aalongwa ayehe posenda ye. Na pule omapulo ge na ondjundo yi thike pamwe notaga kuku ontseyo
yomuule momulongwa opo a likole iizemo yolela.
• Omukonakoni na kale u uvite ko iipekapekwa yaakonakonwa, opo kaaha pule omapulo ge li kondje yaasho
sha pekapekwa kaakonakonwa.
• Oshihwepo opo momahala moka tamu konakonenwa aakonakonwa (mongulu yekonakono lyokupopya
nokupulakena) mu kale mwa tsilikwa owili kekuma, opo yi vule okuwilika omukonakoni naakonakonwa ye,
mokulongitha ethimbo nawa.
• Teachers are commended for their dedications and efforts in making Paper 5 [Oral Examination of 2024] a
success.

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FIRST LANGUAGE OTJIHERERO
6101
Paper 1

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

Performance: This was the fifth examination under the revised NSSCO curriculum. The performance of candidates
this year was poorer compared to last year. It is disheartening to note that the performance of candidates appeared
to be in reverse mode. The passages appeared to be within the experience level of candidates, but still candidates’
reading abilities seem to leave too much to be desired.

Duration of examination: Most candidates completed the examination within the allocated time.

As with last year, the following general observations are given to guide centres and schools.

General reading and writing skills: There was no significant improvement in the general reading and writing skills
of candidates. An unacceptable high number of candidates could still hardly read beyond Assessment Objective R1
(understand and collate explicit information and meanings). As with the previous year, it was observed that candidates
found it extremely difficult to structure and present appropriate, effective and convincing responses. A huge number of
candidates just copy the passages verbatim. Candidates, at this level of schooling, are still unable to use compound and
complex sentences with conjunctions and connective words or phrases. Vandu voyetu ovahongwa mbe ri mondondo
oitja-11 ngunda ve tjangurura ehungi ndi va rese okuzira omapuriro (nu meraka ravo!). Ihi otjiraisiro otjiwa tjokutja
onḓengu yomahongero nomerihongero wOtjiherero ngunda i panḓera korura rwondjuwo – kehi, kehi tjinene. It was
apparent that candidates are rarely exposed to reading comprehension and writing exercises in the classrooms during
normal teaching. They only get these types of exercises during examinations.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Section A

Question 1: Reading Comprehension

The passage was about a teenage boy, Martin, who needed to earn a bit of money during the school holidays. He
received a job offer clearing out an old house. Considering the pay offer, this seemed to be just what he needed.

Many centres do not stress the fact that the questions are set in accordance with the Assessment Objectives as stated
in the syllabus. The following are the Assessment Objectives as taken from the syllabus:
OM2 OKURESA
Ovahongwa mave soku-:
R1 zuva nokuworonganisa ondjivisiro nomaheero nge ri poruhaera;
R3 yendekera omaheero nozongaro nḓa undikwa momatjangwa ngu mave rese nokuisirako omaheero komatjangwa;
R4 muna kutja ovatjange ve ungurisa vi eraka kutja ri kare nomuano kaaṋi mbwo mbu mari ṱunu kovarese mu mu
neraka eundikwa.

Otja tji pa raisirwe ombura ndja zu ko, ovarorwa ovengi omaziriro kutja ye ri pi ve ye muna (na moungundi wavo
wokuresa). Ouzeu u ri mokuzuva ndji ondjivisiro nokuitikura kutja oyo i yenenise ndi epuriro nawa – oro nda purirwa
kondando yomatarero kaaṋi ndjo (R1, R3, R4). Kehi mba mape yandjwa otjiraisiro (rukwao tjimuna ombura ndja zu
ko) tjainga omapuriro nga, ozondando zomatarero noruveze mehungi pu pe na indji ondjivisiro. Otjingi tjovarorwa
ondjivisiro ndji tji kotora ombihu uriri nao.

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EPURIRO OM2 R OKARUKONDWA ONDJIVISIRO OMBIHU (INGWI KAKU KU RI OKUZIRA)
(a) 1 Martin wa ri kehi yoṋiṋikizire. Omayuva womasuviro ya ri aya tumbuka –
indwi ondwa ri oruveze rwe aruyerike ndwa ri na rwo okumuna okamariva
kaa hepa, nungwari apehe eye paa kakongora, aa pewa omaziriro nga
sana nu ngaa ha zeri.
(b) 1 6 Nokuhina okunyona oruveze, Martin wa wire kongoze. Omutima we wa u
indu eye tje rihaka mombuze ndji ri mongoze rukuru: “Wa tono konomora
4 ndji 255573. Me ningire ondjesiro ngunda nai kape nomundu moruveze
ndwi. Arikana sye po ena nomora yoye, eṱe matu ku kotokere moruveze
rwatjimanga.

7 Me kambura kutja mba kamaape kara nondoṋeno,” eye ee ripura nao.

“Mape kara ondundu yovandu mbu mave sye ko ozombuze kongoze
ndjo. Apehe pa sana andakuzu mbi mba ṱokuvyesa uriri. Nungwari eye
wa huku oviṱuve nu arire tja isa ko ombuze.
(c) 1 7 Me kambura kutja mba kamaape kara nondoṋeno, eye ee ripura nao.
Mape kara ondundu yovandu mbu mave sye ko ozombuze kongoze ndjo.
Apehe pa sana andakuzu mbi mba ṱokuvyesa uriri. Nungwari eye wa
huku oviṱuve nu arire tja isa ko ombuze.
(d) 3 10 ‒ 14 Ongoze mai hepura tjike? Ina we mu pura.

Ohunga noviungura; ami mba munu oviungura momayuva womasuviro

– ngatu pate ominwe kumwe. Rutenga me hepa okukahakaena
nomurumendu umwe mbo kombund’ osikore.

Omukerumendu?

Omurumendu ngwo ngu ma zu nokutona ongoze nai. Eye ma vanga

kutja tu hakaene rutenga.

Nu ovikeungura vari? Okuṱakamisa ounatje?

Aeee, mamaa za po o tjiti! Kako, okupaka oviṋa mondjuwo imwe onguru

mbo poo oviṋa mbya i ngo nao. Imbyo ombi ri vyo uriri ku ami!
(e) 4 17 Ondjuwo ya ri moLuxury Hill, omaturiro mu mwa ri nomiti omingi vyoviyao
nozondjuwo ozonene. Ondjuwo yonomora 6 mOmurari wOngutukiro ya
1 ri ondjuwo yozondendeko mbari ndjari yo moruveze rwayo. Ovinanyiva
vya hapere nga tji vya ri pokukavaza komband’ omututu, okuṋeyasana
novimboroma imbi ovivapa mbi ha kondwa nga tji vya hapa okuyenda
kombanda tjinene. Eye we tji kurama momuvanda koure wokaruveze, aa
nyutu pomurungu: Pe ri nawa vari, tjiri hi nomuano warwe, eye we ripura..
(f) 1 18 Omurumendu woruyezu ongumba rwozonḓi oruhazendu nomatweho
wa paturura omuvero nu arire tja ṋangere Martin moukoto. Omundu vi
ngwi nai! Martin we ripura, ngunda ama hiti mondjuwo. Ngunda tjandje
ke nokuivaiva: mu avihe, ingwi ongwa ri omuhona we. Ondjuwo aai
ṋuka eṱundo, owa ndji ha munu ombepo. Otjitapeita tji tja ri kosurura
tja ri oruuma uriri porwaro, tja taukire, nu kovivangwa ya harekerwe
nozombapira ozondumbu nḓa uta okupita motjivara. Oviṋa avihe mbya
ungurwa povipirangi vya ri ovyanare nu ovihoni motjivara.
(g) 3 18 Tjimuna kombanda mba.

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(h) 1 19 ‒ 22 Ohimise kove, nu? Omurumendu arire tja tja.

3 Ii, Martin wa zira, nu kaṱiṱi nao aa u ombunda momeripura.

Me vanga kutja oruveveze ndwi aruhe ru kombozorwe komaandero

wotjivike tji matji yende. Ounanwa, ovihangasa ... avihe mbyo. Oviṋa
avihe vi sokuwongwa navi pakwa nawa noukeke movimbakete. Ami me
vanga kutja oviṋa avihe mondjuwo ndji vi pakwe, nga kokarutuwo nga
okaṱiṱiṱiṱi kotee.

Martin wa ryangisa omeho we mu imbi omitwaro mbya hahauka omikuru

nai nu mbya pita momote. Imbi ovyokuungura tjike nai? A pweṋisa nga
omambo, nu ookurumata omuṋa tjinga ngwi omurumendu e mu vete eho
ra Kavango.
(i) 1 23 ‒ 26 Kape na konatja kutja ovyokuungura tjike. Ami me vanga kutja vi ungurwe.
Mo munu kutja mo yenene okuviungura? Ove mo hepa omundu me ku
vatere. Me ku sutu o N$800, tji wa itavere.

Martin, ngwaa ha undjire ko okusutwa kombanda yoN$200, wa ri aa ramwa

– kutja eye wa tjita ouatjiri kutja a ha raisa nao, tjaa ngwi omurumendu
ngee ripura omuano warwe.

Yaa, imbo ma rire nawa. Me kotoka Omandaha muhuk’omunene okutja,

pu nepanga randje.

Okutja otji mee ku ku urikira oviungura, omurumendu wa tja nao. Tji

mba zu mbo otji me ku esa kutja u ute na imbi oviungura. Ae, mba
hara okuzemba, ena randje owami Robert. Robert John. Tji mo vanga
okundjitonena ongoze, mo yenene okuisa ombuze kongoze yandje. Martin
wa ri ama vanga okumeṱameṱa nungwari e ritjaerere. Kape nomundu ngu
me ndji tjevere – imbwo ouwa warwe peke! Eye we ripura nao. Ihi ootjiṋa
otjiwatjiwa ohunga noviungura mbi! Osemba!
(j) 1 27 ‒ 28 Okumuna omundu ngu me mu vatere kaa ri oupupu. Omapanga ka
ya kutja ve mu vatere ayehe ya ri aya haverwa oviungura. Wa roro
okuningira Emily? Phillip we mu pura: Ami me tjiwa kutja eye wina ma
vanga okumuna okamariva.

Martin ke na pe ripurire okumuna omuatje omukazona otja ngu me

mu vatere. Ouripura we we tji handa momitwaro omizeu, nungwari
ndoovazu Emily ma paha oviungura, mape zepa tjike? Ovo ve zuvasana
nawa tjinene neye aa sokukara nomundu ngu me mu vatere poo tjarwe
ngaa pandjara ouṋingandu.

(a) This question asked candidates to mention details why Martin was stressed at the start of the story. The
majority of candidates at least scored one mark out of the possible two. Many answered: “eye aa vanga
oviungura/aa hepa okumuna okamariva” and scored only one of the possible two marks. The two details
together could not gain the candidate two marks. To gain the maximum mark, they needed to add, “eye
aa kara pokumuna omaziriro ngaa ha zeri/kaa munu oviungura”. A number of candidates mentioned this
and gained the maximum mark. Some candidates gave inconclusive answers such as “aa pewa eziriro
rimwe nda sana” and could not be credited. Eziriro rimwe nda sana pi? Ku undjirwa kovarorwa okutwapo
oukahu nawa kutja ave ha kahakerwa po i yovatare vomarorero kutja ngahino va vanga okutja nai.

(b) This one proved to be a difficult question. The question probed why Martin was disappointed when he
rang the number in the advertisement. Many candidates ignored the fact that Martin received a “recorded
message” and only wrote why it (the recorded message) was a setback for him (as in question c below)
and could not be credited here. They were expected to say “eye we rihaka mombuze ndji ri mongoze
rukuru” to earn one mark, and that “eye kaa undjire ko eziriro ewa/kaa undjire ko kutja mape ya ave mu
kotokere” to earn the second mark. Few candidates scored two marks here.

(c) This question was well-answered by a good number of candidates of whom a significant number wrote the
same answer as in question b above. It was about why Martin felt pessimistic. Many answered “ondundu
yovandu mai sye ko ombuze kongoze” and scored the one mark that was available for this question.

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Some candidates however, wrote “aruhe aa munu eziriro ndi mari tja katu nokuhepa ombatero” and lost
the mark.

(d) This question proved to be somewhat demanding. The question tested candidates’ ability “to understand
and collate implicit meanings and attitudes” by inferring why Martin said, “Come on Mum!” Few candidates
scored the one mark that was allocated to this question. Tjiva aave tja, “orondu ngwi ina we mu pura kutja
ovikeungura? Okuṱakamisa ounatje?” Indi ra ri eziriro engundi ndi ha mwine ndji ongombe ndji. Aape
undjirwa kovarorwa okuresa pokati komikoka nokumuna kutja, “Martin aa munu kutja okuṱakamisa ounatje
kaku ye mu pwira orondu ovyo oviungura mbi ha ungurwa i yovanatje ovazandu tjimuna ye nao”. Okakoti
kaimba mba resa pokati komikoka nave munu nao va yoya ongombe imwe ndji.

(e) The question was what was it about the house that made Martin pause outside before going in. The
part of this question that tested understanding explicit meaning was answered correctly by the majority
of candidates. Very few candidates could detect the author’s use of language for effect. Tjinga mba
ovarorwa aave pe munu ouzeu okumuna nokuzemburuka eraka omutjange ndi ma ungurisa kutja ma kare
nongeṋena, otjaave ha munu okamuhewo nga “ndja ri yo moruveze rwayo”. Mena rokuresa pombanda
uriri otjaave urwa okutja “ondjuwo (nambano) ya ri mongaro ombi” nave pandjara ongombe imwe ndjo.
Kaave tupuka okwo ngwi kokukatjangurura ovinanyiva noovimboroma nu otjaave munu ongombe imwe
uriri yoviṋa mbi ri poruhaera mu inḓa ombari nḓa yandjwa kepuriro ndi. Ovarorwa tjiva pepuriro ndi tjandje
va hiti rukuru mu indji ondjuwo ngunda oro amari ve roro omazuvira wavo wondjuwo “pendje”.

(f) A significant number of candidates answered this question correctly. The question was about what shocked
Martin when the door of the house opened. Candidates could see that the man looked “rather strange”
and scored the mark. Tjinga ara ri epuriro ndi mari roro ondjivisiro ndji ri poruhaera, imba mba tjangurura
kutja, “omurumendu woruyezu ongumba rwozonḓi oruhazendu nomatweho wa paturura omuvero ...” wina
aave munu ongombe imwe ndji.

(g) This question tested candidates about the impression Martin gained from the interior of the house. It proved
to be a rather tricky question and a good number of candidates lost the one mark that was allocated. Ovo
popengi aave panḓere pu ingwi okuhandjaura kutja ondjuwo moukoto aai munika vi moruveze rwokuzira
kutja ngwi Martin ee i munu vi. Imba ovaṱiṱi motjivaro mba zira kutja eye ee i munu aayo “etundu” poo kutja
“kai ṱunwa poo okukohororwa” va muna ongombe ndji.

(h) This question proved to be the most difficult question in this part question. A huge number of candidates did
not score a single mark here. The question tested the candidates about why the man’s instructions seemed
strange to Martin. Otjivarero otjingi tjovarorwa aatji panḓere pokutjangurura ndi ehungi nu momuano mbu
hi nokuzira ndi epuriro tjimuna: “Martin wa ryangisa omeho we mu imbi omitwaro mbya hahauka omikuru
nai nu mbya pita momote.” Ovo otjaave pandjara nḓa ozongombe pouvari wazo. Okuzira epuriro ndi nawa
aaku undjirwa kovarorwa okuraisa ouhimise wokutja omurumendu aa vanga kutja “ngamwa tjiṋa” tji pakwe
noviṋa tjiri mbyaavi munika kutja “kavya ri nonḓengu” nangarire kaṱiṱi.

(i) This question appeared to be accessible to the majority of candidates although a good number of them
could not score the maximum mark which was two. The question was about what particularly made the
work appealing to Martin. Ovarorwa mba zira kutja, “omena rotjisuta” kaave munu ongombe orondu ovo
kave raisire kutja hi otjisuta hi “tja ri kombanda eye kaa ha undjire”. Ovo wina rumwe nao aave zembi
okuperaisa kutja, “okuhina okutjeverwa wa ri umwe wouwa woviungura mbi nu otjaave pandjarere po
ongombe. Varwe aave tja kwa za nge ye pu nomumuvatere nave ha munu po ongombe.

(j) This one was an easy question. Most candidates answered it correctly and scored the one mark. The
question was why Martin was hesitant about having a female helper. It was expected of candidates to say,
“omitwaro vya ri omizeu”. Vemwe aave tja, “mena rokutja Emily wa ri omuatje omukazona neye nao ma
vatere tjike” nu ave pandjara ongombe ndji orondu kape nokukahuka kutja omitwaro vya ri omizeu.

Question 2

This year, unlike the previous years, this question was not answered well by many candidates. On average,
candidates this year scored between 5 and 6 marks for parts (a) and (b) combined.

(a) Notes: It was expected of candidates to extract points from the passage that suggest that the job was very
important to Martin. Despite the notable adherence to the instruction in terms of number of notes and the
concision thereof, candidates were mostly unable to fully grasp from the passage “that the job was very
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important to Martin”. They only concentrated on how Martin tried to find a job for example:
• apehe eye paa kakongora, aa pewa omaziriro nga sana
• eṱe katu nokuhepa ombatero na imwe
• ouhumandu tjiri
• otje rihaka mokambuze kovirandwa

The following general suggestions are given to assist centres when preparing candidates on a daily basis:

• OVE KO NOKUHEPA OKUUNGURISA OMAMBO WOYE OMUINI. Omambo nga kaye heye kutja o ungurisa
omambo woye omuini kaparukaze. Ndoovazu ove mo hepa omambo woye omuini okutjita kutja okanouta ke
zuvake, ko ya tjaerwa nangarire kaṱiṱi. Tara tji u ha ungurisire omambo woye omuini okanouta koye make tja:
Ii, pe ri nawa! Osemba! Kake nomaheero na yemwe nu otji ke hi na ngombe wina. Tji wa weza mo omambo
woye omuini make tja: Eye wa ri nondjoroka mongoze: “Ii, pe ri nawa! Osemba!” Nambano make hungire
kutja oviungura vya ri ovinahepero ku ye opa zokukara nondjoroka nao tjaa hungire mongoze.
• OUSUPI NOUKANGA VS OMAHEERO. Ozongondjero zovarorwa okutjita kutja ounouta u rire ousupi
noukanga rumwe u kaetisa kokutja owo u kare nokuhinamaheya, tj. Ngatu pate ominwe. Okutja vi nao?
Kutja ke kare nomaheya orondu tji wa tjanga kutja: Eye wa ri nongendo ohunga noviungura mbi nu opa tjera
ngatu pate ominwe.
• EPURIRO. Ounouta u sokuzira epuriro, tj. “Omapu ngu maye raisa kutja oviungura mbi vya ri ovinahepero
ku Martin.” Okuuta okuresa okanouta ngake raise nao. Tara mbwi, kau nokutuhonga nao – ngape tjiukwe
kutja ovatare vomarorero kave hakere po omurorwa kutja wa vanga okutja vi:
- okurirumata omuṋa
- wa ramwa
- me kotoka Omandaha
Sasaneka ku na imbwi:
- ka vangere okuhihamisa omumupe woviungura nomambo we ookurirumata omuṋa
- kaa undjire ko ondjambi yokombanda nao tjandje wa ramwa uriri
- Omandaha ndo we ritupuka rukuru, ngaa kaere
• ONGONGORASANENO. Ounouta tji mau kongorasana otja kehungi u puparisa omatjangero womboronganisiro.
Tji wa tjangwa ondorondomba indji omboronganisiro wina otji i rira ondorondomba.

(b) Summary: The summary mainly tests candidates’ writing skills. Again candidates could barely progress
beyond Band 4. An increase in unnecessary copying of the passage and non-adherence to the 100 – 150
words limit were observed. A number of candidates wrote long summaries of over 250 words and only a
few lines at Question 3.
The following general suggestions are given to assist centres when preparing candidates on a daily basis.
Omboronganisiro ngai:

• KAENDE OUSOPOKE. Okutja omundu nangarire ngu hi ya rora okuresa ehungi ndo, tja zuu omboronganisiro
ndjo nga hare ondjerera kutja pa kaenda tjike. Ingwi ngu me i rese ka sokukurama nokuripura kutja mape
kaenda tjike – ngai rire ongahu nu ombupu okuitezera. Ovahongwa ngave rore okuresa ozomboronganisiro
zavo okuravaera metuwo romahongero otjorupa rwomahongero nomerihongero.
• HUNGAME NDI EHUNGI NEPURIRO. Ohepero tjinene kutja omboronganisiro i ṱaṱere kehungi nda resewa
nawa nu i zire epuriro nda purwa.
• KARE MOMAMBO WOMURORWA OMUINI. Oṋa kaku hondja ounouta kumwe nungwari okuyandja ondjivisiro
osupi yehungi nda resewa nu ndji mai yandjerwa motjiṱo tjepuriro nda purwa. Mokurongerisa ovahongwa kutja
ve yende amave rihongo okutjanga momambo wavo oveni, movikando ve raera kutja: “Me mu resere ehungi,
puratenee nawa.” Ve resera ehungi tjazumba u ve raere kutja ngave tjange omboronganisiro osupi ohunga na
mbi va zuu. Okutja okuzambo otji mo tja nambano me pura epuriro, taree kutja mamu ṱunu vi omboronganisiro
yeṋu. Kombunda otji mo kevepa ndi ehungi ave tara kutja mave pwisa vi ndji omboronganisiro yavo otja
kotjivarero tjomambo 100 – 150.

Section B

Question 3: Directed Writing

Compared to the previous year, this question proved to be the most difficult question. In response to the passage,
candidates were asked to write a motivational speech (as a directed writing task) which they would deliver at a local
secondary school where they were invited. They would speak about: (i) mistakes people often make in life, (ii) how to
avoid them and (iii) how to recover from the mistakes.

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Candidates’ Responses
Very poor responses
A good number of candidates in this category copied great chunks of the passage (including the characters Anna and
Sara) and at times replacing only the career choices and a few things. In some cases, only the introduction looked/
sounded like a speech: “Mamu uharisiwa vahongwa nozomiṱiri … ami ngu me hungire owami …”. These candidates
could not be placed higher than B and 5 on reading.

Poor to average responses

The majority of candidates fell into this category. Many spotted the sentence: “I saw you spending so much time with
Sara and could see that you weren’t focusing on your studies.” As a result of this, they based their responses (or a
greater part of it) on “bad friends” venturing into all types of mischievous behaviour and mistakes people make in life in
general which the passage obviously did not suggest. A lot of them narrated their own stories on how they once fell into
the trap of bad friends. These candidates could hardly progress beyond Band 4 on the reading category. Only those
who mentioned some themes from the passage such as being over confident, arrogance or complacency, often without
really developing them fully could reach Band 3.

Strong responses
Very few candidates produced strong responses which unearthed the subtle layers of meaning from the passage.
These few candidates showed that they were proficient readers and could discover the deeper messages/themes from
that passage such as over confident, arrogance, simplistic views or complacency with the accompanying motivation
of becoming aware of our imperfections as people, but to be optimistic and realistic. It was these few candidates who
could be placed in the higher bands for reading (Bands 1 or 2).

Ya ri ongahukiro momaziriro wovarorwa, pendje na inga omaresero omangundi, kutja kape ya zuvakwa kutja inga ngu
ku za “omatjangero omahungame” ovikwaye. Owo ngamba kaye iwe! Ehungi nda resewa omu mu sokuza omeripura
ku maku ronderwa. Ape ovarorwa avehe omeripura ngaave munu mehungi ndo iyemwe uriri: OUPANGA OUVI.
Okuzambo otjaave zu mo mu indi ehungi ovo mbee ave kahita ovimbuku mokuyeta “omakariha, ovipurukise, otukatuko
otuhinandjeverero tu twa kayeta ouṱumba mbu ha tyerwe” ovyo mbi ha rorere okutamunwa mu indi ehungi nda resewa
kaparukaze.

OMATJANGERO OMAHUNGAME ye memenwa kehungi nda resewa. Ozongombe 15 ozokuresa okutja omeripura
nge ha “tungirirwe kehungi” kamaaye raisa ouhatoi wokuresa komurorwa nu otji ye hi nokumuna ozongombe.

3. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS

Otja tji pe kara nambano matu tji zu ko komambo nga wovandu avehe, tu tji riyambere po.

Omundu wa kasana aayo u yarukira po noviṋa mbi wa hungira rukuru nungwari tjandje nga omaunguriro ngunda
iyemwe uriri potjingi tjozosenda zetu.

Omundu tji mo tara nai, ozosenda nḓa nḓe ungura omuano mbwi “Kakurunetundu” omaunguriro wazo inga omangundi.
Doing something the same way all the time and expecting different results. Ouzeu wetu u ri pokutja ovahongwa
kave riroro pu pa yenene moure wozombura mbari nḓa. Oviungura ohamukwao na imbi kavi ungurwa momatuwo
womahongero okuza keyuva nga keyuva, ve kawanena momarorero uriri. Motjivike atjihe ve sokurirora meroramazuviro,
ounouta, omboronganisiro nomatjangero omahungame. Miṱiri, ungurisee omahungi nomapuriro nge ri mozombapira
ozonguru zomarorero okuhongerako – aze rire zokumbaraurirwa omarorero womokati kombura! Ovanatje mba ovetu
oveni, ngatu ve pendukire! Arikanee uri. Omambo nga ya hungirwa ozombura nozombura itjivi tja rura!

Ngunda ape hi ya pwa, omambo nga wombura ndja zu ko maye kotoka rukwao:

• Eroramazuviro wokuresa: Vakwetu ngamba, ovarorwa mbe ri mondondo oitja-11 nu meraka ndi ve hungira ngunda
VE TJANGURURA oviṋa osemba okuzira omapuriro! Kwa za ngave hongwe okuyaha mondota nu ngamba kave
ya hongwa. Miṱiri, ovarorwa ngave pewe oviungura mbi aruhe nu mba tjangurura ave pewa ozongombe kutja
ovo ve rihonge okuzira omapuriro. Ave tjangurura, tj. Epuriro (f) ra pura kutja: Ovikwaye mbya handuza Martin
indu omuvero wondjuwo yonomora 6 tji wa paturuka rutenga? OKUTJANGURURA: Omurumendu woruyezu
ongumba rwozonḓi oruhazendu nomatweho wa paturura omuvero nu arire tja ṋangere Martin moukoto. OKUYAHA
MONDOTA: Omurumendu ngwaa munika ouhimise/ouhazendu.

• Ounouta: Ya ri otjinyaṋukise okumuna kutja ondjuriro ndji yokanouta kemwe moruteto ya zuvirwa! Okuhepa
tjinene, nawa onao. Posi yokutja ngunda mwa ri nounouta mbu hi nokuhungira poo okuzira ndi epuriro. Pe munika
aayo tji maku zu “ove ko nokuhepa okuungurisa omambo woye omuini” pa sana nokutja o ungurisa omambo woye
omuini kaparukaze. Mena ranai ovarorwa otji ve nana ounouta nangarire mbu hi nokuhingira poo okuzira ndi
epuriro. Kutja okanouta ke seturuke (kahuruke) omurorwa ma yenene okuwezamo omambo we omuini omuano

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mbwe rizuvisa. Opuwo ndi tje hi nokuwondjorora nokukaetamo oumune mbu he ri ohepero. Ngape kare oviungura
ovingi metuwo romahongero mbi mamu ungura pamwe – ave pereitekerwa uriri. Ngave zuve nu ve mune.

• Omboronganisiro: Imba ngunda ngamba omutund’ omaonya uriri. Mave hepa okurirora aruhe. Kombanda mba
pa yandjwa omiano tjiva mbi mavi yenene okuungurisiwa metuwo romahongero, taree ko nawa. Komaandero
otja tji pe raisiwa aruhe, Miṱiri tje ve pe otjiungura hi metuwo romahongero, ma yenene okuvepura kutja: “Nanee
omikoka kehi yomambo weṋu oveni ngu mwa ungurisa, omahondjambo nomahondjauripura. Ye pi? Hapo tjii
omihewo vyeṋu omikutwakumwe nomihandjaukahewo hi? Tjaa me munu mo omirikehewo uriri. Ongwaye?
Ṱunee.”

• Omatjangero omahungame: Owo ngunda okuiya monyama, otjitovero ngamba. Nai popengi ngamba va ri
amave yepe tjinene na indi ehungi nu otjaave riutire oviṋa mbi hi norupe na rumwe na indi ehungi. Ovo ve
sokupunga omerizemburuka okuza mehungi tjazumba arire ngu va parangisa momuano wokumema “developing
ideas from the passage and expand them creatively” as their own.

• NB. Me yarukire po ngunda: Zomiṱiri ozosuverwa, ovanatje ngunda katu ya honga tjiri! Ngatu tji riyaruka oveni.
Tu ungura tjike? Hapo momambo nga omatjangerwa wovahongwa mu nouhatoi kutja tjiri tu honga nai? Vakwetu
ngatu ungure! Nga rire ombura 2025 youtoṋi!!!

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6101
Paper 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The overall performance of the candidates is satisfactory. A large number of candidates scored marks ranging between
average to above average.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Narrative Essay/ Oserekarere

1 This topic was popular and was attempted by a large number of candidates as most of the candidates who
attempted this question produced good essays and scored good marks on and above avarage.
Mepu ndi omurorwa aa sokuserekarera ohunga notjikando eye pa nyengurire omundu rive nungwari
ngunda a nyengura omundu ngo nao eye e mu tjindi mongaro ombwa. Otjingi tjovarorwa aave zuu nawa
epuriro ndi, nu otjaave tjanga ozombwanekero ozombwa nḓa tjita kutja ve mune ozongombe zonḓengu.

2 This topic like the first one was attempted by a large number of candidates who managed to produce good
essays and scored good marks. Many of the candidates who attempted this question scored average to
above everage marks.
Mepu ndi omurorwa aa sokuserekarera ohunga notjiṋa tji tja tjitwa kombunda yaindu tja za nokurota ohunga
na tjo. Oruroto ndwi mape ya arire oruroto ndwi omundu ndwe rota tja rara, ondando ye moruyaveze poo
rumwe oviṋa mbye ripura na vyo momuinyo. Ovahongwa ovengi aave tjanga nawa ohunga noturoto na
wina imbi mbya yenenisiwa tji va za nokurota nu hi tja tjita kutja ovahongwa ovengi ve mune ozongombe
zopokati nokuyenda kombanda.

Descriptive Essay/ ohandjaure

3 This topic was attempted by many candidates who scored average to above average marks.
Mepu ndi omurorwa aa sokuhandjaura mbya muna nokuzuva poruveze oruwa eye pe kerinana na wina
omuano eye mbwee rimunu momuinyo. Otjingi tjovahongwa kutja aatji handjaura oviṋa mbi va zuva
nokumuna nao kaṱiṱi pa ri nouzeu okuhandjaura omerimwino wavo nu hi tja tjita kutja ave ha munu
ozongombe zokombanda tjinene. Ovahongwa tjiva aave serekarere uriri ngunda amave sokuhandjaura
nu hi tja tjita kutja ave ha munu ozongombe zokombanda.

4 This topic was attempted by many candidates who scored average to above average marks.
Mepu ndi omurorwa aa sokuhandjaura oruveze ndwa suvera motjihuro tje nokutja ovikwaye mbi tjita
kutja oruveze ndwi ru rire orwapeke. Ovahongwa aave handjaura oruveze nu nao motuveze tjiva kaave
raisa kutja otjikwaye tji tji tjita kutja oruveze ndwi ru rire orwapeke, monao ovahongwa otjaave pandjara
ozongombe tja ve sokumuna.

Argumentative Essay/ Ombataṋise

5 This topic was attempted by few candidates who did not produce good essays because they did not have
good points to support their opinions.
Mepu ndi omurorwa aa sokutoorora omuhunga we ohunga nokuhohiza omitanda okurya ovikurya nokunwa
ovinuwa vyombazu. Okakoti kovarorwa ovaṱikona mba toorora epu ndi mba yenena okumuna ozongombe
zokombanda, otjingi tjovarorwa tja ungura oungundi tjinga atji ha ri nomapu omasemba okuṋunisa oumune
wavo. Tjiva nao aave tjanga ohunga nounahepero wombazu ngunda amave sokutara kovikurya novinuwa.

6 This topic was attempted by very few candidates and most of the candidates who attempted this topic
did not produce good essays. As a result they scored average to below average marks. The candidates
did not have strong points to support their opinions as only a few candidates managed to score above
average marks.
Mepu ndi omurorwa aa sokuraisa ongurameno ye ohunga nokutja ovipuka vi sokukara nousemba
otjovandu poo kavi sokukara nousemba. Otjingi tjovarorwa katja ri nomapu omawa okuṋunisa oumune
wavo monao otji va ungura oungundi. Tjiva vovarorwa nao aave tara kominda aviyevari ngunda amave
sokutara komunda umwe uriri, ihi tja ṱuna komaunguriro wavo.

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3. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS
Kutja tu pwise eraka retu ngatu yandje ombango ku imbi:

3.1 Ngatu honge ovarorwa okuhina okutjanga ozombwanekero ozonde tjinene pupe he ri ohepero.
3.2 Ovahongwa ngave hongwe omihoko vyozombwanekero (Oserekarere, Ohandjaure nombataṋise).
3.3 - Ombwanekero ohandjaure: Imba pe undjirwa kokutja omurorwa ma handjaure mbi ma zuu, ṋuka, munu,
roro nokuṱuna ko nga komerimwino we.
- Okutja ngatu pamise mbyo mokuhonga kwetu.
- Ombwanekero ombataṋise: Imba pe undjirwa kokutja omurorwa ma toorore omuhunga umwe nu arire mbwa
ṋunisa nomapu wonḓengu nokuhina okuriyarukira.
3.4 Ngatu yandje ombango korutumbo romambo nomutjangahingo weraka retu.
3.5 Ngatu honge ovarorwa kutja tji mave tjanga ngave toorore epu rimwe uriri.
3.6 Ngatu honge ovarorwa okutjanga ozombwanekero moutokondwa. Okarukondwa akehe ke sokukara nondunge
ombe poo ondjivisiro yako okeni.
3.7 Ovarorwa ngave hongwe okutjanga omihewo omisupi mbi he ri omire tjinene, wina ngave hongwe kutja
omuhewo kau zu mokarukondwa kemwe okuyenda ku karwe, orukondwa aruhe ru uta nomuhewo omupe.
3.8 Ngatu honge ovahongwa okuhaṋena omambo mozondundo tjimuna
- Rangavara → ra-nga-va-ra
- Wina ngave hongwe okuisama omaraka warwe movitjangwa vyavo nu tjinene ngave ungurise omana
wovirongo inga wOtjiherero tji ye ri po
- Ngatu honge ovahongwa vetu okuhina okuungurisa omatuka nomaraka omahazendu ngu maye temangura
omihoko vyarwe poo ozombazu zovandu varwe.
- Omiano vyohungiriro novya Tjipangandjara ngavi ungurisiwe nawa nu vi hitasane na imbi omuhongwa mbi
ma tjanga.

OKUHEPA ME MU ZERIRE PO OUṊINGANDU NOMAUNGURIRO OMAWA.

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6101
Paper 3

GENERAL COMMENTS

Okunene okuhepa kozomiṱiri nḓe kongomokisa otjiungura tjomahongero weraka rOtjiherero.

Omarorero wombura ndji 2024 kaṱiṱi muna omarundurukiro womairo wokomurungu tji mosasaneke nombura ndja zuko
2023.

Ngunda aperi nao, Ombapira yetu ndji Oitjatatu mairaisa ouhendi momaunguriro okuza kOvahongwa. Pena
ouhatoi ouzikame okuza momatjangero womarorero ko kutja otjingi tjovahongwa mave tjangurura uriri, moruveze
rokusokunyamukurira ketjangwa nohengu. Kapena omuano umwe poo omukwao kaaṋi omuhongwa pu ma ziri
ombambira oitjatatu nokuhina okuyeta moumune we mbu norupe netjangwa. Arikanee vahonge hongee ovanatje
okuraisa oumune wa vo momatjangwa mbu mau zeuparisa mbi vanana metjangwa, nu amave ziri EPURIRO. Zomiṱiri,
ovahongwa ngave zire epuriro ndi va purwa ave tjangurura etjangwa eresewa porwe.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Tji twe ya komaunguriro otjingi tjovahongwa ve tjangurura uriri, mokutjangurura kwavo ngwi, kaave ziri epuriro,
aave seturura ozongunḓe inḓa ondatu. Hapo ovahongwa tu honga vi okuzira Epuriro ndi? (Okunyamukurira
ko nohengu). Mape undjirwa kOvahongwa, okusokuhungirira kehungi poo ketjangwa amave raisa omerizuvisiro
nomapu omapame ngu maye zeuparisa poo ngu maye pirura omuano etjangwa mbu ra raisiwa.” (Otja kEpuriro).

Katu tji tara komikambo tjiva mbi:

1. Pa yowa ombambaukire momburisiro yomambo nga Otjimbi noruhoze. Otukondwa otungi pekepeke
eraka rOtjiherero mu ri hungirwa nokuungurisiwa pevapayuva omambo nga ye unguririsiwa otja embo
rimwe, tjimuna: Otjimbi tjoruhoze. Otja kepuriro paa pe undjirwa kovahongwa okusokuṱaṱera kotjimbi
noruhoze, As a result this brought about ambiguity during the marking.

2. Okunyamukurira ketjangwa nohengu, pe undjirwa ko kutja ovahongwa rutenga, ve sokuresa ehungi nda
yandjwa, nokuzuva nawa ko kutja mehingi ma mu kayenda tjike.

3. Tara epuriro kutja mari ningire tjike poo mari vanga kutja u tjite vi.

4. Mepuriro mu kara otjiungura tji ma tji sokuungurwa, tjimuna: “Omutjange wa yenene vi okuraisa nomasa
otjimbi noruhoze ongondoroka nonḓiro ndja kuramena omundu omusenina kouye ngu hungira eraka
ndo? Seturura eziriro roye amo tara omaungurisiro weraka nomurya wokasupi hungi nga.”

5. Okutja otjiungura otjikaungurwa poo ku maku sokuṱaṱerwa: “otjimbi noruhoze.”

6. Ovahongwa mepuriro ndi aave sokuyaruka kehingi ve nane oviṋenge mbi mavi raisa otjimbi noruhoze,
ku vo okuṱaṱerisira ko eziriro ravo, tjimuna: ovandu ve a) “avehe wa sira”, “amu ndji hwike”, “wa yaruka
otjikume eneraka”.
Ovinenge mbi omuhongwa okumarondere okuzira epuriro re ama:
i. Raisa (state) oumune woye
ii. nana (quote) okuza mehungi
iii. handjaura(explain) okuzeuparisa.

7. Ovahongwa ve zira epuriro amave ṱaṱere komapu yetatu nga yandjwa mepuriro otja omayandja muhunga kepuriro.
• Oviṋa ovikuru omukururumendu mbi ma zemburuka
• Okuhina okurivatera nomuhihamwatima womukururumendu
• Okurivera omuini komuzandona
NB: oure weziriro rovarorwa ngari ṱeke potjivarero tjomambo nga raisiwa 250 ngako 300 nao.

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8. Zomiṱiri yandjee ombango korutuu orutarero tjinene orondu runa oviṋenge mbi sokuhongorera po omatarero
woviungura vyOvahongwa, tjimuna: tji paraisiwa MOTJITARERO oruti orutjatatu: vyasetururwa (are
explained) ma raisa omahavehero nge rizuvisiwa ohunga naindi etjangwa; ma toorora ouhatoi
mbwa pwire po okuza metjangwa mbu ma zeuparisa na wo omapu ngu ma twa po.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Ozomiṱiri maze undjirwa okurongerisa ovahongwa moviṋenge mbi mavi kongorere mba indu tji mave ziri ombapira
oitjatatu.

Okuraisa

Okuzeuparisa

Okuhandjaura

Mave rongerisa ovahongwa amave tara kozondando nḓe ri kehi mba:

• Okunyamukurira komatjangwa amave tara kondando, omaheero nge ri poruhaera na wina omaheero omakoto nge
ri momurya womatjangwa.
• Hungirira ko nohengu nungwari noukeke amave yandja ondjivisiro ndji ve rizuvisa.

Nu wina tji mave rongerisa ovahongwa:

• Ozomiṱiri ngaze rese nokurizuvisa nawa ehungi rutenga amaaze kahandjaura orapota kovarorwa.
• Zomiṱiri kape nokumunika omarundurukiro momahongero wokuresa etjangwa nohengu, ozomiṱiri ngaze rongerise
ovarorwa kutja ve rese nohengu.
• Ozomiṱiri ngaze pamise okuhonga omutjangahingo, ondjangero osemba, oviraise vyokuresa nu tjinene oviraise
oviyarurepo.
• Ozomiṱiri ngaze rongerise okuyenenisa otjivarero tjomambo tji tja ningirwa. (okutwako nokuisako 250 ‒ 300)

Ozomburo ozorongerise zovahongwa nozomiṱiri

Ozomiṱiri ngaze yandje ombango kovihorera mbi ri momambo nga:

• Omukambo mOtjiherero (Solid Fondation)
• Pyangee ozo Specimen materials
• Konga kongee nokuzikamisa ozo Support materials
• Rikwambee kozomitiri zarwe zopezu na eṋe ṋaṋi ṋaṋi mu haṋasaṋe omaunongo pekepeke.

Okupaha ombaterero kaungundi!!

Matu mu tjere okunene okuhepa koviungura vyeṋu ovisopoke noviwa mbi mu kondja navyo ouṱuku nomutenya, nandarire
kutja ooimba na mbena matu hepa okupamisa omaunguriro kutja tu pwise oru yaveze rwOvahongwa neraka retu.

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6101
Paper 4

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

This was the fifth examination under the revised NSSC Ordinary Level curriculum. Again, a number of centres collected
some interesting information on cultural artefacts. Those centres, especially the new centres, deserves applause.
A significant number of centres submitted word processed reports which made moderation much smoother. A few
centres, however, submitted handwritten reports! This should be discouraged.

A slight improvement in the quality of the reports was observed. However, more still needs to be done. For as long
as centres delay the teaching of coursework until the last minute, one will not expect a significant improvement in
the quality of the reports. Candidates still experience problems particularly in formulating the purpose statement for
their projects. The objectives are still mixed up with the purpose statement. Many centres appear to be under the
impression that candidates will go out in the field, collect information and present the raw information. No information
collected (preferably from diverse sources) needs to be analysed as the objectives or questions. Candidates are in fact
ill-prepared. They simply rush through their projects. It was apparent at a number of centres that teaching is not taking
place at all! Again, centres wait until the last minute and then put pressure on candidates to come up with topics and
approach some people with no proper guidance. School managers and heads of centres appear not to supervise this
project at all.

1. SAMPLING

As with previous years, most centres did not indicate the candidates who were in the sample with an asterisk (*) as
required. Moderators had to do the sampling themselves wasting a lot of time. Examiners should familiarise themselves
with the instructions. When selecting candidates for the sample, centres should consider the cultural aspects which
was researched so as to include a variety thereof. Some centres only sent the 10 candidates and kept the rest of the
candidates’ work at the centres.

2. INTERPRETATION OF THE ASSESSMENT CRITERIA

There was an improvement in the application of the assessment criteria this year. Centres are applauded for this.
Those centres which still put candidates in higher mark bands than what they really deserve are advised to refrain from
such practice.

Pe raisiwa aruhe kutja okutapera ozongombe moviungura mbi hi nonḓengu ku horora onḓengu yomahongero omiṱiri
ngu i honga kovahongwa ve na imbi oyo mbi i undjira ku vo.

Ovahongwa kutja ve yende kotuti hwi twokombanda orutenga poo orutjavari orondu ovo tji mave ZIKURURA ondjivisiro
ndji va wongo. Imba mbu mave i kotora ombihu otja tji ve i isa kozomburo kamaave sokuvaza ngo. Miṱiri, ve rongerisa
kutja ve vaze ngo o ve undurire ngo nozongombe zotjari. Candidates should show that they can use the information
gathered from their sources in order for them to be placed in higher mark bands.

3. COMMENTS ON ASPECTS OF THE REPORTS

Centres are still wanting, when it comes to preparing candidates for this project. An unacceptable high number of
centres did not complete the form for the research project plan (ondyero yongonḓononeno), which is a clear indication
that proper guidance was not provided to many candidates.

3.1 Topic

As with previous years, some centres produced well formulated topics that could be researched, for example “Ongunḓe
mondjuwo yotjizeero”. Guidance is, however, crucial for projects to produce the desired outcomes. Omapu tjiva tjimuna
nga: omaze wozongombe, okuruwo, oukura, ondjupa yamuaha ...” ye yenda amaye zooka nu otji ye hepa okutarerwa
motjiṱo tjarwe otjikoto. Kahepero owo okutarerwa pombanda uriri nao. Moruveze rwokukonḓonona okuruwo momuano
ohamure, mo yenene okusasaneka omaruwo wotuzo pekepeke.

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3.2 Introduction

As with the previous year, candidates wrote short introductions which hardly shed light on the artefact or chosen aspects.
Because of the inadequate background provided, the subsequent headings were clearly poor or vague. Tji wa yandja
ehi rokongotwe nda yenene mombutiro komoo kakara nepuriro tjimuna: “… ovikwaye?” orondu tjandje oro ra zirwa
rukuru mba. Nu ARIKANEE omundu ka konḓonona otjiṋa eye tji ma tjiwa rukuru! Ondando yombapira ndji okwo ngwi
kokutja ove u rihonge ounongo ounanḓengu mbwi wokutjita ongonḓononeno. Ngoo nangarasi mo serekarere oviṋa ove
mbi mo tjiwa rukuru tjazumba ookutja wa zuva mu Inyangu (omburo yoye). Kanao. Tamuna oviṋa mbi mo tjiwa ohunga
nepu ndo mombutiro mba. O katja mo vanga okutjiwa “omarundurukiro nge ya po” indu au he ye tamunine mombutiro.

3.3 Interest

Again, as with last year this part failed completely to provide the focus and direction of the project. Ovengi aave
tjanga kutja: “tjee kuru … otjikando tjimwe twa ire … ami aruhe ee tarere …”. Avihe mbi kavya ri na indji onyuṋe
nangarire nu kaavi raisa kutja tjotjiri ingwi omuhongwa opu ma vangere okutjita ndji ongonḓononeno. It should be a
real interest that candidates want to pursue, a problem they would like to solve, a misery they would like to uncover
and to challenge themselves to these. Centres are urged to provide the necessary guidance to candidates. Arikanee
amu raere ovahongwa kutja ngave kapahe omapu ngu mave kakonḓonona ngunda amu hi ya kuna ombepo ndji mai
pendura onḓero mu vo; ngunda amu hi ye ve honga ohunga kutja hapo tji mape tamunwa onḓero mape heyewa tjike.

3.4 The main objective

An increasing number of candidates wrote “to learn a lot about …(okurihonga ovingi) … to collect a lot of information
that will be used to teach young people about their culture”. Imbi kambi ri ondando. Mape tarerwa ku tjike kutja we
rihongo ovingi ngo pewe ozongombe ozengi? Mape munika vi kutja omitanda omingi vye rihongere kove ngo pewe
ozongombe ozengi? The main objective is the overall purpose of the study, the intended result, e.g. to establish the
significance of the … festival among the Ombu community. It should preferably not be double-barrelled or questions
seeking close ended responses. Mondando yoye ombaranga tji mu na omambo nga “nu, wina, noho, na wina, nokutja”
tjevera kutja ya hiti ovimbuku!

3.5 Leading questions

These are the uncertainties, the mysteries around the main objective that the candidate wants to unravel. These
questions should, therefore, clarify the main objective. Most, if not all, candidates are under the impression that these
are the questions they should pose to their informants, which is not the case. Again, it is stressed here that these
questions should not elicit simple and straightforward responses. They should, therefore, be formulated in such way
that the answers to them will be read in-between-the lines orwill be inferred.

Okutja arikanee uri, raeree ovarorwa kutja inga kange ri omapuriro ovo ngu mave kapura osemba kozomburo.
Ovarorwa ve pura omapuriro nga osemba kozomburo zavo tjazumba ookukotora nga omaziriro wainḓa ozomburo
osemba nao opuwo. Mena ranai otji mu ha kara OMAPANGUṊUNINO womamwino wozomburo. Ovo ngave ningire
ozomburo okuveserekarera hi otjiṋenge momuano ohamure uriri nu pokati mbo ve kare noupuriro okumuna ondjivisiro
onyingi. Ngave ise: “Epuriro randje etenga … epuriro randje oritjavari … “Ovarorwa mave hepa okutumburirwa
mondjira, amu vesa aveerike. Ondando ndji ombaranga omuano mbu i hi ye ura nondundu yoviṋa oopomapuriro
nga, aku rondo oviṋa ovingi mu wo nu aye kara na “uṋe, ruṋe, pi, ovangendu/ovakendu” nao kamoo katokomona
ondjivisiro ongoto na wo.

Candidates should be led to become critical and not to reproduce whatever they get from their sources as is. Instead of,
“Omburo yandje ya tja …” they should say, “Ami tji me sasaneke omaheya womburo ndji … ku na … me munu kutja …”.

3.6 Sources

It is not expected of candidates to source information from “experts on culture”. They should be able to find some
people who can speak about a cultural aspect in their immediate environment. It was so disappointing that very few
candidates observed festivals, commemorations, weddings and even funerals. Oviṋa mbi vi tjitwa aruhe nu kape
novarorwa ve tji ya katarera. Oviungura mbi kanambererwa kamaavi kara nonḓengu! Miṱiri, arikanee karee kongotwe
yovanatje. Ve hohizee kutja ve katarere ovitjitwa ovinamuinyo – okuperendwa pu nomburo poo okutwapo otjiperendero
tjaindji omburo kaku na indji onḓengu ndji ku weza korapota uriri.Imba okuraisa ozomburo uriri. Ondjivisiro ovo ndji va
yandja ai tjangwa mba.

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Miṱiri, tji mwa vaza mba otji mu twa ko omunwe KONDYERO YONGONḒONONENO. Tji wa tara komaunguriro
wondyero ndji, ootjiraisiro otjiwa tjomaunguriro omangundi potjingi tjozosenda. Ozondyero nḓa kaku twiirwe ominwe,
pozosenda tjiva kaze po nu zarwe za tjangwa meyuva rimwe kovarorwa avehe nu mombura ndji ovarorwa ndji ve ri
mondondo oitja-11! Ingwo okuhina konatja noviungura. Miṱiri ka sokunyamukurira ku NGAMWA otjiṋa okuyandera mba
orondu otji mwa zuvasana na ingwi omurorwa. O katja, “omapuriro kamakahu”.

3.7 Findings

A significant number of candidates could not write a concise summary of their findings. Many were trying to produce a
word-to-word transcription from each source here. It was disheartening to note that candidates at this level of schooling
are unable to write good summaries. Ovarorwa kave ku i okutjanga omboronganisiro! Otjingi tjavo aave tjanga ena
romburo nokuuta okutjanga omambo we otja tje ye hungire. To handle the massive information from their sources,
candidates can organise their findings under different headings here. Kape nokuheya kutja nambano ve sokutjanga
nga omapuriro mba nungwari mave yenene okuyetanaurira moviuru vyomambo (headings).

3.8 Discussion and analysis of findings

This was the part that lacked for the majority of candidates. Even those candidates who collected massive information
about their chosen topics were unable to analyse the information gathered. They simply reproduced what they were
told by their informants here (which they wrote at 3.7 above). A great number of candidates wrote only a few sentences
here. This was so because their leading questions were not effective to unravel uncertainties and mysteries. Moreover,
many candidates are unable to think critically, read in-between the informants’ words, make valid inferences and draw
conclusions. They swallowed and reproduced everything that they were told by their sources. The situation was
exacerbated by poor teaching and guidance. Ovarorwa mba va kasana owoumori mbwa twara okakara nu tjiri maau
kahitisa movihwa! Tji tu ha pendukire onḓengu yeraka retu mai u momahongero. Omapanguṋunino wozomburo
oorupa rumwe orunanḓengu tjinene mongonḓononeno. Miṱiri, omapuriro nga nge uta na: “tamuna … twa ko oviṋa …
omburo yoye ye ku raera ku tja vi …” momerizemburuka oomapuriro wokehikehi otja ku Bloom. Ndoovazu omapuriro
nga ongu maye piti momapanguṋunino okutja owo nao kaye ri nawa. Ngatu honge ovanatje okukara NOHENGU ave
rire ovokuserekarera oviṋa uriri omuano mbu ve vi zuu. Ngave zuvake kutja ovo mave tja vi, mave munu ko vi nu
omena ratjike.

3.9 Conclusion

The conclusion should link to the main objective (purpose). It should provide the overall answer to the purpose of the
project. Some candidates treated this conclusion as if they were writing a narrative piece of writing. Ovarorwa tjiva
va uta okuyandja ozondangu kozomburo zavo nookutja va wonga ondjivisiro onyingi ndji mai vatere ozonḓiṱona. It is
emphasised here again as with last yearthat candidates should revert back to the main objective in order to provide
some closure. Ohepero tjinene mba okuyaruka kondando ndji ombaranga kutja pe horoke kutja ongonḓononeno ndji
ya zikamisa tjike nambano.

3.10 References

A significant number of candidates did not provide a reference list of their sources, including the dates and places where
the interviews took place. For example:

Hengombe Ndjoze, Ondangere yondanga, Otjijere tji ya ri 23 Suramazeva 2023

Annexe

As with previous years, it could be observed from the interviews that candidates had with community members,
and which were submitted as evidence, that the project was welcomed by members of the traditional communities.
Candidates should be encouraged to analyse the lyrics in traditional songs and praises instead of reproducing them.
Again a number of candidates did not transcribe what informants told them. Instead they paraphrased this information
and, in the process, certain information, innuendos and nuances were lost. These innuendos and nuances are rich
cultural expressions that need to be analysed.

Otja tji pe zemburukisiwa aruhe, ongonḓononeno ndji oombutiro yomerihongero wokombanda owo nga zikamena
kokutjita ongonḓononeno mu ngamwa omuhunga womerihongero. Tji matu tapere ozongombe ondundu movarorwa
mbe ha rorere nangarire ngwi okupanguṋuna ndji ondjivisiro ndji va wongo matu hukire ouzeu kozonganda zomahongero
wokombanda.

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When marking the reports, examiners should make notes which will help the moderators to understand why they arrived
at a certain band on the marking grid. There was a conspicous absence of notes on many reports which could inform
moderators as to how examiners had decided on particular bands on the marking grid. The majority of examiners only
copy the description at a certain band “… u ri momuhunga …”.

4. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS

Owanyoro:
• Miṱiri, embo ndi me kara ame mu zemburukisa nga aruhe: “twa pewa ovanatje vovakwetu kutja tu tumburire ku matu
nangarasi oku kwa roora narire tji twa yere eke nominwe vyaro vitano”. Arikanee atu nyono ovanatje mba meraka
retu; atu kara notjirweyo keraka retu oveni.
• Omambo wombura aihe: Ongonḓononeno kai vanga okukaungurwa oruveze apa pu, mai ndjombakaṋa. ma rire
nawa tji wa utu mu Rozonḓu wombura ndji ondenga ovarorwa tji ve ri mOndondo oitja-10 kutja tji mo ya mekweze
oritjavari rombura ndji ovarorwa nambano ndji ve ri mOndondo oitja-11 tjandje ya manuka aihe nga kokutjangwa.
• Okutjita ongonḓononeno nokuitjanga oviṋa mbya sokuhongwa – kaku raera ovarorwa kutja ngave pahe omapu ve
kakonḓonone opuwo. Ovarorwa ave tja, “twa pewa …” orondu otjiungura hi va sokutja va urikirwa omuhunga nave
ritoororere oveni.
• Omahungi ovarorwa ngu va isa mozomburo (movandu) ngaye tjangururwe omavihu nao nu ye hohwe korapota
otjouhatoi.
• Oviperendero mbi mavi hohwa korapota ka sokurira oviperendero ngamwa avihe mbya isiwa pu vya isiwa nungwari
ovyo vi sokurira mbi mbi mavi weza onḓengu korapota otjouhatoi wokutja omurorwa tjotjiri wa katjita ongonḓononeno.
Mbi mavi weza onḓengu komaheero waihi otjiṋenge tjombazu tji tji ri kehi yomakonḓononeno. Mape undjirwa kutja
omurorwa ma kare mu vyo tji ma pura ovandu, vi sokurira oviperendero vyovitjitwa eye mbyaa tarere ku katjiri
nganda a perendwa pu na tjiva vaimba mbaave kaendisa mbi ovitjitwa. Imbwo oouhatoi mbu mau pahwa.
• Ovarorwa ve sokurongerisiwa kutja ve tjiwe okupanguṋuna ondjivisiro kutja ave ha rire ovokukotora ndji ondjivisiro
ombihu uriri nao momuano ovo mbu ve i pewa. Miṱiri, ngatu honge ovanatje kutja ve kare nozonḓemba tji va munu
ondjivisiro – ngave rire ovanahengu! Ave rire ovokuṋiṋa ngamwa tji tja umbwa ku vo owombungu amai ṋiṋine
ozongowa mu nomaparakova.
• Nai Miṱiri nga pahe epu rimwe ndi ma konḓonona omuini nu arire ka hongere ovahongwa ve ombura ndji mai yende.
Ombangu ndjo mo i munu! Mo yenene okuhonga nawa ndoovazu otjiṋa ho ove omu mo tuurungire (poo wa rora
okutuurungiramo).

Miṱiri rumwe ma yenene okutjita ongonḓononeno ndji nu otja pu me i kaendisa okuza komautiro arire tja hongo
ovahongwa ve:

EPU: OKUKONDJA

OMBUTIRO: Imba mo yenene okuserekarera mbi mo tjiwa ohunga nenyando ndi. Wina mo yenene okuraisa kutja
omanyando nge nyandwa mouye nai ayehe ya utirwe otjomanyando wombazu rutenga.

ONḒERO: Tjii nu omanyando nga owetu omakuru wombazu ya ri yeṋe? Mo tara kokutja omanyando nga ya ri yeṋe
nu ongwaye owo tji ye ha nyandwa mouye nai nangarire mo Olympic Games.

ONDANDO OMBARANGA YONGONḒONONENO: Ondando yongonḓononeno ndji oyokukazikamisa kutja tjii enyando
rokukondja mape ya ari yenene okurira rimwe romanyando wouye poo inde.

OMAPURIRO OMAKONḒONONWA
• Enyando rokukondja aari hatwa (nyandwa) vi rukuru? (omazeva waro)
• Omanyando omazamumwe na ro (tjimuna nga wowrestling) ye nyandwa vi? (otja komazeva wawo)
• Ovi enyando ndi tji ra panguka poo tji ri hitasana ku nomanyando warwe omazamumwe na ro?

OZOMBURO mba kamaa rire ovandu porwavo nungwari mamu kara omaresero wina tjimuna womazeva ku ku yakurirwa
omanyando mouye nga komazeva nge ri po womanyando kaaṋi ngo.

Ouhumandu mape ya MBAHORERA YA MANA OMATUNDA ai ya mba nu auhe ngwa i mo nambano arire
“enyando r…”.

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6101
Paper 5

GENERAL COMMENTS
It was the fifth examination under the revised NSSC Ordinary Level curriculum. Once more centres are applauded
for the massive information on cultural artefacts which they collected. These indeed enrich our language and culture.
However, it was disappointing to note that the quality of the presentations and discussions have not improved over the
past five years. This is mainly ascribed to poor planning and poor preparation by centres.

1. Quality of recording
As with the previous year, the recording was in most cases of good quality. The candidates, the examiners and what the
candidates played were audible in most cases. Centres are applauded for this. Thank you very much.

2. Range of sample
A good number of centres sent samples along with the whole cohort which represented the ability range quite well. This
is appreciated. A huge number of centres did not indicate the candidates who were in the sample with an asterisk (*)
on the Oral Assessment Summary Form. Unfortunately, withholding the whole cohort, and only sending the sample, is
starting to rear its ugly head and delay the moderation process. Centres are advised to consult the guidelines.

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC SECTIONS

Centres are reminded again that the oral examination consists of two distinct sections: Section A (Presentation) and
Section B (Discussion). The two should be treated separately. A number of centres conducted this examination as
one, some with the old traditional “warm-ups”. It was observed that most of the warm-ups appeared at centres where
the most experienced teachers are based. They should familiarise themselves with the changes contained in the
guidelines.Where warm-ups were needed, these need not be recorded. Pa utu okumunika aayo ozomiṱiri nḓa nḓa rara
mayuva motjitamba onḓe hi na konatja orondu mu zo nao omu mu novengi mbe ungura aayo momarorero nga mu
norupa rumwe nookukakatera kokutja ovarorwa ngave rihangunune. Ombe uta okupura ovarorwa omapuriro moruveze
rwokuvepa oruveze (Orupa A) okuyandja omboronganisiro yongonḓononeno yavo. Otjivarero otjingi tjozomiṱiri katji
rirongerisire okupura ovarorwa okuisira koviṋenge mbi ri mongonḓononeno yavo, aave undju kutja omurorwa wa
tamuna tjike arire mbi va utu okupura ongondoroka na ihi otjiṋenge tji tja konḓononwa.

3.1 Section A: Presentation

Giving a presentation is a necessary skill in life. It was obvious that many centres did not prepare their candidates to
give a presentation. Many candidates wanted to speak at length and in detail: “Mba kapura A a tja … e kapura B e ndji
raere kutja …” nu tjandje mba ovakaendise vomarorero ouhumandu mave ve hohiza kutja ve hungire nao wina.Miṱiri,
arikana o pura ovarorwa omapuriro morupa ndwi! Oviṋa mbi vya hungirwa ombura ndja zu ko posi yokutja ngunda
kaku ye ya omarundurukiro wevara. Oṋa ndji OMBORONGANISIRO yaindji ongonḓononeno aihe moure wozominute
±5 mu mu nozokuraisa poo okupuratenisa oviṋa mbya kamburwa. Indwi ooruveze oruwa wina rwokuhonga ovarorwa
nangarire okutjita o PowerPoint presentation.

3.1.1 The quality of presentations

An unacceptable number of candidates needed to be probed as they could not speak or were not well-prepared to
present their projects (reports). Centres need to polish the presentation skills of candidates as part of teaching and
learning. Regular classroom presentations are needed to prepare candidates.

Ovarorwa ngave hongwe okuyandja ehungi pamwe nomaraka, oviperendero poo ozonḓengura. Ave kapurwa
nookukakunḓurwa kutja ve na vyo poo ngave vi raise. Miṱiri ma yenene okuraera ovarorwa kutja ngave rikambure kutja
okavideo poo eraka uriri nu ve mu hindire nangarire momapu warwe ngu maye ungurwa otjokurihongerako. Mamu
yenene okupuratena poo okutarera pamwe kutja Miṱiri ma yenene okutumburira ngwi omurorwa mondjira.

3.1.2 Interpretation of the Assessment Criteria

There was a significant improvement in the interpretation of the marking criteria. Centres are applauded for this. Higher
mark bands should be commensurate with the quality of presentations. Omurorwa ngu ma kunḓurwa, omurorwa ngu
hi nokuzeuparisa ehungi re nawa nouhatoi wondjivisiro ndja wongwa, ngu ma purwa omapuriro poruveze ndwi, ngu
ma panḓere pokuvanga okuserekarera kutja omburo yandje ai tja … omburo yandje ai tja … kamaa kapita ozongombe
ndano komurongo morupa ndwi!

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3.2 Section B: Discussion
In this section the examiner should probe the candidate to expand on his/her project, challenge claims (or assertions)
made by the candidate in his/her report while s/he (the examiner) is testing his/her speaking and listening skills at the
same time. The examiner can only do this if s/he has an in-depth knowledge of the candidate’s work, which most
examiners appeared not to have. Miṱiri hapo tji u ha roro okutja, “tjaa omburo yoye rive wa tja …” Miṱiri ve, hapo tji u
pura kutja, “ondando yongonḓononeno yoye ya ri oyatjike … omapuriro ngaaye hingi ongonḓononeno yoye ya ri yeṋe
… ozomburo zoye za ri oowaṋi …” ongonḓononeno yomurorwa ngwa haama momurungu woye ngwo mo i tjiwa nao?

3.2.1 Examining Techniques

In most cases examiners and candidates appeared to be calm and composed. That was good to observe. As with
previous years some interesting probing questions were asked: “If you are to repeat your research project, what will
you do differently? How did your research purpose and questions help you to collect the information that you wanted?”

Ovengi otji va ri amave pura omapuriro nga nge ri mo Coursework Booklet. Kanavi, posiya popengi ya ri ongahukiro
kutja otjingi tjovarorwa mbi oviṋa mbyo ombi ve hi ya rora okuhongwa kaparukaze uriri. Kutja omapuriro omahara/
omakwaṋi, ye ve pa ouzeu/oupupu, ovikwaye mbya tja ve kaungura omuano warwe opoo mwine kutja kave na indu va
rongerisirwe. Okupura kutja okupura naa okupura. Omaziriro ovarorwa ngaave yandja aaye horora kutja oviṋa mbyo
kave na indu pu va hongerwe kaparukaze.

The first step in becoming a good interlocutor is to study the candidates’ reports carefully and make probing remarks or
questions in the margins. This is what many examiners seem not to do. Tjiva ndjirakati aave kahimwa kutja ngave pure
tjike nu otjaave utu okupura omapuriro nge hi nondjinda nga vemwe tji mave kerihaka mu: “Ami hi kakonḓonone mbyo
…” Examiners should try by all means to make this a discussion by avoiding phrases like “My first question to you …”.
Instead, make a reference to the report, “In your report you concluded that … don’t you think … would you perhaps …”.

3.2.2 Interpretation of the Assessment Criteria

There was some improvements in the interpretation of the assessment criteria and those centres that correctly
interpreted the assessment criteria are applauded. Centres are once more reminded that the higher bands (1 and 2) are
for candidates who are spontaneous, initiate and lead the discussion not for candidates who need to be prompted.
These bands are also not for candidates who narrate what they were told by their informants “omburo yandje ondenga
ya tja …”. They are for candidates who extend their topic, candidates who are confident and who analyse as well
as evaluate different perspectives. If candidates are unable to do these, then they do not deserve to be put in these
bands.

Ombura ndji rukwao pa ri amape munika aayo ozongombe tjiva moruveze rwokuyandjerwa komurorwa aaze yandjerwa
ku imbi omburo mbi ya hungire na rumwe oviperendero mbya raisiwa. Vemwe aave umwa i yokuzuva oviṋenge
vyombazu ovo mbi ve ha tjiwa ookutirira ozongombe nangarire kutja mouatjiri auhe ingwi omurorwa wa ri ama serekarere
uriri, ka purirwe epuriro na rimwe ronḓengu. Ovarorwa tjiva ve vazewa nondjiviro yaimbi oviṋenge vyombazu nu otji
ve vi serekarera nokutja va raerwa i yozomburo zorive nḓo. Ngape zemburukwe kutja poṋa mba mape sokuhongwa
nokutarewa OUNONGO wokukonḓonona (wokusosonona) nokuhungirira koviṋa kaku kotora ondjiviro onguru ndji wa
vazewa na yo kako.

Nu otja tji pa raisiwa mozombura nḓa zu ko, pe novarorwa tjiri mba tja ve vaza otuti hwo mouatjiri auhe nungwari mbe
ṱa i imba ovakaendise vomarorero mbe ve pura omapuriro wokutja ve serekarere mbi va raerwa uriri poo mbe he ve
rongerisire kutja ve “tandaure epu amave tara koumune pekepeke”. Ozosenda ze sokurongerisa ovahongwa nawa
kutja ve hare ounongo ounanḓengu wokutjita ongonḓononeno.

RECOMMENDATIONS

Owanyoro:
• Vahonge vovanatje mamu kara amamu zemburukisiwa aruhe kutja: Ovengi vetu twa rya omboroto meraka ndi nu
ngamba tu rya mu ro, okutja atu nyandere mu ro kutja varwe ave ha karya mo tjandje mena rokuhina okuungurwa
nawa ra isiwa mo mozosikore. Tji mo nyandere movahongwa voye na mOtjiherero otjeraka mokuhina okuungura
oviungura vyoye nawa otja tji wa sere, mo zepa eraka ndi kutja varwe ave ha kahupa mu ro tjiri!
• Okokuvi kutja pe nozosenda nḓa urw’ okutwako otjikotji hi tji tji ri mosirambesa kombanda yozorapota zovarorwa!
Ondyero yongonḓononeno ku kwa tuwa omunwe kembo i yomiṱiri nomuhongwa nduu kai mo! Ookuhina konatja
nokunyandera momahongero weraka ku maku heyewa okwo ngo.
• Okuyandja ozongombe zokombanda kotjiungura tji tji hi ye ze pwira ku wisa onḓengu yomahongero – oviungura
vyomurorwa ngavi raise kutja vya pwirire ozongombe nḓo nangarire komundu warwe ngu ma katara. Resa otjitarero
nawa! Pura omapuriro ngu maye tjiti kutja omurorwa me riraise otja kotjitarero ho.
• Omukaendise womarorero u sokukeva kutja eye a ha kasana otja ngwa rire omukonḓonone tjimuna okuuta okupura
omapuriro ngwi omurorwa otjomukonḓonone nge ha purire kozomburo eye ma isa ondjivisiro.

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362
FIRST LANGUAGE RUKWANGALI
6102
Paper 1

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The overall performance of the candidates was average, because some candidates could not find correct answers to
some of the questions, especially Section A Question 1a-j and question 2a . These questions were implicit, explicit and
referencing question techniques (R1, R3 and R4 questions). A few candidates scored average marks in Question 2a,
whereas Question 2b and Question 3 in Section B most of the candidates could not develop the ideas from the passage
by using their own words and as a result they did not score good marks. In addition, most of the candidates were just
rewriting the sentences directly from the passage instead of paraphrasing them and developing them, where it was
necessary. Thus, marks were not awarded in these instances. The whole question paper was difficult.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Section A
In this section some candidates did not comprehend the story very well, because they could not understand
Martin’s determination to find work despite initial setbacks.

1 (a) Morwasinke Martin ga karerere nosinka ketameko lyesanseko eli? Gava yitwa yivali. [2]
This question was easily understandable to the candidates, because most of the candidates got it right , only
few got it wrong. Some candidates answered that, Martin was looking for a little money and the midterm
break was about to end. This answer was not awarded marks.

The possible answers were:

- Age kwa here/ kwa here a gwane ko kasilinga kokanunu.
- Kapi nga gwana sirugana/ nkenye siruwo nga gwana malimbururo gokudira kuwapera.
- Hawe kwato yirugana
- Mbili tupu kapi tuna hara mbatero nkenye
- Azi huru mpito zokuvhura kugwana ko kasilinga kokanunu koyimaliva yoyinzi eyi ga here

(b) Morwasinke Martin ga guvilire pokufungwinina konomora ozo za kere metjingiso? Tumbura yitwa yivali [2]
This question was a bit tricky for the candidates, as only a few got it correct. Most of them gave the
following answers: they might forget my message. His heart sank when he got the message. There is no
one here at the moment. And all these are wrong answers.

The possible answers to this question were:

- Kwa gwene mbudi ezi va kwatera kofunguna.
- Kapi ga ndililire yitundwamo yoyiwa.
- Kwato ga tambwire funguna zendi.
- Ni gazare yiwo uhura wou, yimo ga gazarere.
- Kwato ogu na tengwira nge hena.

(c) Morwasinke ga karerere nelizuvho lyokuligava? [1]

This question was clear, so most of the candidates answered it correctly, because it was easy for them to
trace the answer from the passage and only a few who gave these incorrect responses such as: they might
forget my message or sorry, there is no one here at the moment.

The possible answers were:

- Age kwa gazarere asi vantu vanzi nava tura mo mahundiro.
- Nava ya gwana nombundi dononzi edi vana va sigire vantu kofunguna.

(d) Morwasinke Martin ga uyungilire asi, “Nan one nane!”? [1]

This question was so tricky for the candidates, because it seems the candidates have challenges
responding to R3 questions. Instead of answering the question, they rewrote the questions for Martin’s
mother. Which were: ayo yirugana musinke nye yene oyo? Yokukara novanona ndi? No mark was
awarded for these answers.

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The possible answers were:
- Etarero vanona kapisi sirugana sa mu fira.
- Kapisi sirugana sosiwa sa fira vanona wovamati.

(e) Yininke musinke ya kere pembo eyi ya ninkisire Martin a sikame ponze komeho a hwilire monda?
Gava yitwa yivali [2]
Most of the candidates scored one mark for R1 question, and R4 was a challenge to them. Those who
gave this answer; mositarata saIndependence Avenue mwa kere embo lyonomora 6 lyomazimo gavali
gokulironda, did not score a mark.

The possible answers were:

- Embo kwa kere moukaro woudona/ embo eli lya kere lyewa nonyukupita
- Wayi wourere kwa kulire hambara kusika keguru lyoyipereki yonzugo/nonombya dononzera edi da
likulira pwadene va dira kutapeka.

(f) Yisinke ya tetukisire Martin apa lya zegurukire evero lyembo lyonomora zauntazimwe (6)? [1]
The question was clear and understandable and as a result the majority of the candidates answered it
correctly. Only a few could not score a mark because they answered that: “the man had beard” without
explaining how strange his beard was and some even gave a description of the dusty house or old and
useless furniture. No mark was awarded for this answer.

The possible answer was:

- Mugara kwa monekere kutjilisa/ mugara kwa kere nononzwedu dononzi dokunyaganyanya dousamuke
nomeho gokunana mo

(g) Yisinke ya kere momagano gaMartin pokumona monda zembo? [1]

Most of the candidates did not answer this question correctly. They just rewrote how the house smelt damp
and no mark was awarded for this answer.

The possible answers were:

- Kwato ogu ga tungire mo.
- Kwato ogu ngazi pakere mbili nokuzizeresa.
- Kwalitarerera/ kwalisigilira.

(h) Morwasinke mapukururo gomugara ga karere gougeni kwaMartin? Tumbura yitwa yivali. [2]
This question was also a challenge to the candidates, the majority of whom failed to score both marks.
Instead of answering or explaining “why the instructions were strange to Martin” they just rewrote the man’s
instruction to Martin.

The possible answers were:

- Mugara kwa here nayinye a yi pungure.
- Martin kwa gazarere asi yipako yina kapi ya kere nomulyo.

(i) Yisinke nawa-nawa ya tumangedere Martin a hafere sirugana esi? Tumbura yitwa yivali [2]
The majority of candidates scored marks, because they answered it correctly. The few who wrote: Tani
kufutu mafere ntantatu or kwa mu futire mafe ntantatu and kwato ga mu tarerere poyirugana; did not score
marks, beause the tense used changed the content of the passage.

The possible answers were:

- Mfuto (N$ 800) ezi va mu tanterere kwa kere zonzi ezi ga dilire kundindira/ ngava mu futa mafere
ntantatu./ kapi ga yi ndindilire asi kuvhura va mu fute yimaliva yina pitakana pomafe gavali (N$ 200).
- Kapi ngava mu tarera pokurugana/ kwato nga tarera nge

(j) Morwasinke Martin ga karerere nesinganyeko lyokugwana muvateli gomukadona? [1]

This question was a bit tricky, but there were some candidates who scored a mark. Those who did not score
a mark wrote: the job was heavy (yirugana kwa kere youdigu) and girls are powerless. These were not
considered to be correct answers.

The possible answer was:

- yipako kwa kere yoyidigu/ yipako kuvhura kukara udigu unene.
- Mukadona kapi ta vhuru kudamuna yipako yoyidigu.

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2 (a) Madidiliko gana kara mosireswa gana kulikida asi sirugana esi kwa kere mulyo unene kwaMartin?
Tjanga malimbururo goge morupe rwekamo lyoyitwa. Kapisi o ruganesa nonkango danyamoge. [15]
Most of the candidates managed to answer in note form, but some of their answers were wrong because
they could not relate to the question. A few candidates wrote this question in continuous prose which is
wrong, teachers at school should not encourage this type of answering and it should be discouraged. Some
candidates just wrote words instead of writing statements (answers) as they appear in the passage.

Possible answers were:

1. Martin ana hara silinga/ (yimaliva yoyinzi eyi ga here);
2. Epwizumuko lyopokatji kosinema kwa kere mpito azi huru zokuvjura kugwana sirugana;
3. Martina kwa kere nomagazaro gomanzi gokudira kugwana sirigana/silinga (nga guu/ yosili nina hara
sirugana/ nkenye apa nga guu apa nga gwana malimbururo gokudira kuwapera);
4. Kwalimbwilire pausupi ketjingiso (ga hana kumana siruwo, Martin yipo ga toonene nomora ozo);
5. Mbudi ezi va kwatera kofunguna ezi ga gwene kwa mu guvisire/ mutjima gwendi kwa deme/ mutjima
kwa deme apa ga gwene mbudi ezi va kwatera kofunguna…;
6. Nye simpe ta limburura (ta nyungu mapepe gendi kumwe nokusiga mapepe gendi);
7. Martin kwakerenoruhafo, apamuagaraogoga mu toonenekuhamenasirugana/ Martin kwahefe;
8. Ana kara noruhafo rorunenekofunguna: “Inh, yina wapa!”; Inh, oyo ngoso nawa! Nawa unene/ mbudi
ezi ga gwene kofunguna za mu hafesere
9. Kwa kere nosinka asi nampo ko yi li nayi lilimba po: “nsene ni ragopa”;
10. Ana kara noruhafo kozina. “kwange oyo yiwalika”/ Martin kwa yi haferere oyo yirugana;
11. Kwa kere netamangero omu lya monekere embo, yiom ga gazarere; “kwato eyi nani vhura kurugana
ko”;
12. Kwa kere netamamgero omu ga monekere mugaviyirugana;
13. Ta lihumu ruvhe: kapi ga here kuzuvhisa mugara kukora komutjima;
14. Mfuto kwa kere zonzi kupitakana ezi ga ndindilire (N$800 mevega N$200);
15. Mpili ngomu ga pililire ku yi likida kuhamena mfuto ezi, kuninkira mugara kanenge a litjindje magano
gendi.
16. Age kwa hefe, morwa kwato ogu nga mu tarera: Martin nelimweneneno kwa lisininikire kumenyuna;
17. Ga hepa kugwana ko muvateli; ano nsene kapisi ngoso ngano ta zumbanesa mpito zoyirugana/
kupapara mukadona a ka muvatere/ kwa gwene mukadona a mu vatere;
18. Martin kwa kwete nonhunhwa komurungu./ Kwa menekere/ komeho zovili zauntane nage naEmilly kwa
sikeme ponze zembo lyonomora 6

(b) Ngesi ruganesa nye yitwa yemepuro (a) o tjange ekamo lina hamene konokonda dina kulikida
asi sirugana esi kwa kere mulyo unene kwaMartin. Elimbururo lyoge lya hepa ku kara morupe
rwesansekotwikido ntani li kare mononkangodanyaamoge. [5]
Ure wekamo lyoge u kare pokatji kononkango 100 ‒ 150 ngoso.

Most of the candidates wrote in continuous prose, but a few wrote it in note form. Also, some candidates wrote
in paragraphs instead of one paragraph. Some candidates did not stick to the number of words asked; they
wrote more words than the expected number of words. The majority who wrote in continuous prose managed
to rewrite the points mentioned in 2a, but did not develop the points. Only a few candidates tried to develop
their points. There are also some candidates who summarized the whole passage instead of using the points
mentioned in 2a. Candidates lack a clear focus on the passage and were unable to use compound and
complex sentences, conjunctions and transitional words. The summaries did not flow. Candidates should
express the ideas from the passage using their own original words/language. Some candidates wrote a title
on the prose summary, which is not allowed, since it is just a short paragraph.

RUHA B

Epuro 3

Sekondere zomomukunda zina kuzigida o ka gave siuyungwa somakoranngedo kovarongwa vana kumanesa sure
kuhamena mapuko aga ava rugana vantu momaparu, mgapi nava ga kandana po nokugawapukurura. Tjanaga
siuyungwa soge. Ruganesa maganao gomosireswa ove o ga kulike neruganeso nonkango danyamoge. Ure
wosiuyungwa soge u kare pokatji kononkango 250 ‒ 300. [20]

There were a few candidates who rewrote the whole passage and did not score good marks. As for those who wrote
a speech with its layout were awarded marks because in their piece of writing, the sentence structure, audience and
format of speech were perfect and visible. They used the ideas from the passage and they developed them with their
own words.

Possible points (mistakes) people make in their life

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Mapuko aga ava rugana vantu momaparu:

• Kwa kere nehuguvaro lyenene (na yi divire nawa-nawa asi name ngani kara gumwe gwawo);

• Yinyami (ngomuntu na tundilira pepata lyohansako ntambo zange zokuhova);

• Age kwa kere nencenuno kosirugana soukarelipoveta (kudwar eguwo lyesovagani, ku ka sikama komeho
zomupanguli ntani nokupopera vantu va hana unzoni)

• Ediro kutukuka (kapi nalirongere maruha nagenye, yeeyi kwa kere siruwo nasinye nakaume gwange gomupe
-Sara. Siruwo nasinye apa nani kara monzugo zomakonakono- kupita na hana kulironga);

• Kusensa vakwawo (tani pena ni sindike kamuzumo kovarongwa);

• Ediro kukara nousili (kapi na yi pulire eyi ga mwene meho gange/mahodi gehandu… Ngapi omu nayi vhura kukara
ngoso);

• Kutambura yokukusininika.

Ngapi omu nava ga kandana po mapuko nokugawapukurura:

• Diva asi ose vantu kapi twa Hungama (momaparu getu twa rugana mapuko gomanzi, gamwe gomanene ntani
gamwe gomanunu);
• Ku kara nehuguvaro (kuheteka hena ngorooronokuza komeho- Nsene no twikira norooro nomagazaro asi kapi ngo
yi sikisa mo, kapi ngo vhura kuza komeho);
• Ku kara nousili (zinya- ayo hena nare ya pita ntani eparu lyange lya ya za kmeho);
• Lisikamena pwanyamoge (Otate kwa handukire nokusininika nge ni kware. Kapi na kere nononkondo
dokuvapatanesa, naneina eli simpe kuyilivera);
• Kara nomukumo nokukwama nonzodi doge (nye nonzodi dange kwa kere mulyo unene kwange);
• Nkenye apa kara ependa (muntu ga fira kuliwapayikira kuruganesa mpito);
• Wa ha liga va (Ngani vhura kugwana mpito zokuwapukurura yininke).

[Magano nkenye gokutunda mo sireswa gana wapere ntani gomulyo kuvhura tupu kugatambura]

Ruganesa sikorekeso (Sigwedoko B) sosirugana setjangovyukiliro (Sipepa 1) mokukoreka ruha rokuresa (15) ntani
kutjanga (5) mokugava yitwa. Varongwa va hepa kuruganesa nonkango davene moomu vana kuvhulira

Mapuko sipero aga va rugana varongwa

Futo- mfuto
Nonzedu- nonzwedu
Ntani-ntani, ntantani- ntaantani
Mara- morwa
Kuhuyunga- kuuyunga
Yeyi- yeeyi
Sihuyungwa- siuyungwa
Kahume- kaume
Gwoge- goge
Lyame, nyamwe- nyame
Gano- ngano
Kulisingainga- kulisiga-siga
Voge- woge
Vambya- vamumbya
Malivero- maliverero
Gwume- gumwe
Apisi- kapisi
Litjinji- litjindji
Ezuvhaezuva
Wukwawo- ukwawo
Lyi- li
Sokukahulilisa- sahulilira
Kohemo- komeho
Pwame- Pamwe
Mbindi- mpili

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Pondambo- pontambo
Simple- simpe
Musinge- musinke
Tjija- tjindja
Yagende- yagendi
Pawa- wapa

3. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Teachers should familiarize themselves with the questioning techniques (assessment objectives) and these are R1, R3
and R4 questions by reading page 19 of the NSSCO Rukwangali L1 Syllabus under 6.1.2.

Teachers should place more emphasis on teaching the difference between the note form and prose continuous summary.
They should teach candidates how to use their own words properly in the prose continuous summary and in the shorter
pieces of writing.

Teachers should encourage the candidates to adhere strictly to the required number of words.

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6102
Paper 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

Comparing the standard of the learner’s work in relation to previous years., learners of 2024 showed improvement in
answering different questions, which was not observed in previous years. Learners had an understanding of the chosen
questions. This made it easier for them to interpret and narrate their stories. Looking at learners’ work, there were minor
misinterpretations on question 2 and 4, but in general, learners were able to narrate, describe and argue for or against
the topics which were clearly outlined.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Narrative/Pasimwitiro

Write an essay on one of the following topics. The length of your essay should be between 350 ‒ 500 words.

Tjanga esansekototo kwa limwe lyoyiparatjangwa oyo yina ka kwama ko. Ure wesansekototo lyoge u sike pokatji
kononkango 350-500.

1 Write a story about an occasion when someone you underestimated treated you with kindness.
Tjanga esanseko lina hamene kosihorokwa songandi omu muntu ogu wa sensere ga kutekwire monaruwa.

This question was selected by a number of learners. Almost all of the learners who chose this question
answered it correctly. The majority of the learners had an understanding to narrate the question. Learners were
able to relate their stories of their own life experiences.

Learners were expected to:

• Narrate a story, mentioning the occasion, the person who was underestimated and how this person treated
them with kindness.
• Muzaro govarongwa va horowere epuro eli ya va tompokere ku simwitira sihorokwa nomu va ka gwene
muteku.

Yindindirwa komurongwa ana hepa kububura:

• Sihorokwa oso sa kere siho. Sipito, epongo, nomfa ndi nkenye tupu sihorokwa
• Ukaro wesenso- muntu ogo nare wa mu mona apa no ya mu mona to ya mu tjangwilire moomwina wa mu
divire.
• Ndi kuna kumusensa poopo ono kumumona.
• Etekuro monaruwa – omu ga mu tekwire monaruwa. Kwa ya mu vaterere morupe rongandi, oru ga pilire
kundindira. Li kare esanseko lina hama kwa mwene, kapisi komuntu nage peke.

2 “Dreams really do come true.” Narrate a story that actually happened after you had dreamed about it.
“Nzodi sili nani kuhoroka.” Simwitira esanseko eli sili lya horoka konyima zapa wa yi rotere.

This was a highly selected topic. Nearly all learners who opted for this question successfully answered the
question correctly, giving evidence of what they have dreamed about and how the dream became a reality.

Learners were expected to tell/ narrate the dream, whether it was a day dream(vision) or a dream while sleeping
to justify how the dream became a reality at the end.

Muzaro govarongwa va horowere epuro eli ya va tompokere kusimwitira nonzodi edi va rotere, nokugava
umbangi wosihorokwa sa horokere konyima zonzodi.

Yindindirwa komurongwa:
- A bubure asi nzodi ozo pakurota monompofu ndi pamagazaro gerwameno lyokomungura.
- A simwitire moomu ya ka horokere pausili konyima zosiruwo. Nzodi ozo zi kare zamwene kapisi zomuntu
gwapeke.

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Descriptive/ Pasingonono

3 You took a long walk through beautiful surroundings. Describe what you saw, heard and how you felt.
Ove kwa gendere sinano sosire momavango gomafuuli. Singonona eyi wa mwene , eyi wa zuvhire ntani nomu
wa lizuvhire.

Varongwa vasesu va horowora epuro eli. Ava vali horowora va vhulire kusingonona mavango ogo va gendere,
nokusingonona eyi va mwene, eyi va zuvhire nomu va lizuvhire. Nampili ngomu vamwe va singonwene
nodoropa dokulisiga –siga, neyi va mwene nokuzuvha nye elizuvho mwato.

Few learners opted for this question. The few who opted for it were able to describe the long walk/ trip they
took and they could describe the beautiful surroundings of the places they have visited. Learners were able
to describe what they saw, heard and how they felt. Even though a few described places they have visited in
different towns, some could not describe how they felt but only what they have seen and heard.

Yindindirwa komurongwa:
- A bubure evango limwe ndi mavango gomanzi aga ga gendere modoropa zimwe tupu. Nye ntene a
singonona mavango gokulisiga-siga monodoropa napo kapi ana zapukilire.
- A singonone eyi ga mwene, eyi ga zuvhire ntani nomu ga li zuvhire.

4 Write a description of your favourite place in your town and what makes that place so special.
Tjanga esingonono lyevega eli wa hara modoropa zoge ntani yisinke ya ninkisa evega eli li kare lyoufuuli.

A few learners also opted for this question. Learners could relate their stories to the chosen places in towns
where they are residing. They were able to describe what makes their chosen place so special, though some
were not able to describe what makes the place special.

Varongwa va horowere epuro eli, wovanzi va vhulire kusingonona evega eli va hara modoropa zawo, nampili
ngomu vamwe va di lire kusingonona patamunuko oyo ya ninkisaa olyo evango li kare lyoufuuli.

Yindindirwa komurongwa:
- A tumbure evango lyomodoropa ezi ana horowor( li kare nampili sitora ndi mbaha ndi mukunda gwawo)
kukwatera mo wokonomukunda.
- A singonone nokonda edi ga harera evango eli.
- A singonone eyi lya karera evango eli efuuli, omu va li yengeka, omu ali moneka nomu va li dika.

Argumentative/ Patatano

5 “Young people should be encouraged to consume traditional foods and drinks.’’ Do you agree with this
statement? Justify your answer.
“Vanona va hepa kuva korangeda va lye nokunwa nondya dopampo.” To kwatesa ko siturwapo esi ndi?
Nkondopeka elimbururo lyoge.

Very few learners opted for this question. Learners who opted for this question were able to justify their reasons
on the importance of encouraging young people to consume traditional foods and drinks.

Varongwa va horowora epuro eli va vhulire kuhorowora mbinga/ruha nokugava nokonda dehoroworo lyawo.
Wovanzi va vhulire kugava yitwa yomulyo yokukorangedesa vanona va lye nokunwa nondya dopampo, nokugava
yihonena yehoroworo lyawo, nampili ngomu vamwe va horowora maruha nagenye posikando simwe tupu.

Yindindirwa komurongwa:
- A horowore mbinga ezi ana hamene. Ta kwatesa ko ndi ta patanesa.
- A gave nokonda edi dina kukwatesa ko ruha rombinga oru ana horowora.

Mekwatesoko a bubure mo mauzera aga ga mona ndi ga zuvha.

- Sihonena: kulikida mpo, kudigwana usimbu/noureru, kuvhura ku di kuna momapya, ureru mokuditereka ndi
kudirongikida, kapi ava tura mo nomutji nkenye.

Patatano:
- A bubure nokonda edi dina kupatanesa ko
- Sihonena: udigu kuditereka, kapi vadi konakona, edumba lyado edona ngo.ngo.

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6 “Animals should have rights, just like humans.’’ Give your opinion and justify your answer.
‘’Yikorama nayo ya hepa ku kara nounankondo, ngamoomu tupu va kara vantu.’’ Gava ko egano lyoge kumwe
nokulinkondopeka.

Very few learners chose this question. For those who chose this topic, strong points were outlined as to why
animals should have rights just like humans.

Varongwa va horowora epuro eli vasesu unene. Nampili ngoso ava va lihorowora va vhulire kugava nokonda
dekwatesoko asi morwasinke yikorama nayi karera nounankondo ngamoomu tupu va kara vantu. Ava va
patanesere nawo va vhulire kugava nokonda asi yinke nayikarera yikorama nounankondo wayo.

Yindindirwa komurongwa:

Mekwatesoko:
- Ya hepa kuyipa uhaku, nondya, mema, kuyikuhwa neharo.
- Ya kara nounankondo wokulivhukisa.
- Nokuyidipaga si.
- Ya kara nonankondo wokugenda yi ze oku ya hara.
- Unankondo wokuyipakera mbili nokuyikunga.
- Kuyitumbwisa komadina gayo nokiyiruka madina gomawa.
- Kukoka vadinguli nokukulika yiwizamo [economi] lyosirongo.
- Kufuuwisa nsitwe.
- Nokuyitoonanga si.

Mepataneso:
- A gave nokonda edi dina kupatanesa ko
- Ayo kudipaga vantu va hana kuzona yuma.
- Kapi ya kara nonondunge ngwendi vantu.
- Kwayi sitira yipo vantu va livaterese ko.
- Kapi ya kara nonoveta edi ayi kwama momparukiso zayo.

Mapukosipero nontjangeso zina pumbwa ewapukururo

- Elisigo lyoutara netaratara
- Kwatoko namukweni lika lyove tjihongomoka
- Nondya twa sigire nkera masiku – nondya katu hupisire po nkera masiku.
- Fikagure yikaiga – duma gure yifoyo/ yikaiga
- Madina goyirongwa (geography) – Udivivhu
- Madina gonodoropa (Tsumeb, Windhoek] – Someya, Venduka
- Prayisi – mukoso/ ndando
- Ezuvha – ezuva
- Tani pwizumuka ko kamanunu – tani pwizumuka ko nakauke
- Nongandu – vangandu
- Nonzovhu – Vanzovhu
- Nonyime – Vanyime
- Vambahe – Nombahe
- Vahefu – Nohefu
- Ngororo – ngorooro
- Pira – kapi
- Ngwe – ngwendi
- Bela – kufunguna/ kutoonena
- Peyi – kutambura / mfeto/nzambi
- Sikuwoni – kwa zera
- Vakasitoma – va randi
- Tutiki vereki – tuherufuna/ yirugana yopokaruwo
- Lyimwe – limwe
- Kuzuva – kuzuvha
- Eme – ame
- Mara – nye
- Hwililira – hulilira
- Vasikiliti –vakungi/ vatakamesi
- Mobani – mosira
- Kuliwapekera – kuli wapayika
- Kukwafuruka – kuhafuka/kumbanduka
- Zuvire – zuvhire
- Samunterere – gasamunterere
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- Sivike pita nyame namukwetu – sivike pita name namukwetu
- Nohukanguki – noukanguki
- Vayo – wayo
- Kupepepepa – yina kupepauka
- Ka group – kambunga
- Kuvemuna kuvema
- Oina – oyina
- Omama woge – onyokokuru
- Nolisaliti – yitundwamo
- Namba – nomora
- Sitarafa – sitengekeso
- Nondja – nondya
- Vhena – Funda/kufunda
- Kudakura – kutoona
- Mall – evango lyomarandesero
- Mokamera – Monzugo zokurara
- Business – Ngesefa
- Yomode – youye wantani
- Kotela – Kehinafutiro
- Nava joinine – na lipakerere nawo
- Noquestion pepa – Yipepa yomapuro
- Zousekeretari – Zouhamutjanga
- Sopilifati – sopaumwene
- Nolaina – Nomukweyo
- Kutjuna – kuwapeka
- Kuburaya – kudosa
- Kulata – kuhulilira
- Kuhaika – kukondera
- Kusapota – kukwatesa ko
- Kuwokes – kufunda
- Munona gwaso – munona ogo

3. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Learners should avoid writing words or sentences in English unless in cases of writing names of people and places
[Nouns] that are not in Rukwangali

The length of the essays should also be considered because some learners write very short essays which makes them
loose marks while some write beyond the required length of an essay, which leads them to losing focus.

Teach and drill learners on orthography, sentence constructions, spelling, paragraphings, punctuations, syllables and
the usage of idiomatic expressions.

Teach learners all the components of an essay and how they differ in all the three essays.

Familiarise learners with the marking grid so that they are aware of what is expected of them and how marks are
awarded in continuos writing.

Train learners to proofread their work before handing it in, to avoid unnecessary mistakes and repetition of words or
sentences.

On argumentative essays, learners should choose to be either for or against the topic that they chose, and not support
both sides.

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6102
Paper 3

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
• Despite being the fourth year since the curriculum’s implementation, there is still a challenge in answering the
paper’s question on Critical Response to a Text.
• Learners’ work continues to meet prior years’ standards.
• Some learners may not have understood the concepts employed in a question (e.g. ndjorongani) or failed to
identify the inquiry’s demands.
• It is important to clarify that this is literature work, not a reading and writing assignment.
• Learners are required to respond critically, rather than just retelling or summarizing the content.
• Learners should write their responses in a continuous manner using well-structured paragraphs. Some learners
wrote in one long paragraph.
• Learners are expected to read, comprehend, and critically analyse the passage.
• There was observed difficulty in criticizing information in a passage.
• Many learners misunderstood criticism, resulting in mocking and using foul words to describe characters.
• The majority of learners’ responses focused on surface meaning, criticizing what is mentioned in the passage.
• Few learners provided meaningful responses to the inquiry.
• Some learners distorted facts in a passage.
• Some learners struggled with the state, quote and criticise formula for critical responses, but just a few demonstrated
effective utilization.
• Bullet points are not sub-headings or questions and should not be answered in isolation. Please!
• Some learners’ replies included the use of bullet points as sub-headings to illustrate paragraph content.
• Idioms are permissible in this paper, but learners should ensure they are appropriate for the message.

2. COMMENTS ON PAPER 3, GUIDING POINTS AND INDICATIVE CONTENT

Let us discuss here ...

When assessing, markers should be aware of the fact that there will be different ways in which candidates may structure
their responses. There should, however, be adequate textual evidence to reward responses. The guiding bullet points
are not exhaustive; these are only fact points that candidates are likely to use to construct their answers. There are
alternative responses to the guiding points to meet the demands of the question. As it is known, after a learner has read
the text, a question will be asked and below that question there are three guiding points to guide a learner on what the
answer should be based. Learners will be assessed on their ability to evaluate and analyze the following from a text:
• Ideas
• Themes
• Author’s intention
• Attitudes
• Language

Not only that, but learners are also assessed on their ability to provide a detached critical overview and judgement
of what is in the text. Learners have to provide references based on their critical impression. A reference is not done
exclusively, but it should be accompanied by a clear clarification which is done regarding a point made. Learners’
answers are expected to contain adequate information from a text in their responses. A text will always present a variety
of points about a particular guiding point; a learner should be able to pick sufficient information from a text, bearing in
mind the word limit (250 – 300).

ASSESSMENT SPECIFICATIONS
Each paragraph of a critical response is developed using the following key:

State – This is a topic sentence developed as a point from a certain sentence or a word from the passage. Such a word
or sentence is believed to have information asked in the question. It simply means that the learner should pick a word
or sentence and develop a point from it, based on the question asked.

Quote – Textual evidence from the passage in the form of quotations and paraphrases.

Criticise/ Explain – The interpretation part of evidence in relation to the guiding point and thus the main question. What
can you comment on the information picked from that sentence or word? Do you support it? To what extend do you
think that could possibly lead to? What is your advice on that?

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Strong concluding statement – referring to the main question.

Example:

The passage read as:

Lina ka gwa mo, mugara ta litengwida ko kembo, nye ana terera unene. Sikotili sina pirukire oku ana kutunda muntu,
maguru gendi kuna kudigopa ku ga gendesa. Ana ya siki membo, Mugolikadi ta yi rugana ngwendi moomu mwanare,
ta mu pe murarero gwendi a lye. “Hei! Ove nyaTjakunona, ogu muhoka, ndi mukuro? Nondya dange dometaha ado
oku dina zi?”, yige mugara.

Question:
Mutjangi ngapi omu ana kulikida komuresi ukaro womomapata?

Edidiliko : nondya

A critical response:

Vanturagumbo kuswaura nokusandura nondya dovagolikadi vawo. Mosireswa, kuna kugwana mo asi; “Ogu muhoka,
ndi mukuro?” Ukaro wangesi udona unene mepata. Mutereki kuvhura kuliteka a dire kutereka hena. Yimo muhoka
kuvhura gu tjimpame unene posiyaha, nontumba di fuga-fuge, nye ngano kuyiuyunga ko morupe roruwa rwina rokudira
kuzuvhisa kukora komutjima. Vanturagumbo, vamwe nokampandu si kaaka konzambo. Nonkwara dangesi kapi da
kara ko kokuzunguruka, nokuli yido doyiponga-ponga yankenye ezuva deedi!

The question which came in the examination and its marking scheme.

Ngapi mutjangi omu ana kugava mbudi zendi kovaresi kuhamena ndjorongani zokuhamena keteto lyonohuki
dovakadona moAfrika?
• Ruganesa madidiliko ogo pokugava malimbururo goge:
• Malizuvho gaNamutenya
• Nomukaro dokulisiga doguhwe nozina.
• Omu va yi mwene wokulikarera nomu ya gumine Namutenya.

Varongwa kwa va ndindilire asi va gave malimbururo gawo mekuyauko lyopasisewe, kapisi lyopandanda, morwa epuro
kwa kere morupe ropasisewe.

Malimbururo ogo gana kukwama ko yigo va ndindilire vakoreki momurongwa, nye kapisi gelike, naga ga tundire
movarongwa kwa ga tarurwire momunene:

Malizuvho gaNamutenya
• Vakadi wovawa woovena wokulimbarumuna nomutwe.
• Ame yina seta nge yokufwayama mamuhuki nkenye apa.
• Yiyo yina kara mosirongo.
• Nina hara kudipara mo nadinye, ngwendi wovena vakadi nina mono motivi.
• Vagenda ka va wizire posure zetu, kapa kere mukadi ogu ka limbarumwine nage.
• Kuvembera unene, nsene ono kwita mo magadi.
• Tani yi bwakeke tanko yiyaha ni duke, ni ka tare rusumo runa kudana kotivi.

Nomukaro dokulisiga doguhwe nozina.

Oguhwe:
• Tatu peperere ko kokutakeresa muntu nkenye sivike.
• Nampo yiyo ga hara.
• Nage muntu!

Ozina:
• Kapi to kurura nohuki doge ngwara-ngwara, ove mukadona.
• Tani ku pulisire o litete nohuki doge, moomu ana yi harere muhona.
• Mpo zetu kapi a zi pulisire mukadona va mu kurure.
• Mpo za kona kuzifumadeka noku zi tekura moomu za sikama.
• Ogu yige nye mukadi gomuwa mo unene goMuafrika membo lyetu.
• Kuna kuvembera ngwendi kuna simbi ntarero momutwe.
• Nampili o kukute ngapi pelimba.

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Omu va yi mwene wokulikarera nomu ya gumine Namutenya.
• Yilye ogu mumati-kadona membo lyetu?
• Mukwetu Namutenya, ukaume wetu yipo una hagere kutundilira ezuva lyaneina.
• Kapi tani kara nakaume zange gomukadona goharufa.
• Mpo zetu kapi za kara nevega lyokupulisira rukurwiso rokufana ngoso.
• Ngano nina uyunga novakurona woge va ku gave kwagumwe govahekuru woge a ku randese po.

Omu ya gumine Namutenya.

• Ngano yokukara nompito zongandi zokuvatera mukurona gomoAfrika.
• Kapi na gwene mo mbili mwawo, nampili kanunu.
• Kwa kere ngwendi nyamelike mouzuni.
• Na kere noyina, novamumbya novakaume, nye ngesi nyamelike.
• Ngwendi ni ninke situpa si mine nge, ni ka bubukire kopeke.

3. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teach learners how to develop critical points.
• Learners should first understand the definition of the word ‘criticise’.
• Prior to that, learners need to know the common way of presenting their responses to the text using the standard
format of stating, quoting, and criticising.
• Encourage learners to practise presenting responses for paper 3 questions through practical activities.
• Train the learners and drill them more on how to evaluate and analyze a passage.
• Teachers need to know the difference between these two responses, deep and surface meaning.
• Teach learners to know the exact way of using bullet points.
• Advise learners to understand the passage well, before answering to avoid misinterpreting information from a
passage.
• Encourage learners always to have a question in mind when dealing with bullet points, to avoid presenting
information from a passage in a wrong way.
• Inform them that they are only answering the question and not supplying information for the three bullet points.
• Teach and practise using metaphors and idioms to communicate ideas.
• This paper is graded without grammatical errors, but learners must understand basic sentence formation rules and
paragraph generation.
• Teach learners to spot the following when reading a passage:
- Characters
- Events
- Theme
- Ideas
- Author’s intention.

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Paper 4

GENERAL COMMENTS

Generally, there was an improvement in the candidates’ work in most centres. Candidates have shown their knowledge in
responding to this paper across all sections, in comparison to the previous examination of 2023. All centres participated
well by putting in extra effort to gather data on a wide range of cultural topics. The centres’ efforts are much appreciated.
Candidates went an extra mile by recording their informants’ evidence and they also gathered photographs from their
fieldwork, all of which were used properly in most cases compared to last year.

1. Comments on sampling
• There is an improvement; the majority of the centres managed to put an asterisk* to some designated individuals
who made up the sample.
• The examiner of each centre should indicate against the name of the candidates with an asterisk* if the centre has
less than 10 candidates. The examiner is advised to indicate with asterisks on all candidates.
• In this component, the examiner is required to scan all the candidates’ written coursework and create two folders
for scanned documents: one for all candidates’ script and another for the ten candidates who form the sample.

2. Purpose or interesting the topics/objective/artefact

It is the responsibility of the examiner to guide candidates in choosing topics that are researchable and guide them in
putting more effort into establishing the purpose of their research and research questions.

3. Main research objective

In some research papers, the focus on the purpose and questions or objectives was largely lacking. It is the responsibility
of the examiner to guide candidates on how to establish research objectives.

4. Research questions/ research objectives

The examiners are encouraged to guide the candidates in setting their questions and research objectives based on the
topics that they have chosen.

5. Source of information

Examiners are advised to encouraged candidates always to acknowledge their sources of information to avoid plagiarism.

6. Presentation of findings

• Examiners should encourage candidates to present their findings under the category ‘presenting of findings’ rather
than to design a questionnaire and present it in questions and answer format.

• The examiner should encourage candidates to maintain the progression of the theme and connect to major
components.

• The examiners are advised to encourage candidates to write at length on their research.

• The examiners are advised that research reports should not be written in narrative or descriptive form.

• The examiner should encourage the candidates to use accurate language in their research papers.

• Examiners should read and mark the candidates’ work critically instead of ticking the paragraphs.

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7. Discussion and analysis of findings

• Most of the centres have articulated informed personal responses on the date collected, although some centers
collected data that is not always linked to the purpose and questions. For the centres that did well in this case, we
applaud you for a job well done.

• When marking candidates work, examiners should consider candidates’ opinions and interpretations.

• It is the responsibility of the examiner to urge candidates to focus on their research objectives and deliver their
findings exactly as they were gathered from the sources.

8. Conclusion

Most centres did not read the addendum correctly, thus the assessment was lenient towards the candidates placed in
mark band 1. Note that only candidates who write with excellent focus on the purpose of the research and questions,
accurately handle data collected and make reference to data collected should be placed in band 1 of the assessment
grid.

9. References

It is the responsibility of the examiner to guide candidates on how to reference the data collected, to substantiate
opinions and interpretation offered.

10. Other relevant comments

• Please mark with an asterisk* those candidates who are on the sample list on the Orature Summary Form.

• Many centres made mistakes when transferring marks from the OSF to MS1, so, centres should improve in this
area.

• Administration checking must take place at the centre.

• The research reports should be placed in numerical order as on the MS1.

• Please read the moderation comments from the previous year, as the same mistakes have occurred.

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6102
Paper 5

GENERAL COMMENTS
Centres gathered data on cultural matters and most of the centres excluded the recordings that candidates made when
they were collecting the data. It was observed that some examiners are still asking candidates closed ended questions
which require a candidate to respond in a word or sort sentences. It was again observed that some examiners asked
questions that were not derived from the candidates’ research and these confused candidates or caused them to
struggle in responding to the questions posed to them.

1. Quality recording
Most of the centres’ recordings were very clear as examiners and candidates could be heard very well. However, there
were a few centres’ recordings in which candidates were indistinct. Therefore, examiners have been advised to place
the microphone closer to the candidates.

2. Range of sample
Some of the centres only sent the sample and not the whole cohort, which made it difficult for the moderators who wanted
to check out some candidates. The guidelines are clear that both the sample and the recordings for all candidates
should be sent for moderation.
It was observed that quite a number of centres did not indicate candidates who were in the sample with an asterisk*
on the summary form as expected and this made the moderation process difficult. The examiner should familiarize
themselves with the instructions.

3. Comments on specific sections

The oral examination consists of two sections: Section A for presentations and Section B for discussion. The two
sections should be treated differently. It was a good observation that examiners were generally sympathetic towards the
candidates and made a good effort to let them feel at ease. It was also observed that at some centres the recordings
were far too short. They were 3-6 minutes long.

3.1 Section A Presentation of findings

A number of candidates were unable to briefly present the main findings of their research, but instead gave detailed
reports. Some examiners posed question as most candidates appeared to be under the impression that they would be
expected respond to the examiner’s questions.

3.1.1 The quality of presentation

Despite the fact that most of the candidates were generally fluent native speakers, quite a number of candidates still
needed guidance for them to express themselves in a formal language.

3.1.2 Interpretation of the assessment criteria

Some examiners placed candidates in high bands. It is important for examiners to familiarise themselves with the
description in the marking band.

3.3 Section B Discussion

Examiners are expected to challenge claims made by the candidates in their reports and prompt them to expand on the
coursework while testing their speaking, listening and recalling of the information presented. Examiners should give
candidates more open ended questions that will allow them to answer in full sentences.

3.4 Examination techniques

A good atmosphere was generally observed in all centres, as most candidates were at ease and welcomed. Those
centres are applauded.

3.5 Interpretation of assessment

• The majority of the examiners applied the assessment criteria correctly, but there were a few who did not apply the
assessment criteria correctly.
• Examiners should know that high bands are for candidates who narrate what they were told by their informants,
but they are for candidates who extend their topics; candidates who are confident and who analyse and evaluate
from different perspectives.

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3.6 Other relevant comments
• Please mark with an asterisk, those candidates who are on the sample list on the orature summary form.
• Many centres made mistakes when transferring marks from the OSF to MS1. Centres should improve in this area.
• The entries on the OSF must be in numerical order according to the excel file.
• Where a candidate is absent, this should have been indicated on the OASF.
• Administrative check of the OASF and excel file must be done at the centres to avoid adding and transferred
mistakes.
• It is obvious that centres put a lot of effort into conducting the interviews. Examiners have mastered the skills
required.

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FIRST LANGUAGE RUMANYO
6103
Paper 1

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The overall performance of the examinations paper 1 was difficult as some learners could not provide correct answers to
some of the questions, especially Section A, Question 2 (a ) of note summary writings. Most of the candidates could not
manage to find correct sentences (answers) suggesting that the job was very important to Martin. Similarly, to question
2 (b) of prose summary, very few candidates reached band 2 because their answer was affected by poor performance
on question 2 (a). However, most of them tried to attempt answering Section B Question 3 although some learners
could not finish writing due to limited time as they were slow tackling questions, while most of those who managed to
finish writing this part, failed to demonstrate their skills and knowledge in answering such kinds of questions, which then
resulted in some of them plagiarising the text instead of building upon the ideas given in the text. Taken as a whole, the
question paper was difficult, especially on Section A Question 2 (a) and (b) as mentioned above, because most of the
answers were supposed to be implied but learners lifted answers from the text which did not answer the question asked.

There were instances of response areas being left blank. This was observed mainly on Question 2b and most often
towards the end of the script which is Question 3. Question 2b, was badly performed due to the reasons mentioned
above of learners performing poorly on Question 2a, however, it should still be emphasised that the use of own words
is necessary. In the same line, punctuation marks and transitional words (correct linking words) must be utilised
accordingly, as it does not allow for top band(s) if those are not observed. Where learners happen to get better marks
in 2a, these were clearly lacking in other learners’ work or prose summaries. In addition to that, on Question 2b and
Question 3, there was a tendency to offer too many words despite specific words count, though not entirely strict, it is
still important that words should be within the proximate of limits. Replication of same facts should also be avoided
for a candidate to gain credit. Similarly using less than the required word limit does not earn a candidate more marks.
Appropriating the length to fit the question asked for in Question 2b and 3 is vitally important.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

LIPONGONYONO A (Section A) Shivarurwa 1

Lipuro 1 (Question 1)

Overall, most of these questions were not answered well by most of the learners. Very few of them managed to score
above five marks on this section.

(a) Morwanke akalilire Martin nashinka kumbarekero yashitimwitira shino? Twenya ko vitwa viviri [2]
Malimbururo: VA1
• Kwashanine virughana /ndi a waneko vimaliva/ kanntjontjo.
• Kapi a vhulire kuwana virughana/kagwanekeranga namalimbururo ghakupira kuwapera

Malimbururo vagha damune mushivarurwa,

Comment: Most of the learners managed to answer this question correctly.

(b) Morwanke a dompilire Martin mutjima opo a fungunine kunomora oyo yatapiro matjingito? Twenyako
vitwa viviri. [2]
Malimbururo:
• Kwa wanine mbudi yapashikwatamaywi (VA1)
• Kapi atatilire vitundwamo vya viwa/ a ghayalire ashi kwato tupu mutompo ndi ogho nga mu vyukiro. (VA4)

Koneka: Kulipuro lino mushongwa kuna kumutaterera atape lilimbururo lya VA1 limwe ntani lya VA4 limwe
mukuwana vitwa viviri vyakuyura. Nangeshi mushongwa atapa malimbururo gha VA1 maviri ana kona kuwana
shitwa shimwe tupu.

(Lilimbururo limwe lyakuntjompora mushivarurwa (VA1) limwe lyakuteda mwene kutwara mumbudi
yamushivarurwa (VA4).

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Comment: Most of the learners managed to gain only one mark from this question, an R1 answer, as the
majority could not find the R4 answer as was required by the question.

(c) Morwanke a kuyuvhilire ashi kapi vi mu tompoka? [1]

Lilimbururo:
• A ghayalire ashi kukukara vantu vavangi vana kuturomo mashungido/vashungidi/vantu vangi vana kushuvo
mbudi davo. (VA1)

VA1: Lilimbururo va li ntjompore/ litunde mushivarurwa.

Comment: Most of the learners answered this question correctly, as only a few who lost marks for twisting it with
an answer for Question b.

(d) Morwanke aghambilire Martin ashi: “Aunwe yinaa!”? [1]

Lilimbururo:
• Vyakurera mukeke kapi vina muwapere/ shirughana shino kapi shawapera vamati. (VA3)

VA3: Lilimbururo kapishi validamune mushivarurwa, ngoli vatede nakuwana lilimbururo pashirughana osho
vamutwenyinine Martin vawina “Viruna munke nani vyene ovyo, vya kurera mwanuke ndi?”

Koneka: Lilimbururo lina hepa kuhamena kuvirughana omo vya wapera parudivharwa kapishi kelino tupu
lilimbururo kulikoreka.

Comment: Most of the learners failed to answer this question correctly and only a few managed to score a
mark.

(e) Vininke munke vyakuhamena kundjugho vya mu tetuliro Martin pandje kumeho ya kungena? Twenya ko
vitwa viviri. [2]
Malimbururo:
• Ndjugho kapi yakalire murupe rwakuwapera (kwa kalire yayiwa kushakare). (VA4)
• Shipata kapi vashipakeranga mbiri/vyakukulira/mushipata kwa kalire mo vimwenwa vyakukumenena
pavyene vyavingi. (VA1)

VA4: Lilimbururo kapishi validamune mushivarurwa, ngoli vatede nakuwana lilimbururo pambudi
yamushivarurwa, lilimbururo litunde pantanto yino: Vimenwa vyakukumenena kwasharava vi ronde dogoro
kushana katika kuvipereki omo vina kurumbatana kumwe nadimucuko dadikenu dakukukulira padene.

VA1: Lilimbururo va li tjompore/ litunde mushivarurwa.

Koneka: Mukuwana vitwa viviri nkwandi mushongwa ana tjanga lilimbururo limwe lyaVA4 ntani limwe lyaVA1.
Nangeshi naghantje gha VA1 kumupa shitwa shimwe tupu.

Comment: Most of the candidates gained one mark for R1 and failed to provide an R4 answer, as was required
by the question.

(f) Vininke munke vya mu tukukitiro Martin opo lya gharukire rwakuhoha livero lyandjugho yanomora 6? [1]
Lilimbururo:
• Mukafumu kwa monekire yira wakutjilita/mukafumu kwakalire namamundjwedu ghamvhi ghakukukwata
namantjo ghakukunanamo. (VA1)

VA1: Mushongwa kuna kamutaterera aka damune/kawane malimbururo mushivarurwa. Kapishi aka ghayarere
po vyendi.

Comment: Most of the learners answered this question correctly.

(g) Lifano munke vya mupire Martin ovyo amonine munda yandjugho? [1]
Lilimbururo:
• Kwato ogho a tungiro mo/ kwato ogho ka yi pakerango mbiri ndi a yi kenite. (VA3)
• Umbondo / kwa yi shuvilira (VA3)

VA1: Lilimbururo kapishi validamune mushivarurwa, ngoli vatede nakuwana lilimbururo olyo litundo
kulifwatururo lyamunda yandjugho.

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Comment: Most of the learners gave wrong answers and only a small number of candidates tried to answer it
correctly.

(h) Morwanke ghamonekilire marawiro ghaunya mukafumu yira udito kwaMartin? wenyako vitwa viviri. [2]
Malimbururo:
• Mukafumu kwa shanine navintje vavipungure rambangako nakarutughoghona nkaka. (VA1)
• Martin kwa ghayalire ashi vikwa vipuna, mbete nantishe kapi vyakalire namulyo/vyakurupara unene (VA3).

Koneka: Mukuwana vitwa viviri nkwandi mushongwa ana tjanga lilimbururo limwe lyaVA1 ntani limwe lyaVA3.
Nangeshi naghantje gha VA1 kumupa shitwa shimwe tupu.

Comment: Most of the learners managed to score only one mark from this question, an R1 answer, as the
majority could not find the R4 answer as it was required by the question.

(i) Vininke munke nawa-nawa kuhamena kushirughana shino vya renkitiro Martin a vi hafere? Twenyako
vitwa viviri. [2]
Malimbururo:
• Ntjontjo ya (N$800) yayerukire kupitakana oyo atatilire. (VA1)
• Kapi ngava mukengera. (VA1)

VA1: Mushongwa kuna kamutaterera aka damune/kawane malimbururo mushivarurwa. Kapishi aka ghayarere
po vyendi.

Comment: Most of the candidates managed to give correct answers, as only a few who could not find the
second answer rather gave different wrong answers.

(j) Vinke a kalilire Martin namashinganyeko kuhamena kumuvatera mukadona? [1]

Lilimbururo:
• Vikwambete, vipuna nantishe kuvhura vikare udito ngudu/Vikwa mbete, vipuna nantishe vyakalire udito
ngudu.

VA1: Mushongwa kuna kamutaterera aka damune/kawane malimbururo mushivarurwa. Kapishi aka ghayarere
po vyendi

Malimbururo yira vyakushentja mukadona ashi kwato nkondo ndi amya nakuvhurashi kudamuna vinya vininke,
nakutapako shi shitwa!

Comment: Most of the candidates managed to provide the correct answer to this question.

Koneka: Malimbururo gha VA3, VA4 ghana hepa kukara napo ghana kurondera, kapishi mushongwa aka tede
tupu nakutjanga vyamumutwe wendi vya hana kukuyenda navishorokwa vyamushivarurwa. (The candidate
must build on the content given in the text not necessarily just commenting for the sake of giving a point).

LIPURO 2: Likamo lyavindomayika (QUESTION 2: Note Summary)

(a) Vitwa munke vina karo mushitimwitira vina kuneghedo ashi virughana vya kalire mulyo ngudu kwaMartin?
Tjanga malimbururo ghoye murupe rwakundomayika. Kapishi hepero kurughanita nkango danaumoye. [15]
Comment: This was the most difficult part of the question paper for the candidates. Most of the candidates
could not manage to find correct sentences (answers) suggesting that the job was very important to Martin. The
majority gave sentences that were not expressing any kind of importance at all. Learners could lift answers
(sentences and phrases) from the passage which did not make sense or attempt to answer the question either.

Likumbururo ko: Shingi sha vashongwa vya vaditopelire mukuwana malimbururo ghauhunga ku lipuro lino yira
momo vyawapera kulilimburura. Vamwe kwa tjangaulire tupu yira vya rayirayi ntanto dimwe kwato kutanta vintu.

Malimbururo ghauhunga ghalikamo lyakundomayika (Answers)

(a) Kukehe shitwa vana twenya dogoro 15, kumupa shitwa shimwe.
1. Martin a hepire unene vimaliva;
2. Pakatji kashitatuvaka ndjo mpito pantjayo a kalire nayo mukuwana virughana;
3. Martin kwa kalire nashinka/shighayo kupira virughana/vimaliva (liguvo/nahepa virughana ntani);

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4.
A kwangulita wangu opo a monine matjingito ( a hana kuhepeka ruvede, Martin kare mpwali
kufunguna);
5. Mbudi yamushikwatamaywi yadompitire mutjima wendi;
6. Ngoli shimpe a limburura … (mpiri ngoweyo, a myaka kumapepe kumwe nakushuva mbudi yendi);
7. A yura ruhafo, opo a mu funguninine mukafumu;
8. Ghuye ana nyanyuka ngudu kufunguna: Ewa viwalika! Ewa uhunga! Uwa!;
9. Ana kara nashinka ashi vininke kuvhura vivipe: “ kuvhika muhunyu yashimbungu!”
10. A nyanyuka ngudu kuvawina: “ndi nawa tupu kwande”
11. Omo yamonekire ndjugho kapi vyamughupire mukumo, a ghayara: “kapi nakara nka nandjirapeke”.
12. Kapi vyamuupire mukumo omo a monekire muatapi virughana;
13. A kushumu ruvhe: kapi a shanine ashi mukafumu a kuyuvhe mwamudona;
14. Ntjontjo yakupitakana ovyo atatililire (N$ 800.00 mulivango lya N$200.00);
15. Kapi a neghedire ashi vina mutetura vya kuhamena kumfuto yendi, kumeho oko a tjindja maghano
ghendi mukafumu ghunya;
16. Vya mu hafitire vya kupira kukara nagho ana kumukengero: a ku didimiki kumenyuna;
17. Ana kona kuwana wakumuvatera: ndi kuvhura a kombanite mpitodjuni;
18. A kushimbi shidigho mukumeneka.
(15)
Vashongwa vamwe shimpe vana kara naudito uno una kakwamo ko mukutjanga likamo lino:

• Vashongwa vamwe kutetaura tupu maghano paufupi vya hana kutanta vintu.
• Vashongwa vamwe kwato kutameka ntanto nankurundanda/ momo vyawapera.
• Vamwe kurepita ntanto mulivango lyakudifupipita.
• Vamwe kundembaura ntanto/ lilimbururo limwe muvitwa vitatu ndi viviri ashi vingipe wangu.
• Vamwe kuvyukuruka lilimbururo limwe vikando viviri ashi walye mukoreki ana vhurama kuntundiliro.
• Kutura mo malimbururo/ vitwa ovyo vana diri kupura mulipuro, ovyo vina karo mushivarurwa.

Vashongi vana hepa kudeura nawa vashongwa mukukatundita po mapuko ogho.

Lipuro 2 (b): Likamo lyashinauntjangwatimwitira (Question 2 (b): prose summary)

(b) Rughanita vitwa ovyo una tapa mulipuro 2 (a) kuwiru, u tjange likamo lyavininke vina karo mushitimwitira
vina kuneghedo ashi virughana vino vya kalire mulyo ngudu kwaMartin. Malimbururo ghoye ghakare
muntjangwatimwitira nakurughanita nkango danaumoye momo uvhulira.
Ure walikamo lyoye ghukare mwara nkango 100 ‒ 150. [5]

Comment: The majority of learners were observed to lack the skills and knowledge to answer this type
of question as stated in the general comments above, despite it being affected by the poor performance in
question 2 (a) in this examination paper. (Vashongwa shingi shavo kwa negheda lipumbo lya manongontjo
ghakutjanga lino likamo.)

Malimbururo (Answers):
• Vakandidate kuvhura ngoli kurughanita vitwa vya mu 2 (a) kuwiru mukatjanga likamo lyalitjangoyenderero.
• Vakandidate vana hepa ngoli kurughanita nkango danaumwavo.
• Mushongi kurughanita (Shiwederera A) shikorekito shavirughana vyalitjangovyukiliro (Lipuropepa 1)
pakutapa vitwa.
• Uhaya wakurughanita viyivitovaruro nankangonungo dakuwapera kumwe naliyenderero lyambudi vina
kona kudjiramo vitape likamomwene ntani kutapa vitwa vyakuyeruka kwa keheuno mushongwa.

Likumbururo (General comments): Vashongwa vana kara naudito uno una kukwamo ko:

• Shingi shavo kutjanga vyavingi ngudu kupitakana mwara nkango odo vana pura (Kutamununa va hana
kukama).
• Vamwe mandunda, kutikita kumatetoghano mane ndi matano ngoweyo.
• Vashongwa vamwe kutjanga mamuntanto gha mamure mulivango lyakufupipita ntanto /kukama/
kutjompora mo tupu nkango odo dina kwato ntanto.
• Vashongwa vamwe kudamaura tupu ntanto mushivarurwa va hana kuvitura mumpompa mposhi likamo
litante vintu nakuyuvhika nawa.
• Vashongwa vamwe kutjompora ntanto odo dina tjwandjuko kulipuro.
• Vashongwa vamwe kurughanitha ngambito dadingi mulikamo, odo dina diro kukara hepero.
• Vashongwa vamwe kutjangurura tupu ntanto mushivarurwa va hana kuyiva mwakudinungakana mposhi vi
tape likamo mwene lya vyo vana pura.
• Vashongwa vamwe kutapa mo mashongero ogho vana diri kupura.
• Vashongwa vamwe kufwaturura tanko tjapinkango damulipuro ashi nke datanta, vivhukite
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Koneka: Mushongwa wakukara namalimbururo gha lipuko mu lipuro 2 (a) kehe pano kuwana vitwa vyavisheshu
ndi shimwe tupu muruha runo. Vashongwa vakutwenyaura tupu malimbururo hana kurughanita nkango
danaumwavo (listing of answers) navo nka nakuwana shi vitwa vyakuyeruka muruha runo.

SECTION B/ LIPONGONYONO B

SHIVARURWA 2

Lipuro 3: Shighamba (question 3): Speech writing)

Shurekurona yamumukunda wenu yina kurekere mukukatapata shighamba shakutapa makorangedo kuvashongwa
vantambondunge yakuhulilira kuhamena mapuko ogho varughananga varwana kehe pano mulipar, weni omo va gha
kandana po na weni omo vakuwapukurura mukutunda kumapuko ghavo. Tjanga shighamba. Rughanita maghano
wamushivarurwa kumwe nakuukulika nawa munkango danaumoye. Ure wa shighamba shoye u kare pakatji kankango
250 ‒ 300. [20]

Comment: Most of the candidates tried to answer this question by lifting few answers (ideas) from the text. Candidates
failed to lift more ideas from the text because most of the answers are supposed to be implied which then learners failed
to do. However, the majority of them tried to build upon the very few ideas they had from the text but it resulted in them
obtaining low or average marks because they repeated points in their writing.

Similarly, some candidates were unable to refer to all the parts of speech as they were unable to demonstrate the
richness in language usage. As a result, it also affected their final grade on the part of writing.

VINEGHEDO UKALIMO (Indicative contents)

Malimbururo (Answers):

Vitwa (ukalimo) vino kapishi pantjavyo vana pulitiri, kwavi tambitira tupu viatape manangwiro kuvakoreki oko va vhura
kuhamitira vashongwa muvitjangwa vyavo. Vashongwa kuna kuva taterera mukuhamitira maghano ghavo kuvitwa
vyamushivarurwa nakughakulika munkango danaumwavo.

Mapuko ogho varughananga vantu muliparu:

• Kukuhuguvara ngudu (Navihuguvalire ashi name ngani kara umwe wavo);

• Likunenepito (Mukutundilira ngoli mulipata lyahasha ko, lirwameno lyande kwa kalire ashi);
• Kwakalire nalincenuno mulighano lyendi kuhamena virughana vyavi vyaveta (kudwata lirwakani lyalitipu, kuyimana
kumeho yamupanguli kumwe nakukarera po vantu vakupira undjoni);
• Kukudjengura (kapi nakushongire maruha naghantje ame ruvede naruntje kwaru maninine kwamuholi wande
wamupe – Sara. Navintje vyakufana, opo nakalire mulindjugho lyakutjangera makonakono – kuronda hana
kukushonga);
• Kushentja vakuhupa ko (kupena mukatji kavashongwa);
• Lipiro kuvitambura (kapi navhulire kuvipura ovyo gha monine mantjo ghande/ maruntjodi ghamakuverero … weni
omo kavishoroka);

Weni mukughakandanapo nakuwapukurura mapuko:

• Koneka ashi, kapi twa waperera(muliparu atwe kurughana mapuko, ghamwe ghamanene ano ghamwe ghamadidid);
• Kukara nalirwameno (Kutwikira ngoli nakushetekera ko nka ngoli shimpe – nangeshi aghu karerere kughayara ashi
ghuna ghu, kapi nga ghu vhura nka kuyenda kumeho);
• Kuvitambura (vanane – ene ngoli mashini ghana teka ano navintje vino vyakapita kuna kutwikira naliparu lyande);
• Kukupopera naumoye (vavava ava ngarapere ngudu nakuntininika ni kware. Kapi na kalire nka na nkondo
dakukananita ko, ano ngoli vinya nanamuntji shimpe ani vi kuvere);
• Kukara naupenda nakutikitamo ndjodi yoye ( ndjodi yande yakalire mulyo ngudu kukwande);
• Kukara naudamitjima (kurughanita mpito muliparu);
• Nakukutapa shi (nahepa kuwana ko ndjira peke omo ngani wapukurura vininke);

(Kehe maghano ghakuwapera naghamulyo ghakutundilira mushivarurwa kuvhura kugha pulitira)

Mushongi kurughanita shikolikito (shiwederera B) shavirughana vyalitjangoyenderero (Lipuropepa 1) shakuvarura

(15) kutjanga (5) mukutapa vitwa.

• Vashongwa kuna kuvataterera vakahamitiremo malimbururo ghavo kumaghano ghamushivarura nakughakulika

munkango danaumwavo.
• Kapishi vaka tjangurure tupu maghano ghamushivarurwa, nani ngoli kehe shitwa ana kutjanga ana hepa
kushikulika namaghano ghendi mposhi aneghede likwatoghano lyavo ana varura.

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 Vakandidate vana hepa ntani kurughanita nkango danaumwavo momo va vhulira kapishi kutjangurura
shivarurwa damu-damu momo vina yimanene.
 Likuliko lyamaghano ghavo likuyende novyo vina karo mushivarurwa, kapishi shivarurwa kuna ghamba
vyakuhamena kumapuko ogho varughananga vantu muliparu uye aka tjange mapuko ghamwe ogho ayiva
ghapeke-peke yira unkorwi nakukoka mapangwe navimwe tupu ngoli… Kwato oko vina kurondera vino!

NB: Learners should be able to build their points / the information found in the reading text by using own ideas and
these ideas should correlate with the text given, not necessarily giving supportive points that are far from what is
mentioned in the passage, which is considered to be wrong.

 Koneka: Mukurenka ashi mukandidate va mu ture mumutinga wakuhova (1) kuruha rwa kuvarura
namutinga wakuhova (1) kukuruha rwakutjanga, ana kona kutikitamo ovi vina kukwamo ko:

(a) Uye ana hepa kutwenya ko vitwa vyangandi vyamapuko ogho varughananga vantu ntani vitwa
vyangandi vyakukandanapo nakuwapukurura ogho mapuko. Ana hepa kuguma nakuntje.

(b) Ntani ana hepa kutikitamo maruha ghashighamba momo ghawapera ghakukwame nawa-nawa
mumpompa, mposhi a wane vitwa djuni kuruha rwakutjanga.

(c) Ana hepa kurughanita mo lirakadjuni pamavango ghakuwapera, yira: vitegho, ngambito, vifanikitito,
navimwe nka weyo vyakunegheda unkurungu waliraka, mposhi akare mumutinga wakuhova ndi
wauviri kuliraka.
Vashongwa vana kara naudito uno una kukwamo ko:
• Shingi sha vashongwa kapi va vhulire kunegheda shishwi sha shino shitjangwa.
• Vamwe kuvareka yira mayuvhito ana kutapa.
• Maruha gha shighamba kugha pirayika tupu momo vana shanene/ kapi vagha yiva momo ghakukwamenanga.
• Vamwe nakurughanitashi liraka lyapaveta, kurughanita nkango yira meshi ne… meshi ne...,
• Vamwe kurughanita vitegho nangambito dalipuko, kuvhukumina nga mo tupu mushighamba yira boma!
• Vamwe kutjangurura tupu malimbururo hana kuwitira ndi kughakulika navi vyanaumwendi vya kuhamena ko.
• Vamwe kuwitira/ kukulika navi vyanaumwendi ngoli vya kudira nka kukuyenda navyo vina karo mushivarurwa.
• Kumoneka ashi vashongwa vana kara naudito wakutjompora malimbururo gha mushivarurwa va vi witire nauyivi
wanaumwavo.
• Vashongwa vamwe kutjompaura tupu ntanto /kutjangurura tupu ntanto momo dina karere mushivarurwa va hana
kuyita mo kaghano kendi akambe ke po.
• Vashongwa vamwe kurughanita mo liraka lyaRuhingirisha ashi walye mpo vi yuvhika nawa yira “In life you need to
be strong” “you need to work hard” kukombanita vitwa kurughanita liraka lyapeke!
• Mukonda ya kudira kuyiva nka nawa maruha ghashighamba naliraka djuni, shingi shavashongwa kapi va vhulire
nka kutika mumutinga wa1 ndi wa 2 kukutjanga

Managwiro kuvashongi:
• Vashongi vana hepa kudeura vashongwa mwakutjanga shighamba momo vya wapera.
• Ntani vana hepa kurughanita liraka djuni momo vatjanganga kehe shino shitjangwa.
• Vana hepa kuyiva mwa kunegheda ashi kuna kutunda kuruha rumwe a yende kuruha naropeke nangeshi vininke
viviri ndi vitatu vana pura.

3. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should continue to teach or prepare learners in all aspects of the subject content.
• Teachers should avoid selective teaching of topics.
• Learners should be taught and be prepared thoroughly to follow instructions of the question but also identify the
demands of the question.
• Learners should be reminded of time management to allow them to attend to all questions per time stipulated on
the question paper.
• Learners should still be taught orthography, spelling, punctuation, language and style as well as appropriate
vocabularies.
• Learners should be reminded of neatness, legibility, numbering properly and skipping lines on each part question
and or section.
• Teachers must familiarise themselves with examiners’ reports and implement the suggestions.
• Teacher should train candidates how to write in note form and continuous prose form during assessment and
testing.
• Teachers should also emphasise word length of question 2 (b) 100 – 150 and Question 3 (250 – 300).
• Teachers to train candidates how to understand the content of the text/passage

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• Teachers should guide candidates on main key words like: why, how, when, what, explain, define, comment,
suggest, describes, states, compare/parallel or use own words.
• Teachers should discourage candidates from using other languages including vulgar language

In conclusion, below are the common mistakes detected in most of the learners’ work and they need to know the
correct words:

Nkango da lipuko Da uhunga

kupurakena kutegherera
munterere muntegherere
hena ntani nka
vapurakeni vateghereli
pena shitjangito
Muvadulye-dulye muvaduliduli
Kusheta(kuseta) kudjanyauka
Kumahandjero ghamwaka kuuhura wamwaka
buke mpapira
silemu ndunge ngudu
udomu ndunge disheshu
kukwamaura Kukwama-kwama
twahepa tuna hepa
pira kwato/kundereko
kudopa kuwa
twakona tuna kona
mwamufupi paufupi
Repord card ndjapo yashure
ofu ndi
kupiyama kupaghama
kukukambeka shidigho kukukughupa shidigho
sanda wina
kurunganeka kurungangeda
faka vishongwa
namba nomora
kubela kufungwina
sikulubodi Ndango ya liyndito shure
kukempera kurarera shitanda
lyakapatoko lyakahuroko
kaume muholi
kuhufena kukuyombilita
kasi shimbangu pungwiro

Dimwe ndodo va yiva kare vashongi varughanitanga vashongwa mulipuko, kudi wana mu vitundamo vyamakonakono
gha mwakapita, na do nka ku di vavhurukita momo vya wapera.

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6103
Paper 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
All the questions were at the learner’s level. Learners demonstrated good understanding of questions. Learners
need to be trained according to the NSSC syllabus on how to answer the continuous writing questions.

The following mistakes from the learners work were identified:

1. Some learners did not adhere to the number of words that they were given. Some learners wrote more
words for example four (4) to five (5) pages and some very few words for example one (1) page only instead
of two (2) pages and a half which is 350 ‒ 500 words.
2. Some learners were unable to use parts of an essay in their writing such as: the introduction, body and
conclusion. This gives the markers difficulty in grading them.
3. Most of the learners used ordinary language and the few who used figurative language did not use it in the
right context.
4. Some of the learners lack skills and knowledge in answering the different types of essays e.g.: Narrative
essay, descriptive essay and argumentative essay. For example, learners might opt to write an
argumentative essay yet end up writing a narrative essay. Most of the learners managed to write one type of
essay from the beginning to the end.
5. Some learners do not use punctuation marks in their writing.
6. Learners lack correct language usage, for instance, they use foreign languages and unfamiliar words.

2. COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS:

Narrative

Question 1: Write a story about an occasion when someone you underestimated treated you with kindness.

Markers comments: Most of the learners who opted for this question answered it accordingly, although a
few of them misunderstood the question and narrated about belittling or being scared of someone instead of
underestimating the person.

Question 2: “Dreams really do come true.” Narrate a story that actually happened after you had dreamed about
it.

Markers comments: the majority of learners opted for this question and they answered it very well. Learners
were expected to narrate a story about a particular dream they had and how it came to pass after they have
dreamed about it which they did in the most imaginative way possible. Only a few wrote about various dreams
and how each dream came to pass.

Descriptive

Question 3: You took a long walk through beautiful surroundings. Describe what you saw and heard and how
you felt.

Markers comments: Few learners opted for this question and answered it very well. Learners were expected to
give a description of various places they have visited and talk about what they saw, heard and how they felt when
visiting those places. Only a few of these learners omitted some of the prompts.

Question 4: Write a description of your favourite place in your town and what makes it so special.

Markers comments: Few learners opted for this question and answered it well. Learners were able to give a
description of their favourite place in their towns and what makes it so special.

Argumentative

Question 5: “Young people should be encouraged to consume traditional foods and drinks”. Do you agree with
this statement? Justify your answer.

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Markers comments: Most of the learners opted for this question and answered it well. Most learners agreed
that young people should indeed be encouraged to consume traditional food and drinks. Only a few of them
wrote about allowing young people to drink traditional alcohol and tried to justify it.

Question 6: “Animals should have rights, just like humans.” Give your opinion and justify your answer.

Markers comments: Very few learners opted for this question and did not answer it well. Most of the learners
misunderstood the question, as they were expected to write about the rights of animals, but instead they wrote
about animal’s physical strength and how it affects their natural obedience towards humans.

3. MOST CONFUSED WORDS IN THE LEARNERS WORK.

Unersa - upangi
Shene - ntjene
Mara - ngoli
Vauni - vaghuni
Shayeka - shagheka
Eskasi - kira
Pira - kapi
Ngonya - ngoweyo/ngowenya
Kuyiya - kuyigha
Shetuka - kupiruka
Harura - gharura
Mpatana - kunkanana
Kubela - kufungwina
Ruwana - rughana
Kungereka - kunkirshe
Vena - kuketa
Hostel - lipatalyashure
Mahoko - mavoko
Murongi - mushongi
Rounds - vikando
Tournament - marumbatano
Nge - ndje
Dewura - deghura
Boxing ring - mulingayakurwanena
Tona - toghona
Ngano - ndi
Tamwayande - nkwirikwande
Mugavament - lipangero
Wara - kudirashinka
Kukuhufena - kukudeghura
Kaume - muholi
Fakanisi - lipwiyumuko
Stadium - shirashamaudano
Kuharura - kugharura
Lihauto - shihauto
Game park - mavangokungirontjitwe
Kuhakura - kupanga
Kuyimaneka- kuyimika
Nana tumbwena - vananevashitumbwena
Kuhashumuka - kuyashumuka
Mpindi/ nampi - nampirindi
Nkehe - kehe
Ponyoka - kuporokera
Shakonya/ kukonya - shatenya
Vamusinda - vamaparambo
Vanyakulyande - vamama
Musikiriti - mukungilimona
Nkwali - mpwali
Yii - nhii
Sikolofu - mukuronashure
Pause - rufugho
Kupapara - kushana
Vabotjotjo - vitodi

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Ofisi - mberegho
Grupa - mbunga
Dimurungu - ngevo
Kununguta - kuvhunguta

4. COMMENTS TO TEACHERS
• Teachers should prepare their learners well on how to write continuous writing based on the NSSC syllabi for the
final examination.
• Teachers should teach the learners the correct usage of figurative language and the use of punctuation, grammar
and tenses.
• Teachers should train learners to adhere to the correct number of words to use in their continuous writing.
• Teachers should encourage learners to write neatly and legibly.
• Teachers should train learners on various ways to write introductions as some learners from some centres started
their introduction with the same phase/statement.

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6103
Paper 3

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

Although this is the fifth year for the grade 11 learners to sit for the National Examination (NSSCO), still there were some
problems in answering Paper 3: critical response to a text.

Many candidates did not have a full understanding of the content of the text hence, they copied the whole passage given
during the examination.

Many candidates did not read the passage thoroughly, hence, they narrated different stories of their own.

Some candidates did not understand the content of the passage thus, they found it difficult to extract information from it
and critically analyze it to use it in their responses.

Many candidates did not pay attention to the question and guiding points to extract the information from the passage.

2. COMMENTS ON GUIDING POINTS AND INDICATIVE CONTENT

As it is known, after a learner has read the text, a question will be asked and below that question there are three guiding
points to guide a learner on what the answer should be based. Learners will be assessed on their ability to evaluate
the following from a text:
• Ideas
• Themes
• Author’s intention
• Attitudes
• Language

Not only that, but learners are also assessed on their ability to provide a detached critical overview and judgement
of what is in the text. Learners have to provide references basing on their critical impression. A reference is not done
exclusively, but it should be accompanied by a clear clarification which is done regarding a point made. Learners’
answers are expected to have an adequate information from a text in their responses. A text will always present a
variety of points about a particular guiding points, hence a learner should be able to pick sufficient information from a
text, bearing in mind the word limit (250 – 300).

3. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• There are many language skills which need to be enhanced in a critical response to a text (Paper 3) and teachers
should devise creative and critical ways of coaching and practising these skills.
• Teachers should train learners to master the following three elements when approaching Paper 3 (critical response
to a text) questions: First state; the statement that is addressing the question; for example, the poet used figurative
language or the poem used a simple language or the poet felt bad or happy about... Secondly, the candidate
should always quote that figurative expression from the poem or text. Thirdly the candidate should explain,
elaborate and expand more in his/ her own words.
• Critical response to a text should not be seen in isolation as a component of the Rumanyo ordinary level examination.
It is a vehicle for improving critical thinking skills, developing high-order thinking and reasoning skills, building
vocabulary and improving understanding of the evolutions of style, purpose and tone in language.
• Candidates should always be encouraged to read and understand the instructions and guiding points given before
attempting to answer the question during examinations.
• Teachers should always explain difficult words in the poems or in the text and simplify them to the extent that
learners can find alternative expressions and synonyms in their language (Rumanyo).
• Teachers should teach learners that not by any means should they reproduce or replicate (copy) the content of the
passage or text; they should rather use the information in the text to respond critically to the questions.
• Teachers should teach candidates on how to structure paragraphs when answering the question (paragraphing).

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• Teachers should train candidates always to write in paragraphs (prose form) rather than in point or note form.
• Teachers should always teach candidates on how to extract evidence from the text (passage or poem) to support
their answers and give their personal response to the question asked.
• Teachers should train learners on how to extract the information from the text and critically expand it.
• Teachers should train learners how to brainstorm the information from the text which they should later use in their
writings based on the given bullet or guiding points.
• Teachers should give a variety of activities to the learners on how to approach both poem and passage questions.
• The assessment Objectives for Paper 3 are different. Paper 3 does not target the same skills as Paper 1.
This is not a factual Reading Comprehension; thus, candidates are assessed on how well they:
• Comment on meaning in the text
• Demonstrate appreciation (how the author uses language/ convey…)
• Give a personal/ critical response.
NB: Teachers have to explain the following points to the learners when teaching them aspects of Paper 3:
• What are the ideas/ themes/ author’s intention in the passage?
• What does the author want the reader to think/ feel?
• What language/ ideas might candidates notice?

Teachers should teach learners on how to answer all the above questions by using any passage/ text/ poem
when teaching to acquaint them and build their confidence in approaching examination questions, at the same
time clarifying to them how they should approach such questions in examinations.

NKUMBU KUVITWANEGHEDO VYAUKALIMO:

• Lipuro kwakalire ngoli: “Weni ana kutapa mbudi yendi mutjangi kuvavaruli kuhamena ndjorongani yalikururo huki
davakadona vamamuAfrika?”

Vitwa vino vina kukwamo ko vi kuvatere pakulimburura:

• Likuyuvo lyaNamutenya
• Likushuvo lyamaukaro ghavawina navashe
• Vakuhupako namo lyamugumine Namutenya

Shitjangwa shamukandidate shika demenene ngoli pavitwa neghedo vino vina kukwamo ko:

Vakandidate vana hepa tanko kalimburura lipuro kumeho oyo vaka kashana-shana mbudi mushivarurwa oyo vaka
rughanita pakayara maghano ghavo kutwara kuvitwaneghedo ovyo vana va pa.

Koneka vino vina kukwamo ko pakukengurura liraka mushitjangwa:

• Ushwinkango muliraka ndi litovororo nkango: mutjangi a rughanita nkango daudito/ureru, ntanto dadire/difupi,
nkango dapaveta ndi kapishi paveta, ndughanito liraka lyakukitika, ndughanito nkango dahameno kushingonona
shininkepeke nakudi rughanita kovyo ana kutimwitira.
• Nkango damadayura mushivaura- shihonena
• Likuyuvho/maghano ghamutjangi mushitjangwa osho
• Livyukuruko-vyukuruko nkango
• Mapuro ghahana malimbururo (mapuro gharetorika) – kwa gha rughanitanga mutjangi mukurenka muvaruli a
ghayareko mwamunene, mukunegheda ushiri wavyo ana kughamba ndi mukupura mapuliro ghavatambitili.
• Mukandidate ana hepa kehe pano kunegheda maungambi ghamushivarurwa ndi ghamumutango, rupandu
kwamutjangi ndi mutangi mushitjangwa shendi pakutjanga; kurughanita vitemwininito pakurughanitanga
maumbangi ghamushivarurwa (“”) vino kavatera mukandidate aka wane vitwa vyakuwapera ndi vyamumutinga
wakuwiru; mutinga 2 vikandwite dogoro kumutinga wa 1.

MAGHANO OGHO KASHA VARUGHANITE VAKANDIDATE KUKEHE SHINO SHITWANEGHEDO:

Manangwiro- vitwa vyaukalimo
• Likuyuvh olyaNamutenya
• Likushuvo lyamaukaro ghavawina navashe
• Vakuhupa ko namo lyagumine Namutenya

LikuyuvholyaNamutenya
• Mukumo/mfumwa
• Vakamali vavaa mbovo vakukupara mumutwe.
• Ame vina nkomene ngoli vyakukara lindjanga ndi kukara nahuki dadingi mumutwe kehe pano (rupokotwa).
• Mbyo vina karo mushirongo/ vininke vyawapire.
• Na shana kudi para mo nadintje yira vanya vakamali na mono televishi.
• Uwawa shiri/ kupeperera mumutwe.
• Kumoneka nawa ntjeneshi una kwiti mo maghadi/ ufughuli.
• Kwa nyenyininine vininke vyakutivi.
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• Kumoneka uwaawa, ntjene ana kwiti mo maghadi

Likushuvo lyamaukaro ghavawina navashe

• Vashe:
✓✓ Kutu peperera ko ngoli mukutungita muntu kehe shivike.
✓✓ Mwanuke naye muntu (naye a kara naunankondo wakuvhura kutokora).
✓✓ Muntu kumu shuva a rughane mbyovyo vya mu koro.
✓✓ Va mu kwatitire ko Namutenya.

• Vawina:
✓✓ Kapi u vhura kukurura huki doye liparambamba, ove umukadona.
✓✓ Mpo tuna hepa kuyi fumadeka nakuyi vatuka shi, yikare yira moomo ya yimana.
✓✓ Mpo yetu kapi ya pulitira ashi mukadona va mu kurure/ va kananitire po lighano lyaNamutenya.
✓✓ Oghuno ndje ngoli mukamali wamuwapo unene wamuAfrika mumundi wetu/ mfumwa.
✓✓ Kuna kuvembera yira kuna shimbi shitarero pamutwe/ kuvembera yira shitarero.

• Omo va vi monine varwana vakuhupako namo vyagumine Namutenya

✓✓ Vya tetukitire mugholikadi Haupindi.
✓✓ Kapi a vhulire kumudimburura. “Are uno mukadona ana yo mumundi wetu? Namutenya uno ndi?”
✓✓ Vamushepire Namutenya. “Navantje makura ava twikiri kushepa.”
✓✓ Ukwavo wavo vaNamutenya namugholikadi Haupindi au shagha. “Hewa ukwavo wetu mpo una shaghere
ngoli kutunda liyuva lyanamuntji.”
✓✓ Kapi vyava yuvhitire mbiri. “Kapi vina ku ndjuvhita mbiri.”

• Viyititapo kwaNamutenya
✓✓ Kugarapita (kwa shanine ndi pakalire mpito yakuvatera likuyuvho lyamukurona wamuAfrika)
✓✓ Likwatito ko lyavakurona lya kalire hepero.
✓✓ Pentjande (kuparuka pentjande), mukuma/utighona Kwa mu tukukitire a kuyuvhu udona-dona.
✓✓ Kapi a wanine likwatito ko.
✓✓ Vya mu renkitire a kupure unene ashi weni omo a vhura kufwatulira mukurona wamuAfrika kuhamena
likukururo lyahuki/ vakurona vana hepa kuvashonga.
✓✓ Ndi vya wana mpito yangandi/ kapi a wanine mpito.
✓✓ Kapi na wanine mpora mumwavo nampiri kadidi (kumurenkaura unene, va mu shepirel ikendjo)
✓✓ Kwa kalire yira pentjande tupu na kar omuudjuni.

MBUDI YAKUVASHONGI:
• Vashongi vana hepa kuyiva nakushonga vakandidade ashi nga pa karanga shivarurwa shi mono ndi shi yivo ntani
nalipuro limwe olyo lyakaro navitwaneghedo olyo ngava pura ko.
• Koneka ashi shivarurwa kuvhura kukara shakutunda kukaruvambi kangambodami (mutango, shitimwitirafupi,
shidanauka) osho pamwe va toroka shi tunde murunone rwaliraka lyapeke NDI shitjangwa shamakukanano
parumwe shakushongaghura shakuhamena viparatjangwa vyapampo ovyo vyakaro navishewe ndi liraka
lyangambitofano.
• Mpo vina karere ngoli mulyo unene ashi vashongi vana hepa kuvadeghura nakupishura vakandidate va vhure
kukara naghuyivi kuhamena vitambo vyamulyowaneko vino mukondashi lino kwakara lipuropepa lyalitedolimbururo
kushitjangwa.
• Vashongi vana hepa kudeghura vakandidate vayive nakuvhura kukumburura ko kushitambo, vitantwa vyapantunda-
ntunda ntani nantjimantjima yaukalimo washitjangwa;
• Vashongi vana hepa kudeghura vakandidate vayive nakuvhura kunegheda rupandu ashi weni likuyuvho, maukaro
ndi po nkani omo va di tapanga nawa.
• Vashongi vana hepa kudeghura vakandidate vayive nakuvhura kukugwanekera mulilimbururo patedo, uhe ntani
napadjuni pamundinda.
• Vashongi vana hepa kudeghura vakandidate vayive ashi kehe pano pakulimburura lipuropepa lino vana hepa
kutjanga murupe rwalitjangoyenderero, kapishi kundomayika malimbururo ghavo.
• Vashongi vana hepa kudeura vakandidate omo va dira nga kukatura ngamo nka vishewe mukondashi lipuropepa
lino kukataterera mukandidate a ka fwaturure vishewe ndi ngambito odo ana wana mo mukatjangwa.

Udito umwe ogho kava gwanekere nagho vakandidate ogho vana hepa kuwapukurura vashongi ne ntjangitito naweni
omo va vhura kuteta nkango davo ntjeneshi vana tiki kuuhura wandjira ndi mutunda wakurulyo.

Muliraka lyetul yaRumanyo kuteta nkango yoye pakutjanga nkwandi yi kare ko ndandashagharo: a, e, i, o, u

Shihonena:
(Lipuko)

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1. Vantu vana hepa maghano dj-

Uni.
2. Vakurona vana haf-
a.

(Uhunga)
1. Vantu vana hepa maghano dju-
ni.
2. Vakurona vana ha-
fa.
• Lipuropepa lino lyalitedolimbururo kushitjangwa, lyakutanta kare lyene, mposhi vashongi va sha kashonga
vakandidate vaka ture mo nka navo vishewe, vitegho ndi ngambito (ndughanito yaliraka) yakuvanda.
• Vakandidate kuna kava taterera vaka tede, kufwaturura, kushingonona nakutapa makonakono
djuni kuhamena mutango ndi shivarurwa osho vana va pa kumwe nakalimbururura lipuro kukwama
kuvitwaneghedo.
• Vakandidate kuna kava taterera ngoli vaka neghede vighayadara vyamutangi ndi mutjangi, liraka lyarupe
munke a rughanita mo, ukaro, likuyuvo navimwe ngoweyo.
• Vakandidate vana hepa nka kukwama manangwiro mposhi va sha pempuka nga kulipuro, vino mulyo shiri
unene.

LIRUGHANITO LYANKANGO/ NTANTO MULIPUKO:

Nkango dalipuko Nkango dauhunga

Nyina, vanane vendi/ vawina vendi/vanyina Vawina
Vavava vendi/vashe vendi Vashe
Muuni wendi Muunyendi
Muholikadi Mugholikad
Mugholi wendi Muholi wendi
Vamusinda Vamaparambo
Ruhambo Rughambo
Kuvura Kuvhura
Nkene Ntjene
Kuruwana Kurughana
Shivarura Shivarurwa
Pi ghashanine Kapi a shanine
Shiruwo Shirugho
Kuronga Kushonga
Ghana yendi Ana yendi
Kuneyeda Kunegheda
Kushayeka Kushagheka
Vanane vendi Vawina
Vavava vendi Vashe
mwanukeghona kadona Mwanukekadona
Owo Ogho
Ghuye Uye
Kusimba Kuupa
Enengoli Enengoli
Kuterera Kutegherera
Twahepa Tuna hepa
Runyenyo Runyeghenyo
Teete/ teyete Teghete
Kutanguna Kutangura
Mpili/ mpindi Nampiri

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Livhango Livango
Yavho Yavo
Vhendi Vyendi
A honine A honinine
Pandwire Pandulire
Mara Enengoli
Pira Kapi
Kwashepanine Kwashepaghanine
Nanke Ntjene
Mora Morwa
Kondashi Mukondashi
Kubumuka Kudovaukira
Stereyi Mutindedi/ kanwa
Gha hora A hora
Hampara Kasha
Kufoka Kuhepeka/ kurenkereramo
Shene/nkene Ntjene/nange
Mbili Mbiri
Kupirakuyuva Kudirakuyuvha
Nge Ndje

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6103
Paper 4

GENERAL COMMENTS

Generally, there was a slight improvement in the candidates’ work in most of the centres, although some candidates
had shown similar mistakes in responding to this paper across all sections in comparison to the previous examination
of 2023. Fewer candidates were able to collect data for their topics and were able to present them accordingly. It is
also observed that many centres are allowing candidates to research topics like food stuffs and they ended up writing
recipes. Topics such as “how to prepare ligcere, makunde, ntjivi, ndumbo, mugombakapindi, liduka” etc. which in most
cases is difficult for candidates to collect valuable data because these are instructions or guidelines on how to prepare
that certain food, even though candidates may select these types of topics, but they should set research questions that
will allow candidates to collect more data.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

1 Introduction/Litwaromo

Most candidates have tried to explain or define their research topic. This is necessary for candidates to show their
understanding of the topic they are researching. There are still a couple of candidates who instead of explaining their
research topics, presented their findings. Examiners should encourage candidates to define/explain their research
topics in brief.

Shihonena; vashongwa kuna kavataterera vakalimburure yira weno:

Nkwara dapampo

Nkwara odo kavashesheranga vakurona vamumati monavo mukadona, nangeshi vana mu mono ashi ana kuru ana
kutete.

2 Interest into the topic/Ntundiliro yashihoro kushiparatjangwa

Most candidates have indicated their interest in their research topics and explain in detail linking and comparing
traditional practices to the modern world. Only a couple of candidates are still struggling to show what made them
interested in their research topics.

Shihoro shakushiparatjangwa kuvhura ngoli kushifwaturura yira weno;

Ame nadimburura ashi pantantani nkwara kapi dina kudighama ano varwana kapi vana kufumadeka nka nkwara.
Vanantjoka kukuharukako tupu lira vana kayita mumundi vakurona vahana kuyivako vintu. Vino mbyo vyankorangidiro
kukafukunya nakawaneka maukenu kuhamena nkwaro omo kadishorokanga pakare.

3 Main research objective/Ntjimantjima yalikonakono

Most candidates in this section have indicated the purpose and what they want to achieve at the end of their research.
Most of them have shown their main research objectives/what they want to achieve and the procedures which they will
follow in order to achieve their main research objectives. This is good indeed.

Shihonena kuvhura kukara ngoli weno:

Kuuhura walikonakono lino, nashana kukayiva ashi weni omo kadishorokanga nkwara pashitungarongo ndi kushikuru.

4. Research questions/objectives/Mapuro/Vitambo vyalikonakono

A couple of candidates were still struggling how to formulate their research questions and objectives. Many of these
candidates’ research questions were closed-ended questions, which could not enable them to collect more data.
Examiners should guide candidates on how to formulate research questions/objectives.

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Mapuro kuvhura kughatunga ngoli yira weno:
a. Weni omo kadishorokanga nkwara kushakare?
b. Mulyo munke wa kaliro munkwara dino?
c. Panke dinakushuviri nkwara dino nadantantani?

Vitambo vyalikonakono
a. Omo kadishorokanga nkwara dapashakare.
b. Mulyo wankwara dino.
c. Likushuvo linakaro pakatji kankwara dino nadantantani.

Vakandidate vana hepa kukonekashi mapuro ghalikonakono kukara tupu maviri ndi matatu tupu makura!!

5 Sources of information/Marunone ghambudi

Muruha runo uyingi wavakandidate kavavhuru kunegheda nakuyara madina ghavarwana ovo vakapuraghelire kumwe
nakughashingonona nawa. mpovali shimpe vakandidate vamwe ovo vana karo naudito kuhamena ruha runo, Mulivango
lyakunegheda tupu varwana ovo vakavapiro mbudi, vavo kutimwitira munkondomoke. Vakandidate kwavatatililire
mukutjanga weno:

Ame nakakugwanikilire navakurona vano vana kukwamoko ovo vakavhulire kuntimwitirako mwamunene kuhamena
shiparatjangwa shande.
1. Mpingana Katiku Mbava - Umwe ogho akaro munkwara dapampo.
2. Shindimba Ndumba - Mukafumu akasheshiliro monendi mukadi.

6 Presentations of findings/Litapo vitundwamo

Most candidates presented their findings in detail and references were made to their sources of information. Only a
couple of candidates could not write on their research at length and could not reference their sources of information.
There was evidence that most of these candidates researched food recipes that made them difficult to collect detailed
data. Due to this, most of these candidates were placed in band mark 4 or 5.

7 Discussions and analysis of findings/Likukwetjo nalituno lyaliwaneko mbudi

This section was the most challenging and it was performed poorly because, almost all candidates repeated the
information which they gave at the presentation of findings instead of analysing and discussing the data collected from
their sources of information. It is still the responsibility of examiners to guide candidates on how to analyse and discuss
the information collected. We are expecting the candidates to show their understanding of the data collected and the
topics they have researched. The examiner should guide candidates on how to analyse and discuss the data collected
in detail, showing their understanding of the research topics in detail.

Mushongwa muno a vhure ngoli kulimburura kumapuro ghalikonakono lyendi pakughatjindja ghakare
muviparatjangwaghona

a. Omo kadishorokanga nkwara dino kushakare

Omo nakuvimona ame kutwara muvighamba vyavakurona vano navintje kapi vyakushuvire, navantje kwakatapire
mbudi yimwe tupu kuhamena omo kadishorokanga nkwara kushikuru. Muvighamba vyavo navintje nakanongwininemo
ashi nkwara dino dado kwakalire mumavoko ghavavakurona vamumati ovo kava shanenanga vana vavo mukadona
wakukwara ogho va dimburura munkarapamweshi mude ntani ghakora munyara. Vakurona vamumati mbo vakuyenda
ko tanko vaka vike ko vakurona vamukadona mbudi oyo vana kara nayo mulipatalyavo…………………………………….

b. Mulyo wankwara dino

Ame kuna kuvimona ashi nkwara dino dakalire namulyo ngudu morwashi dado kadipititranga muvakurona ntani nka
vakurona vamwe vakalire nashinka kwakehevino kavishorokango munkwara dino pakashi kavana vavo.

Kwara dino kwakwatakalitire maruha ghalikoro lino nalintje, lyamukamali nalilyakafumo mukutunga lipata lyavana vavo
ano.

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c. Likushuvo lyankwara dino nadantantani

Pantantani nkwara dino kapi dina kara nka yira momo shatumbireko shirongo. Dantantani kapi dina kuyenda ntaka
morwa dakakuwana tupu kwakonako kutovora muyeniko makura kakwara, vakorona kapi vamuyiva nampiri ndi
nantapuko yendi kundereko kwakuyi kwatera. Vino mbyo vina kurenkito ngoli nkwara dino ……

8 Conclusion/Ngoya/Hulito

Some candidates have concluded their research as expected by acknowledging their source of information and giving
references that have shown the link to their research objectives. They have indicated that they have achieved their
main research objectives.

9 References

Shihone mwakuvhura u tape maungambi ghoye”

1. Mpingana Katiku Mbava - Nyondo - 26 Nkurupemba 2024

2. Shindimba Ndumba ndimbi - Makandina - 29 Nkurupemba 2024

10 Supporting evidence/Maungambiwedereroko

Most of the candidates’ supporting evidence could not link up to their research purpose and objectives. There were
pictures and photographs attached without any explanation as to what is happening in the attached evidence.

Shiho: yira

Kutwara muviwaneka vyande ame kuna kukuyuvha ashi mbudi yande oyo naka pongayika yavhura kalimburura
mapuro ghalikonakono lyande, mpongoli nakavhura kapandura vatapi maghano navantje ovok avakavhuro kambatero
mukukafukunya mbudi oyo kayivhuro kuntwalidira nikatikitemo shitambo shalikonakono lyande.

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6103
Paper 5

GENERAL COMMENTS

There is still an improvement in this year’s examinations compared to last year because most of the candidates have
presented their findings well and were able to respond to questions posed by their examiners. Only a few candidates
are still struggling to present their findings. It was again observed that some examiners asked questions that are closed-
ended which limited some candidates when responding to details.

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC SECTIONS

Presentations of findings

Most candidates were able to present their findings in length quoting from their sources of information. The presentations
were accurate and in line with the main objective of the candidates. Even though most of the candidates presented their
research logically and accurately, there were interruptions from the examiners which causes stoppage in candidates’
presentations and detract from their main research objective. Examiners should not interrupt candidates while they are
presenting their findings. It was also observed that some examiners gave candidates a chance to play their supporting
evidence (audios) during almost the whole session instead of giving candidates time to present their findings. This
section is for speaking assessment, therefore, candidates should be given enough time to speak before they play their
supporting evidence.

Discussions and analysis of findings

The majority of candidates responded well to questions asked by their examiners. Most candidates stick to the theme
as well as their research questions and objectives as they responded to questions posed to them by examiners. It was
also noted that a couple of examiners are not yet acquainted with this manner of conducting interviews because, they
posed closed-ended questions that prevented candidates from responding in full sentences.

Shiho: yira;

Are unya hompa apititiliroVashambyu opo vatundire kuMashi? Such question does not provoke discussion but just a
single word or phrase.

3. POSITIVE COMMENTS FOR TEACHERS BOTH PAPER 4 AND 5

• Most examiners had read and marked the learners’ work.
• Examiners guided the candidates to write on their research at length, highlighting their main research objectives.
• The research topics were well formulated and this is a compliment to the examiners.
• More open-ended questions were asked by the majority of examiners that led candidates to respond at length.
• Thank you for your effort and hard work. It was pleasure moderating your work.

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398
FIRST LANGUAGE SETSWANA
6104
Paper 1

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

• Candidates are reading the passages without understanding, so teachers should train candidates how to answer
questions from the passages. Passage comprehension and word recognition are two major aspects of reading
comprehension.

• Teachers should train candidates that before answering the questions, they should read the passage and the
questions carefully. The questions are in the chlonological order, based on the paragraph.

• Teachers should teach candidates to always look at the marks allocation for each question, as candidates are
losing many marks by giving only one point while the question expect them to give two points.

• The teachers should give lot of passages to candidates to read and work on, in order to familiarize themselves
with the way the questions are asked during the final examination to train themselves and read with understanding
within a given time.

• There are some candidates who did not write their names on their answer scripts.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Section A Question 1

(a) Most of the candidates gave only one point instead of two points to this question.
Some of the expected answers were: he wanted a job/ needed money.

(b) Most of the candidates wrote only, he received a recorded message, instead of giving an implied message
such as: He did not expect a good outcome.

(d) Most of the candiadtes answered this question poorly who just mentioned babysitting instead of mentioning
that the job is not appropriate for him /or not the right job for boys.

(e) Candidates needs to look at the marks allocation per question because most of them has only provided
one point to this question instead of two points. The answers expected from this question were: there
were many weeds in the garden; The house was in a poor condition or the garden is not looked after.
Most of the candidates gave wrong answers such as the house was big with tall trees.

(f) Well answered by candidates. The question asked what shocked Martin when the door of house number
6 first opened? The expected answers was the man looked rather strange and scored marks.

(g) This question was also poorly answered. Candidates just wrote about the scary man. This question
tested candidates about the impression Martin gained from the interior of the house. It proved to be a
rather tricky question and a number of candidates lost marks.

(h) This question proved to be the most difficult in this part of the question. A large number of candidates
did not score a single mark here. This question tested candidates on why the mans’ instruction seemed
strange to Martin.

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(i) This question was well answered by some candidates. The question was about what made the work
appealing to Martin. Some of the expected answers are: the remuneration was N$800 higher than expected
and he would not be supervised.

(j) Not well answered; some candidates wrote because Emily will want a lot of money instead of the furniture
might be too heavy.

Question 2 (a)
This question was not answered well by most of the candidates. It was expected of the candidates to extract points from
the passage that suggested that the job was very important to Martin. Despite the notable adherence to the instruction
in terms of the number of notes and the concision thereof. It seems like most of the candidates were unable to grasp
from the passage that the Job was very important to Martin. They only concentrated on how Martin tried to find a job.
Candidates were expected to give points such as:

1. Martin needs money

2. Mid-term was his only chance to find a job
3. Martin under pressure
4. He reacted quickly to advertisement
5. The recorded message makes his heart sink
6. He did not show his surprise about the pay

Instead the candidates wrote the opposite answers such as:

• The candidates dwell too much on the appearance of the house and how Martin had to clean it, so that the baby
can be taken into the clean house.
• The mother was poor, so he wanted to assist the mum.
• He wanted to buy himself books and toiletries.
• He wanted to be educated to avoid suffering.
• He was upset about the job, because the house was too dusty
• Martin was a poor man
• The work will help to buy fashionable furniture
• The man wanted to stay with Martin for safety

Question 2(b)
Poorly answered because the candidates misunderstood the question in Question 2(a) so notes were not used
accordingly. A few candidates did not attempt to answer it at all which makes them to lose marks. Some candidates
mentioned how Namibian people have learned how to clean houses in order to earn themselves money.

Section B Question 3
Well answered by the candidates, who used the ideas from the passage and developed them creatively in their own
words, although most of the candidates were dwelling too much on the mistakes people often make in life, forgetting
to mention how to recover from them for them to answer the question in full. Idioms were perfectly used in some
candidates’ written work.

3. POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

Teachers are commended for their hard work and dedication to ensure that candidates were prepared for the final
examination. The Senior Education Officers in the regions and the Heads of Departments at the schools are hereby
urged to discuss the examiner’s report with the subject teachers to ensure that the recommendations are implemented.

The teachers should teach the candidates how to approach contextual questions based on the following points:
• Before you start answering the question paper, read the text and the questions carefully.
• Scan the passage to find the answer based on the question asked.
• Not all the questions will lead you to the direct answer in the passage.
• The questions are set based on the assessment objectives outlined in the syllabus as mentioned earlier.
• Look at the mark allocation for each question.
• Remember the keywords in the question, like explain, give two points / details or give reasons why.

I wish you all the best for 2025. Thank you.

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6104
Paper 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

Candidates should fill in their personal details on the cover page of their answersheet as expected.

Teachers should teach candidates the structure of writing 3 different types of essays and they should have headings, as
well as paragraphs that are based on different ideas.

Candidates should be advised to use Setswana language instead of English such as khumputara instead of computer.

Candidates continue to make grammatical and spelling errors in their essays, some of which are:
Incorrect Correct

Tshwanena tsgwanela
Mabetlele mabenkele
Kong koo
Batlhang batlang
Tswanetse tshwanetse
Go ntaya dikgang go bua dikgang
Engwe le engwe nngwe le nngwe

2. COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

1. Write a story about an occasion when someone you underestimated treated you with kindness. Kwala
kgang ka ga tiragalo fa mongwe yo o neng o mo nyaditse a ne a go tsaya sentle. Some candidates did not
understand the question; the word ‘nyaditse’ means underestimated, but candidates wrote about ‘nyetse’
marriage. However, most candidates wrote a nice narrative essay about someone they underestimated
who ended up treating them with kindness. Batlhatlhojwa ga ba tlhaloganya lefoko ‘nyaditse’ mme ba
kwala ‘nyetse’ ya lenyalo. Batlhatlhojwa ba bantsi ba ne ba kwala kgang e utlwalang ka fa motho yo ba
neng ba mo nyatsa a ne a tsaya sentle, jaaka.

2. “Dreams really do come true”. Narrate a story that actually happened after you had dreamed about it.
“Ditoro ruri di a diragala.” Anela ka kgang ka se se ileng sa diragala tota morago ga go lora toro eo. Some
candidates wrote good dreams which came true at the end, but a few candidates did not understand the
word “ditoro” which means dreams. They thought of “ditoro” was shops which made them to go out of the
topic. Batlhatlhojwa ga ba tlhaloganya lefoko “ditoro” sentle - ba tsaya e le mabenkele mme ba ne ba tswa
mo setlhogong. Batlhatlhojwa bangwe ba kwadile ka ditoro tse ba dilorileng mme tsa diragala.

3. You took a long walk through beautiful surroundings. Describe what you saw and and heard, as well as
how you felt. O ne wa tsamaya sekgalanyana mo leĪfelong le le kgatlhisang. Tlhalosa se o se boning,
se ose utlwileng le gore o ile wa ikutlwa jang. Some candidates describe the nice town or village they
have visted, while others describe a trip they took to a nice town such as Swakopmund. A few candidates
describe beautiful surroundings they have walked through, as they wrote about the beauty, mountains, the
buildings and the decorations. Batlhatlhojwa bangwe ba ne ba tlhalosa ka toropo/motse gore o montle
jang, mme bangwe ba ne ba tlhalosa sentle ka lefelo le lentle le ba ileng ba tsamaya mo go lone, le na le
ditlhaba tse dintle, mmeago e mentle go kgabisitswe sentle mo lefelong leo.

4. Write a description of your favourite place in your town and what makes that place so special. Tlhalosa
lefelo le o le ratang mo toropong ya gago, ke eng se se dirang lefelo leo gore le se tshwane le mangwe.The
candidates were supposed to describe their favourite place in a town but some candidates describe the
town. Batlhatlhojwa ba ne ba tshwanetse go tlhalosa lefelo le ba le ratang mo toropong mme batlhatlhojwa
ba ne ba tlhalosa toropo fela.

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5. “Young people should be encouraged to consume traditional foods and drinks.” Do you agree with this
statement? Justify your answer. “Basha ba tshwanetse go rotloediwa go ja le go nwa dijo tsa ngwao.”
A o dumalana le kgang e? Netefatsa karabo ya gago. Most candidates agreeing and pointed out the
advantages of it as it also preserved culture. There were also a few candidates who disagreed with
statement, as they point out that young ones grow up in the Western culture society. Batlhatlhojwa bangwe
ba ne ba dumalana ka kgang e ka go bontsha botlhokwa jwa dijo le dino tsa ngwao le gore go sireletsa
ngwao. Mme bangwe ba ne ba sa dumalane ka gore basha ba tshela le batho ba dingwao tsa segompieno
kgotsa tsa sekgoa.

6. “Animals should have rights, just like humans.” Give your opinion and justify your answer. “Diphologolo
di tshwanetse go nna le ditshwanelo fela jaaka batho” Neela kakanyo ya gago o e netefatse. A few
candidates wrote about the importance of animals to people. Some candidates wrote very well as they
point out that humans have rights but animals are living hard lives, yet the animals are the ones that are
helping or serving humans so much. Batlhatlhojwa bangwe ba kwadile ka botlhokwa jwa diphologolo mo
bathong. Mme bangwe ba kwadile sentle fa ba bontsha gore batho ba na le ditshwanelo jaaka. Ke ka
moo diphologolo le ditshwanetse go nna le ditshwanelo ka gonne ditshela botshelo jo bo bokete mme ke
tsone di thusang le go tshedisa batho.

3. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO THE TEACHERS

Thank you teachers for the time you took in teaching the learners. Your effort will bear good fruits.

Teachers should encourage candidates always to read all the topics to choose the one they understand the best.
Barutabana ba tshwanetse go ruta batlhatlhojwa gore ka dinako tsotlhe ba bale ditlhamo tsotlhe pele, mme morago ba
itse go tlhopha e ba e tlhaloganyang.

Teachers should make sure that they teach candidates different types of essays for them to choose before writing.
Barutabana ba tshwanetse go ruta batlhatlhojwa ka mefuta e meraro ya ditlhamo gore ba kgone go itse go kwala
ditlhamo sentle.

Teachers should teach candidates the correct usage of figurative language. Barutabana ba tshwanetse go ruta
batlhatlhojwa ka tiriso ya puo e botshwantshi.

Thank you teachers for the time you took in preparing the learners. Remember that, ‘One who nurtures with love is
sowing a fruitful future’/Re a leboga barutabana ka nako e le etsereng go rotloetsa batlhatlhojwa, gopolang se, ‘Mmopa
lorato o lema bokamoso jo bo nonneng’.

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6104
Paper 3

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
• The candidates should be taught to write in prose, not in point form.
• The candidates did their best to answer all the bullet point, more especially bullet number one.
• Candidates still need to be encouraged to write their answer in a critical response way. They should not only copy
their answer from the text without looking critically into the message that the author want to deliver to the readers.
• Candidates should always be encouraged to read and understand the text before attempting to answer the question
during the examination.
• Some candidates did not fill in the information on the cover page expected such as a subject name, subject code,
paper number and some wrote the wrong month.

2. COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

• Some candidates failed to read the text with understanding.
• Some candidates failed to provide evidence from the text and to give their judgement.
• This paper is made up of one question only, which is supported by sub-bullets points to lead the candidates to
respond to the question in depth.

The candidates should be able to:

• Comment on the intention, surface meaning and deeper content of the text – akgela ka maikaelelo, bokao jo bo
motlhofo le jo bo kwa teng jwa diteng jwa tema.
• Demonstrate appreciation of how feelings, attitudes and /or arguments are effectively conveyed – supa kgalaletso
ya ka fa maikutlong, mekgwa le dikomano di senogang ka teng.
• Communicate a critical, sensitive and informed personal response – bolela ka botlalo, ka tsisibalo le go bolela
dikarabo ka sebele.

Tse ke dintlha tse di botlhokwa ka boitsholo jwa ga Sponono mo bathong ba bangwe tse di supilweng ke mokwadi.
Motlhatlhojwa o tshwanetse go kwala dintlha tse mo dipolelong tse di tlhamaletseng go bapa le tema, kwantle ga go
kwala ditlhogwana tse o di neetsweng.
Boitsholo jwa ga Sponono mo bathong ba bangwe
Sponono o:
• Emela batho ba o ba tshepang (lokwalo lo tletseng dikgobo le lenyatso ga a bona karabo ya gagwe)
• Boikobo/gongwe a mo utlwisise(kamore ya me ga e a tlala o ka robala mo go yone)
• Go ikobonya- (o seka wa nteboga leboga Mogokgo, fa e ka bo e se ka ene ke ka bo ke sa dira sepe
• O lebega a batla go ipaakanyetsa go dira jaaka mogogi ka dikakanyo tse di kgobokantsweng. – bana ba tsipa ba
tsaya tsela e le nngwe fela, fa ba kgaogana e nna baswi ba mogotlha / se dira gore re ratane.
• Mme ga a itlwaetse go itshuba mo megopolong ya setlhopa – Ke nagana gore go tla be go sa siama go isa
Johannes kgolegelong

Puisano ya gagwe le Mogokgo ka tiragalo e

• Sponono o ka itshwara ka mokgwa o bonolo fa go kgonagala
• O akile (jaaka a amogetse) gore a kgone go bona Mogokgo
• Mme o bona go bua maaka go le botlhokwa – fa go raya gore a boloke botshelo
• O na le maikutlo a kutlwelo-botlhoko – e seng fa ele gore o falotsa motho
• O ne a botsa Mogokgo nnete fela fa a tsena – Ga ke na mathata, mme …
• O ne a akanyetsa kwa pele ga Mogokgo pele a gana ka phatlha ya ga Johannes ya go robala
• Mogokgo o ineetse go akediwa / go sa bolelelwa nnete
• Mogokgo a leka Sponono – ke mmoditse gore a o akanya gore go ne go le phoso go bua maaka

Mogokgo le batho ba bangwe ba bona sponono jang

• Mogokgo o mmona e le mosimane wa moXhosa yo o lenyatso
• Mogokgo o ne a ipotsa gore Sponono o na le bokgoni jwa loleme lo borethe a sa rekegele gore o bua jang – le
le go siametseng. “Ka re. E ne e le ga boraro ke bua puo ya go tshwana le e. Mme a itira jaaka o ka re o tsaya
dintlha di se kae jaaka pele
• Bagolegwa ba bangwe ba bonala ba tshepa Sponono go ba buelela. (Rona ba bangwe ba akanya
gore o bogale thata / E re dira gore re akanye …)
• Johannes o ikutlwa a tlotlegile – ke go ikutlwa ka mokgwa o mongwe wa gore ka gongwe o tseile maikarabelo a
maitsholo a ga Sponono a go batla go boela mo lenyatsong – e le gore ke boela gape fa, ke tla ithuta ka botlalo.
•

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3. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO THE TEACHERS
• First, state the statement that is addressing the question, e.g. how the author conveys the character of Sponono
in the text.
• Secondly, always quote from the text, e.g. the attitude of Sponono towards other people.
• Thirdly, the candidates should elaborate and explain more in their own words.
• Teachers should always teach candidates how to extract evidence from the text to support their answer and give
their personal view on the question asked.
• Teachers should train candidates on how to extract information from the text and critically expand it in their own
words.

Teachers have to explain the following points to the candidates when teaching aspects of Paper 3.
• What are ideas, themes and the authors intentions in the passage?
• What does the author want the reader to think /feel?
• What language, ideas might candidates notice?

Teachers should give a variety of activities to the candidates on how to approach a passage question in future.

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6104
Paper 4

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The centres have made significant efforts to support candidates in their written work. Allowing candidates to explore
various sources and attend events for evidence has enriched their understanding and insight into cultural topics.
A wide variety of topics have been selected by the centres, providing candidates with diverse areas of focus. However,
orthography remains a concern, as candidates continue to personalize items, make spelling errors, and occasionally
omit words between sentences.

Personalisation of items sekai

correct incorrect
mmidi one o mmidi one a
morabaraba o monate morabaraba e monate
molemo o o molemoyo o
mmidi o apaya mmidi o moapaya
serope se nna se le sosi serope se nna se le esi

The centres should work together, particularly as National Examinations approach, to establish a uniform format for
addressing candidates’ written coursework. Some centres still lack essential elements such as a table of contents to
guide candidates, and in some cases, appendices were not provided. Additionally, centres should ensure thorough
review of candidates’ written coursework after it has been typed. Many submissions contained avoidable typing errors
that could have been corrected with proper oversight.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

(a) Matseno
The centres performed commendably, despite some candidates struggling to express themselves effectively.

(b) Kgatlhegoyasetlhogo

Some centres provided overly general accounts, with candidates writing as though they were simply recounting a story.
They often failed to specify when and where the events took place.

(c) Maikaelelo a magolo a patlisiso

Some centres’ objectives were clear compared to other centres sekai: are tseye Moaparo wa Setswana. The candidates
wrote perfectly by mentioning gore moaporo wa Setswana one o dirwa ka eng bogologol, le gore o ne o dirwa jang le
go batla goitse pharologanyo magareng ga moaparo wa segologolo le wa segompieno, while other centres wrote
only the last part in the sentence.

(d) Dipotso tsa patlisiso

Some centres research questions were relevant to their objectives, although some questions were not stimulating
enough.

(e) Metswedi ya kitso

At some centres candidates did not provide the research questions, they only mentioned the names of people sekai
Kei le ka tsena momafelong a farologanyeng ko meletlo eneng e diragalela teng mo toropong ya Gobabis kgwedi ya
moranang a bala o4 monongwaga fa go bina ditlhopo tsa Setswana tse difarologanyeng, ebile tse dingwe di tswa
Botswana le Aferika borwa. Ke i le ka tshwara diphamolo le dividio mme ka tsenelela bangwe ba goitse ngwao ka
dipotso.

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(f) Neelano ya diphitlhelelo

Some centres produced limited content because the candidates’ questions were not engaging enough to encourage
the collection of more information. However, other centres performed exceptionally well, providing thorough and well-
presented accounts of their topics.

(g) Puisano le tshekatsheko ya diphitlhelelo

Some centres struggled to provide a clear analysis of their findings. Instead of focusing directly on the essence of
moaparo wa setso, the elements that define it, and what Batswana understand about it, they veered off course. Other
centres simply repeated questions from their dipatlisiso without offering substantial discussion or insights.

(h) Bokhutlo

Some centres effectively distinguished between modern attire and that of earlier times. They highlighted how technology
has influenced traditional clothing, noting that modern processes, such as using machines and chemicals to soften
animal skins, have altered the authenticity of traditional Batswana attire.

Pictures

The centres should ensure they provide clear pictures of the candidates and require the candidates to write captions or
descriptions beneath the images. This will help the moderator understand and contextualize the pictures, reducing the
likelihood of repetition.

3. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• The centres should make time to have a meeting before the National Examinations begin to address shortcomings
highlighted in the past reports.
• They should make every effort to review these reports thoroughly to avoid repeating the same mistakes.
• Additionally, centres should collaborate regularly to support one another in areas where challenges persist, fostering
overall improvement. The centres should continued to keep the neatness and tidyness of the candidates reports
throughout.

• Thank you for the job well done.

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Paper 5

GENERAL COMMENTS
Some centres gathered the information on the cultural artefacts as expected, although there were some centres which
excluded the recordings of the candidates when they went on the field to correct information.
It was observed that some examiners still ask questions that are not from the candidates’s research, which seems to
have causes confusion as some candidates could be heard struggling to respond to the questions asked.

1. Recording

Most of the centres’ recordings were clear as the examiners and the candidates could be heard well. The examiners
are advised to look for quite venues because at most of the centres, in their recordings there was a noise that disturb
the moderator here and there.

2. Range of sample

All centres’ samples were heard as the moderator could listen to all the range and abilities of samples.

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

The oral examinations consist of two sections: Section A for presentation and Section B for discussion. The two
sections should be treated differently.
It was a good observation that examiners were generally friendly to the advantage of the candidates.
It was also observed that at some centres the recording and video of the interviewer were too long which promt the
candidates repeat themselves.

3.1 Section A Presentation of findings

• A number of candidates were struggling to present the main findings of their research, despite the fact that most of
them were fluent. Some candidates still need guidance for them to have confindence.
• Interpretation of the assessment was well done by the examiners at some centres by putting the candidates at the
right band according to their presentation.

3.2 Section B Discussion

• The examiners are expected to challenge the assumptions made by the candidates during the discussion made by
the candidates that they did not mention it in their reports.
• Some examiners did give the candidates more opened-ended questions that allowed them to answer more easily
while other candidates became mute during the discussions.

POSITIVE COMMENTS TO TEACHERS

• The examiners applied the marking grid correctly.

• The examiner selected a variety of cultural topics. Examiners are complimented for the job well done.
• More opened-ended questions were asked by the examiners that allowed the candidates to respond in the
recommended length.
• The administrative tasks were excellently done. It made the process of moderation so much easier. Thank you for
the good job.

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408
FIRST LANGUAGE SILOZI
6105
Paper 1

GENERAL COMMENTS
• The question paper was moderate.
• Most of the learners could not answer assessment objectives, R3 and R4 respectively for question 1.
• Some questions were left unanswered across the question paper.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

KALULO A

PUZO 1

(a) Buñata bwa baituti nebailabile hande kono nihakulicwalo babañwi nebañola kalabo ye: nalatulelwa
sheleñi kono kalabo yelukile kikuli: – nabata musebezi – natokwa kufumana sheleñinyana – nasika
fumana musebezi kaufela kwana kupile – nalatulelwa

(b) Buñata bwabaituti nebakonile kualaba kalabo ya bala (1) haili kalabo yabubeli ili ya bala (4)
nebaipalelwa. Babañwi neba ñola kalabo iliñwi kono yabubeli neba sautwisisi puzo. Likalabo zene
bafa: -nafumani liñusa lelihatisizwe – muniswalele kono hakuna mutu fa mwanako ye, usiye libizo
lahao ni nombolo mi luka kuta kuwena kaputako.
Likalabo zelukile ki: - nafumani liñusa lelihatisizwe – nasika iteekela kufumana kalabo yende.

(c) Batituti nebakonile kualaba hande puzo ye kakufa kalabo yelukile ili: - nahupula kuli kukaba ni batu
babañata babafitisize likupo zamusebezi – kukaba ni batu babañata babasiya mañusa.

(d) Baituti baba alabile puzo yekibabanyinyani feela . likalabo zene bafa: - kakuli bomahe nebahupula
kuli neli musebezi wakuuta mbututu.
Kalabo ye lukile: - musebezi wakubabalela mbututu haumuswaneli – haki musebezi oli hande kumushimani

(e) Buñata bwabaituti bakonilekualaba bala 1 bapalezwi kualaba bala 4. Likalabo zene bafa: - ndu
yeo neina ni munko wamukamo mane inge kone kusina mufutumala. Likalabo zelukile: - ndu neili
mwamayemo amaswe ( kale nelili mwamayemo amande) mi simu yalipalisa neisa babalelwi – kuhula
kufiteleza tikanyo – nekuna ni lihula leliñata mwasimu.

(f) Buñata bwabaituti bakonile kualaba puzo ye kaswanelo. Likalabo zelukile: - muuna nabonahala
kusabisa – muuna nana nimilelu yetitihani – yesikakutiwa – yemisweu ni mutalimelo onesusabisa.

(g) Puzo yeneisika alabiwa hande kibaituti. Likalabo zene bafa: abuza kizañi ze? Kalabo yelukile: -
hakuna yana pila mwateni – hakuna yana ibabalela kapa kuikenisa.

(h) Puzo yebuñata bwbabaituti nebakopanya likalabo za (h) ni (i). likalabo zelukile: - muuna yanatabela
kubuluka libyana kaufela – Martin nahupula kuli libyana zakubeta nelisina tuso

(i) Baituti bakonile kualaba hande puzo ye nihakulicwalo baituti neba alaba hahulu kalabo yeamana
hahulu ni tuwelo yakafumana. Babañwi neba alaba kuli nambwetukile. Likalabo zelukile: - tuwelo ya
(N$800) neli yeñata kufita yana iteekezi kufumana (1) ni kuli hana kuzamaiswa (1)

(j) Buñata bwabaituti baalabile hande puzo ye. Nihaike neba inopa moinezi mwalikande. Likalabo
zelukile: - libyana zakubeta neli kona kuba zebukiti – libyana neli zebuima.

2 (a) - ki babasikai baba sikañola kalabo yakusufazo yamibamba, babañwi neba saalabi kaswanelo
kuñola kamibamba.
- Likalabo neba likopanya mwakatabanyana kalikañwi.
- Neba ñola lipulelonyana zesa utwahali zesa ami fapuzo yebuzizwe.

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2 (b) - Babañwi baituti neba ñola kusufazo yalikande isiñi kualaba puzo yebuzizwe.
- Litabanyana zakusufazo yeñozwi nelisazwi fatutabanyana twa 2 (a) kono neli zwelela falikande.
- Babañwi neba kopolola/ kunopa feela tutabanyana totuzwa mwalikande isi kusebelisa manzwi abona
kubonisa zibo yakusufazo.
- Baituti nebasañoli palo yamanzwi aswamela, atokwahala, babañwi neba ñola likepe ni licika
(kusahatelela butelele bwamanzwi atokwahala).
- Baituti babañwi nebasabali likande kakutwisiso.

PUZO 3
• Baituti nebasañoli toho yaliñusa nikulatelela sibupeho saliñusa.
• Babañwi nebasañoli liñusa kono nebañola liñolo, tahiso fokuñwi neba kopolola likande.
• Kusalatelela butelele bwamanzwi aswanezwi kuñolwa 250-300 (likepe ni licika feela) isike yaba makepe amalalu
nikufitelela.
• Baituti habazibi kuzwisezapili zibo yebafumani falikande lelifilwe kualaba puzo.
• Baituti habazibi sebeliso yamaswayo akubala, linguli ni kuñola lipulelo zeutwahala.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Maluti balute hahulu liñusa, sina buñata bwabaituti hane bañola likalulo zeñwi zeswana inge mañalo, tahiso, piho
ncc.
• Maticele balute baituti kualaba puzo 2 (a) katatelelano (makalelo nikuisa kwamafelelezo alitaba zetokwahala)
• Maticele balute baituti kuñola kusufazo mwa 2(b) yatimana/sifiha feela hakukonahala.
• Baituti babaliswe litimana zeñata kuli batwaele.
• Maticele batwaeze baituti kualaba lipuzo zamilibo yatatubo yaBala 3 ni 4 mwapuzo 1.
• Maticele baitusise mapampili alitatubo zakwa lilimo zakwamulaho.

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6105
Paper 2

GENERAL COMMENTS
• The overall impression with regard to the whole question paper is that, the question paper was up to standard and
they were straight forward because the candidates were able to answer a wide range of all the questions.
• Some candidates struggled with poor handwriting and poor use of punctuation marks.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Narrative (Kukandeka)

1 Write a story about an occasion when someone you underestimated treated you with kindness.
Ňola likande kuamana ni kezahalo mo yomuñwi yo neukile wanyazeleza nakuezize kasishemo.

Toho yalikande le, neitokwa batatubiwa kuli bañole likande lelikandeka. Mwalikande mo, neili kuli bañole
kaza kezahalo yeo neikile yaezahala ili mo nebakule nanyazeleza mutu yana baezize kasishemo. Lika zetalu
zeneswanelwa kutalimwa kuzona ki zecwale ka: kezahalo, kunyazeleza ni kusupeza sishemo kumukandeki.
Buñata bwabatatubiwa bao nebakile baketa toho baialabile hande. Babañwi kubona baamile falikalulo zefumaneha
mwatoho yalikande, Babañwi baamile falikalulo zepeli feela. Kamanzwi amañwi, baamile fakezahalo ni sishemo
kusiya kunyazeleza. Babañwi bafetuzi kunyazeleza ni kubea mwamukwa wasitoyo.

2 “Dreams really do come true.” Narrate a story that actually happened after you had dreamed about it.
“Kanti luli litolo liba zaniti.” Kandeka soe nesikile saezahala kasamulaho akulola tolo yeo.

Likande le nelitokwa batatubiwa kuli bakandeke zatolo yeo nebakile balola ni sene siezahezi kasamulaho akulola
tolo yeo.
Likalulo zabutokwa zakutalima kuzona mwatoho ye I zetatama: Tolo ibe yamukandeti kapa mutatubiwa
kasibili,ibe tolo iliñwi ffeela ni kuli tolo yeo ukone kuezahala kasamulaho akuikola.

Babañata batatubiwaa nebaketile toho ye mi Babañwi kubona baalabile hande, nikuli bafitile falikalulo zeo
nebaswanela kufita kuzona. Babalikani feela ki babapalezwi kualaba hande toho ye. Babañwi nebañola kalitolo
zeñatañata, Babañwi bañozi litolo zebalolile Babañwi kwandaa kuñola kazabona litolo. Babañwi nebañola
kakutalusa feela zatolo kwandaa kuñola kakukandeka.

Descriptive (kutalusa)

3 You took a long walk through beautiful surroundings. Describe what you saw and heard,and how you felt.
Ungile nako yetelele inge uzamayazamaya mwalibaka zende zeli bukaufi ni kopila. Talusa seo neuboni,neuutwile
ni o neuikutwezi.

Tohoye,neitokwa batatubiwa kuli bañole kalibaka zeshutanashutana,zeli bukaufi ni kobapila. Bataluse

zenebaboni,zenebautwile mane ni mo nebaikutwezi hane bazamayazamaya mwalibaka moo.
Buñata bwababatatubiwa baketile toho ye baialabile hande kakuñola makande atalusa. Batalusize Cwalo
zenebaboni,zenebautwile mane ni mo nebaikutwezi hane bapotapota mwalibaka ze. Nihane batalusize Cwalo,
Babañwi neba suoeza handende kuli ki libaka zeli bukaufi ni koo nebapila. Kono babañwi kubona nebabonisa
fokusweu kuli libaka zeo nelifumaneha kwahule ni konebapila. Kakuli nebabonis mwamakande abona kuli nebatama
misipili yemitelele yakukwela limbayambaya kuliba kwalibaka zekwahule,zeñwi mane lifumaneha mwamakozwan
amane anaha Namibia.

4 Write a description of your favourite place in your town and what make that place so special.
Ňola kakutalusa zasibaka seo utabela hahulu mwatolopo yahao ni sesitisa kuli sibaka seo sibe sabutokwa.

Toho ye, neitokwa batatubiwa kuli bataluse kasibaka sebatabela hahulu mwatolopo yabona ni kutalusa cwalo ni
butokwa bwasibaka seo. Ikone kuba sibaka silisiñwi feela seo batabela hahulu.
Kubabaketile toho ye Babañwi baialabile hande kakutoloka kamo neitokela toho. Babalikani kubona nebatalusa
kasibaka sebatabela hahulu kono inge sifumaneha kwande atolopo. Ni habaketile sibaka seli kwande atolopo,fafitile
kalikalulo zefumaneha watoho zecwale ka: kutalusa mabaka atisa kuli atabele sibaka seo mane Cwalo ni butokwa
bwateñi.

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Argumentative (Kukanana)

5 “young people be encouraged to consume traditional foods and drinks.” Do you agree with this statement?
Justify your answer.
Babanca baswnela kususuezwa kuca lico zasizo”. kana walumelelana ni taba ye? Fa kemelo yahao.

Toho ye, neili kuli batatubiwa bañole kakukanana kapa kakulumelelana ni taba yefilwe. Mwamuñolelo wabona neili
kuli babonise kemelo yabona mane Cwalo ni kufa mabaka atiile habayemi kwalineku leo. Babañata batatubiwa
bakonile kuketa fatoho ye: Babañwi kubona babonisize hande likemelo zabona kakufa maikuto abona kutiiseza
kemelo yabona. Kono Babañwi kubona babonisize fokusweu kuli bayemela maneku kaufela mwanako iliñwi.
Babayeme kwalineku leliñwi batolokile hande butokwa bwalico ni lino zasizo mwamibili yaluna halibapiswa ni lico
ni lino zasikuwa.

6 Animals should have rights, just like humans.” Give your opinion and justify your answer.
Lifolofolo liswanela kuba ni liswanelo,sina batu.” Famaikuto ni kemelo yakalabo yahao.

Toho ye, neitokwa batatubiwa kui bañole kakulumelelana kapa kusalumelelana ni taba yefilwe. Kubonisa kemelo
yabona kakufa maikuto ni mabaka atiile.
Buñata bwabatatubiwa baketile toho ye,baialabile hande. Ni haike kuli Babañwi nebayemela likemelo zepeli
kwandaa kuyemela lineku lililiñwi. Babañwi babonisize hande lineku kobayemela kakufa maikuto abona autwahala.
Babalikani feela bazwile hanyinyani mwatoho kakufa feela liswanelo batu,kwandaa kulibapanya ni liswanelo za
lifolofolo.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teachers are encouraged to teach the syllabus and complete it on time, so that time can be created for revisions
for mastering of all the skills.
• Teachers are encouraged to provide a lot of activities in order to train the candidates on how to interpret questions
in paper 2.
• The structure of an essay must be taught to the candidates which are: headings, introduction, content and the
conclusion.
• The types of essays must be taught to candidates on how to go about each type of essay such as narrative,
descriptive and argumentative.
• The use of punctuation marks, orthography and grammar must be focused on continuously.

NB: Teachers are to encourage candidates to keep up with the recommended word limit/length of the essay at all times.

Teachers to revisit their syllabus.

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6105
Paper 3

GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the candidates’ work in comparison to the previous year, the question paper was moderate, but some of
the candidates were unfamiliar with the terms used in the text. This is uncommon for candidates who grew up in urban
areas where disputes can arise at any time and everyone gets involved in a fight. While for those that live in rural areas,
it was much easier, as some of the terms are used frequently and this helped them to analyse the text. Some learners
wrote in point form. Some candidates wrote their answers, following each prompt without mixing their answers to show
their critical approach. Some candidates wrote less than 250-300 words while some could not analyze the text but could
only generalize about everything. Candidates could copy the text, which should not be the case. All candidates are
advised to respond to the three prompts given by mixing their points, without answering points by following the prompt
pattern, and how prompts follow each other. Candidates are advised not to write the introduction and conclusion.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

The first prompt of the question was well answered by most of the candidates, while some candidates did not criticize
the question, but they only copied word by word, as they were written in the text. Most of the candidates wrote in prose
form, and only a few candidates wrote in point form.

Some of the expected answers were:

- Bupilo bwamifilifili
- Lindwa nako kaufela
- Likomano mwahala batu
- Litaba zeo neliliba bo Induna nako kaufela
- Basali bao nebatamile litenge kuli bayo lwana
- Kulitela feela yanatile mwana bona kuli bayolwana niyena

The second prompt of the question was also answered well by most candidates. Some were able to choose points that
suited this prompt and they could use their own ideas and they could give practical examples. Some candidates did not
elaborate more on the points picked from the text.

Some of the expected answers were:

- Kuhapeleza kulwana
- Lifapani zeo nelitiswa ki litoyo
- Kuitusisa lipulelo zemaswe
- Kufundelela babañwi
- Kufumbelana

Most of the candidates did not answer correctly the third prompt, even though some could only pick out the points from
the text without analyzing it. Some candidates copied the sentences line by line, while answers were supposed to be
written in prose form.

Some expected answers were:

- Batu nebamat kusabisa bupilo bwabona
- Kupalelwa kukutisa mioko kona sabo
- Kulila kona sabo
- Kuba mwasabo yakunatiwa
- Kusaba kuli mutu nakashwa

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Candidates should be informed that they need to write 250-300 words and not less than that or more than that.

Teachers to give more practical activities to prepare for paper 3 final examinations. NB: Learners should be taught to
mix up answers from each given prompt, instead of giving their answers following the patter of the prompts, meaning
answering prompt by prompt.

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6105
Paper 4

GENERAL COMMENTS
• Many grammatical errors were noted and candidates still lack knowledge of the proper use of common punctuation
marks.
• Verification of samples should be done before sending them for moderation. The examiner must verify the sampled
audios to ensure that all chosen candidates are sampled, together with the candidate’s script.
• It is the responsibility of the centers to make sure that all recorded audios of candidates are sent along with sampled
audios.
• Examiners should mark the research projects of candidates carefully and award necessary marks using the marking
grid.
• Avoid putting ticks on the paragraph, but read and understand what candidates have written before awarding marks.
• Candidates should be encouraged to provide relevant pictures related to the topic of choice, rather than attaching
pictures where candidates are posing with individuals without captions.
• Candidates (some) were unable to formulate research topics. It is the responsibility of the teacher to guide and train
learners to come up with proper researchable topics.
• Most candidates in almost every center did not or failed to provide evidence of their data collected.

COMMENTS ON INTERPRETATION OF THE ASSESSMENT CRITERIA.

2.1 Purpose or interest in the topic/objective/artefact

In some cases, candidates were able to come up with researchable topics. An interest from candidates was
shown as they chose cultural topics that reflect different living style of the olden days(past).

Candidates have to write down their chosen topic, come up with a researchable topic that has to do with culture/
traditional lifestyle and they have to be approved by the examiner. Most candidates came up with good, researchable
topics that showed curiosity on which they could find informative data. However, a few candidates came up with
topics that could not be researched.

2.2 Main Research Objectives (Mulelo wa Mutomo)

Examiners should put more effort into guiding candidates on how to write the objectives of the research (mulelo
wamutomo); mwakalulo ye, kimo muituti ulukela kufitisa mulelo wahae wo utisize kuli akete toho yapatisiso yeo,
kamanzwi amañwi; kufa mabakatuna haketile toho yeo, seo muituti ubatoziba kabutungi kuamana ni toho yapatisiso
yeketilwe. With good research objectives a candidate will be able to formulate proper research questions. The
examiner should emphasize the purpose of this component to candidates.

2.3 Research Questions/Research objectives. (Lipuzo zatiko)

In this case, with the guidance of the examiner, candidates should be able to make a list of open-ended questions
about the topic they have chosen. They should prepare some questions that can be used to gather more data
based on the topic of choice. Most candidates were able to formulate standard questions well that could lead to
extracting more information from their sources. Some candidates rather wrote statements instead of questions.
What, Who questions should be discouraged among candidates as these types of questions only provide short
straight answers.

2.4 Source of information. (Mukwa wakufumana Litaba ni kulinyakisisa)

Mostly this part is where candidates need to indicate the types of sources they have used to gather information.
For example, the Internet, radios, television, libraries, museums or questionnaires. Highlight who or what they
have use for data collection. Although candidates have listed or indicated the types of sources used, this is done
for the sake of the formate of the research not necessarily for the purpose of the research. The examiners should
emphasise what the sources are for and why candidates need to gather as much information as possible from
different sources.

2.5 Presentation of findings

Candidates have to present their topic, while clarifying the interest, main objectives and the kind of sources that
they have used to collect data. Most candidates did well in this stage, as they were able to present their topic and
findings, what they are interested in based on the topic. Clarity of the objectives was done well. This section includes
two parts of the research: the introduction and the main findings. It has been observed that many candidates do
not differentiate between the two. First and foremost, candidates have to present the topic, clarifying their interest,
main objectives and the sources that were used to collect data. Most candidates did what was required while a few

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could only start by stating their findings.
• Teeleza wena mutatubi; mwakalulo ye, baituti kimo balukela kuandulula mulelo wamutomo, mukwa wakufumana
litaba, lisebeliso zesebelisizwe mani cwalo ni matata kappa mo muituti nakile azamaela hanaza aeza patisiso
yahae.
• Muituti abone kuli mwakalulo yeswana kimo azibahaza batu bao naikopanyize nibona, manicwalo niizeñwi
zetokwahala zene tusize kwa kufumana mañusa.
• Mutatubi abone kuli baituti ba kone kuzibahaza hande toho yapaitisiso, kuutwahaza hande mulelo wamutomo.

In some cases, candidates failed to present their findings as they could only outline what they had already found out
from elders and treated it as the whole part of their research topic, written in short summary form.

2.6 Discussion and Analysis of findings

Candidates should discuss the information gathered from their sources and when discussing candidates should at
least acknowledge their sources (people who provided them with information).

Candidates with the guidance from the examiner should not write in an essay format but rather report as they
acknowledge their sources. Candidates should refrain from referring to themselves as the “Researcher” “Mubatisisi”
e.g Mubatisisi naizo fumana kuli baikale ne…, which is incorrect. They would rather acknowledge for example
Kakuya kabo Simataa Simataa nebaize/nebanitaluselize sina cwana…

2.7 Conclusion
Candidates have to sum up their findings, outlining the lessons learnt while conducting their research. They may
also give advice, write a comparison on how it was in the past compared to the present, giving changes that took
place and maybe, why the changes happened. Most candidates tried to sum-up their findings and outlined what
lesson they had learnt. A number of candidates concluded the research report in a narrative form, by narrating
their findings.

2.8 References
This is where candidates should list sources of information/ where they have gathered the information, using the
recommended referencing system

For example
• Mr Simataa Simataa, 1950, Linyanti Village
• Ki monekuinezi, VN Ntelamo,1992, MacMillan Publisher
• www.namibiancultures.infor.na
• NBC, Ñwanyi FM,Silozi Service

Finally, the answers to be written should be appropriated to the question given. Direct lifting may likely sway the answer
to have a different meaning to the question at the time, resulting in no marks or fewer marks awarded. Close reading is
needed to fully understand what the demand of the question is.

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
Most candidates seemed to engage pretty well with both Section A and Section B, respectively. Most candidates
who understood the passages, provided correct answers as there was an evident level of clear detail and accurate
understanding of the passages and in turn candidates expressed themselves accordingly, for example in 1 (a), (b), (c),
(j) and partially in Question 3.

There were relatively few instances of response areas being left blank. When this did occur, it was 2 (b) and Question 3.

On some scripts there was a noticeable difference in successful conveying of points in written Thimbukushu between
those questions requiring close reference to the material and those asking for a candidate’s own ideas. In some
instances, the answers requiring own ideas lacked sufficient clarity or precision to gain any credit.

As instructed by the mark scheme, the vast majority of candidates failed to differentiate or comprehend those specific
questions by themselves and their demands, which was most observable in questions 1 (d), 1 (e), 1 (g), and 1 (h).
As a result, the answers were observably poor and did not match the questions. There was evidence to suggest that
some candidates found the material quite challenging, especially where ‘own words/rephrasing’ was required to show
understanding of the passage in Question 1 which was mainly on 1 (d) and 1 (j) where answers were farfetched.

Copying of material from the passage without appropriating it to the question asked was one the most common reason
for marks not to be awarded. In some instances of the questions, a case of this was observed on Question 1 (d, g
and h again), for example, with very few candidates getting a mark on both 1(d and g). In questions, that require
understanding and implying of the text to arrive at the answer, little to no credits given if the answer does not meet the
demand of the question. If it is noticed that certain vocabulary items like in Question 1 (e) have few synonyms. In such
cases, the original term can be used but then it needs a context of the candidate’s own, in order to show understanding
and thus be awarded marks. Most often, this requires changing certain words to fit the context. However, these cases
were sometimes inaccurate and/or had contrived or contradictory meanings to the original meaning so appropriate and
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meaningfull link of the question was observed again. How the answer is to be provided is needed to be demonstrated
so that what is copied is fully understood (as that was sometimes the case with 1, b and c). This again, points to
understanding the passage, knowing when or what question demands direct lifting or a bit of rephrasing for it to answer
the question. Some gave short answers, without relevant detail to the question.

In question 2 (a) a lot of unnecessary facts were lifted from the passage. Stick to the demand of the question, which is
the specifics of what it wants. Try putting the question and the answer given and see if it works flawlessly. In Question
2 (b) and Question 3, there was a tendency to offer too many words in those questions with specific word count, though
not entirely strict, it is still implied that words should be within the proximate word limits. Replication of same facts
should also be avoided for a candidate to be graded better. This should also be understood that less than required word
limits does not earn a candidate more marks. Appropriating the questions to fit the question asked for 2 (a) and 3 is
vital. With 2 (b), although not badly performed, it should still be emphasised that own words where and when necessary,
punctuating and transitional words (correct linking words) be utilised as it does not allow for top band(s) if those are not
observed. Question 3, is asking for three specifics. Let those three items be all addressed in response to the question
as candidates write. The ideas should be organised, arranged in a particular order and be expanded in accordance not
just lifting and listing them as answers. Repetition of the passage is becoming a norm which should be discouraged.
Consideration of the types of task and form should be adhered to (letters, report, article, diary, speech, review or story).
It should have the form (the look) and it should sound like the type. A speech should not sound like a common short
story. There should also be appropriate use of idioms and proverbs when writing.

2. COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

Dipwero 1/Question 1

Pamuve padi mepwero noyitaterera yomumahuthero, othi ne thimetitho ngenyu eshi ndimi pakuhutha ne ngo dhipiture
yira kemo, nomuhingo ghumwe ghokureghera ghushitemununa vene kate muthitoya yoyihe mukahero kayo.
• Dhundeke keho pa KUT 1-4… nawanuke mungonda mukukughoma yokukone pakuhutha noruhuthitho rokuroghera.
• Kurughanitha keho thitoyamingwa pakuneghanga muyira muthotoya oku dina tundu dihuthero nongepi edi hana
dihungeka keho pano.
• Ruhuthitho mwene kumepwero yira: ‘nye, pashanye, ngepi edi…, tjwathanithe, kwatitheko, toyeko noghamweya.
Ngoyipwe kukudeghura pakuyinunganga nothitoya.

D1 Nomora dhoDipwero Mashingweneno/Yomudyo Mapenda YY

(a) Pashanye gha kasherire Martin -- Gha nyandire yirughana/gha shanine [2] KUT1
kumatangero ghothithimwetwedha? kutambura masherenyi.
Toye ko yinu yiwadi. -- Mbadi gha wanine yirughana/ gha
wanine mahuthero ghokukuhupwera.
(b) Pashanye gha kutovoherire Martin apa gha -- Gha wanine ñumbu dhokukwatera [2] KUT1
fungwene nomora dhomatjingithoghana? -- Mbadi gha taterere yitundamo mwene
Toye ko yinu yiwadi.
(c) Pashanye gha kuhupwererire? Gha ghayarire eshi kuna kukara dikuta [1] KUT1
dyawanu awa hana kushesha yirughana/
hasheshi/awa sha thighe mambudhi
ghawo.
(d) Pashanye gha ghamberire Martin eshi, Kurera ne mbadi ya mu roghera/ [1] KUT3
“Nawe te”? mbadi yirughana mwene yokuroghera
harumyana.
(e) Yinu munye yokuhatera kundhugho eyi Ndhugho dha kuruparire (dha karire [2] KUT4
ya ningithire Martin ghemane panunda thiku dhiya) nodyango dishikungu/
kughutho ghokwingena mo? Toye ko yinu dyoghurugha/ dyango dyodidhiro.
yiwadi
(f) Nye ya tetukithire Martin apa dha Katughuru gha monekire ghothitetu/ [1] KUT1
yandhurukire thero dhondhugho katughuru gha karire nodyendo
dhonomora 6? dyomvi dishikumbumbaghura nomeho
ghokutongoroka.
(g) Yighayadhara munye gha karire nayo Mbadiko oyu gha tungire mo/mbadiko [1] KUT3
Martin pakwingena mwimi dhondhugho? oyu gha pakere thinga kudyango ngambi
kudikenitha.

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(h) Pashanye gha monekerire marawero -- Katughuru gha shanine kehethi thi pwe [2] KUT1
ghakatughuru yu yira thitetu kwaMartin? kurongeriwa no kupunguriwa KUT3
Toye ko yinu yiwadi. -- Martin gha ghayarire eshi ghushwi
ghoghuheya ne mbadiko mudyo.
(i) Nye ya nyanyukithire Martin kuthirughana Ndjambi ngambi yiruwera (N$800) ya [2] KUT1
thi? Toye ko yinu yiwadi. pitakanine yitaterera yendi (1) karo
mbadiko mukevereri wendi (1).
(j) Pashanye gha thimbadhekerire Martin Ghuremu ghoghushwi ghoyinu [1] KUT1
kuwana mughamweni ghomukamadi? mundhugho/ghushwi mbadi ghuredhu
pakughudhamuna
Ngoyo KUT1=10
KUT3=03
KUT4=02
15

Dipwero 2

(a) Yinu munye yidi muthitoyamingwa eyi yina kuneghedha eshi thirughana thi’ thakarire mudyo kwaMartin.
Tjange mahuthero ghoye mumuhingo ghoyindjomadheka (•). Mbadi wanyanda kurughanitha mañando
ghoye ghothinda. [15]
Yitaterera Yindjomadheka noMakamweneno pakuhutha.
Hanuke hapwe kahutha pakukudhemena thikuma kudipwero. Kuyera kuyitjanga nokuyighamba. Mone
eshi kuna nomo mahuthero ghokukuketa, kokughanongonona ghughakonakona eshi pashanye sho
ghakararere mahunga. Kuyikudeghura.

Mutuhaki kuna kuneghanga yighamba oku ghana tundu mahuthero pamitara dhimwe, ene ngeshi
hotjanga yomutuhaki mbadi sho yikone kuhutha dipwero dyapo, pathingi thomango.

(a) Kukehe dighano edi ghana tapa kare kumasho ghokukuma ku 15, gha kona kuwana dipenda dyofotji.
1. Martin gha nyanda masherenyi (agha gha nyanda thikuma);
2. Maturumuthero ghoghukatji ghothinema, roruvedhe rwendi ngenyu rokukona kuwana yirughana;
3. Martin gha kashire/dhamine mukupira yirughana/masherenyi (gha kashire/na nyanda yirughana);
4. Gha tutumenine matjingithoghana (shipethi ruvedhe, Martin gha karire kare pafunguna);
5. Mutjima wendi wa dhamine apa gha wanine ñumbu dhokukwatera;
6. Ene gha konine kuhutha … (gha myakire mapeghe ghendi no kuthigha ngenyu mbudhi);
7. Mudhimu wendi wa yavukire, apa gha fungunine katughuru yokuhatera kuyirughana;
8. Gha nyanyukire thikuma kufunguna: “Nhii, ghuhunga! Nhii, thiwana vene! Ghuhunga!”;
9. Kuna kukudhekera eshi yinu kukona kwipa: “ngeshi nawadhimu ko!”;
10. Gha nyanyukire kwanyina: “Yokuniroghera vene!”;
11. Ghukaro ghondhugho mbadi wa mwomapithire, dyo gha ghayarire: “Mbadiko vene yokukona
kutenda ko”;
12. Ghukaro wamutapithirughana mbadi wa mwomapithire;
13. gha minine ñando: mbadi gha shanine kutjitjupitha oya katughuru;
14. ndjambi endi yiruwera yishitaterera yokupitakana (N$800 mudyango dyo N$200);
15. Mbadi gha neghedhire thitetu thendi thokuhatera kundjambi ngambi yiruwera, yoyishi maghana
gha tjindja maghano ghakatughuru ya;
16. gha shambererire mukupira mukevereri: kuhoreka rumwemwe;
17. gha nyanda munu ghokumughamwena: maghana gha pomokitha thirughana;
18. kumukwata kumuromo.

[Kehe ghano mahuthero ghokuroghera noghomudyo muthitoyamingwa kukona

kughatawedhera] [15]

(b) Muhati ghana ka rughanitha yindjomadheka yidi mu (2 a) kuwiru mukatjanga makamweneno mumuhingo
ghokuthimwetwedha.
• Muhati mumakonakono ngo gha kona kurughanitha mañando ghendi thinda, thikumenenapo
mañandonunga, noyighororitho yokunegha matjwathaneno pakutjindjanga, dina kuñandohangera,
pakunongononanga yikara eyi yina kakutjindja nokurughanithapo keho ñandonunga dhokuroghera.
• Yitoyadimukitho, thikumapo kathara ngokakona kumonadhekamo mukunegha apa thina kapweranga
thighamba.
• Kushimbapo ngenyu yokukutwara kuthivarero thoghure ghomañando, ene yighuna tjwathana thiwana edi
shokayinungadheke mughuhunga.

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Dipwero 3

3 Shure dhosekondere mumukunda ngadhikukumuna mukatapa thighamba thomatjokedhero kwawanuke

hongcara dhokuhurerera mumwaka, kuhatera kumakwirero agha hatendanga hanu kehepa’ muyipara,
ngepi ghokughanyeha nongepi ghokupweyukamo.
Ghure ghothighamba thoye ngoghukume pakatji komañando 250 ‒ 300.

Yitaterera yomahuthero ne yino:

Mukuninga eshi mwanuke ghakanduke mapenda ghendi, mitara dhodhihe dhihatu dhodipwero gha kona
kugumako.

• Yikene karo eshi yinu munye keho ghana kughamba pororuvedhe, makwirero ndi, kughanyeha ndi,
kupweyukamo. Yipwe kukunegha karo eshi ghana rongeka thiwana yitjanga mbadi kuyikosha.

• Opa yinyangerekadha yoyikuru yidipo, mwanuke mbadi ghahukuruke thitoyamingwa.

• Matjokedhero ngenyu eshi pakuwana mahuthero ghendi, yira thikapamuve, ghaghayandjurure keho
ghamutawedhere kakumithamo thivarero. Poghuno mutara, ndimi dhoThingirisha tundeko dhodhiheya.
• Yitjanga yira: othi ha toyanga eshi “personal time-table” mbadi yidi mudyo kutjanga muThimbukushu.
Kutongora yinu pakughamba vene eshi mwanuke gharoghera kukara nomakurando ghoyikuhanga yendi
yokehe diyuwa. Hanuke hatjange muThimbukushu vene, yoyitaterera.
• Hanuke hatwethe kurughanitha mughuhunga mathaghano nomatadhi noghufudhi ghumwe ghondimi, mbadi
kuyangerangamo vene dithaghano dyodi didi pepi.

3 MAGHORWERO GHORUKOREKITHO
Agha maghano (yikaramo yorukorekitho) mbadi ghamuthineneko; agho kwa gha tambithera mukutapa
maghorwero kwawakoreki eshi ngo rudhi romaghano munye ghokuroghera ghokukona ha rughanithe
hahaterimo muyitjanga. Hakashure kuna kuwataterera ha kundeke yitjanga yawo kumaghano
ghomuthitoyamingwa no ka gha rundurura mughuhunga mumañando ghawo hathinda.

Makwirero agha ha tendanga hanu mughuparo:

• Kutjimaperera (Na yi kuruperire eshi ñanyi ni kare ghofotji ghopapawo);
• Kukununeka (Nunderero dhange kudidhiko dyohasha ko, naro dhange dhokutangerera);
• Mumeho ghendi, thirughana thoghukareripo ne thiredhu (kushupata dipurapure dyodiru, kwimana
kughutho dhamupanguri no kukarera po hashipiri mirandu);
• Kunutha (Mbadi na kuhongire mitara dhodhiheya yoyishi ruvedhe roruheya na pepaghurire naSara
– mushere wange ghomupya. Paruvedhe rofotji, oku me mudiyugho dyomakonakono – pakutjanga
makonakono – kupita ngambi mbadi ghana kuhongo);
• Kunyatha hamweya (ghukuthindadheka mumbunga dhawakashure);
• Mbango (Eyi na monine mbadi na yi tawire/mahodhi ghoghupata … ngepi edi nga yi hokoka?).

Ngepighokunyeha no kupweyukamumakwirero:
• Koneke, atwe ne mbadi twahungami (twanu kukona kutenda makwirero ghomengi muyipara yetu,
ghamweya ne ghomengi shemwa noghamweya ne ghomapu);
• Kukara mumakurupero (Kuyenda kughutho no kuyereka kukondja – ngeshi hokaranga
noyighayadhara eshi mbadi mbo yi kona ne mbo kufere kurunduruka);
• Kukara mughushemwa (nyina – ya ka pita no na runduruka);
• Kukwimanena (Yinu yi ya nyanyenithire tate no gha ni thinenekire ningene muyiyeka. Mbadi na
tjimapire mukuneghedha yinyeghenya yange nodyarero dino shime ha ni yi kwera.);
• Kutjimapa no kukutha yirota yoye (ene yirota yange ya karire mudyo thikuma);
• Tjimape kehe pano (gha kona kukutupa);
• Wa kutapa (Mbo na shana ndhira dhokuhungeka yinu).

[Kehe ghano mahuthero ghokuroghera ghomudyo muthitoyamingwa kukona kughatawedhera]

Rughanithe thikorekitho (Thirameka B) thoyirughana yoYitjangatambithera (Dipepa 1) yokutoya [15] no
kutjanga [5] mukutapa mapenda.

Hahaterimo ha roghera kurughanitha mañando ghawo hathinda popa ha hurera. [20]

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6106
Paper 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

This year, candidates demonstrated high and varying degrees of proficiency in the Continuous Writing paper. While
many displayed commendable skills in language usage and good organization of ideas, there was a trace of creativity
and well-structured pieces of writing. There were still areas that need improvement for some candidates but answers
were much better compared to the previous year.

2. COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

Most of the learners opted for the first question and the second most answered was question 2 followed by question 3
while question 6 was the least answered by candidates.

1 Write a story about an occasion when someone you underestimated treated you with kindness.
Tjange thithimwetwedha thokuhatera kuthihokoka apa gha kuneghedhire ghunongo munu oyu wathire.

2 “Dreams really do come true.” Narrate a story that actually happened after you had dreamed about it.
“Ghushemwa, yirota kukumenena mo”. Tjange thithimwa ethi tha hokokire mughushemwa munyima
dhokuthirota.

3 You took a walk through beautiful surroundings. Describe what you saw and heard and how you felt.
Wa yendaghurire rure mumango ghomawa thikuma. Shingonone eshi nye wa monine no kuyuva, ndani edi wa
kuyuvire.

4 Write a description of your favourite place in your town and what makes that place so special.
Tjange yishingonona yodyango edi wa haka mudoropa dhoye nonye eyi ya di yenga.

5 Young people should be encouraged to consume traditional foods and drinks. Do you agree or disagree
with this statement? Justify your answer.
“Hamuregheya ha tjokedhiwe mukudy no kunwa yothitjo”. Ghuna kwatitha ko thighamba thi ndi? Tanarithe
dihuthero dyoye.

6 Animals should have rights, just like humans. Give your opinion and justify your answers.
“Yiyama ya kona kukara nomangcamu, thika hanu”. Tape ñumbu hoye ghutanaritha dihuthero dyoye.

Expectations/Yitaterera of questions

Q1/D1
Introduce the person you underestimated and explain why you held that perception.
Provide context about the situation or relationship that led to your initial judgment of them.
Describe a specific moment or event where this person treated you with kindness.
Detail what happened, what their kind actions were, and how those actions impacted on you.
Explain how their kindness changed your perspective of them or on underestimating others in general.
Mention the place where the actions took place.
If possible the initial time e.g. morning, evening, afternoon and so on.
Reflect on the lessons learned about empathy, humility or making assumptions about people.

Yipwe keho kuneya eshi thihokoka ethi thahokokire muruvedhe rongandji yira: mwaka, thivaka, thiko, kaghonda

Mwanuke gha kona kuneghedha ghukaro ghokunyatha munu. Munu oyu ghamonekanga yira ngo mbadiko mudyo,
mbadiko yokukona kukutendera ngambi kughamwena. Munu oyu wadimuka, wa mumona kare. Kuna karo shime
ghakare shi ndani ghuna kumumona ene ghuna munyatha popo.

Aye ghakutenderire yoyiwa. Aye gha kughamwenine, eyi ghapirire kutaterera. Thihokoka thi ne thikare eshi yodiye
mwanunke endi mutjangi thahokokera, mbadi munu ghumweya.

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Q1/D2
Begin by describing the dream or vision, focusing on vivid details, emotions, and how it seemed meaningful or unusual.
Explain how the imagined details became a reality. Include the circumstances that made this happen and how the two
were linked.
Discuss your feelings when the dream came true and what you learned about the nature of dreaming or visualising,
coincidences, or aspirations.

Thithimwetwedha thi thikare nonunderero endi matatekero ghatho, eyi yamuningithire kate gha kare nothirumbera thi
thongandji.

Ghatjange yikambekedha yendi, yinu eyi ghana shana kakara. Dirura dyothirughana thongatji, endi kukara nothinu
thongandji. Mbadi yirota yo muturo, mbadi yo kukurotitha hanu muturo. Ghatongore edi ya kahokokire mughushemwa
muyipara yendi. Thirota thi ne thikare thendi thinda mbadi munu ghumwe.

Q3/D3
Set the scene by explaining why you took the walk and where you were.
Use rich, vivid details to describe what you saw (colours, landscapes), heard (sounds of nature, distant voices) and felt
(Feelings, weather, textures underfoot).
Share how the surroundings affected your mood or mindset ‒ whether they brought peace, joy or inspiration.
Focus on immersive description to transport the reader into the setting. Maintain a reflective and contemplative tone.

Ghakare eshi muthiko thotho thofotji ene gha yendaghurerire kumango ghokukutjaka ghomukangiringiri ko. Mango
ghomumukunda, mudoropa ngambi muñurumbara. Ghashingonone eyi gha monine, kuyuva nokukuyuva. Ene mbadi
ghashingonone mango gho mumadoropa ghokukuthiyathiya. Kurughanitha mañando ghokushingonona yinu, mango,
hanu ghukaro ndanin yikuyuva.

Q4/D4
Introduce your favorite place, providing its name and location.
Paint a vivid picture of what the place looks, sounds and feels like. Include unique features that distinguish it from other
locations.
Explain why it is your favourite place ‒ how it makes you feel and the memories or experiences tied to it.
Write in a warm and inviting tone, emphasizing your emotional attachment and why it is special to you.

Dyango dyomudoropa dhawo endi mumukunda edi ghahaka. Ghatjange eshi yinu munye eyi yayenga dyango di. Dikare
dyango dyofotji ngenyu. Yinu munye yoyiwa yakara kudyango di. Yowe ghothinda, mbadi hayendhoye. Kushingonona
keho eshi ngo nye eyi wahakera dyango di.

Mutjangi ghakone kutoya dina dyodoropa nodina dyodyango di dyakara mudoropa dhi endi mumukunda.

Q5/D5
Clearly state whether you agree or disagree with the statement.
Present strong points to support your opinion. For example:
If you agree: Discuss the cultural, health and economic benefits of consuming traditional foods and drinks.
If you disagree: adress concerns such as limited variety, potential health drawbacks or the need for adapting to modern
tastes.
Acknowledge and refute opposing views to strengthen your stance.
Summarize your position and reinforce why it is important for young people.
Write persuasively, using evidence, examples and logical reasoning while sticking to one side.

Mwanuke ghakona kukwatitha endi kukananitha thighamba thi. Kutorora mutara ghofotji ngenyu. Ghatape keho yitambo
yomutara oghu ghana torora, mukutanaritha dihuthero dyendi. Kutapa ghushupi mwene, nomaghukenu kuthirughana.
Kukutha ghudimuki wendi, eyi ghadimuka, eyi ghayuva no yimwe yi ghakuhonga. Ngeshi oku ghana kukananitha ne,
gha tape thitambo ethi ghana kukananithera, yira pamwe ghuyi wapo.

Q6/D6
State your position clearly ‒ whether you believe animals should have rights similar to humans or not.
Provide strong reasons to justify your opinion. For example:
If you agree: Discuss ethical, environmental and biological reasons for granting animal rights.
If you disagree: Focus on practical, societal or evolutionary arguments against equating animal rights to human rights.

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Kutanaritha: Kutendera yiyama mango mwene ghokurara, kuyipa yidya no yinwa yoyiwa yoyikenu payitere mwene
yokudyera nokunwena. Kuyogha yimuna/yiyama. Kuyithiya yikwerukure. Yi kuyendawere, mbadiko kuyipagha,
kutughamwene tukare nomuve ghoghuyaghave. Mbadi wakupumura yiyama, mbadiko kuyirughanitha thikuma ngambi
kuyipagha. Kureta yiyeramo muditunga, Kuyita nayo mena ghokuroghera

Kukananitha: Kutapa yitambo yo kupira kukwatithako dighano di, Yimwe; ayo ne mbadiko maghano, ayo ne yiruwanitho,
yikughamwenitha yawanu, ayo ne kukona kuyipitha mukunda, mithitu, mapya. Mbadi ya dimuka shiveta ngambi
muragho ne thinu munye. Kukona kupagha hanu no mbadi yaghambanga.

Mamitiri ghakona keho kudeghura hanuke koyino yina karandako:

Thishwi - Kuhonga thishwi thoyithimwetwedha. Eshi thithimwetwedha ne thakona kukara ndani noThiparatjangwa,
mwingeneno, yikaramo nomaghoyero.

Mwanuke ne ghakona kuturithapo thiparatjangwa thendi thinda mbadi kutjangurura dipwero. Kudeghura hanuke
edi ghokukona kutjanga mwingeneno mwene ghokukona kukoka hatoyi. Kudeghura hanuke edi ghokurongathana
maghano ghawo mumiyira teta no ngepi edi dha royera kupitura miyirateta muyitjanga yawo. Kudeghura hanuke hakone
kughoya yithimwetwedha yawo thiwama; Kukwatakana eyi hana tjanga ngambi kuturithapo dighano dyoghuhura edi
dina karoghera kughoya maghano kuthirughana /dipwero.

Hanuke hakona kukara noghundondoro gho kukona kutotithapo yinu endi yihokoka papagho hathinda. Eyi yina
kughamwena hanuke mukutota maghano ghomapya ghomawa muyitjanga yawo.

Hahongi hakona keho kudeghura hanuke thiwana mumangonda, kuwahonga eshi ngepi di ghokutjanga mughuhunga.
Hahongi haroyera keho kughorora hanuke mumangondahongere, kushwenena no kughorora eyi hana kupira kurughana
thiwana endi kukumithamo ene kukwatitha ghutanaritha eyi hana kuhungeka.

Kutjokedha hanuke hatjange thiwana.

Kudeghura hanuke harughanithe mathaghano mughuhunga muyitjanga.

Kuhonga hanuke muwero ghomañndo

Kuhonga hanuke, yitoyarandathana, yitoyadimukitho. Rutjangitho rwayo no ngepi di ghokuyirughanitha.

The performance in paper 2 was not bad, it was praiseworthy, with many candidates demonstrating language proficiency
and some good organizational skills. Addressing the identified areas for improvement will certainly contribute to further
improvement of the quality of writing skills among candidates.

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Paper 3

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
It was discovered that the majority of candidate’s work was poor compared to last year. Some candidates did extremely
well, at least there were a couple of them who were able to be placed in band 1 compared to last year but in the same
vein, there was a big number of candidates who were placed in band 5, because they wrote out of context. There was a
slight misunderstanding about the characters and their roles, mostly James, Sashka’s educational sponsor and James,
Sashka’s father.

2. COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

Yitambo yoYikonakona

YY4

Kuhutha ghudheghetera kuthitjanga

Hanuke ha kona:

Yit 1 kutapa ñumbu kuthitambo, yitongora yonunu noyikaramo yoyidhungi yothitjanga;

Yit 2 kuneghedha matambwero ghokushwaghitha thiwana yikuyuva, ghukaro no/ ngambi ñanani;

Yit 3 kuyareka ñumbu mwene ghuthotera awa yina kundama

Pakukonana ñumbu kudipwero di, hakonakoni ha kona kuthotera eshi hahaterimo kukonakuhutha dipwero di mumihingo
dhimweya. Ngambikemo, ñumbu dhawo dha kona kukununga noghushemwa ghothitoyamingwa mu kuwana dipenda.
Yitwa yomaghorwero ne mbadi ne mbadi popaghuhura ghomahuthero– oghu ne ghushemwa ghumweya ngenyu gho
kukona ha rughanithe hahaterimo mu kutenda ghawo. Pakara karo mayira ghamwe ghoñumbu mu kukumitha mo
yinyanda yodipwero di.

Maghorwero ghorukorekitho

Yikara yaSashka nawanu hopamukunda

• Nga humbithanga hayendhendi
• Kuhutha nonyinya kwamukuru ghoshure
• Kuhutha nodishanga kohakuru
• Kughamba ghumbango diyuwa dyodiheya kwawahongi
• Kurwa nawayendhendi
• Kudira thikuma ghukuyerera

• Kukudiritha (mbofe shi kokurokwitha dihodhi)

• Mushidikadhi
• Mbadi gha yapa thikuto, gha humine nyina
• Ndhino/mutomonono nohakuru
• Gha pira ndangi
• Mudhughutjima
• Mbadi gha haka kumuyondeka
• Mbadi gha yapa murandu
• Mbadi gha vuramenangapo

• Edi gha dimukire Sashka James (munu munye James?)

• Mushwi, yo gha mwingenekire kushure
• Kumuruwerera kushure
• Aye ne Shatani
• Mbadi wo hanu paghuyi
• Kukuningitha
• Gha kumonekitha

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• Mbadi gha tamburanga hanu thika di ha kara
• Pakare ne thidakwi gha karire

• Ghukaro wanyina Sashka

• Nga tongamenithanga mwanendi
• Gha shaghekire kupa mwanendi yidya
• Dishanga dyokughamba, ngethanga mwanendi “kambwaghana”
• Gha nyanyine mwanendi nodindwara parupara
• Nga hopanga munuwendi
• Kurunga thikuma/muyoyo
• Ghukenya
• Mushedho
• Mbadi gha twetha kudhidhimeka mumaghukukutu
• Gha piteritha thikuma marovu paghutho

3. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Teachers are advised to put more effort into paper 3, as the majority of candidates still have a problem being unable
to analyze a text critically. There has been an edition on how candidates should be approaching paper 3. Before,
candidates were required to answer only the three bullets even without answering the main question at all. Henceforth,
candidates should be informed about the new changes which are:

1. Candidates should answer the main question before looking into the three leading bullets.

2. Candidates should be informed that the order of their answers should not be as according to how the bullets follow
one another. They can mix their response to a text as long as it is correct. In other words, candidates should
choose how they want to arrange their response.

3. On the interpretation of instructions or questions teachers are advised to encourage candidates that they must not
rush while answering; they must read the text even twice for them to be able to understand it. Some candidates
misunderstood the instruction probably because they did not understand what they had read hence they answered
incorrectly.

Candidates should be given enough work to train them how to answer paper 3.

All centres are appreciated for their effort.

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Paper 4

Research topic

Most candidates managed to write their research topics but there were some who wrote their topics the same way they
write paper 2 topics. Thitamenedhi: Ghudjaho muthitjo thawaMbukushu pakare. Examiners are advised to properly
guide candidates onhow they can write their research topics. E.g. Kufukunya mayendithitho ghoghudjaho muthitjo
muthitjo thawaMbukushu pakare.

Introduction

Most candidates wrote their introduction properly, however, it was discovered that there was a particular centre whereby
all candidates had a similar introduction; in most cases, candidates started their sentences with the phrase “Myaka
dhino mufukunyi ghana nongonona eshi…” examiners are advised to train candidates on different ways of writing their
introductions.

NUNDERERO DHODIRURA DYOYIFUKUNYA

All centres are applauded for a job well done, candidates managed to explain various concrete reasons of why they
chose to research their topics. Some said it is because of what they have observing in their communities, some
is because of their own experiences and some is because they have a dream. Thanks for the effort from both the
examiners and candidates.

NDHIKA/NDJIMA NDJIMA

Candidates are appreciated for their good attempts, some interpreted what they were expected to do under this chapter,
e.g. they managed to explain what they wanted to achieve at the end of their research. There is a big improvement
compared to how candidates used to do it in the previous years.

Mepwero ghoyifukunya/yitatumende yoyifukunya

Relevant and stimulating questions for the purpose of the candidate’s research were well stated. Most centres are
applauded for a job well done. However, some centres did not do well because some candidates wrote very few
questions. Examiners are advised to urge candidates to avoid yes or no questions at all.

Yirughanitha yoyighongawedhitha mapathwerero

Some candidates listed names of people they conducted to gather information, candidates should not explain how they
used the tools to gather information and also they should not explain

Tunonga

Candidates did well by listing their sources but there is a need for correction; it was discovered that candidates
from some centres wrote their sources in a journal format. e.g Mukuru Katarina Haushiku, 29 Thivoghedhi 2024,
Mamono. Candidates need to be discouraged from such. They should only list names of people they conducted if their
sources were only people.

Mayarekero ghoyighongawedha

Candidates did well but some candidates wrote very less information. Examiners are advised to encourage candidates
to take their researches serious and write them at reasonable length.

Magharavero ghoyighongawedha

Candidates were expected to examine or critically analyse the information which they gathered from their sources,
majority did not do enough, and their analysis were shallow. Candidates are urged to do thorough analysis.

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Ghushupi

Candidates did well, they pasted pictures which they took for use on their researches, and candidates should be advised
not to list names of their sources again but they may attach copies of any piece of writing which they used as additional
information on the topics which they researched.

Below are some grammatical errors that were picked from candidates’ courseworks: - kutora mbuyo, dhodhihunga ne
ngokuya mbuyo
• Ghumadjaho, dhodhihunga ne ngo madjaho
• Mokuyenda hupa ghomumbiru noghomukuru naye moghokuyenda, ngo mokuyenda mapi dithana nadyo
mombodiyenda
• Kughogha ngokughoya
• Waheya mbadi haheya
• Ame wawakuru mbadi ame wakuru
• Kughogha instead of kughoya, kughogha ne kurwa
• Ghumadjaho instead of ghudjaho
• Mufukunyi ghana shana ka kuma pambandha instead of mufukunyi ghana shana Kakuma pandhama, mbandha
ne mapepero ghohanuke mudighumbo

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Paper 5

Presentation

It was observed that most candidates did well in their presentation but the main concern remains on time. This section
is supposed to last for maximum 5 minutes, but it was discovered that some audio lasted up to 10 minutes just on
presentation.

Warm up questions must not be recorded, examiners may pose warm up questions to their candidates but they should
not be recorded.

Candidates must not be interrupted at all during presentations, it is not a question and answer method.

Pakupepa thikwatamaywi thoghushupi, mbadi yakara mudyo eshi hathipepe kate koko thakahurera ngambi minute
dikumi, thitambo thokupepa thikwata maywi ne mukuwanenako ghushupi eshi shemwa, muhaterimo ne ghakafukukya,
kuwatawedhera hathipepe ghure ghominute dhihatu ngenyu.

Discussion

It was discovered that most candidates did well in this section but because there was no proper balance on time from
presentation, majority of audios did not reach even 5 minutes on discussion yet this is the section worth 20 marks.
Examiners are urged to follow guidelines as in the syllabi.

Other relevant comments

Examiners are advised to have speaking examination exercises in order to boost candidate’s skills, language usage
and confidence.

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FOREIGN LANGUAGE GERMAN
6112
Paper 1

GENERAL COMMENTS

Many candidates showed a good understanding of German. All answer scripts were written in ink, none in pencil. This
was pleasing to observe. There seemed to be an improvement in the candidates’ work. Candidates attempted far more
questions, leaving less spaces open.

Section 1 was answered well, so that even weaker candidates could answer these questions with confidence.

In Section 2 and 3 some questions require a slightly longer answer. Just writing one word sometimes does not give a
a candidate the mark. Certain expressions needed to be accompanied by a preposition or a verb to make sense. A
minority of centres did not practise this sufficiently. Generally, the candidates were familiar with answering Paper 1.

Spelling in English and Afrikaans generally is marked wrong. If a candidate wrote a German word which then displayed
a different meaning, it was also marked wrong. Some candidates did not even attempt to answer some of the questions,
which is sad. Listening Comprehension should be practised during Grade 10 and 11.

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

Erster Teil: Erste Aufgabe: Fragen 1 ‒ 8

Most candidates coped well with the pictorial multiple-choice questions. There was no specific pattern in the occasional
wrong answer. One gets the feeling that candidates enjoy answering this first set of questions.
1 C
2 D (candidates often chose Halloween and not Weihnachten)
3 D (the same picture was used twice)
4 A
5 A
6 B
7 D (some candidates struggled to distinguish between Sandwich and Brötchen)
8 A [8]

Erster Teil: Zweite Aufgabe: Fragen 9 – 15

This task was based on two monologues regarding a shopping experience for two teenage girls. Single words had to
be filled in the open spaces and most candidates coped well with this question. Appropriate responses were considered
positively, although nouns might not have been written with a capital letter.

9 aufgeregt
10 Freundin / freundin
11 Spaß, Spaaß, Spass
12 Taschengeld / Taschengelt (or same spelling but small)
13 schwierige / schwieriche
14 Preis / preis / Preise
15 Liebe / liebe [7]

Zweiter Teil: Erste Aufgabe: Fragen 16 – 21

This time around candidates also had to answer “richtig” and “falsch” and not “ja” for a correct answer and “nein” for a
wrong answer. This text was based on a dialogue between a photographer and a student.

16 F (many candidates did not hear the word ‘Genitiv’: Websters Vater, thus marking the wrong box)
17 F
18 R
19 R
20 R
21 F [8]
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Zweiter Teil: Zweite Aufgabe: Fragen 22 – 28
For this task candidates have to listen really carefully, as a wrong word is printed in bold in the examination paper and
they had to write the antonym of that specific word. They hear the correct antonym. Most of the candidates still struggle
with this kind of question. The topic covered was an interview between a fitness trainer and a female student, the
student enquiring about healthy living.

22 frisches
23 ungesund
24 verboten /vaboten
25 keinen / kein / keinem
26 Wasser / Wassa / wasser
27 Konzentration / Gesundheit
28 Körper / körpa (The Umlaut was a necessity) [7]

Zweiter Teil: Dritte Aufgabe: Fragen 29 – 35

This text was an interview between a boy and a girl talking about the boy’s holiday in Germany. (There was some
confusion with the names printed in the examination paper and the teacher’s text). The questions were proper multiple-
choice questions. This year again this section proved to be more challenging, mainly because the multiple options are
most of the time full sentences. Candidates are required to listen for details which often are quite subtle.

29 vom 10. bis zum 25. August

30 ein / Fußballspiel
31 Papageien / Kakadus / Pinguine (any one of them)
32 Er hatte eine Migräne / (starke) Kopfwschmerzen (NOT migraine)
33 Bus / Auto / Straßenbahn
34 sonig / sonnig / angenehm / regnerisch / wechselhaft
35 Armbanduhr (NOT only Uhr) [7]

Dritter Teil: Erste Aufgabe: Fragen 36 – 41

This text covered the dialogue between two teenagers whether they have to help in the household. The multiple-choice
answers were very concise, but candidates occasionally still struggled with some of the vocabulary used, most often
getting Question 39 wrong.

36 C
37 A
38 B
39 A
40 A
41 C [6]

Dritter Teil: Zweite Aufgabe: Fragen 42 – 49

This final set of questions always seems to be more of a challenge for candidates. Candidates should, however, be
encouraged to attempt answers, instead of leaving blank spaces. The topic of this section was about the Namibian
Welwitschia. Full sentences are not required, but the phrases used should also not be too concise.

42 (i) in der Namibwüste / NOT nicht allzuweit vom Ozean entfernt

(ii) vom Kuiseb bis nach Angola
43 der Nebel / NOT der Atlantische Ozean
44 zwei / 2
45 im / Januar
46 weibliche / männliche
47 trägt sie in die Natur / NOT only trägt in Natur
48 eine schwere Geldstrafe / NOT only Strafe / NOT muss Geld bezahlen
49 in einem Garten / in einem Blumentopf [8]

Positive suggestions to teachers

Encourage learners to write legiblly – this year handwriting was a problem.
Grammatical structures should be practiced regularly.
Synonyms and antonyms should be used in the four years of learning German as a Foreign Language.

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Paper 2

GENERAL COMMENTS

A sincere word of thanks to all teachers of Foreign Language German for their value-added input and dedication
towards the subject of German and our Namibian learners. Your work is greatly appreciated. All centres that were
involved in their assistance with German deserve to be congratulated on their work. The examiners had the impression
that candidates were better prepared than in previous years and that the general standard of work had improved vastly.

For a number of candidates from various centres, Paper 2, Reading, remained a challenge. In spite of this, candidates
tried very hard to manage six different texts in 60 minutes. There were markedly fewer instances of complete questions
or texts being left out entirely.

The new syllabus has been implemented for the fourth year. However, it is clear that Fragen 6 – 12 [5 marks], Fragen
18 – 27 [10 marks] as well as Fragen 36 – 40 [8 marks] have a new form and in many centres this type of exercise is
still unfamiliar to the candidates. In total, these questions made up 23 marks, which had a strong influence on overall
achievement.

Only very few candidates handed in untidy work which made marking a pleasure. Candididates must be discouraged
form writing their answers in pencil. Centres are urgently requested to instruct candidates to answer in blue
or black ink only. Please, again, inform the candidates not to use circles or ticks for their answers. Candidates have
to make a cross.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS:

Erster Teil: Erste Aufgabe: Fragen 1 – 5

1 B
2 C
3 A
4 B
5 B [5]
Question 4 caused some confusion, because the separable verb “sieht… fern” could not clearly be related to the
television, but was sometimes connected to the picture of a remote control (which is also related to watching television).

Zweite Aufgabe: Fragen 6 – 12

6 C
7 X
8 F
9 B
10 D
11 G
12 X [5]

On page 4 the instructions on top of the question are clear:

Zwei der Anfänge aus Spalte A werden nicht verwendet. Zwei Endungen aus Spalte B werden auch nicht verwendet.
Daraus ist deutlich zu erkennen, dass der Kandidat nur in 5 Kästchen einen Buchstaben schreiben soll. Daher gilt
die Regel beim Korrigieren: Wenn in allen sieben Kästchen ein Buchstabe eingetragen worden ist, werden nur die
erstenfünf korrigiert. Wenn der Kandidat nur sechs Buchstaben eingetragen hat, werden alle Buchstaben angeschaut
und die korrekten fünf benotet.

This type of question is a new exercise and quite demanding. This exercise with ”Spalte A” and” Spalte “B should be
explained to the candidates as it requires attention and practice.

Furthermore, candidates should be made aware that two fields need to be left blank.

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Dritte Aufgabe: Fragen 13 – 17
13 F
14 F
15 R
16 F
17 R [5]

This part did not pose major obstacles to candidates.

ZWEITER TEIL
Erste Aufgabe: Fragen 18 – 27

18 entwickelt
19 kleinen
20 Schule
21 Restaurant
22 Hühnerfleisch
23 Feuer
24 verheiratet
25 Geschäft
26 gesund
27 weiße [10]

This is an information transfer exercise and, therefore, only the correct spelling gained a mark. When the answer was
correct but the spelling was wrong, the candidate did not gain the mark.

It is very important that candidates concentrate on the fact that nouns in German are written with a capital letter. The
importance of the Umlaut should be made clear again.

This type of question is rather demanding, as absolute accuracy is required.

Candidates were supposed to complete the sentences by using the words in the box, but they were not able to identify
the correct word, due to the fact that they have a severe lack of knowledge of vocabulary in general.

Zweite Aufgabe: Fragen 28 – 35

28 Sie bekommen es (von den Eltern) geschenkt// sie verdienen es // sie bekommen es als Taschengeld //
wenn sie Auto waschen// wenn sie Babysittern// durch kleine Jobs [1]

No mark: auf drei Wegen.

29 Um sich eigene Wünsche zu erfüllen // sie lernen wie man mit Geld umgeht // sie bekommen ein Gefühl für den
Wert von Geld. [1]

30 (i) Einige Kinder geben das Geld gleich aus.

(ii) Andere sparen es. [2]
No mark: es ist unterschiedlich.

Q the seperable verb “ geben…aus“ must be part of the answer.

31 Sie lernen wie man später im Leben mit seinem Geld arbeitet. // Sie bekommen ein Gefühl für den Wert von
Geld. // Es kann eine wichtige Lektion für die Jugendlichen sein. [1]

32 (i) was die Tochter/der Sohn sich von seinem eigenen Geld kaufen darf
(ii) was verboten ist. [2]

Q The main verb (kaufen) as well as the Hilfsverb (kann) must be part of the answer.

33 Das Kind lernt das Sparen nicht. [1]

Q In the question were the words: “zu wenig geben” the key to the correct answer.

34 Das Kind soll lernen, dass nicht alle Wünsche (mit Geld) sofort erfüllt werden können. [1]
Q Candidates had to quote the whole sentence in order to gain the mark.
No mark: Dass das Kind das Sparen lernen kann.

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35 Lieblings CD // ein neues Mobiltelefon // Pizza [1]
Q No mark: sie gehen in die Eisdiele [[10]]

DRITTER TEIL
Erste Aufgabe: Fragen 36 – 40
36 Richtig
37 Falsch … ins rechte Auge
38 Falsch nachts // während die anderen geschlafen haben .
39 Richtig
40 Falsch einfach //man kann es schnell lernen

Q 38 The “new” adverb “nachtsüber“ gained a mark.

[8]
The instructions state on page 10 at the beginning of the exercise: Achtung: Zwei (2) Aussagen sind richtig und drei
(3) Aussagen sind falsch.

Furthermore, it was important to note that in Frage 41 the adverb „nicht„ was not considered a valid answer, but that
kein/keiner/niemand/ niemals were required.

If the candidate selected the correct „Richtig/Falsch-Kästchen“ box, one mark was awarded. If the candidate quoted the
correct proof, but did not select the right correct „Richtig/Falsch“ box, no marks were awarded.

Zweite Aufgabe: Fragen 41 – 46

41 Sie sind meistens allein //einsam [1]

42 (i) Vertrauen
(ii) Ehrlichkeit [2]

43 Lügen //Misstrauen [1]

Q Weil es nicht ausdrücklich verlangt wird, dass diese Fragen in einem Satz beantwortet werden müssen,
werden die Wörter benotet.

44 Man darf ihm nicht wehtun // man darf ihn nicht beleidigen. [1]

45 Glücklich //zufrieden [1]

46 Dein „Freund“ kann dich überreden Drogen zu gebrauchen //

Kann dich dazu bringen zu rauchen //Alkohol zu trinken//
Kann einen schlechten Einfluss ausüben // man kann schlecht
beeinflusst werden.

positive suggesions to teachers

Many learners are still not familiar with the W-Fragen WER? WOMIT? WIESO? WOFÜR? 14 questions were affected.

Teachers are requested to practise formulating short answer questions 36 – 40. Only two or three words should be
quoted from the text, not long passages in the hope the examiner “finding” the right word/s.

Teachers are requested to pay attention to personal pronouns: Die Blume is sie for Singular. Die Blumen (Plural) are
also sie. Der Baum is er.

Comprehension texts should be practised throughout the year in class in order to familiarise candidates with this type
of exercise.

Centres are thanked for their hard work in preparing candidates for this paper.

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6112
Paper 3

GENERAL COMMENTS

The moderators would like to start off by thanking centres for the vast improvement in the conduction of the oral
examinations in Paper 3 and for the professionalism displayed by the majority of examiners. It became evident that
examiners adhered to the procedures as set out in the Teachers’ Notes Booklet more closely than in previous years.
This improvement could possibly be attributed to a workshop hosted by NIED in 2024, during which examiners were
trained to conduct oral exformations.

Similarly, documentation was more complete than in previous years and only a limited number of centres had to be
requested to submit further information. All centres submitted the required number of recordings. Examiners were
friendly and welcoming in their approach to candidates and mostly used the appropriate register.

All centres forwarded the appropriate number of samples per centre (specified on Page 4 of the Teachers’ Notes), on
labelled memory sticks, with each candidate’s digital file saved individually. One centre saved all recordings in one
single file, which made moderation rather difficult.

Centres with more than one examiner should submit 5 samples per examiner. Should more than one examiner conduct
oral examinations, centres are requested to conduct a thorough calibration of evaluation, in order to avoid too strict and
too lenient examiners all in one centre. Centres are reminded that these samples should include the highest-performing
and lowest-performing candidates, as well as candidates with a range of performances between the two extremes.

In the role plays, examiners are reminded not to deviate from the role play cards. While it is acceptable to rephrase
questions if candidates struggle to understand, examiners should not pose their own questions or skip questions
required on the role-play card. In a number of cases, candidates were severely disadvantaged, as they were not given
the opportunity to answer the required questions.

Furthermore, examiners are encouraged to view the topic conversation and the general conversation as conversations,
rather than question-and-answer sessions. Examiners are, furthermore, reminded that both conversations should last
about 5 minutes respectively. It was found that in a number of instances the general conversation lasted less than 2
minutes. This, unfortunately, has a severely negative impact on candidates’ performance. Examiners are furthermore
reminded to refrain from asking Yes / No-questions: asking open-ended questions instead of closed questions gives
candidates the opportunity to give more elaborate answers and to display their language skills realistically as well as
their ability to convey and justify their opinions.

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

Role plays

Full guidance on the conduct of role plays is given on pages 5 and 6 of the Teachers’ Notes. Most examiners had
prepared their candidates well, enabling them to execute the tasks successfully, especially in Role Play. Examiners
are reminded to ask all questions specified on the role play card using the wording provided on the card. Replacing
questions with other questions disadvantaged candidates, as they could not be awarded marks for required questions
they did not answer. Examiners are, however, requested to assist candidates who are visibly struggling by carefully
rephrasing or repeating questions, should candidates not understand them the first time they are asked. However, it is
required that questions are asked exactly as per role play card initially.

Role Play A

In general, candidates performed well in this section, as tasks were realistic and relatable to the candidates. Topics
were clearly aligned to the syllabus.

Most candidates managed to use accurate pronunciation. There were some problems with using the correct registers.
Candidates should be made aware of the difference between ‘du’ and ‘Sie’ and should be trained to use the appropriate
register in a variety of situations.

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Many candidates were successful in formulating responses in the present tense, while only high achievers managed
formulating sentences in the past and future tense. The usage of tense should be trained throughout the academic year.

Role Plays A
A1 (1, 2 and 3)

This role play proved to be straightforward and most candidates managed to complete the given tasks successfully.

A2 (4, 5 and 6)
This role play was managed well by most candidates who followed the instructions on their card.

A3 (7, 8 and 9)
This role play proved fairly straightforward and was completed successfully by a large number of candidates.

Role Plays B
These role plays were significantly more difficult than the Role Plays A, as they required the formulation of a question and
the display of an emotional response. Furthermore, Role Play B cards included two-part questions. Candidates should
practise displaying emotions audibly, so that a moderator may pick up on these in the recordings. While examiners
should not break up two-part questions into two entirely separate questions, they should make a clear pause between
the parts, so that candidates are aware of the fact that two responses are required.

B1 (1, 4 and 7)
A marked improvement in comparison to previous years was noted and the moderator was able to pick up emotional
responses with most candidates.

B2 (2, 5 and 8)
While most candidates managed to perform the required tasks, C5 remains a challenge.

B3
As with the other role play cards in Section B, candidates struggled to formulate questions in a number of cases.

Section B: Conversations
Examiners are encouraged to ask questions which prompt longer answers, short explanations and opinions or
justifications. Examiners are furthermore reminded not to ask too basic questions. Examiners are reminded the
examination should be conducted at B1 – Language level. Merely asking A1 – level questions is to the detriment of
candidates, as they are not supported to display a varied repertoire.

Many examiners and candidates managed to have more or less spontaneous conversations and a number of candidates
impressed the moderator by using a wide range of vocabulary and grammatical structures. Candidates could be
reminded that justifying their opinions counts greatly in their favour. Similarly, candidates should be guided to select
appropriate conversation topics. Topics that are too centered around candidates themselves (Mein Tagesblauf) tend to
be on A1 level, which is insufficient for NSSCO.

Most centres kept to the stipulated timing, which is approximately 5 minutes for each of the conversations. Examiners
are reminded that the timing for the Topic Conversation includes a Presentation lasting a maximum of two minutes and
questions on that topic. It is important to have two distinct conversations: one on the prepared topic and one general
conversation. Skipping the conversation on the topic or only asking topic-related questions disadvantages candidates.
If the presentation is longer than two minutes, it is important to interrupt the candidate and start asking questions.
Assessment for each conversation stops after 7 minutes.

Examiners are reminded to articulate the end of the Topic Conversation clearly and the beginning of the General
conversation. This enables moderators to award marks for each conversation.

Topic Presentation/Conversation

In the Topic Conversations, candidates were free to choose their topic from the topic lists in the NSSCO syllabus. In
this year, ‘My home town’ and ‘Sport’ seemed to be firm favourites. Most examiners asked appropriate questions during
the Topic Conversations and General Conversations. However, it was noted that some examiners asked questions,
that merely required candidates to repeat extended parts of their prepared topic. It should be noted that a conversation
should ensue after the topic presentation, as merely repeating quotes from what was said before is insufficient.

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A number of candidates selected too personal topics (Mein Tagesablauf; Meine Hobbies), which only allowed for very
basic topic presentations. Candidates should be reminded to select topics on NSSCO-level, which leave enough room
for the expression of own ideas and opinions. It is helpful if candidates start their presentation by stating their chosen
topic.

General conversation
Candidates should be encouraged to answer in complete sentences and to elaborate on their answers. One-word
answers prevent candidates from receiving high marks. On the other hand, examiners should remember that even
one-word answers that answer the question, are deemed to be acceptable answers and should be awarded one mark.

Examiners are encouraged to ask challenging, thought-provoking, open questions that call for explanations, ideas and
opinions. Questions should follow logically on each other as in a genuine conversation. Appropriate answers should
require a differentiated usage of tenses as present tense answers are not sufficient for NSSCO. Candidates are
furthermore encouraged to link their ideas logically and to use complex structures.

Mark for General Impression

Most examiners awarded appropriate marks. Examiners should strive not to be influenced by candidates’ performance
during the year or in the role plays, but really to assess only the category at hand. Centres with more than one examiner
are earnestly requested to calibrate their evaluations: standards of evaluation and the difficulty of questions should
remain similar across the entire centre, regardless of which examiner is involved.

Administration
The administration at centres was generally excellent and the adding up of the marks on the WMA was, in most cases,
accurate. Unfortunately, however, some marks were either added up or transferred incorrectly. Internal examiners are
requested to pay close attention to this very important administrative aspect.

The quality of most recordings was excellent. Thank you for always submitting the required number of recordings.

It is essential that recordings are saved on to labelled memory sticks, with each candidate’s digital file saved individually.
Files should be named according to the centre and candidate numbers rather than the teacher’s or examiner’s name
or a range of digits.

In general, it can be said that the majority of centres was well-prepared and that the examination was conducted
professionally. Examiners are to be thanked for their tremendous efforts in ensuring that the examinations ran so
smoothly.

Suggestions to examiners
To ensure that candidates are enabled to perform at their best possible level, examiners are advised to ensure that
they pay close attention to the instructions set out in the Teachers’ Notes booklet. More specifically, examiners are
reminded that the examination consists of three tasks. Role Plays A and B make up Task 1. Task 2 consists of The
Topic Presentation and the Topic Conversation, while the General Conversation makes up Task 3.

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6112
Paper 4

GENERAL COMMENTS

Many candidates adhered to the correct number of words for the shorter and longer pieces of writing, however, many
candidates did not relate their answers to the different bullet points and, thus, could not complete the task as successfully
as those candidates who related their answers to the requirements of the different bullet points. The candidates who
phrased their essay according to the instruction of the bullet points were more successful with the requested number
of words and the requested content.

It is important that the candidates read the questions very carefully. They can let themselves be guided by the correct
spelling of some words to avoid unnecessary mistakes, if they should use that specific word in an answer, e.g. Freundin
(female friend), instead of Freude (happiness).

The range of questions covered the entire spectrum of the syllabus for the A2, B1 level and allowed the candidates to
show their potential in using “Präsens – Perfekt and Futur” Tenses in the correct context.

The range of difficulty was covered from word answers, Part 1, Exercise 1, to a shorter piece, Part 1, Exercise 2, and
then a longer piece, Part 2, where Language and Content was evaluated to give the final result as indicated on the
question paper. In Part 2, the candidates could choose one of the three given topics for their longer piece of writing.

The same issues as pointed out in the last two years remain of particular concern: There are still many candidates
who have no knowledge, whatsoever, about the requirements for a correct sentence. They still start sentences with
small letters, do not use a new sentence for a new idea or do not use punctuation when ending sentences, although
this requirement is also part of the national language being English. In parts of speech, the comma is used before the
conjunction and it is the same in Afrikaans, English or German. Candidates also do not seem to know which words
are nouns, so as to write them with the required CAPITAL letter at the beginning, as this is required for ALL nouns in
German. If candidates prefer to write in printed letters, they should be aware of the difference of letters for capital and
small letters, e.g. F and f, K and k, N and n.

Many candidates still cannot distinguish when to use “haben” or “sein” correctly and they do not know the difference
between “er” (he), “sie” (she) and “es” (it) or “sie Plural” (they). The usage of the capital letter for the pronoun “ich”was
still used by some candidates and a few candidates also wrote the other regular pronouns with a capital letter within a
sentence.

Some candidates also did not recognise that the capital “Sie” in the question refers to them as candidates in the polite
form and that they, thus, should answer in the “ich-“form, e.g. “Was haben Sie beim Sportfest gemacht?” – “Ich habe
beim Hochsprung mitgemacht.”

Two candidates, unfortunately, wrote in such a bad handwriting that it was not possible to decipher most words and that
was to their disadvantage.

There were still some candidates who mixed into their essays Afrikaans or English words. This could not be acknowledged
when content or language is evaluated, since candidates are required to show their ability to write an essay in German.
A few essays were written almost completely either in English or Afrikaans with only occasional German words in-
between. A few candidates still copied the sentences from all the tasks randomly for both pieces of writing, but they were
far less than in the previous year. It remains a concern, that some candidates opted to study German for Grade 11 but
they show little effort in mastering the language. If candidates have not mastered the requirements for A1 and A2 of
Grades 8 and 9 for German as a Foreign Language, they should rather not attempt to continue or start German in Grade
10 for the two-year course until Grade 11. It was obvious that some candidates did not even have the basic background
of A1 level German and ,thus, were not prepared at all for A2/B1 expectations as being required to succeed in Grade 11.

Part 1: Exercise 1

Candidates were required to list only 5 items for objects to be bought at a street market and were guided by 8 pictures.

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Possible answers for Question 1, which were acknowledged: “Schreiben Sie auf Deutsch eine Liste von fünf (5)
Sachen, die Sie kaufen wollen:
1. Trommel / trommel / Tromml NOT: drum, drommel, troml
2. Cola / Bier / Flasche / Wasser / Trinken / Saft, NOT: flashe, fles, bottle, Wasserbottel
3. Koffer / koffer / Koffr / Tasche / Tasse (cup), NOT: coffer / tashe / tas
4. Kamera / Kamara / Fotoapparat / Fotografie / Handy / NOT: camera / Fotograf (you do not buy people)
5. Armband / Kette / Juwelen NOT: Armbander, jewels
6. Stuhl / Tisch / Stühle, NOT: stoel / Stuuhl / Stühl / Stuhle /
7. Jeans / Hose / Kleidung / Bluse / T-Shirt, NOT: Jean (is a name) / Höse / broeken / pants / blouse
8. Löffel / löffel / Löffl / Gabel / Geschirr, NOT: Lepel / Loffel /
9. Irgendein anderes deutliches und aussagekräftiges Wort für ein Objekt, eine Sache, die man auf dem Straßen
markt kaufen kann, aber NOT: Haus (as a house cannot be bought at a stall on a market place to be taken home, NOT:
Hemd, since it was the example given in the text to guide, not to copy. NOT: Musik, because you cannot buy music.
You could however buy CDs. NOT: Cooldrink, Kuhldrink or kuhltrinken, however, Saft is correct.

Korrekte Pluralformen wurden akzeptiert.

Viele Kandidaten haben durch falsch verwendete Umlaute Punkte verloren (Höse, statt Hose). Groß- und Kleinschreibung
wurde bei dieser Aufgabe nicht geahndet, z.B. „koffer“, trotzdem sollten die Kandidaten immer wieder darauf hingewiesen
werden, dass alle Nomen in Deutsch groß geschrieben werden. Jegliche Wörter aus anderen Sprachen wurden NICHT
akzeptiert, auch wenn sie dem Deutschen ähnlich sein sollten, wie Kamera – camera.

Part 1 Exercise 2

Word limit ( 80 – 90 words) should be adhered to. With overlong pieces of writing, the last part would not be acknowledged
for marking. All candidates who answered this question kept to the word limit.

The question required, that an e-mail should be written to a friend. As such, the candidates should be aware, that in an
e-mail someone should be addressed: Lieber Peter, … or Liebe Susanne, … or Hallo Peter, …

Many candidates repeated the greeting:

Lieber Peter

Hallo Peter, ich schreibe diesen Brief, ...

An easy way to attempt this task would be the following:

Lieber Peter,

Du weißt ja, dass wir jedes Jahr ein Sportfest haben.

To achieve all available marks for the content, each bullet point include brief information, e.g.

• Wann und wo genau findet das Sportfest an Ihrer Schule statt.

Präsens - Hierbei werden zwei Angaben erfragt, um den Inhaltspunkt zu bekommen, nämlich „wann“ = Datum
und eventuell Zeit, und „wo“, nämlich der Ort. „Am nächsten Samstag“ wurde als genaue Zeitangabe akzeptiert,
da man in der Realität vom Datum eines E-Mails ausgehen kann.

Mehr Kandidaten als im vorigen Jahr haben diese doppelte Angabe berücksichtigt und sich dadurch den Inhaltspunkt
gesichert.

• Beschreiben Sie Sportlerinnen, Sportler, die letztes Jahr an verschiedenen Disziplinen teilgenommen
haben.
Perfekt – z.B. große starke Jungen haben beim Kugelstoßen mitgemacht, Speerwurf,
schnelle Mädchen beim Staffellauf, 200-Meter Rennen,
toller /erfolgreicher Sportler Peter bei Weitsprung, Hochsprung usw.

Viele Kandidaten haben die Angabe nicht genau gelesen und haben statt über Sportler / Sportlerinnen über
den Sportlehrer oder die Sportlehrerin geschrieben. Auch haben viele Kandidaten den Brgriff Sportdisziplin
(Hochsprung, Weitsprung, Rennen) mit Schulregeln verwechselt (Sporttracht, Benehmen, Müll entsorgen).

• Was haben Sie selbst an diesem Sporttag gemacht?

Perfekt – Ich habe im Kiosk geholfen / bin beim Rennen als erster durch die Ziellinie gekommen / habe gesungen

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usw.

Viele Kandidaten haben mit dem „Sie“ erkannt, dass sie selbst angesprochen wurden und haben richtig mit „ich“
die Antwort eingeleitet. Allerdings haben viele nicht bedacht, dass sich die Antwort auf das Sportfest im vorigen
Jahr bezog.

• Was hat Ihnen besonders an diesem Sportfest gefallen?

Perfekt – die Atmosphäre / ich fand das Essen toll / unsere Manschaft hat gewonnen

Nur wenige Kandidaten haben das Wort „gefallen“ (to like) auf einen Sturz (to fall) bezogen und deshalb nicht
richtig reagiert. Manche haben die Antwort mit dem vorigen Hinweis verknüpft, z.B. Unsere Manschaft hat
gewonnen, und das hat mir gefallen, wofür sie dann auch die beiden Inhaltspunkte bekamen.

• Welche Pläne hat die Schule für das Sportfest im nächsten Jahr?
Futur – unsere Schule will mehr Disziplinen anbieten / andere Schulen einladen / plant, dass alle Schüler
teilnehmen sollen / soll aufwendiger sein

Manche Kandidaten haben nicht geschrieben, dass „die Schule“ für das nächste Jahr etwas plant. Wenn der
Kandidat etwas für sich selbst plante, konnte die Antwort nicht berücksichtigt werden.

For each bullet point a mark for content was awarded to the maximum of 5 marks for content. One bullet point required
two pieces of information, namely the date (wann) and the place (wo). That question is A1 level, therefore, no mark was
given, when one part of the information was missing.

Language was also evaluated in the correct tense used:

Präsens – Perfekt – Perfekt – Perfekt – Futur 1.

Weitere Hinweise zur Beantwortung der Frage, die für den Sprachgebrauch berücksichtigt werden:

Konjugation von Verben

Deklination, Satzstrukturen (Konjunktionen)

differenzierter Wortschatz passend zur Aufgabenstellung,

korrekte Pronomen, Dativ- und Akkusativobjekte,

Negativformen (Keine doppelte Verneinung in Deutsch)

Präpositionen, Adverbien und Adjektive

Einige Kandidaten haben das Prinzip des Fragebogens immer noch nicht verstanden. Bei der Aufgabenstellung:
„Erzählen Sie“ bezieht „Sie“ sich auf die 3. Person Singular, oder 2. Person in der Höflichkeitsform, d.h. der
Kandidat wird im Auftrag direkt angeredet und muss in der 1. Person Singular reagieren, also mit „ich“ antworten

Auch der Wechsel der Zeiten, um sich auf die Fragestellung einzulassen, wurde bei einigen immer noch nicht
beachtet. Diese Abweichungen wurden bei der „Sprache“ geahndet, aber der Inhalt wurde als korrekt gewertet,
wenn er logisch nachvollziehbar war.

Part 2

Three topics were given and only one topic was to be chosen by the candidate. The word limit was to be adhered
to, i.e., 130 – 140 words. Only a handful of candidates did not attempt this task or copied the question instructions
to fill the paper. With only a short piece of writing, the language marks were considered in relation to the percentage
of information given. If the content was totally irrelevant, no language marks were awarded for language, thus those
candidates who copied the question instructions did not receive a language mark.

Language marks were positively acknowledged in those cases where candidates included correctly:
subordinate clauses, reported speech, time clauses etc.;
subject and finite verbs;

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verbs in the correct tense as per instructions;
structures and the correct usage of conjunctions;
objects, prepositions and declinations;
negatives, adjectives and expressions.
It was evident that many candidates did not read the instructions carefully to adjust their piece of writing to the expected
task. In each topic, 5 bullet points guided the information. Candidates who wrote more than one piece of information
for each bullet point could be awarded with higher marks for content.
Again, no marks were awarded to candidates who completed the task in Afrikaans or in English, since t the usage of
the German language is mandatory. No English or Afrikaans expression was considered for the content or then for
language.

The required tenses must be observed through the tasks required in the bullet points:

a) Präsens – Präsens – Perfekt – Präsens – Futur

b) Präsens – Präsens – Perfekt – Präsens– Futur
c) Perfekt – Perfekt – Perfekt – Präsens– Futur

It is important, that the candidates indicate, which topic they chose, either by referring to a, b or c or then to
write the correct heading, where applicable.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Topic (a) Jeder Mensch hat einen besonderen Menschen oder eine beste Freundin / einen besten Freund in
seinem Leben.

Die meisten Kandidaten wählten diese Aufgabe, wobei viele von ihnen nicht die letzten zwei Aufgabenpunkte beantworten
konnten.

Beschreiben Sie diese Person.

Zu der Beschreibung kann die Altersangabe gewertet werden, die Charaktereigenschaften wie lieb, sportlich, intelligent,
oder andere äußerliche Merkmale, wie lange schwarze Haare, grüne Augen, groß usw. (A1 A2 Kenntnisse sind erforderl;
ich)

Es war erfreulich, dass sehr viele Kandidaten sehr viele unterschiedliche Adjektive verwenden konnten.

Wann und wie oft sind Sie mit dieser Person zusammen? Was machen Sie gemeinsam?
Zeitangaben wie „jedes Wochenende, täglich, nur in den Ferien“ wurden anerkannt, und was immer gemeinsam
unternommen wird, z.B. Computerspiele spielen, ins Restaurant/Kino gehen, sich unterhalten, Fußball spielen,
zusammen kochen / backen usw.

Warum und wann ist diese Person Ihre beste Freundin / Ihr bester Freund geworden?
Zeitangabe ist erforderlich, z.B. in Klasse 3, vor zwei Jahren, im Kindergarten, als ich in die neue Schule kam, usw.
Begründung ist erforderlich, z.B. hat mir sehr geholfen, mag Sport, so wie ich, sieht sehr hübsch aus, usw.

Kann eine beste Freundin / ein bester Freund schlechte Eigenschaften haben? Geben Sie Beispiele.
Da die Aufgabe ein geschlossener Text ist, kann nicht nur mit Ja / Nein geantwortet werden, sonder sollte die Antort im
Satz eingebunden werden, z. B. Ein bester Freund / eine beste Freundin kann auch / kann nicht schlechte Eigenschaften
haben.
Beispiele wären: ist chaotisch, unsportlich, faul, nimmt Drogen, trinkt zu viel Alkohol, redet zuviel

Viele Kandidaten sind nicht auf die allgemeine Frage eingegangen, sondern haben die Frage auf den vorher
beschriebene/n beste Freundin/ besten Freund bezogen: MEIN Freund kann keine schlechten Eigenschaften haben.
Wenn die Antwort ganz von der Aufgabenstellung abgewichen ist, konnte sie nicht gewertet werden.

Geben Sie Gründe, warum Sie selbst in Zukunft ein besonderer Mensch für jemanden sein wollen. Wie werden
Sie das machen?

Es ist wichtig, ein guter Freund zu sein, nett zu sein zu Menschen usw.
Ich werde ein Vorbild für jemand sein, z.B. fleißig lernen, Fußballprofi werden, anderen helfen, ehrlich sein, usw.

Viele Kandidaten konnten diese Aufgabenstellung nicht bearbeiten oder haben sie nicht auf sich selbst bezogen.

Topic (b) Sie sind vor ein paar Wochen aus einem Dorf in eine Großstadt gezogen. Schreiben Sie einen Brief

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an Ihre Freundin / Ihren Freund.
Eine große Anzahl der Kandidaten haben diese Aufgabe gewählt.

Für den Sprachgebrauch wird die Briefform mitbewertet, d.h. Ortsangabe mit Datum (beim E-Mail nicht erforderlich,
jedoch beim Brief), korrekte Anrede und korrekter Gruß am Ende des Briefes, kurze Einleitung, worum es in dem Brief
geht. Die Frage nach dem Befinden (Wie geht es dir? Mir geht es gut.) ist nicht nötig und missglückt meistens, was sich
negativ auf den Sprachgebrauch auswirkt.

Beispiel: Windhoek, 10. Dezember 2024

Lieber Peter, (Komma)

wir (klein weiterschreiben) sind jetzt von Otavi nach Windhoek gezogen. ...

Liebe Grüße / Es grüßt dich / Bis bald / Schreib bald zurück usw.

Deine Susanne
Beschreiben Sie die neue Wohnung / das neue Haus.

Viele Zimmer ... größer oder kleiner als das vorige ... Lage ... Garten ... Nachbarn ... besondere Sachen in den Zimmern
... (A2 Kenntnisse sind erforderlich)

Erzählen Sie von ihrer neuen Schule und den Schulkameraden.

Zwei Angaben müssen abgedeckt werden, z.B. die Schule ist viel größer als die vorige
Wir lernen hier auch Französisch, Englisch
Schulgarten / Kiosk / Mensa / Schwimmbad / Sportfeld / Schultracht
Die meisten Schüler sind hilfsbereit / arrogant / freundlich / neue Freunde gewonnen

Einige Kandidaten haben nicht darauf geachtet, dass zwei Angaben gefordert waren.

Wie war das Leben in ihrem alten Heimatdorf?

Allgemein gehalten, z.B. weniger Geschäfte, jeder kannte jeden, kein Stress, langweiliger, keine Angebote an
Unterhaltung, viel Natur, große Gärten usw.

Bei vielen Kanbdidaten waren hierzu nur wenige Angaben gemacht worden.

Beschreiben Sie den Stress in einer Großstadt nachmittags um 5 Uhr?

Viel Straßenverkehr, viele Autos, Taxis unterwegs, Lärm, Abgase, alle wollen schnell nach Hause, Staus, ungeduldige
Menschen, alle wollen noch einkaufen

Diese Angaben fehlten bei den meisten Kandidaten, die dieses Thema gewählt hatten, wahrscheinlich weil viele
selbst noch keinen Stoßverkehr in der Großstadt erlebt haben.

Wo möchten Sie in Zukunft leben?

hier bleiben / in der Großstadt / in einem Dorf (Ortsangabe), auf einer Farm, in einem anderen Land (Ländername)

Viele Kandidaten haben diese Angabe erfolgreich mit einer Begründung erweitert.

Topic (c) Schreiben Sie eine Geschichte, die mit diesen Worten beginnt...
Als ich die Haustür aufgeschlossen habe, habe ich sofort gemerkt, dass etwas anders war... Räuber hatten fast
alle Sachen aus unserem Haus weggetragen ...

Nur einzelne Kandidaten haben dieses Thema gewählt. Keiner von ihnen hatte eine eigene Überschrift augedacht,
aber sie haben den Aufsatz korrekt mit der Vorgabe begonnen. Bei den letzten drei Themenschwerpunkten fielen die
Antworten nicht so gut aus.

Beschreiben Sie Ihr Haus wie es in den vorigen Wochen ausgesehen hat.
Wohnzimmer ... Fernseher (andere Einrichtungsgegenstände) / Schlafzimmer ... Betten usw Küche ...
Küchengerätschaften / Büro ... Computer / Garage ... Fahrräder usw.

Berichten Sie, welche Sachen / Artikel nicht mehr im Haus waren.

Fernseher ... Mikrowelle ... Kleidung ... Geld ... Computer

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Da es eine Geschichte ist, haben die Kandidaten richtig darauf reagiert, dass es nicht nur eine Aufzählung war.
Ähnliche Angaben wie bei Punkt 1 können genannt werden, aber möglichst nicht die gleichen, sonst gehen Punkte
beim Inhalt wegen Wiederholung (Content) verloren.

Wie haben Sie und Ihre ganze Familie reagiert? Wer hat Ihnen geholfen?
Hier sind drei Angaben erforderlich, siehe die unterstrichenen Angaben in der Fragestellung.
Bin ausgeflippt ... war entsetzt ... habe die Eltern / Polizei angerufen
Vater bekam einen Wutanfall ... Mutter heulte hysterisch ... Schwester hat geweint ... Oma wurde ohnmächtig\
Nachbarn, Polizei, Freunde haben geholfen

Wie hat sich das Leben Ihrer Familie nach dem Einbruch verändert?
neue Sachen anschaffen / nicht genug Kleidung / auf dem Boden schlafen / sind traumatisiert / haben Angst / haben
Sachen von Freunden geschenkt / geliehen bekommen

Was werden Sie machen, damit Räuber in der Zukunft nicht wieder in Ihr Haus einbrechen können?
Werden das Haus vergittern / eine Alarmanlage anschaffen / Hunde anschaffen / Kameras installieren / einen hohen
Zaun bauen / regelmäßig alle Türen und Fenster kontrollieren

Allgemeine Unterrichtsvorschläge an die DaF- Lehrer:

• Nochmals ist es extrem wichtig, den Kandidaten die Unterschiede im Gebrauch von „haben“ und „sein“ in der
Perfektform beizubringen, damit sie bessere Ergebnisse erzielen.
• Auch die Konjugation und die Unterschiede der Modalverben sollen, dürfen, müssen, können, wollen, möchten
und mögen sind wichtig.
• Doppelte Verneinung gibt es nur in der afrikaansen Sprache, nicht in Deutsch. Statt „Ich habe nicht neue Freunde
nicht.“ Sagt man in Deutsch „Ich habe keine neuen Freunde“.
• Der Umlaut kann nicht wahlweise bei irgendwelchen Wörtern mit a, o oder u eingesetzt werden. Es gibt keinen
Füßball oder eine Schüle. Man kann Kuchen essen, aber keine Küchen (kitchen).
• Nomen und Satzanfänge werden in Deutsch immer groß geschrieben.
• In Deutsch wird das Pronomen „ich“ im Satz klein geschrieben!
• Damit Verwechslungen vermieden werden, sollten die Bedeutungsunterschiede von den folgenden Wörtern im
Unterricht wiederholt vermittelt werden: dürfen und müssen, wenn und als, weil und von, für und vor, auf und
aus, wir, wer und uns, was (Fragefürwort) und war (Präteritum für ist).
• Außerdem die Unterschiede von: Beispiel und Vorbild, bleiben und wohnen, leben und lieben, klein und wenig,
kennen und wissen, viwel und sehr.
• Die Schüler müssen wiederholt die Fragewörter lernen: Wann?, Warum?, Wie oft?, Wo?, Wer?
• Bei dem Aufsatzaufgaben ist es von Vorteil, wenn man den Wortschatz verwendet, den man kennt, z.B. Wir spielen
Computerspiele. NICHT: Computergames.
• Es werden keine Wörter aus einer fremden Sprache akzeptiert. (is = ist in Deutsch) Bei fehlendem Wortschatz
im Aufsatz kann der Kandidaten in Ausnahmefällen das Wort mit Redezeichen versehen, z. B. „focus“, wenn man
sich an das Wort beachten oder fokussieren nicht erinnern kann. Dadurch bleibt der Schreibfluss erhalten,
auch wenn das Wort nicht akzeptiert wird.
• Auch im 11. Schuljahr sollte die Interpunktion wiederholt werden und auch der Satzbau im Deutschen, der teilweise
dem afrikaansen ähnlich ist, sich aber stark vom englischen Satzbau unterscheidet.
• Wie auch in Englisch oder Afrikaans sollte in Deutsch als Fremdsprache nochmal betont werden, dass sich der
Aufbau eines Textes gleicht: Kurze Einleitung, die Themenpunkte als Inhalt und der Schluss.
• Dir vorgegebene Anzahl Wörter muss beachtet werden, denn der Sprachgebrauch wird entsprechend prozentual
gewertet. Bei zu langen Texten wird der Rest nicht beachtet. Bei zu kurzen Texten werden die noch möglichen
Sprachpunkte heruntergerechnet: ½ Text = ½ an noch möglichen Sprachpunkten.
• Eine kurze Planung ist extrem wichtig.
• Die Schüler, die zu jedem Punkt einen Abschnitt geschrieben haben, waren konzentrierter und haben bessere
Inhaltspunkte erzielt.
• Die Schüler, die zuerst die längere Schreibaufgabe beantwortet haben, als den zweiten Teil des Prüfungsbogens,
waren bei der Frage konzentrierter und haben sich dort bessere Noten erarbeitet.

GENERAL TEACHING SUGGESTIONS TO THE TEACHERS OF GERMAN AS A FOREIGN LANGUAGE

• Once more it is most important to teach the candidates the different usages of “to have” and “to be” (haben und
sein) in the perfect tense to allow them achieve better results.
• Also, the conjugation and difference in usage for the modal verbs to should, to may, to must, to can, to want, to
would like and to like must be taught.
• The double usage of writing something in the negative form is only part of the Afrikaans language, not part of the
German usage. Instead of saying “I have not new friends not”, candidates should write “I have no new friends”.
• You cannot use the “Umlaut” ä, ö, ü randomly for German words where a, o, u is required. There is no such word
as “Füßball” (Fußball, yes = football) or “Schüle” (Schule, yes = school) in German. You can eat cake (Kuchen) but

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not kitchen (Küchen).
• All Nouns and the beginnings of sentences are always written with capital letters in German.
• In German you write the pronoun “I” in the middle of the sentence with a small letter = “ich”.
• To avoid misconceptions, it is necessary to repeat the different meanings of the following words regularly in lessons:
“dürfen und müssen (to be allowed to and to must), wenn und als (if and when), weil und von (because and from),
für und vor (for and before), auf und aus ( on and from / out of / off), wir und uns (we and us)”.
• As well as the differences between example and idol, to stay put (bleiben) and to stay at (wohnen), to live and to
love, small (klein) and few (wenig), to know (know a person) and to know ( have knowledge about something), viel
(plenty) and sehr ( very).
• The candidates must repeatedly learn the German question words Wann? (when), Warum? (why), Wie oft?(how
often), Wo? (where), Wer? (who)
• For the essays, it is to the advantage of the learner, if he/she chooses the vocabulary in German that he knows,
e.g. We play computer games. = WirspielenComputerspiele.
• No words are accepted from a different language. ( is = ist in German) When candidates struggle to remember or
find a certain word in an essay, they can use as an exception the different word in inverted comma’s, e.g. “focus”,
instead of “beachten “ or “fokussieren”. By that the flow of the essay can continue, even though the word will not
be accepted.
• Even in Grade 11 it seems to be necessary to repeat punctuation and sentence structures for German, which is
partly similar to Afrikaans but quite different in word order to English.
• As in English and Afrikaans, it should be emphasized in German once more, that the structure of a text is similar: A
short introduction, the bullet points as guidelines to the requested information for the content and a proper ending.
• The prescribed number of words must be adhered to, because the language marks are calculated accordingly.
With too long texts the rest of the essay will not be acknowledged for its content. With too short texts the possible
language marks will be adjusted accordingly, e.g. ½ text will only allow ½ of language marks and these are then
parallel to the marking grid.
• A short planning phase is extremely important.
• The candidates who wrote a paragraph for each bullet point were more concentrated and achieved better content
marks.
• The candidates who first wrote the longest piece of writing for Section 2 were more focussed on that essay and
could achieve better marks for that essay.

Other common mistakes that can be avoided:

• The sport event was fun. NOT Das Sportfest war Spaß. – Correct: das Sportfest hat Spaß gemacht.
• We are together all the time. NOT Wir sind zusammen jeder Zeit. – Correct: Wir sind immer / ständig zusammen.
• He has a good heart. NOT Er hat ein gutes Hart. (= hard or then Afrikaans for heart) – Correct: Er hat ein
gutes Herz.
• NOT We school at XYZ High School. – Wir schulen bei der XYZ High School. It is wrong in Englisch, Afrikaans
and German. Correct: We go to XYZ High School. – Wir besuchen / gehen in die die XYZ High School.
• The English pronunciation of the letter “u” leads to confusion when it comes to expressing time:
• at 9 o ‘clock = um 9 Uhr, on Saturday = am Samstag, on 9th February = am 9. Februar
• We are together 24/7. – NOT Wir sind 24/7 zusammen. Correct: Wir sind die ganze Woche über ständig
zusammen. Some sayings cannot be translated directly.
• How are you? – I am good. NOT Wie bist du? – Ich bin gut. Correct: Wie geht es dir? – Mir geht es gut.
• I go home. – I am at home. But: the house Correct: Ich gehe nach Hause. Ich bin zu Hause. – Aber: das Haus
(without the e)

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FOREIGN LANGUAGE PORTUGUESE
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Paper 1

GENERAL COMMENTS
While candidates are generally accustomed to the multiple-choice format of the listening examination, some candidates
seemed unfamiliar with the topics covered in certain passages. Most candidates were able to answer the questions in
the first section, following the instructions and marking their answers with an X as directed. However, their performance
in this examination was notably weaker than in previous years. Despite their adherence to instructions, the overall
quality of responses this year was considerably lower than in past examinations. The following specific problem areas
were identified across different sections:

Exercise 1: Although this exercise appeared straightforward, some candidates struggled with basic vocabulary,
which led to incorrect answer choices.

Exercise 2: This section proved to be difficult due to gaps in both vocabulary and grammar knowledge, such as a lack
of understanding of passive versus active voice. Many candidates found it challenging to grasp the questions at the
required level, making it difficult for them to select the correct answers.

Questions 22 - 28: Candidates had significant difficulty identifying the underlined words correctly, with many offering
answers that were unrelated to the intended correct responses.

Questions 29 - 42: This section was generally poorly answered, suggesting that many candidates were not well-versed
in interrogative pronouns (e.g., why, who, when, what, how, which). This lack of familiarity resulted in a high number of
incorrect answers or questions left unanswered altogether.

To summarise, it appears that candidates faced challenges due to gaps in vocabulary, grammar and comprehension
skills, all of which hindered their ability to answer many questions correctly. The overall trend indicates a need for more
targeted preparation in these areas to improve performance in future examinations.

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

Section 1

Exercise 1: Questions 1 ‒ 8

In this exercise, candidates were asked to listen to short statements and select the correct picture by putting an X.
The task was designed to be simple, requiring candidates to match each statement with the appropriate image. Most
candidates performed well, showing a strong ability to understand the statements and make the correct connections.
However, a few candidates encountered difficulties with questions 2, 4 and 8, which suggests that these particular
statements might have required a more careful interpretation of the images. The challenges with questions 2, 4 and 8
could be attributed to several factors. For instance, the language in these statements might have included vocabulary
that candidates found unfamiliar, or the images may have been closely related, making it harder for candidates to
distinguish between them. Additionally, some candidates may have been distracted by visual details that were not
directly relevant to the statement, causing them to select the wrong image.

To address these challenges, it would be beneficial to incorporate more practice with listening to statements and
analysing corresponding visuals. Teachers can help candidates improve by emphasizing key words in the statements
and encouraging them to focus on specific details when selecting the correct image. Also, practising similar exercises
with varied difficulty levels could help candidates become more adept at identifying the key elements in both the spoken
text and visual cues. Including follow-up discussions where candidates describe what they see in the images and how
it relates to the statements can also improve their ability to process both auditory and visual information effectively. By
reinforcing listening skills and encouraging careful observation, candidates can increase their accuracy in selecting the
correct images and avoid common mistakes in future exercises.

The accepted answers were:

1 D
2 D
3 B

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4 A
5 B
6 B
7 A
8 C

Exercise 2: Questions 9 ‒15

In this exercise, candidates listened to two announcements and were required to write the correct answers in the
provided spaces. While the majority of candidates answered the questions correctly, many struggled with questions 10,
13 and 15. Question 10, in particular, was the most poorly answered, with a significant number of candidates writing
answers that were not even remotely close to the correct words provided in the mark scheme. This suggests that
candidates may have had difficulty distinguishing between similar-sounding words or comprehending key details from
the announcements.

The difficulty with question 10 might indicate the gaps in both vocabulary recognition and listening accuracy. Candidates
could have misheard or misunderstood the spoken words, especially if the pronunciation or the context was challenging.

Questions 13 and 15, though not as poorly answered as question 10, also seemed to cause some confusion. This could
reflect a general struggle with processing spoken information under timed conditions or difficulties with specific terms
used in the announcements.

To improve performance in future examinations, it would be helpful for candidates to practise listening to a variety of
spoken materials, including announcements, to improve their ability to pick out important details. Regular exposure to
different accents, speech speeds and vocabulary will also enhance candidates’ overall listening skills. Teachers might
also focus on vocabulary development and exercises that help candidates familiarise themselves with words commonly
used in similar contexts, such as announcements, to increase their confidence and accuracy in answering these types
of questions.

The accepted answers were:

9 lugar
10 excusao
11 pais
12 convidados
13 ministro
14 15/ quinze
15 mudado

Section 2

Exercise 1: Questions 16 ‒ 21
In this exercise, candidates listened to information about the relationship between candidates and their teachers and
were asked to determine whether the statements were true or false. The majority of candidates answered this question
correctly, demonstrating a solid understanding of the material. However, a few candidates struggled to select the
correct answers, possibly due to difficulty with specific details or subtle nuances in the information provided.

For average candidates, some may have resorted to guessing, as the task required attention to specific elements of
the relationship described in the text. This indicates that while the exercise was generally accessible, it still posed
challenges for certain candidates who may have lacked full comprehension or had trouble distinguishing between true
and false statements based on the information given.

The exercise also highlighted that some candidates may need more practice listening for key details and understanding
subtle differences in context. Reinforcing listening skills through targeted exercises, as well as encouraging candidates
to focus on the main points and supporting details, could help improve accuracy in future assessments. Despite the few
difficulties, the majority of candidates performed well, indicating that they had grasped the main concepts being tested.

The accepted answers were:

16 F
17 F
18 V
19 F
20 V
21 F

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Exercise 2: Questions 22 ‒ 28

In this exercise, candidates listened to an interview with Miguel, a pilot who won a major award in Guinea-Bissau, and
were required to replace the underlined words in the questions with the words they heard in the interview. This exercise
proved to be especially challenging for candidates, as they seemed to struggle with both understanding the vocabulary
and with the unfamiliarity of some of the words used in the interview. The complexity of the interview content, along with
the need to identify and replace specific terms, made this task difficult for many.

Although the majority of candidates successfully answered questions 22, 23, 24 and 28, it appears that these questions
were more straightforward or used more familiar vocabulary. However, the remaining questions were frequently
answered incorrectly or left blank, suggesting that candidates found the vocabulary in those questions more difficult to
understand or remember. This trend indicates a gap in both vocabulary, comprehension and the ability to pick out key
words in a spoken context.

The exercise may also have exposed issues related to listening strategies. Candidates might not have been able to
retain the information they heard, or they may have been overwhelmed by the speed or content of the interview. The
need to replace underlined words also requires a deeper level of listening comprehension, as candidates must not only
understand the content but also identify specific pieces of information and link them to the appropriate questions.

To help candidates improve in future examinations, teachers could focus on developing listening skills that enhance
vocabulary recognition and retention, particularly in more challenging contexts such as interviews or conversations with
specialized terminology. More practice listening to interviews, news reports, and similar content could help candidates
become accustomed to different accents, speech speeds and vocabulary levels. Additionally, candidates could benefit
from activities that focus on paraphrasing, where they practise rephrasing information in their own words, to reinforce
understanding and improve their ability to extract key details from spoken texts.

42 em dois mil e doze\2012
43 os adolecentes\criancas e jovems de todo o mundo
44 porque ganha muito dinheiro pela publicidade
45 acha que érapido\divertido
46 usar a sua imaginacão\criar obras de arte. {Reject levantar-se de sofa.}
47 certas palavras\algumas dancas(usadas em alguns temas musicais ou alguma dancas).
48 As pessoas maiores de 12\doze anos
49 alegre e chocado

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Teachers are encouraged to focus on teaching directly from the syllabus rather than relying solely on textbooks as well
as to incorporate a wide range of listening exercises into their lessons. By strictly adhering to the syllabus guidelines,
teachers can ensure that candidates are exposed to the full scope of content and are better prepared for the various
exercises they will encounter in the listening comprehension paper. It is essential for teachers to go beyond textbook
material and actively engage learners in diverse listening activities, which will not only improve their listening skills but
also help them become more adaptable in handling a variety of listening contexts.

In addition, teachers should integrate past question papers throughout the year as part of their teaching strategy.
Regularly practising using previous examination papers helps candidates familiarise themselves with the examination
format, build their test-taking skills and identify areas that need further attention. This early exposure to examination-
style questions will give candidates a clearer understanding of what to expect, which can significantly reduce anxiety

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and improve their performance in the final examination.

Starting examination preparation early is essential and teachers should establish a clear and structured practice
schedule for candidates, whether on a daily or weekly basis. Consistent revision not only reinforces key concepts but
also ensures that candidates are able to retain information more effectively. Teachers should also focus on reinforcing
fundamental vocabulary regularly, as a strong vocabulary base is essential for success in the listening comprehension
section. Providing candidates with exposure to various types of Portuguese words from simple to more complex
material, will help them adapt to different accents, speeds and levels of difficulty, which is crucial for success in the
examination.

Moreover, teachers must ensure that the syllabus is completed within the allotted time, so that every topic is thoroughly
covered. A well-paced curriculum allows teachers to revisit difficult topics and address any gaps in understanding. If
teachers rush through the syllabus or fail to allocate adequate time for key themes, candidates may miss critical content
that could negatively impact their examination performance. Time management is, therefore, essential for ensuring
comprehensive coverage and preventing candidates from being disadvantaged in the final examination.

To further support learner success, teachers should also incorporate formative assessments throughout the year to
identify areas of strength and areas that require additional focus. These assessments, such as quizzes, practice tests,
and regular class discussions, help teachers gauge learner progress and provide targeted feedback. By addressing
weaknesses early, teachers can provide focused interventions, enabling candidates to improve before the final
examination.

Lastly, teachers should consider creating a collaborative learning environment by encouraging peer review and group
discussions. This approach can help candidates exchange ideas, clarify doubts and reinforce their understanding
through active participation. Working in groups also allows candidates to benefit from diverse perspectives, improving
their overall grasp of the material.

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6113
Paper 2

GENERAL COMMENTS

The paper was tackled very well by many of the candidates and was of minimal difficulty. However, a significant number
struggled to cope, mainly due to their disregard for instructions. Furthermore, some of the candidates did not follow
the guidelines and marked with a ✔ instead of an X as instructed. There were instances where candidates did not write
on the spaces provided and some opted to indicate that the answer was on the blank pages. This practice should be
discouraged and candidates should be trained strictly to write their answers in the allocated space provided.

Several of the candidates were well acquainted with the format of the examination and could respond to the questions
as expected. Specifically, Section 3 Exercise 1, proved to be a challenge for most candidates in the previous years.
This year the majority of candidates successfully answered and accurately justified the false statements. In comparison
to the previous years, many of the candidates could better comprehend the texts and there was a significant attempt to
answer questions. A relatively small number of candidates did not manage to finish writing the examination.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

This exercise was well attempted by many of the candidates. Most of the candidates performed well for the most part. The
exercise required candidates to select the correct picture based on the statement and question posed. Candidates were to
indicate their answer with an (X) which was not always the case as the majority of the candidates indicated their answer with a ✔.
Section 1

Exercise 1: Questions 1 - 5

The accepted answers were:

1 A
Many of the candidates responded correctly to this question.

2 C
Almost all candidates were able to identify the image of “cozinha”.

3 C
This question proved to be challenging for most candidates as quite a number of them did not seem to be familiar
with the difference between “avó” and “avô”. As a result, a number of candidates incorrectly selected B and
some opted for D.

4 B
Most candidates coped well with this question, however, some candidates erroneously selected option D and C
instead of B.

5 A
This question was generally well answered, however, there were candidates who appeared to be unfamiliar with
the word “atrás” and incorrectly opted for image D which displayed the house as being in front and not behind.

Exercise 2: Questions 6 ‒ 12
There was a wide range of success with this question and it was well answered by most candidates who managed to
score full marks. Candidates were expected to match a series of short statements in column A with the corresponding
statement in Column B, however, a number of candidates did not comprehend that two of the statements for column A
and two from Column B were not to be used. As a result, candidates filled in all the options.

The accepted answers were:

6 E

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7 D
8 G
9 – (no answer was required here as it was the statement that should not have been used.)
10 A
11 – (no answer was required here as it was the statement that should not have been used.)
12 B

Exercise 3: Questions 13 ‒ 17
Most candidates responded well to this question and scored full marks. Although there was a significant number who
guessed and selected the options Verdadeiro for questions 1 to 17 or Falso for the same questions.

13 V
14 V
15 F
16 F
17 F

Section 2

Exercise 1: Questions 18 ‒ 27
The exercise required candidates to complete phrases with a given list of appropriate words. Some candidates achieved
full marks on this question, but there were quite a few with more incorrect than correct answers, as well those with no
correct answers at all.

The accepted answers were:

18 Opções
Many of the candidates managed to score marks here, however, “prato” was a reoccurring incorrect response.

19 Saboroso
Some of the incorrect answers included the words; mesa, problema and noites.

20 Problema
A frequent incorrect response to the question was “prato” and there were instances where candidates opted for
words such as saboroso, adorava and mostrava.

21 Mostrava
Few of the candidates answered this question incorrectly with responses that included the words: adorava,
acessíveis and cheio.

22 Cheio
The majority of candidates scored marks here where those who gave incorrect answers often selected the words:
caros, bonito and gerent.

23 Hora
Quite a number of candidates answered this question well, but all the words were used by some candidates
across the board.

24 Adorava
Almost every other word was used as an option to answer this question by most of the candidates who failed to
answer this question.

25 Gerente
The answer was switched by the majority of the candidates with jantar.

26 Jantar
The correct answer was supplied by many of the candidates, however, quite a significant number wrote gerente
as the correct answer.

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27 Acessíveis
This question was fairly well answered, but most candidates selected almost any and every other word from the
list as the answer.

Exercise 2: Question 28 ‒ 29
This exercise required candidates to answer questions with accurately formulated responses. Most candidates
responded well to this question. In some cases candidates did not read the questions carefully enough and lifted a
piece of text that did not always address the precise question that had been posed.

The accepted answers were:

28 Uma forma de expressão artística

The question was tackled well by many candidates and the majority supplied the correct answer.

29 Escolher bem os atores

This question was answered correctly by almost all candidates.

30 Sente-se feliz/ sente felicidade

Candidates mainly located the right part of the text to answer this question, but there were frequent incomplete
answers such as “elas criam um ambiente.” which did not answer the question. The subject/personal pronoun
was ambiguous as the manipulation of personal pronouns was incorrect.

31 Para celebrar as melhores criações

Few candidates answered this question accurately as many struggled and lifted the sentence “há uma riqueza de
produções internacionais de alta qualidade” which was not a suitable response.

32 - porque não são Americanos

- são bons
This question was generally well answered by most candidates. Some candidates successfully lifted the phrase
“são entre os melhores filmes do cinema”, which was credited.

33 Aossítios de ficção
Almost all candidates provided a correct answer to this question.

34 Inspiram mudanças/ ensima pessoas a pensar em questões socias

This question was very well answered, however, some of the common mistakes amongst the candidates were
not credited. “os filmes têm um efeito significativo na sociadade” was one of the most reoccurring mistakes
which did not answer the question posed.

35 Melhora a nossa cultura de cinema

There were many correct answers, but also evidence of word spotting when candidates wrote “experimentar
diferentes filmes e diretores”, which was not credited.

36 Com novas técnicas/ efeitos visuais

Almost all the candidates seemed to understand the question and many provided an accurate response, although
some candidates invalidated their answers by lifting the phrase “O future do cinema parece ótimo”.

Section 3

Exercise 3: Questions 37 ‒ 41
The candidates were required to respond to the questions as being either true or false and justify the false statements.
While selective lifting may be appropriate for this section candidates are required to understand the texts and manipulation
of lifted phrases should be done correctly. Some of the candidates identified the statements as either true or false but
struggled to justify the false statements.

The accepted answers were:

37 Verdadeiro
Most candidates performed well and selected verdadeiro as the correct answer.

38 Falso - Os agricultores fazem muitas tarefas de cada vez.

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Some candidates provided the appropriate answer and justified accordingly, while some did not comprehend that
the statement was referring to only one task being done and wrote “um agricultor tem muitas tarefas,”which was
not credited.

39 Falso - Se um agricultor fizer um intervalo, terá a energia necessária para o resto do dia.
The majority answered this question relatively well. Some of the uncredited common answers were o trabalho é
cansativo pelo que fazer pausas é essencial.

40 Falso - Os agricultores plantam os vegetais durante o dia.

Quite a number of candidates answered this question well and correctly justified as to why it was false. Some
candidates rewrote the question in the negative form by using the word não which they were cautioned against.

41 Verdadeiro
There were many correct responses to this question, however, a small number of candidates left the question
blank.

Exercise 2: Questions 42 ‒ 47
In this exercise, candidates were required to respond by showing understanding of the text. This exercise was very well
answered and a number of candidates gained full or nearly full marks.

The accepted answers were:

42 Limpar os oceanos (do mundo)

43 Viu mais lixo na água do que peixes

The majority of the candidates answered this question well. Few of them did not respond to the question and
some wrote “lixo na água.”

44 O grupo arranjou dinheiro

Almost all of the candidates seemed to understand the question and many provided an accurate response.

45 - um navio levaria o lixo de volta para a costa

- O lixo seria separado e reciclado
This question was tackled well by many of the candidates, however, there were some who located the answer but
did not achieve full marks due to faulty manipulation.

46 Animados
Though well answered, some candidates inaccurately lifted sections from the text such as “recebeu uma
chamada de um homem.”

47 - porqueospássaros e peixespodem comer o lixo

- os pássaros e peixes podem ficar doentes
- os pássaros e peixes podem ficar presos no lixo.
There was a significant number of candidates who misinterpreted the question and wrote “é mau” and some who
merely wrote “pássaros or peixes” and their response was not accredited.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Teachers are encouraged to emphasise the importance of reading and following of instructions to the candidates.
Additionally, caution candidates against the use of extra and incorrect information which could negate their responses.
Candidates are motivated to write brief answers to avoid writing incorrect information.

Teachers are encouraged to give a vast number of reading and writing exercise as well as incorporate speed reading
activities to improve the candidates’ reading pace and thus increase their chances of completing the examination. The
practice of noting question words to guide candidates to the correct answers could also be beneficial.

It is imperative to train the candidates using past examination papers on all exercises throughout the year before they
write their final examination. This will ensure that candidates are familiar with the format of the examination and what
is expected of them in terms of responding to the questions.

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Paper 3

Key Messages
• The Speaking component is a communication exercise based on familiar situations.
• The role play cards specify the roles of the examiner and candidates, so the role play cards should be conducted
in accordance with the instructions and scripts provided.
• Marks should only be awarded for the stipulated task.
• In the role plays successful communication should be achieved in as natural way as possible and responses need
not be extensive for candidates to score full marks.
• It should be noted that candidates need not be native speakers to score full marks.
• A positive approach should be adopted when awarding marks to candidates; marks should be awarded based on
their capabilities and not what they cannot do.
• In the topic presentation, candidates should be able to converse generally, hence more general topics, in line with
syllabus guidelines should be selected, to maintain a broader scope for discussion.
• Ideas should be expressed fully.
• The use of future and past tense should be applied in order for candidates to score the highest marks in the topic
and general conversation section.
• Extension question technique should be applied to encourage more detailed responses and a fuller demonstration
of language ability.
• Questions should be rephrased rather then repeated to maintain a dialogue.
• Examiners must clearly announce transitions between examination sections to maintain the examination structure
and clarity for both the candidate and moderator.

GENERAL COMMENTS

The comments are to be read in conjunction with the Teachers’ Notes for 2024.

Most centres have adapted very well to the requirements for this still fairly new syllabus, with its emphasis placed
firmly on communication and spontaneity. Most examiners created a calm environment that helped candidates engage
confidently and the majority of candidates demonstrated a good grasp of the tasks, though several key areas for
improvement were identified.

In the role plays the examiners usually deviate from the role play tasks. In several instances, examiners altered, omitted
or rearranged tasks. In some cases, examiners assumed the role of the candidate or provided additional questions
beyond the scope of the role play prompts, which affected the flow of the assessment. In the topic presentation section,
a number of candidates were allowed to present personal topics (e.g. “My Holiday”), which is against syllabus guidelines
and may overlap with the general conversation section. The majority of examiners have not yet mastered the transitions
between sections (role play, topic presentation, general conversation) as the majority did not announce the transition to
the general conversation from section to section, which is not a good idea as it often disrupts the structured flow of the
examination.

Many of the examiners were able to conduct successful conversation lasting approximately five minutes on each
individual topic.

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

Role Plays
There were many lively performances from the candidates and a number of examiners coped well with the requirements.
Each role play specified the role of the examiner and the role of the candidates.

Some examiners did not always conduct the Role play cards A and B in accordance with the instructions provided in the
Teachers’ Note Booklet. Examiners should ensure that the tasks on the role play cards are followed precisely, without
adding, omitting or rearranging tasks. Some candidates missed the task and in some instances the examiner guided
candidates back to it, in a natural manner and without altering the prescribed order of tasks.

The marking of the role play card was commendably accurate, though some examiners were slightly harsh as minor
errors are tolerated for this section of the examinations. An incorrect auxiliary or verb ending may still be part of an
unambiguous response, which warrants a maximum mark if a message is conveyed in the native idiom and appropriate
register.

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Comments on the Role Plays:

Overall, this task was reasonably well attempted by most candidates.

Role Play Card One

Role Play A
Discussing Sports

This question was well answered, as the most challenging part, required candidates to construct questions. a number
of candidates struggled to formulate questions. Some candidates read the statement instead of formulating questions.
The majority of candidates had the required vocabulary for this topic and could express themselves freely.
Role Play B
Future plans

The question proved to be challenging for some candidates, as they could not make use of the rubric to rephrase the
statements and state what it is they wanted to do. Some candidates read the rubric as it is instead of saying “estou a
pensar no meu futuro.” They said “está a a pensar no seu futuro.” A number of candidates could not make use of the
future tense properly. There were many instances where candidates could not justify why they needed to speak to the
teacher on that specific day. Candidates should be made aware that nothing in the role play needs to be ‘true’. They
should focus on the role they are meant to act out at that moment.

Role Play Card Two

Role play A
Discussing Sports

Role Play B
Emprego de Férias num supermercado.

A number of candidates managed to complete this task successfully, although this question proved to be demanding for
most candidates, as quite a number of them misinterpreted the card. the majority of candidates did not comprehend
that they had started working at the supermarket and acted as if they were looking for a job at the supermarket. C4 of
role-play B cards two, five and eight was challenging for a number of candidates, as they were unable to describe their
actions in the imperfect past tense.

Role play Card Three

Role Play A
Discussing Sports

This question was well answered. the most challenging part required candidates to construct questions and a number
of candidates struggled to formulate questions. Some candidates read the statement instead of formulating questions.
The majority of candidates had the required vocabulary for this topic and could express themselves freely.

Role Play B
Raising Funds for new books for the library.

Most candidates coped well with this scenario, as the majority could express themselves without restrictions and stated
what they wanted. Interesting ideas for raising funds for the library were discussed. It was evident that the candidates
had ample vocabulary for the task. However, formulating questions proved to be a bit of a challenge as a number of
them experienced difficulties formulating questions.
Role play Card Four

Role play A
Discussing plans for Christmas

There were some very interesting answers to this question, although a number of candidates opted to mention dançar,
ir à praia and comer as the activities they planned to perform during Christmas. The majority of candidates did not

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understand the word “prenda” or “desejar” and as a result could not respond to the question “Que prenda deseja
receber?”. Again, formulating questions proved to be a challenge for most candidates.
Role Play B
Discussing future plans

The question proved to be challenging for some candidates as they could not make use of the rubric to rephrase the
statements and state what it is they wanted to do. Some candidates read the rubric as it is instead of saying “estou a
pensar no meu futuro.” They said “está a a pensar no seu futuro.” A number of candidates could not make use of the
future tense properly. There were many instances where candidates could not justify why they needed to speak to the
teacher on that specific day. Candidates should be made aware that nothing in the role play needs to be ‘true’ but they
should focus on the role they are meant to act out at that moment.

Role play Card Five

Role play A
Discussing plans for Christmas

There were some very interesting answers to this questions, although a number of candidates opted to mention dançar,
ir à praia and comer as the activities they planned to perform during Christmas. The majority of candidates did not
understand the word “prenda” or desejar and as a result could not respond to the question “Que prenda deseja receber?”.
Again, formulating questions proved to be a challenge for most candidates.
Role Play B
Emprego de Férias num supermercado.

A number of candidates managed to complete this task successfully, although this question proved to be demanding for
most candidates as quite a number of them misinterpreted the card. The majority of candidates did not comprehend
that they had started working at the supermarket and acted as if they were looking for a job at the supermarket. C4 of
role-play B cards two, five and eight was challenging for a number of candidates as they were unable to describe their
actions in the imperfect past tense.

Role play Card Six

Role play A
Discussing plans for Christmas

Role play Card Seven

Spending Holidays in the Cape Verde
Role Play A

This question was misinterpreted by a number of candidates, who understood the scenario as them being in Cape
Verde, instead of calling their friend who lives there to talk about their trip to Cabo Verde. It is important that candidates
make use of the 15 minutes to familiarize themselves with the scenario prior to entering the examination room. C2 and
C3 proved to be easy as the majority of candidates responded appropriately to the questions posed. Some candidates
managed to pose questions for C4 as they rephrased the wording to formulate the questions. Overall this question was
well answered by those who understood the scenario.

Role Play B Future plans

The question proved to be challenging for some candidates, as they could not make use of the rubric to rephrase the
statements and state what it is they wanted to do. Some candidates read the rubric as it is. Instead of saying “estou a
pensar no meu futuro.” They said “está a a pensar no seu futuro.” A number of candidates could not make use of the
future tense properly. There were many instances where candidates could not justify why they needed to speak to the

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teacher on that specific day. Candidates should be made aware that nothing in the role play needs to be ‘true’, they
should focus on the role they are meant to act out at that moment.

Role play Card Eight

Spending Holidays in Cape Verde
Role Play A

This question was misinterpreted by a number of candidates who understood the scenario as them being in Cape
Verde, instead of calling their friend who lives there to talk about their trip to Cabo Verde. It is important that candidates
make use of the 15 minutes to familiarize themselves with the scenario prior to entering the examination room. C2 and
C3 proved to be easy as the majority of candidates responded appropriately to the questions posed. Some candidates
managed with posing questions for C4 as they rephrased the wording to formulate the questions. Overall this question
was well answered by those who understood the scenario.

Emprego de Férias num supermercado.

A number of candidates managed to complete this task successfully, although this question proved to be demanding for
most candidates as quite a number of them misinterpreted the card. The majority of candidates did not comprehend
that they had started working at the supermarket and acted as if they were looking for a job at the supermarket. C4 of
role-play B cards two, five and eight was challenging for a number of candidates, as they were unable to describe their
actions in the imperfect past tense.

Role play Card Nine

Spending Holidays in Cape Verde
Role Play A

This question was misinterpreted by a number of candidates who understood the scenario as them being in Cape
Verde, instead of calling their friend who lives there to talk about their trip to Cabo Verde. It is important that candidates
make use of the 15 minutes to familiarize themselves with the scenario prior to entering the examination room. C2 and
C3 proved to be easy as the majority of candidates responded appropriately to the questions posed. Some candidates
managed to pose questions for C4 as they rephrased the wording to formulate the questions. Overall this question was
well answered by those who understood the scenario.
Role Play B
Raising Funds for New books for the library.

Topic Conversation

A number of examiners did not cope well with the requirements of the syllabus as some candidates were allowed to present
personal topics, such as “My Holiday” or “My Life,” during the topic presentation section, which is not recommended,
as it goes against the guidelines outlined in the syllabus. These topics pre-empt the general conversation section and
limited the breadth of discussion that should have occurred during the examination. Furthermore, transitions between
sections (from role play to topic presentation and from topic presentation to general conversation) were not always
clearly announced, which disrupted the structured flow of the examination.

It was pleasant to see that some centres encouraged candidates to select more general topics for the topic presentation,
and presented topics such as “The Importance of Holidays”, HIV and Aids, Sports, Lusophone countries or “Ideal
Holiday Destinations,” rather than personal topics.

In most cases open-ended questions were used to prompt candidates to elaborate on their answers. Strong candidates
often provided detailed responses without prompting, but average and weaker candidates required additional
encouragement. Questions like “Why do you think that?” or “Can you explain further?” can help draw out more detailed
responses and provide a more comprehensive assessment of the candidate’s language abilities.

General Conversation

Though not all centres followed the structured flow of the examination, a number of centres followed the required
guidelines, whereby topic conversations lead into spontaneous discussions of a natural nature and the examiners

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announced the transition into the General Conversation. In most cases three topics of the defined content list were
covered such as Family, Hobbies, Sports and Modes of transport.

Again, a number of examiners did not ask open-ended questions, which is recommended to encourage more detailed
responses and a fuller demonstration of language ability.

Recordings

Most centres uploaded the appropriate sample to ‘Submit for assessment’. Surprisingly, there were no candidates whose
speaking test was totally or partially inaudible and recordings were of acceptable quality. Unfortunately, background
distractions such as people talking or cell phone vibrations could be picked up. Quiet rooms are recommended for the
examinations to minimise background noise.

Administration

Administration in centres was generally good, and in this session very few centres opted not to submit Individual
Candidate Record cards and few errors were made in the calculation of the candidates’ marks and labelling of recordings.

Marking by centres

Assessments appeared to be consistent. However, a number of centres marks needed to be scaled either up or down
by moderators. There was occasional severity in marking the role plays, but most centres made good use of the clear
descriptors in the mark schemes for both Communication and Quality of Language.

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6113
Paper 4

KEY MESSAGES

Centres should advise candidates to ensure they respond to every question, leaving no task unanswered, as this is
crucial for achieving full marks.

Candidates should be encouraged to read each task thoroughly and carefully identify the required tense for their
responses, ensuring consistency in the time frame throughout their responses.

Candidates should be guided to follow the sequence of tasks in Exercise 2 and Exercise 3 as outlined in the bullet
points. Adhering to this order will help them avoid skipping or missing any critical elements of the exercise and maintain
a structured approach to their responses.

Additionally, candidates should be reminded to plan their responses, allocate time effectively for each task as well as
review their work to confirm that all instructions have been addressed appropriately. This will help improve both the
completeness and accuracy of their responses.

Teachers may also encourage candidates to highlight or underline key task requirements in the instructions to ensure
that all aspects of the questions are covered in their responses.

GENERAL COMMENTS
Overall, the candidates were exceptionally well-prepared and displayed a solid understanding of the material. They
demonstrated a high level of proficiency in both language use and creative expression, with their Portuguese being
sufficiently accurate to convey meaning clearly and effectively. In addition to their linguistic competence, many
candidates exhibited notable creativity in their responses, which added depth to their work. As in previous years, the
candidates maintained a high standard of accuracy, with many showing impressive skill in employing a wide range of
language structures, including relative clauses, complex sentences and varied vocabulary. This ability to manipulate
language structures not only showcased their technical mastery but also highlighted their capacity for sophisticated
communication. Overall, their performance reflects significant progress and a strong grasp of the language.

COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

SECTION 1: EXERCISE 1

• “Imagine you are in your room relaxing after a long day at school, write a list of the five items in your room.”
Candidates were provided with a number of images to guide them in writing their lists, but it was not mandatory to
include the names of the images in their responses.

• It was pleased to observe that the majority of candidates attempted this question successfully. However, a few
misinterpreted the instructions and listed items found in the classroom instead of those found in the room, which led
to irrelevant and unacceptable answers for the given scenario.

• Marks were awarded according to the following guidelines:

33 A mark was awarded for each acceptable item listed, provided the candidate included more than one word
(e.g., if the candidate linked two words together, this counted as one mark).
33 The images provided on the question paper were intended as a guide and candidates were not required to
use them if they chose not to do so.
33 Marks were awarded for effective communication. Definite and indefinite articles, possessive adjectives and
verbs were not considered when awarding marks.
33 Misspelled words that suggest a completely different meaning should not be accepted.

Possible acceptable answers for Exercise 1

1. Cama 4. Computador 7. Tapete 10. Estante
2. Lâmpada 5. Cadeira 8. Armário 11. Travesseiro
3. Livros 6. Almofada 9. Mesa 12, Toalha

Reject any item that is not part of the room example: a pot.

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EXERCISE 2

This question was compulsory for all candidates and required them to write a friendly letter informing a friend about their
recent move to a new school.

The majority of candidates demonstrated a commendable ability to use language effectively, showcasing a good range
of vocabulary and successfully employing linking words in their writing. Their letters often conveyed clear and coherent
messages, reflecting a solid understanding of the task.

However, it is important to emphasise the need for candidates to read carefully and thoroughly to understand all the
bullet points provided in the question. Some candidates, unfortunately, wrote generic paragraphs about the situation,
overlooking key aspects of the prompt, which impacted the relevance and completeness of their responses.

Tense usage and spelling remain areas of concern. Common mistakes included writing “Eu Faz” instead of “Eu faço”
and “Eu gosta” instead of “Eu gosto,” indicating a lack of attention to verb conjugations. Additionally, there was a
tendency to use minimal vocabulary and simpler sentence structures, which limited the overall complexity and depth of
some responses.

It is essential that candidates be encouraged to expand their vocabulary and aim for more varied sentence constructions
in future writing tasks. A greater emphasis on understanding and applying correct verb forms and tenses will also
enhance the clarity and accuracy of their writing.

Despite these challenges, the overall performance was strong, with the majority of candidates achieving good marks in
this exercise. With continued focus on the areas of tense and vocabulary, candidates will be well-positioned to improve
their written communication further.

Marking of the content

The marks awarded to candidates were based on their task completion, which depended on how well they understood
and responded to the specific demands of each task. The banded mark scheme primarily focuses on the successful
completion of the tasks, ensuring that all relevant information is provided and that each bullet point is addressed
appropriately.

Candidates who failed to address the specific requirements of a bullet point were penalised under the banded mark
scheme. This could happen if they omitted part of the task or if their lack of comprehension led to an inadequate
response. If a candidate did not address a bullet point from the instructions, the maximum possible content mark could
not be awarded. For example, if only 4 out of 5 bullet points were answered in Exercise 2, the content mark could not
exceed 4. Similarly, if 4 out of 5 bullet points were addressed in Exercise 3, the content mark could not exceed 12.

If two bullet points were not addressed, the maximum content mark could not be awarded and this trend continues if
any bullet point is not addressed.

Language is assessed according to the marking grid. In conjunction with the use of the language marking grid, markers
should evaluate the accuracy and appropriateness of the following elements:
• Subject (noun or pronoun) + finite verb
• Object pronouns
• Conjunctions and linking words
• Prepositions (time, place, etc.)
• Negatives
• Adverbs
• Adjectives, including possessives, demonstratives, comparatives and superlatives
• Expressions of quantity

If the content is completely irrelevant, no marks will be awarded for language.

SECTION 3: EXERCISE 3

In this section, candidates were required to choose one piece of writing to complete: A) a letter, B) an article, or C) a
narrative, with a word count between 130 and 140 words. Most candidates opted for C (Narrative), while only a small
number chose A (Letter).

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A: Letter Writing

Task: “You recently spent two weeks working at a local company to gain professional experience. Write a
letter to the director/principal of your college to inform him/her about your experience.”
• Vocabulary Limitations: A significant portion of candidates who attempted this exercise demonstrated a
limited vocabulary, which affected the richness and depth of their responses. Many were unable to express
their ideas effectively, which impacted the clarity of their writing.
• Tense Challenges: A few candidates struggled with the fourth bullet point, particularly when it came to writing
in the future tense. As a result, they were unable to gain a mark for this part of the task. Mastery of tense
forms remains an area for improvement.
• Expressing Opinions: Candidates who were less proficient found it difficult to articulate their views on the
importance of job experience, as required in the fifth bullet point. This further affected the overall quality of
their responses.

B: Article Writing

Task: Your town/city changed a lot recently. Write an article about the changes that happened and the
current conditions.”
• Effective Use of Tenses and Linking Words: Many candidates who chose this exercise demonstrated a
good understanding of past tenses and the use of linking words to organize their ideas. They were able to
describe the changes in their town/city in a clear and coherent manner.
• Despite their overall success, a few candidates had difficulty with possessive pronouns, mistakenly using
“A sua cidade” instead of “A minha cidade” when referring to “my city.” This indicates an area where further
practice is needed, particularly with possessive constructions.
• Overall, candidates expressed clear opinions and were able to address the precise bullet points of the task.
The structure and flow of the article were mostly well-organised, demonstrating solid understanding and
ability to convey information effectively.

C: Narrative Writing

Task: “My family received a present recently, to travel to any part of the world.”
• High Participation: A large number of candidates chose this exercise, demonstrating significant interest in
narrative writing.
• Candidates who attempted this task showcased creativity and well-organised thoughts. Their narratives
flowed logically, with clear introductions, developments and conclusions. As a result, they achieved very
good marks for this exercise.
• Most candidates used tenses accurately and provided clear references to time, demonstrating an ability
to write in different tenses. Additionally, they offered well-informed opinions about the importance of travel
during holidays, which enriched the content of their narratives.
• It was evident that many candidates were well-prepared and capable of expressing themselves in a variety
of tenses, which contributed to the overall success of their narratives. Their writing showed maturity and
awareness of narrative structures.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS FOR TEACHERS

The candidates’ scores are a true reflection of your dedication and hard work in teaching the Portuguese language. The
progress seen is commendable so continued support and development in their writing skills will further enhance their
fluency.

Here are some suggestions to continue supporting learner growth:

• Continue Writing Practice: Teachers should consistently assign writing tasks, assess them thoroughly and provide
detailed feedback. Regular practice will help candidates refine their skills over time.

• Incorporate Reading: Reading is just as important as writing. Teachers are encouraged to provide candidates with
a variety of texts on different topics to improve their reading comprehension and expose them to diverse vocabulary
and writing styles.

• Stay Informed and Engaged: Teachers should make an effort to stay informed about current events and diverse
topics. A well-rounded understanding of various subjects allows teachers to provide richer, more relevant content
to candidates. Discussing global issues can inspire learners to think critically and express their opinions more
effectively.
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• Focus on Spelling and Grammar: Organise spelling quizzes and exercises focused on verb conjugation to help
candidates improve accuracy in these fundamental areas. Playing educational language games, especially on
Fridays, can provide a fun and engaging way to reinforce these skills.

• Create Interactive Learning Experiences: Incorporate interactive activities, such as role-playing or group
discussions, to encourage active language use. This can build confidence and improve candidates’ ability to
express themselves in real-life contexts.

• By continuing to focus on these areas, teachers will ensure that candidates not only improve their writing skills but
also develop a deeper understanding of the Portuguese language and culture. Keep up the excellent work!

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GEOGRAPHY
6137
Paper 1

GENERAL COMMENTS
• Learners have shown general lack of knowledge in AOA questions.
• In most cases candidates could not analyse given figures (fig 1/ photograph a + b , Fig 2 Photograph c +
Newspaper Extract).
• There seems to be a problem understanding command words e.g. Describe/Explain.
• Poor emphasis on the assessment objectives AOA, AOB, AOC.
• Candidates are still not adhering to the instructions and information to candidates, on the question paper,
thus a lot of rubric errors occured.

SECTION A: PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY

1 (a) (i) AOA: Define the term hydrolysis.

Comments on specific question
• Poorly answered: candidates are not aware that hydrolysis is an example of chemical weathering
and that it involves change in rock composition

Common wrong answers given by candidates

• Is the breaking down of rocks by water
• When water enters the rock
• When rocks dissolve in water
• Rocks absorb water and break down
• Rocks are broken down through the process of chemical weathering
• The study and analysis of different weather conditions,

Correct answers
• The breaking of a chemical bond in a rock through the addition of water. [1]
(ii) AOA: Distinguish between weathering and erosion.
Comments on specific question
• Well answered, although most candidates have given the correct answers, but failed to use words
like and while as comparative terms
• Candidates could not distinguish between weathering and erosion

Common wrong answers given by candidates

• Weathering occurs over a short period of time/erosion occurs over a long period of time
• Erosion is the breakdown of rocks with no movement
• Erosion is the cutting down of trees and causes deforestation
• Process when rocks undergo a chemical change

Correct answers
• Erosion is defined as the movement of weathered material by wind, water and ice.
• Weathering is defined as the decomposition of rocks, soil and minerals by agents of weathering,
without movement.
• The eroded materials undergo movement while the weathered materials do not undergo
movement.
• Weathering is the process of breaking down rocks and minerals, while erosion is the process of
transporting weathered material/ removal of the top soil.
1 mark - weathering definition
1 mark - erosion definition
1 mark - distinction (while, and, whereas, but) MAX 2 MARKS IF NOT COMPARED [3]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teach learners to use comparative terms when giving differences e.g. while and whereas

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(iii) AOA: Describe why chemical weathering is rapid in tropical rainforests.
Comments on specific question
• Fairly answered: candidates could not describe factors that speed up chemical weathering

Common wrong answers given by candidates

• Acid rain breaking down rocks
• Most candidates failed to describe factors responsible for rapid chemical weathering - they only
listed rain or tall trees
• Definitions given on carbonation and oxidation

Correct answers
• High rainfall in tropical rainforests increases chemical weathering as water combining with
elements in rocks breaks them down.
• Large amounts of vegetation in tropical rainforests increases biological weathering as roots
secrete acids that eat rocks away.
• Tropical rainforests are closer to the equator, so high temperatures speed up rates of chemical
reactions.
• Warm
• Wet
• Humid/moist/humidity
• More decaying plants in tropical rainforests (humic acid formed/chelation) which increases
chemical weathering due to decaying plants, increasing chemical weathering.
• More carbon dioxide (solution) due to decaying plants, increasing chemical weathering and more
acid rain.
• Small temperature range
• More oxygen, for oxidation.

Accept other relevant answers

Adjective such as very, high, more, not necessary to gain a mark Any four [4]
(iv) AOA: Describe and explain how plants facilitate the breakdown of rocks.
Comments on specific questions
• Fairly well answered as only a few candidates referred to biological weathering/biological chemical/
biological physical (mechanical)
• Candidates showed lack of knowledge regarding how plants facilitate the breakdown of rocks

Common wrong answers

• When plants are uprooted and breakdown rocks
• Rocks grow into roots and break
• Animals breaking down rocks when digging a hole in the soil
• The growth of plant roots in the soil
• Animals with hooves also break down rocks
• Animals urinate on rocks

Correct answers
Describe and explain how plants facilitate the breakdown of rocks.
Description: through biological weathering/ biological chemical/ biological mechanical (reserve
1 mark) Explanation
• Vegetation can weather rock as the tree or bush (or any type of vegetation) is yanked out of the
ground by forces of wind or by merely falling over after it has died, breaking down rocks.
• As vegetation roots grow bigger, they expand the crack in which they have grown, breaking
down rocks.
• As vegetation grows, it secretes weak acids that break down minerals in rocks, breaking the rock
down.
• As vegetation sheds its leaves, these leaves are decomposed and release acids that break down
rocks.
• As vegetation dies, bodies are decomposed and release acids that break down rocks.
• Plants can physically break apart rocks through root growth. As the plant roots grow through the
soil, they can encounter rocks in their path. If the roots are strong enough, they can physically
break apart rocks, causing them to weather and break down into smaller pieces.
• Plant roots can provide habitats for microorganisms that secrete enzymes that break down
minerals in the rock, facilitating the weathering process.

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Accept other relevant answers.
1 mark – description
4 marks – explanation [5]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should teach learners the difference between describing and explaining

(b) (i) AOB: Using evidence from Fig. 1 only, identify and describe factors that cause freeze-
thaw weathering to take place in this location.
Comments on specific question
• Poorly answered as candidates failed to answer the question using evidence from the figure.
Instead candidates described/explained the process of freeze thaw action and not the factors that
caused freeze thaw in the location shown so candidates could not analyse the figure.

Common wrong answers given by candidates

• Water enters cracks which expand during the night.
• Water enters the cracks and freezes at night
• Water gets into cracks during the day, but water freezes at night.

Correct answers
: Using evidence from Fig. 1 only, identify and describe factors that cause freeze-thaw
weathering to take place in this location.
• Rock structure; Jointed rocks/crevices/ cracks
• Climate: Presence of ice/moisture/snow/cold temperature
• Higher altitude/mountainous relief lowers the temperatures.
• Exposed/bare/hard/bed rock: rock exposed to elements of weather are more likely to be broken
down.
• Areas may have diurnal variation around 0 degrees for parts of the year.
• Sunshine/sunlight/heat from the sun

0 marks for written account of freeze thaw without AOB Any three [3]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should teach learners how to analyse sources and answer according to the demand of the question. E.g
using Figure only
(ii) AOB:
Comments on specific questions
• Fairly/moderately answered
• Few candidates managed to to draw correct drawings illustrating exfoliation
• Many however drew the process of freeze thaw and candidates failed to label their diagrams

Common wrong answers

• Diagrams not labeled
• Drawings on freeze thaw
• Explanations to describe the process of exfoliation without a drawing

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Correct answers
Using a fully labelled diagram only, describe the process of exfoliation.

1 mark – expansion description during the day.

1 mark – contraction description during the night.
1 mark – talus/scree/regolith at base of dome/cracks
1 mark – diagram related to the question/ exfoliation
0 mark for written explanation.

NB: Granite and regolith labels in diagram are not necessary to trigger the marks. [4]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teach learners how to differentiate between different types of weathering using diagrams and their correct labels.

(c) AOC: How far do you agree that carbonation occurs in tropical rainforests only?
Comments on specific questions
• Poorly answered, as candidates only explained the process of carbonation
• Candidates simply explained how carbonation is formed, but could not evaluate whether they agree or
not that it occurs in tropical rainforests only.
• Candidates failed to evaluate. They provided knowledge only, although decisions were made

Common wrong answers given by candidates

• Decisions: I agree very far, in the atmosphere no clear decision given
• Carbonation is a weak acid
• Carbonation is when carbon dioxide combines with rain water to form a weak acid that dissolves
limestone.
• Oxygen in the atmosphere combines with carbonic acid which forms acid rain

Correct answers
: How far do you agree that carbonation occurs in tropical rainforests only?

Possible facts that can be judged on whether carbonation only takes place in tropical rainforests.
Tropical rainforest
• High rainfall throughout the year may increase and allow carbonation
• High (warm) temperatures increase the rate of chemical reactions.
• High humidity/moisture allows chemical reactions/solutions to form
• More plants mean more carbon dioxide

Tropical grasslands
• High rainfall in summer may increase and allow carbonation to take place.
• High temperatures in summer increases the rate of chemical reactions.
• High humidity in summer allows chemical reactions/solutions to form

Tropical deserts
• Little rainfall in summer. Rain in the desert, although little, may provide a condition under which
carbonation can take place.
• High temperatures in summer increase the rate of chemical reactions provided there is water available
through fog or rainfall.
• Presence of humidity in summer allows chemical reactions/solutions.

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Accept other relevant answers based on learner’s judgment and decision made.
Reserve 4 marks – judgment of accurate relevant facts
Reserve 1 mark – decision made

Decision can be implied (NB evaluation made without decision)

Decision made: with irrelevant supportive descriptions or explanations without any judgement
– 0 marks.

Disagree/Agree to a certain extent or some extent: 3 1 or 2 2

Disagree/Agree to a large/low extent: 3 1 or 4 full
Disagree/Agree to a full extent: 4 full [5]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Teachers should teach learners how to make decisions based on the demand of the questions and how to evaluate it.

Divide learners into 2 groups so they can argue for and against depending on the demand of the question and make
evaluations based on the knowledge of the subject context.

2 (a) (i) AOA: Define the term abrasion.

Comments on specific question
• Poorly answered as candidates referred to attrition and failed to state the abrasive effect.

Common wrong answers

• Soil particles are carried by the wind

Correct answer
Define the term abrasion.
• The transport of sand and small stones by wind, blowing them strongly against rocks and land,
eroding rocks and breaking themselves down. [1]
NB: Accept reference to definitions from river or coastal processes.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Teach learners to differentiate between wind processes, river processes and coastal process of transport, erosion and
deposition
(ii) AOA: Distinguish between surface creep and saltation.
Comments on specific question
• Well answered as most learners distinguished but lost marks for not using comparative terms.

Correct answers
: Distinguish between surface creep and saltation.
• Saltation occurs when soil particles move by short bounces and happens with medium sized
particles of 0.1 to 0.5 mm diameter.
• Surface creep occurs with larger particles, > 1.0 mm in diameter and involves these large particles
rolling along the surface.
• In saltation, particles are moved by short bounces, while in surface creep particles are rolled
along the surface.
• Saltation moves small particles, while surface creep moves larger particles.

NB: Accept reference to comparisons of definitions from river or coastal processes.

1 mark: saltation definition
1 mark: surface creep definition
1 mark: distinction (while, and, whereas, but) MAX 2 MARKS IF NOT COMPARED [3]
(iii) AOA: Describe why seif dunes are formed in the Namib Desert
Comments on specific questions
• Poorly answered, as most learners referred to the formation of seif dunes instead of giving reasons
why seif dunes are formed.

Wrong answers
• Seif dunes are formed when wind blows loose sand and deposits it.

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Correct answers
Describe why seif dunes are formed in the Namib Desert.

Factors that allow for the formation of seif dunes:

• Strong winds to continue moving sand: Parallel to dominant SW winds/prevailing winds.
• Slight seasonal change in wind direction/cross winds: maintains presence of seif dunes in
Namib Desert.
• Plentiful supply of sand for high dunes which forms long elongated dunes/from inland and
beaches.
• Barrier to stop/block sand from being blown away: build up higher and steeper dunes.
• Sparse vegetation which causes them to be loose and easily blown away by wind to form seif
dunes
• Geologic formations such as the underground rock formations cause the sand particles to be
blown in a linear pattern, forming seif dunes.
• Trade winds.
• It is dry/lack of moisture

Accept other relevant answers. Reference should be made to why and not how Any four [4]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teach learners on reasons why seif dunes are formed in the desert and not only how they are formed.
(iv) AOA: Describe and explain the formation of a deflation hollow.
Description
Comments on specific question
• Poorly answered as learners demonstrated lack of knowledge on the formation of a deflation hollow
and the process that forms it. Instead they were explaining the formation of an oasis.

Wrong answers
• Wind blows away less resistant rock leaving behind more resistant rocks only. When the hollow is
deepened it results in the formation of an oasis.

Correct answers
Describe and explain the formation of a deflation hollow.
Description
• by deflation (Reserve 1 mark)

Explanation
• Fine/loose (dry) soil (sand) particles are blown away.
• The ground is lowered
• Continuous removal of the sand (1) leave behind a (depression) hollow (1)
• Leaving behind rock fragments/ bedrock
• That are too heavy to be lifted by the wind.
1 mark - what happens to particles?
1 mark - ground lowered
1 mark - what is left behind?
1 mark - why they are left behind.

1 mark - description
4 marks - explanation [5]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teach learners the process that forms a deflation hollow and how it is formed.

(b) (i) AOB: Identify and describe the formation of the type of dunes shown in photograph A.
Comments on specific questions
• Fairly well answered, as learners could identify the type of dune, but showed lack of knowledge on
the formation of the type of dune.

Common wrong answers

• Linear/longitudinal dune, sand

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Correct answers
Type: Star dune
• unlimited supply of sand.
• Forms when alternating and multiple wind directions pile up sand/develop from barchans if a
change of the usual wind direction occurs.
• Form a peak with many arms extending / slip faces.

Type: Barchans
• limited supply of sand.
• Prevailing wind/ wind blows dominantly from one side.
• Wind carrying sand particles accumulates in a specific area/around an obstacle.

Type: Parabolic
• Strong winds erode a section of a vegetated sand forming a depression/blow out.
• Prevailing wind/ wind blows dominantly from one side.
• Sand from blow out is deposited on the opposite direction
• The vegetation is holding the arms.

Accept other relevant answer

1 mark - type of dune
1 mark - plentiful sand- large dune
1 mark - prevailing wind or no prevailing wind

NB: wrong identification of dune but correct description for star/barchans/parabolic is 2 marks
[3]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teach learners how to identify different types of dunes from pictures and how they are formed.
(ii) AOB: Using a labelled diagram only, describe the formation of a rock pedestal.
Comments on specific questions
• Well answered. Learners provided a correct diagram but a few only described using words.

Correct answers

1 mark – resistant rock description.

1 mark – less resistant rock description.
1 mark – mention of abrasion greatest at base (abrasion intensity key word)
1 mark – resistant rock is worn out slowly/ less resistant is worn out faster
1 mark – for diagram related to rock pedestal 0 mark if diagram is unrelated
0 mark for written description without a diagram [4]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teach learners on how to answer the question according to the demand. e.g. using a diagram only.

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(c) AOC: How far do you agree that wind processes are found more in desert areas (such as the
Namib Desert) compared to other climate zones?
Facts when wind will be strong

Comments on specific question

• Poorly answered. Leaners only provided knowledge with a decision on why wind processes are found
more in deserts compared to other climates. Learners failed to make an evaluation as to why wind
processes are found more in deserts compared to other areas.

Common wrong answers

• I agree 100 %, I agree very far, I totally agree, I agree 50 Percent because deserts receive low rainfall
• Other climates receive more rainfall

Correct answers
Facts when wind will be strong
• Absence of vegetation to cover/protect soil.
• Limited infrastructure caused by stronger winds/limited wind blockage.
• Absence of water/limited water results in loose soil particles/soil not intact.
• Warm rising air creates wind as cooler air sinks in
• Any place with such characteristics will have wind and places where there is a steep concentration
gradient between pressure systems.
• Other climates may have wind too.

Accept other relevant answers based on learner’s judgment and decision made.
Reserve 4 marks – judgment of accurate relevant facts
Reserve 1 mark – decision made
Decision can be implied (NB evaluation made without decision)
Decision made: with irrelevant supportive descriptions or explanations without any judgement – 0
marks.
Disagree/Agree to a certain extent or some extent - 3 1 or 2 2
Disagree/Agree to a large/ low extent – 3 1 or 4 full
Disagree/Agree to a full extent = 4 full [5]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teach learners why wind process is more common in deserts compared to other climates. Divide the class into
2 groups so the learners can evaluate why wind processes are more common in deserts compared to other
climates.

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SECTION B: ECONOMIC ACTIVITIES AND THE USE OF RESOURCES

3 (a) (i) AOA: Define the term secondary industry. [1]

General comments
• Fairly well answered as most learners managed to obtain a mark

Wrong answers
• Producing raw materials
• Industry that involves second-hand activity
• Extract raw materials into finished products

Correct answers
• The making of a product in a factory/workshop
• Industry that converts the raw materials provided by primary industry into commodities and products
for the consumer.
• Some secondary industries take raw materials from the secondary industries/semi-processed.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should teach the learners how to define terms looking at the key words to be used in the definitions.
• Example: Secondary industry has key words: turning, processing and manufacturing.
(ii) AOA: Describe the management strategies that the fishing industry has undertaken to
ensure the sustainable use of fish resources in Namibia. [3]
General comments
• Fairly well answered as most learners managed to gain a mark or maximum marks. However,
some learners referred to the importance of the fishing industry.
Wrong answers
• Create jobs
• Boast the Namibian economy
• Provide GDP

Correct answers
• Conservation laws/legislation/EEZ that protect fish from overfishing.
• Control net size & type to control fishing.
• TAC/quotas allocation for the number of fish to be caught.
• Closure of fishing/fishing seasons to allow fish to breed.
• Fines/penalties for people overfishing.
• Patrol/monitoring/patrol onshore and offshore to regulate fishing.
• Fishing permit/license.

Accept other relevant answers Any three [3]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teachers to put more emphasis on the management strategies that ensure sustainable use of fish resources in
Namibia, teach learners how to give correct descriptions and not just writing abbreviations. e.g EEZ, TAC
• They must pay attention to the marks allocated in the question. E.g if it is 4 marks, then four separate descriptions.
(iii) AOA: Describe the physical factors that have influenced the availability of raw materials
like fish in Namibia.
General comments
• Moderately answered. Learners failed to give the physical factors that influenced the availability of
fish. Most learners made reference to human factors and physical factors threatening the availability
of fish. Some learners described and explained the physical factors

Wrong answers
• Pollution
• Red tides
• Land
• Market
• Labour
• Fluctuating temperature

Correct answers
• Ocean currents are cold currents which supply oxygen and encourage the growth of planktons that
attract fish.
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• Upwelling refers to deep water as more nutrients are brought up to the surface to provide food for
fish.
• Marine food chain refers to large groups of living organisms that serve as food for fish.
• Length of coast: long coast line from north/Kunene river to south/Orange river with plenty of fish.
• Prevailing winds allow for the upwelling to take place that attracts fish.
• An easy natural harbor/location for docking.
• Size of the ocean/sea
• Breeding ground

Accept other relevant answers. Any four [4]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should put more emphasis on differentiation of the factors (Physical, human and economic.). Learners
should be taught the meaning of each factor.
(iv) AOA: Explain the physical factors threatening the availability of fish resources.
General comments
• Moderately answered as most learners could only obtain marks for describing the factors but failed
to explain them further. Some learners made reference to human factors instead of physical factors

Wrong answers
• Littering
• Oil spills from boats
• Corruption
• Customers
• Transport
• Houses
• Factories
• Drought

Correct answers
• Red tides/elnino/algae: toxins in water reduce oxygen levels and cover gills of fish and kill fish.
• Sulphur emisions from underwater geothermal vents poison the water and kill fish.
• Predators such as birds, colony of seals feed on fish depleting them.
• Increasing water temperatures: warmer ocean temperatures force fish to migrate to colder
regions.
• Diseases: marine resources can contract diseases that can kill large schools of fish.
• Change in the pH of the ocean/salinity: absorption of more carbon dioxide lowers the pH balance
of water making it more acidic, killing fish or forcing them to migrate.
• Ocean currents: when ocean currents change their circulation, distribution of nutrients and oxygen
throughout the ocean may change forcing fish to migrate.
0 marks for pollution caused by human
Accept other relevant answers
2 or more factors with detailed explanation gain full marks
Only descriptions written: maximum of three marks Any five [5]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should teach learners the meaning of the terms such as physical factors and what it meant by threatening
factors leading to less fish or depletion of fish.

(b) (i) AOB: From Photograph B only, describe three human factors influencing the location of
fish processing plants in Walvis Bay.
General comment
• Poorly answered as learners could not identify the physical factors influencing the location of the
fish processing plant from the photograph

Wrong answers
• Transport
• Labour
• Electricity
• Power
• Market
• Capital

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Correct answers
• Vessels: for catching the fish.
• Cranes: remove the fish from vessels.
• Presence of a harbour where the ships dock/quay/ docking
• Roads: connecting harbour to fish processing plants
• Buildings/containers for storage facilities
• Power lines/power poles
0 marks for electricity/power/energy Any three [3]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should teach learners how to analyse the information. Learners must stick to the question asked .e.g
according to the figure only meaning learners must give the visible factors from the figure given only. Learners must
write what they can see on the figure.
• Teachers must train learners to take the answers strictly from the source and not rely on general knowledge.
(ii) AOB: Using photograph B only, name and explain two physical factors that have
influenced the location of fish processing plants in Walvis Bay.
General comments
• Poorly answered, most learners were could not identify and explain the physical factors from the
photographs.

Wrong answers
• Raw materials
• Capital
• Water

Correct answers
• Ocean is where the fish resource is found and where ships are docked.
• Flat land: easy to build fish processing factories and workshops to repair vessels.
• Natural harbour/bay: area of calm water where ships can dock.
Harbour in terms of transport is human hence 0 mark
Any two: accept marks for development.
Only descriptions written: maximum two marks [4]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should teach learners on how to analyse the information. Learners must stick to the question asked. e.g.
according to the figure only. Learners must give the visible factors from the figure given only. Learners must write
what they can see on the figure.
• Teachers must train learners to take the answers strictly from the source not general knowledge.

(c) AOC: How far do you agree that the agglomeration economic effect is stimulated by
different activities of the fishing industry? Different activities in the fishing industry can
attract other industries.
General comments:
• Poorly answered, as most learners do not understand the concept of agglomeration economic effects.
Some learners made reference to the advantages of the fishing industry, some made reference to the
sectors of economy for the fishing industry in terms of primary, secondary and tertiary, while others made
reference to the fishing industry as a system.

Wrong answers
• Provide jobs,
• Improve the country infrastructures
• Inputs: processes and outputs
• Provide more income through export
• Industry coming together to compete with each other.

Corrects answers expected to be judged

• Primary: catching of fish
• Secondary: packaging, refrigeration
• Tertiary: financial and logistical services

Other industries that can also foster agglomeration.

• Schools
• Banking services
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• Mining
• Salt farming
• Construction services
• Tourism
• Weather

Accept other relevant answers based on learner’s judgment and decision made.
Reserve 4 marks: judgment of accurate relevant facts
Reserve 1 mark: decision made
Decision can be implied (NB evaluation made without decision)
Decision made: with irrelevant supportive descriptions or explanations without any judgement: 0
marks.
Disagree/Agree to a certain extent or some extent: 3 1 or 2 2
Disagree/Agree to a large/ low extent: 3 1 or 4 full
Disagree/Agree to a full extent: 4 full [5]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should put more emphasis on teaching learners how to evaluate as it will help learners to make proper
decision when they are writing and to know how to answer the questions using their own judgement.
• More clarity needed on the term agglomeration economic effect and how various industries attract each other and
not shops or industries are grouped together and the benefits from this.
NB: This question requires learners to make a decision first before judging!

SECTION B: ECONOMIC ACTIVITIES AND THE USE OF RESOURCES

4 (a) (i) AOA: Define the term wildlife conservation.

General comment
• Well answered. Most learners managed to obtain a mark.

Wrong answers
• Conserve animals for future use
• Animals that are found in the wild
• Keep in the camp
• When farmers come together to conserve

Correct answers
• Wildlife conservation is the protection of plant and animal species as the human population
encroaches on their resources. [1]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should teach learners on how to define the term (wildlife conservation) by using key words like protection,
preserving, sustaining or taking care.
(ii) AOA: Describe ways in which the Namibian economy benefits from wildlife protection.
General comments
• Well answered. Most learners managed to earn 2 or 3 marks

Wrong answers
• Provide food to locals
• Providing skin for clothing
• Foreign exchange

Correct answers
• More tax paid from jobs created
• Income generated through conservancies/trophy hunting/tourism/leading to increased standard of
living/selling wildlife/ foreign currency
• Stimulate development of tourist facilities.
• Development of local facilities such as schools or roads.
• Foreign investments to protect wildlife.
• Create job opportunities
Accept other relevant answers. Any three [3]

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POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS
• Teachers should teach the learners on how to differentiate between terms benefit the economy(meaning monetary
benefit to the country) but not to the people. For example provide food is a benefit to the people but not economy
(iii) AOA: Describe the conflicts between the management of wild animals and other land
use activities.
General comments
• Poorly answered. Learners are unable to describe how human-wildlife conflict occurs, or some give
the roles of management of wildlife

Wrong answers
• More land is needed for farming
• Conservancies use up more land
• Elephants kills other animals
• Government should put fences around conservancies
• Might cause deforestation

Correct answers
Crop and property damage: Wildlife animals, such as deer or birds, may cause damage to crops,
leading to conflicts between farmers and wildlife management.
Grazing conflicts: Livestock owners often clash with wildlife managers over grazing areas, as both
require access to common pastures.
Predation on livestock and humans: Wildlife predators, such as cheetahs or lions, can kill and feed
on livestock and humans, leading to conflicts between authorities, ranchers and wildlife managers.
Hunting regulations: Disagreements often arise between hunters and wildlife managers over hunting
regulations, bag limits or seasons.
Human-wildlife conflicts: When wildlife animals, like elephants invade villages conflicts arise due to
safety concerns and property damage.
Water rights disputes: Access to water sources for wildlife, agriculture or industrial uses can lead to
conflicts between different stakeholders, including wildlife managers.
Wildlife tourism and local communities: The influx of tourists for wildlife viewing may disrupt local
communities and their traditional land use activities, creating conflicts.
Wild life kill/injure people.

Accept other relevant answers

NB Wild life conflict with different land use activities should be treated differently hence all have
different credits Any four [4]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should put more emphasis on the human-wildlife conflicts and how they occur. Conflict means how
wildlife and humans disagree or cause harm/danger to each other.
(iv) AOA: Explain the positive impacts of wildlife animals on the environment.
General comments
• Poorly answered. Learners are not stating the positive impacts of wildlife on the environment but
concentrated on negative impacts. Some give positive impacts of wildlife to the economy

Wrong answers
• They attract tourists
• They provide resources
• Animals like lions kill people
• Animals overgraze and destroy the grass

Correct answers
• Increasing habitat diversity (heterogeneity) by disturbing vegetation, turning over soil,
undertaking local and long-distance migration and creating biotic microhabitats in their living bodies,
corpses and dung.
• Enhancing plant dispersal enables seed dormancy breaking and dispersal through deposition of
seeds in dung.
• Increased resistance to abrupt ecosystem change and microclimate modification: herbivores
tend to accelerate nutrient cycling and suppress plant biomass production as well as plant
reproduction.
• Reduce fire spread and intensity in ecosystems: reduce fuel biomass and fuel continuity by
consuming vegetation, digging and trampling the soil.

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• Increase soil carbon stocks: large herbivores may lower above-ground carbon stocks through
consumption and physical disturbance.
• Animal dung improves soil fertility nutrient: natural vegetation grows
• Wildlife animals may assist with pollination

Accept other relevant answers

2 or more positive impacts with detailed explanation gain full marks
Only descriptions written maximum of three marks Any five [5]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Most learners failed to give correct answers, confusing positive impacts as negative impacts and also giving
impacts on people and not on the environment. Teachers should help learners to answer the questions correctly by
underlining the key words used that they are required to focus on.

(b) (i) AOB: Describe the changes in wildlife numbers between Namibia and Kenya from 1960
to 2020. Support your answer with data from Fig. 3 only.
General comments
• Moderately answered. Learners managed to score marks for the general trend and the change
but failed to give correct data and comparison. They could not analyse the graphs correctly. The
majority scored 1 mark for the general trend.

Wrong answers
• Namibia is up, Kenya is down
• Namibia increased to 300000, Kenya decreased to less than 500000
• In 1960 Kenya was high while Namibia was low

Correct answers
• General increase for Namibia while Kenya decrease (from 1960 to 2020).
• Namibia steep increase from 1970 whereas Kenya continuous decrease.
• Highest 3 000 000/3 million for Namibia and 1 500 000/1.5 million for Kenya /lowest 500 000 for
Namibia and 350 000 for Kenya.
• Namibia increased by 2 500 000 while Kenya decreased by 1150 000.

2 marks for changes; Reserve 1 mark for data

NB should be for both to gain a mark. [3]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should teach learners to analyse. Learners to look at the figure given and make sense of it (understand
it and what it shows).
• More emphasis needed on how to give the general trend shown (decrease or increase), the rate at which change
occurs and the data (giving correct and accurate numbers from the figure given).
(ii) AOB: Name and explain two environmental reasons for the change in Kenya’s wildlife
numbers with reference to Fig. 3.
General comments
• Poorly answered. Most learners are stating human factors rather than environmental factors

Wrong answers
• Hunting/poaching
• No conservation

Correct answers
• Desertification leads to the degradation of soil, the loss of vegetation cover and decrease in water
availability so cause significant disruptions to the natural habitats of many wildlife species as water
sources dry up and animals migrate in search of new sources of water and vegetation.
• Deforestation destroys the natural habitats of many species of animals, forcing them to flee or die
due to a lack of food, shelter and other resources they need to survive.
• Global warming refers to changes in weather patterns such as rising temperatures that can alter
weather patterns, causing heat waves, drought, floods and intense storms that can harm or kill
animals directly by destroying their habitats, causing fires or causing physical damage to the animals
themselves.

Accept other relevant answers.

NB Accept explanation of environmental problem such as soil erosion, less rainfall, climate
change
0 marks for pest and diseases

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Any 2: Accept marks for development
Only descriptions written: maximum of two marks [4]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Learners should be taught how to explain (to give more details on what will happen but not just listing)

(c) AOC: How far do you agree that the role of the government in the sustainable use of wildlife
animals is a success in Namibia?
General comments
• Moderately answered. Most learners were able to state that the Namibian government has played roles
in order to sustain wildlife but could not evaluate its success.

Wrong answers
• More people are employed, more tourists are attracted to come and see our wildlife
• ecological value
• for agriculture/farming
• for future generations to see

Correct answers
Government involvement
• Government involved in policy formulation on wildlife management.
• Enforce laws and regulations regarding wildlife management.
• Monitoring wildlife populations and allocating hunting quotas.
• Run national parks where wildlife is protected.
• Give concession to commercial tourism companies.

Shortcomings
• Lack of funding (limited budget).
• No law and order (poaching, corruption).
• Human–wildlife conflict.
• Population growth, land-use change.
Accept other relevant answer based on learner’s judgment and decision made.
Reserve 4 marks: judgment of accurate relevant facts
Reserve 1 mark: decision made
Decision can be implied (NB evaluation made without decision)
Decision made: with irrelevant supportive descriptions or explanations without any judgement: 0
marks.
Disagree/Agree to a certain extent or some extent: 3 1 or 2 2
Disagree/Agree to a large/ low extent: 3 1 or 4 full
Disagree/Agree to a full extent: 4 full [5]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• More emphasis needed on the term success, which means (what has been done) by the government to sustain the
wildlife in Namibia.
• Learners must write what the government did or is still doing in preserving wildlife and not just writing fines, national
parks but to explain more.

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SECTION C: POPULATION AND SETTLEMENT STUDIES

5 (a) (i) AOA: Define the term urbanization.

General comments:
• Fairly well answered. Many candidates gave definitions of rural-urban migration.

Wrong answers
• The movement of people from rural areas to urban

Correct answers
• Growth/increase in the proportion of people living in towns and cities (urban areas).
• The increase in size of urban settlements.

0 mark for rural – urban migration [1]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teachers must emphasize the difference between urbanization, migration and rural-urban migration.
(ii) AOA: Describe factors that negatively influence the functions of rural settlements in
More Economically Developed Countries (MEDCs).
General comments:
• Poorly answered. Learners used factors that were linked to LEDC’s rather than MEDC and they
referred to factors that push people into urban areas from rural areas.

Wrong answers
• People are moving from rural areas to MEDC
• No water, electricity
• Not enough houses
• Lack of health facilities

Correct answers
• Limited or lack of public transport, such as railways and bus routes hinders access for those without
cars.
• Historical influence: either of a specified period or an explanation of how a factor such as street
pattern, culture or laws on building has influenced function.
• Rural urban migration: People migrate from rural areas to urban areas leaving rural settlements
with a smaller population and fewer resources.
• Decline in agriculture: income of rural households declines.
• Lack of infrastructure: limited access to infrastructure such as healthcare, education and
communication
• Limited job opportunities/unemployment: limited job opportunities, leads to a brain drain, young
people move away to seek employment.
• Aging population: decline in the workforce, reduced economic activity and a reduced tax base to
support essential services.
• Social isolation: lack of social support and opportunities for community engagement.
• Gentrification: increased prices may force people may move away.

Accept other relevant answers

All type of service max 1 mark Any three [3]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should not only concentrate on the factors that influence the functions and growth of settlements in LEDC
but also make provisions of MEDC’s too.
(iii) AOA: Describe why cities in Less Economically Developed Countries (LEDCs) grow rapidly.
General comments
• Well answered. Although many referred to causes of high birth rate in rural areas.

Wrong answers
• Lack of jobs
• Women tend to have more babies to help them in the field
• Lack of education
• Lack of health facilities

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Correct answers
• Increasing birth rates in urban areas
• Rural-urban migration.
• More employment opportunities.
• Higher salaries attract people.
• Opportunities to take part in sport/entertainment activities.
• Better education services.
• Better medical care services.
• Low death rate

Accept other relevant answers.

NB: Max 4 marks for all factors leading to high birth rates and low death rates but reference
should be made to cities and not rural area. Any four [4]

(iv) AOA: Explain the negative effects urban sprawl has on the environment.
General comments
• Moderately answered. Many learners did not understand the term urban sprawl and did not refer to
environmental effects but rather generalized it.
Wrong answers
• Overcrowded
• Crime increases as urban areas grow
• Leads to the spread of diseases
• Lack of medical health centres

Correct answers
• Loss of natural habitats and biodiversity: urban sprawl often leads to the destruction and
fragmentation of natural habitats, resulting in the loss of biodiversity and ecosystem services.
• Increased air pollution: as more people move to suburban areas, there is increased use of private
vehicles, which contributes to air pollution and greenhouse gas emissions.
• Increased Water pollution: increased runoff from paved surfaces and agricultural land into rivers
and lakes can lead to water pollution and degradation of aquatic ecosystems.
• Increased energy consumption: urban sprawl requires more energy for transportation, heating
and cooling, which can lead to increased energy consumption and greenhouse gas emissions.
• Land degradation: agricultural land and open spaces are often converted into urban areas, leading
to the loss of soil fertility and increased erosion.
• Increased waste: more residential areas leads to an increase in waste generation, which can strain
local waste management systems causing leaks into the environment.
• Increased noise pollution: more vehicles will be making more noise.
• Pressure on natural/land resource
• Wild animals may move away

Accept other relevant answers

NB: Pollution alone 1 mark
different types of pollution treated independently
0 mark for depletion of resource without making reference to natural or land resource.
Only descriptions written: maximum of three marks.
2 or more negative effects with detailed explanation can gain full marks Any five [5]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should emphasize the term urban sprawl and the effects including both environmental, human and
economical for leaners to know the difference when asked.

(b) (i) AOB: Using Photograph C only, identify and describe the causes of this problem.
General comments: Well answered. Most learners could not mention traffic congestion, so it seems
like some learners are not familiar with the term and the causes. Many could identify the problem but
could not give the causes from the source (photograph). Instead they gave general reasons for traffic
congestion.

Wrong answers:
Many people move to urban areas
More road accidents
Population growth
Lack of decentralization
Overcrowded or overpopulated with cars

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Correct answers:
Problem: Traffic Congestion Reserve 1 mark
Causes:
• Inadequate public transport: only 2 buses visible
• Many people depend on private transport: a lot of small cars
• Too many cars: many cars in the photograph
• Too many cars flowing in one direction: higher density of vehicles
• Separate routes for buses: higher density of vehicles
• Multiple roads/lanes
• Poorly designed road

Accept other relevant answers. Any three [3]

(ii) AOB: Using photograph C only, describe how urban planners have attempted to solve
this problem.
General comments: Poorly answered. Most candidates gave general solutions to traffic congestions
and not from the photograph.

Wrong answers:
More railways
Encourage rural development
Install traffic lights
Pay traffic officers
Toll roads

Correct answers:
• Use of public transport/buses which carry a lot of people minimizing number of cars.
• Bus/lanes (routes) introduced/separate transport lanes make public transport more attractive
and efficient preventing people from using private transport.
• Multi-traffic lane routes allow more vehicles to move.
• Multi-traffic lanes flowing in one direction allow more vehicles to move in one direction.
• Broken lanes/traffic lanes in which cars can switch lanes to overtake slower moving cars.
Accept other relevant answers Any four [4]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teachers must teach learners analysis skills so that they can be able to use sources to answers questions.

(c) AOC: How far do you agree that the location of residential areas in Less Economically
Developed Countries (LEDCs) differs from the location of residential areas in More
Economically Developed Countries (MEDCs)?
General comments: Poorly answered. Most learners seem unfamiliar with urban morphology as they did
not refer to the location of the different residential class groups in LEDCs and MEDCs. Some referred to
building materials, roads or sizes of houses.

Wrong answers:
In LEDC there are poor residential areas with no jobs while in MEDC houses are of high quality with
gardens.
In LEDCs houses have poor electricity supply while MEDCs have good electricity supply
LEDCs have residential areas near the CBD while in MEDCs the residential areas are far from the CBD.

Correct answers:
Possible facts that can be judged on the difference of Location of residential areas in LEDCs and
Location of residential areas in MEDCs
• High class residential housing is found in the inner city around the CBD LEDC compared to found on the
outer suburbs MEDC.
• Medium class residential housing is found in the inner suburbs LEDC compared to found in the inner
suburbs. MEDC
• Low class residential housing found on the outer suburbs LEDC compared to found in the inner city
around the CBD MEDC.
• LEDCs have informal/squatter settlements on the outskirts of towns or cities, while MEDCs do not have
squatter settlements.
Accept other relevant answer based on learner’s judgment and decision made.
NB evaluation should be based on classes of residential areas in LEDCs and MEDCs.

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Answer based on learner’s judgment and decision made.
Reserve 4 marks: judgment of accurate relevant facts
Reserve 1 mark: decision made
Decision can be implied (NB evaluation made without decision)
Decision made: with irrelevant supportive descriptions or explanations without any
judgement: 0 marks.
Disagree/Agree to a certain extent or some extent: 3 :1 or 2: 2
Disagree/Agree to a large/ low extent: 3: 1 or 4 full
Disagree/Agree to a full extent: 4 full [5]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Teachers should emphasise the location of the different classes of residential areas in LEDCs and MEDCs.

6 (a) (i) AOA: Describe the term AIDS.

General comments: Well answered, although learners struggled with the correct spelling of the
acronym.

Wrong answers:
Amino/Accured for Acquired
Immunity/Immunisation for Immune
Defense for Deficiency
Symptom/Syndrum for Syndrome
AIDS is a virus

Correct answers:
• Serious condition whereby the immune system of a person is weak to fight off illnesses
• Acquired Immune-Deficiency Syndrome.
• A disease caused by HIV

NB: acronyms should be correct [1]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Empasis should be placed on correct spelling of terms.
(ii) AOA: Describe the positive impacts of condom use on the population structure of Namibia.
General comments: Well answered, although many learners gave positive impacts of condom use
and not based on the population structure.

Wrong answers:
Condoms prevent spread of STDs
People do not get HIV
Prevent unwanted/teenage pregnancy

Correct answers:
• More adults: fewer adults dying/ higher life expectancy
• Fewer orphans: fewer adults dying.
• More old age / higher life expectancy: more people living to be older.
• Consistent demography of males and females: less adults dying.
• Low infant mortality: more children born without being sick.
• Low birth rate: fewer young people.
• Low death rate/total population decline.

Accept other relevant answers Any three [3]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teachers must teach the impacts of condom use on the population structure
(iii) AOA: Describe the negative social impacts of HIV and AIDS on Less Economically
Developed Countries (LEDCs) like Namibia.
General comments: Poorly answered. Learners gave economic impacts of HIV instead of social
impacts.

Wrong answers:
People will die

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Government will spend a lot of money to buy ARVs
Government spends money to buy food
Not enough people to work and the economy suffers

Correct answers:
• Stigma
• Orphans and vulnerable children
• Loss of productive members of society
• Overburden on the healthcare systems
• School dropouts
• Gender inequalities
• Political instability
• Increased poverty/loss of income/people are sick and cannot able to work
• Family structures broken
• Increased suicide
• Discrimination
• Family structures broken
• Increased suicide
• Depression
• Murder
• Crime

Accept other relevant answers Any four [4]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teachers should teach the different between social, economic and demographic impacts of HIV AIDS.
(iv) AOA: Explain the efforts taken by the government in managing problems caused by HIV
and AIDS in Namibia.
General comments: Well answered. Some learners gave general strategies and not those to be done
by the government.

Wrong answers:
Government to provide people with jobs, food, housing, money
People must abstain
People must use a condom
People must drink their medicine every day and eat healthy food.

Correct answers:
• Awareness campaigns: Government conducts awareness campaigns through various media
platforms to educate people about the risks of HIV and AIDS.
• Treatment: Government provides free access to treatment to people living with HIV and AIDS.
• Counselling and support: Government provides counselling and support services to people living
with HIV and AIDS.
• Research: Government supports research to develop new prevention and treatment methods that
can help to reduce the spread and impact of HIV and AIDS.
• Legal protections: Government has taken measures to legislate against discrimination based on
HIV and AIDS status.
• Women emancipation/gender equality: for women to not engage in sexual relations for money.
• Free condom distribution: for people to have safe sex.
• Support for orphans: lost parents due to HIV/AIDS.

Accept other relevant answers

Two or more efforts with detailed explanation can gain full marks
Only descriptions written: maximum of 3 marks Any five [5]

(b) (i) AOB: Use the information from the newspaper extract to calculate the number of people
living with HIV. Show all your working.

General comments: Poorly answered. The majority of learners did not show understanding of
calculations.
Wrong answers:
19.6 % + 12,7% + 25,1% × 250 000 = 6278.3
100

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Correct answers:
• 8.3/100 (1)
• 0.083 x 2 500 000 (1)
• 207 500 (1)
NB correct final answer can gain maximum marks without showing their working [3]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Teachers must focus on the necessary Mathematical skills required and give learners relevant exercises to practise
and become acquainted with the necessary formulas.
(ii) AOB: Use the information from the newspaper extract to describe the negative
demographic impacts of HIV and AIDS in Namibia.

General comment:
Poorly answered. Learners lifted information from the extract instead of analyzing the extract and
approaching the demands of the question.

Wrong answers:
• The disease remains the leading cause of death among adults and among children under 5 years of
age.
• Among adults under 25 years of age, women bear a disproportionate burden of HIV epidemic, with
a prevalence of 19.6% compared to 12.7% for men.
• An estimated 0.98% of children under 15 years of age are HIV infected.
• The highest proportion of estimated new infections is among women older than 25 years,
accounting for 39.9% of new infections.
• Men older than 25 years are estimated to account for 28.1% of the new infections.

Correct answers:
• More male than female
• Less adult or working group
• Birth rate decrease
• Death rate increase/ total population decrease
• Reduced life expectancy
• Increase infant mortality

Accept other relevant answers.

0 marks for lifting Any four [4]

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

Teachers should expose learners to extracts of different contents for the learners to learn how to analyze and interpret
using the information from the extract.

(c) AOC: How far do you agree that the provision of antiretroviral drugs to people who are HIV
positive is beneficial to the economy of Namibia?

General comment:
Poorly answered. Learners fail to make evaluations that back the decision made. The learners do not know
how to make judgements based on knowledge and understanding. Most learners presented the general
benefits of using ARVs without being selective with the ones that benefit the economy. Some learners
confused ARVs with drugs that are harmful to one’s body.
Common wrong answers:
• ARVs help boost the immune system which prolongs one’s life. People will be healthy and strong so will
not die.
• There will be a high life expectancy.

Correct answers:

Antiretroviral treatment:
Disadvantages to the economy of Namibia
• Increased spending by government on medication could have been used for other sectors.
• Government makes no money from ARV as the drug is given to patients for free.

Advantages to the economy of Namibia

• Increased productivity as people are healthier on the drug, higher GDP.
• More younger people as children are born healthier leading to a consistent workforce.

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Answer based on learner’s judgment and decision made.
Accept other relevant answer based on learner’s judgment and decision made.
Reserve 4 marks: judgment of accurate relevant facts
Reserve 1 mark: decision made
Decision can be implied (NB evaluation made without decision)
Decision made: with irrelevant supportive descriptions or explanations without any judgement: 0
marks.
Disagree/Agree to a certain extent or some extent: 3 1 or 2 2
Disagree/Agree to a large/low extent: 3 1 or 4 full
Disagree/Agree to a full extent: 4 full [5]

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

Teachers should expose learners for these AOC questions and educate them on how best to tackle these questions.
Learners must know how to use factual knowledge to make relevant evaluations that support their decision. Learners
should be able to make validated judgements that address the demands of the question.

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6137
Paper 2

1 (a) (i) AOA: Identify the type of scale shown on the map.
Comments on specific question
Fairly well answered, as most candidates were able to identify the types of scales on the map and most
scored marks.

Wrong answers
• Contour scale
• Map scale
• Calculating distance
• Steep slope scale

Correct answers
• by a ratio; 1:50000
• by a combination of figures and text 2 cm represents 1 km/word scale
• by the use of a scale bar/linear scale/numeral scale

Suggestions on improvement
• Teachers should continue to emphasize by teaching or using different map scales for learners to be
exposed to the various types of scales on the map. Any one [1]
(ii) AOB: Measure and calculate the distance of the runway of the airstrip north-east of
Kolmanskop in metres. Show all your workings.
Comments on specific question
Poorly answered, as most candidates confused the conversion of meters with that of kilometres.

Wrong answers
• Not following the appropriate formula, omitting the usage of the map scale
• Confusing the conversion of meters with that of kilometres. Learners are dividing by 100 000 rather
than 100.

Correct answers
3.7 × 50 000 [3.6 – 3.8]
100 = 1850 m [1800-1900 m]
1 mark: measurement (cm or mm)
1 mark: appropriate conversion to metres
1 mark: answer in metres

Examiner’s guide: Do not double penalise if candidates have made a mistake with one measurement
early on, if they carry this through their answer.
Suggestions on improvement [3]
• Teachers should expose the learners to various formulas of calculating and measuring different
distances. For example: Curved distance and straight distance
(iii) AOB: Calculate the area of Penguin Island in square metres. Show all your workings.
Comments on specific question
Poorly answered, as most candidates left this question unanswered and blank. Candidates were giving
coordinates. Most of the candidates did not know how to apply the formula of Area to score a mark.

Wrong answers
• Left open/unanswered
• Many Learners Calculated distance and Co-ordinates rather than area.

Correct answers
Area = L×B
Length: 2.5 cm (2.3 – 2.7 cm) × 50 000/100
= 1250 m (1150-1350 m)
Breath: 1 cm (0,8 – 1.2 cm) × 50 000/100
= 500 m (400-600 m)
Area: 1250 m × 500 m = 625 000 m2 (460 000 – 810 000 m2)

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1 mark: length in metres
1 mark: breadth in metres
1 mark: calculation shown of l x b
1 mark: area in m2

Examiner’s guide: Do not double penalise if candidates has made a mistake with one measurement
early on, if they carry this through their answer.
Suggestions on improvement [4]
• Teachers should teach all aspects of the syllabus and assess it.
For example: Area = L x B in meters or using the box method.
NB: Follow the guide at the back of the textbook (Living and Namcol Geography Grade 11 textbook)
(iv) AOB: Determine the compass direction and calculate the bearing from spot height 199 in
the north eastern corner of the mapped area to spot height 56 east of Agate Park in Lüderitz.
Comments on specific question
Fairly well answered, as many candidates were able to find the compass direction and placed the
direction at bearing sometimes.

Wrong answers
• Compass Direction; NW, NE, SE, left open/ unanswered.
• Bearing; 56, 216, left open/ unanswered, learners measured and calculated direction.

Correct answers
Compass direction: South west/West south west
Bearing: 245 [243-247] / 218-222
1 mark: compass direction
1 mark: bearing

Suggestions on improvement
• Teachers must teach all 16 main directions and how to apply them correctly, as well as teach
learners how to use a protractor correctly using degrees, in three digits. [2]

(b) (i) AOB: Write down any two coastal physical features along the coast of Lüderitz.
Comments on specific question
Fairly well answered, as most candidates described man-made features rather than physical features.
Most candidates listed recreational activities describing the slopes and thus did not score full marks.

Wrong answers
Sea/Ocean,
Services,
Monuments,
Rivers,
Man-made features
Steep slopes
Lakes
Perennial water
Marine beacon
Light house/Marine light
Dry water course

Correct answers
Islands
Bays
Lagoons
Points / Headlands
Cliffs
Beaches/sand
Dunes Any two

Suggestions on improvement
Teachers should make use of a variety of maps to expose learners to different map features both man-
made and physical.
[2]

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(ii) AOB: Write down two services provided to the people of Lüderitz and provide map
evidence to support your answers.
Comments on specific question
Fairly well answered. However, candidates confused the services with evidence and listed evidence at
the services.

Wrong answers
Service Map Evidence
School 2 people walking
Hospital facilities
Post office
Church
Railway lines

Correct answers
Service Map evidence
Education School
Health/Medical Health facilities
Administration Post Office/Police Station
Religious/Worship Church
Recreation Golf Course
Electricity Power lines
Transport/communication railway/roads/airport

Any two plus map evidence

Suggestions on improvement
The teachers should teach learners the differentiation between services and map evidence. [4]
(iii) AOB: Give four reasons for the growth of the settlement of Lüderitz.
Comments on specific question
This question was well answered but candidates could not score full marks.

Wrong answers
Fertile soil for Agriculture
Higher population growth
Flat land
Benguela current
Grassland
Make use of the word IMPROVED.
Farming
Irrigation

Correct answers
Coastal location: fishing/ tourism
Lower-lying areas / gentle-sloping lands: buildings
Trunk/district / other roads: transport
Railway line/railway station: transport
Services: jobs/income
Power lines for electricity
Habour: trade/jobs/transport
Nampwater camp: watersource
Mining/Mines Any four

Suggestions on improvement
Teachers should incorporate the features influencing settlement growth and map work across all the
topics. [4]

(c) AOB: Find and calculate the co-ordinates (latitude and longitude) of the monument of
Kolmanskop Ghost Town. Give your answer in degrees, minutes and seconds.
Comments on specific question
Learners do not know how to measure accurately, as a result they got the seconds out of the acceptable
range.

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Wrong answers
26º 41’ 45” S 15º 15’ 08” E
15º 14’ 01” 26º 42’ 03”

Correct answers
26° 42’ 24” (21-27) S 15° 13’ 43” (42-44) E

Do not penalise the child on degrees and minutes

1 mark: south co-ordinate
1 mark: east co-ordinate

Suggestions on improvement
Teachers should use the measurement methods and avoid using an inaccurate formula to estimate seconds.
[2]
[22]

2 (a) (i) AOB: Name one landform from photograph A.

Comments on specific question
The majority of learners were able to identify the landforms.

Wrong answers
Headland

Correct answers
Waterfall
Rapids
Interlocking spurs
Gorge/Canyon
Cliffs
Plunge pool Any one

Suggestions on improvement
Teachers need to tell learners to study the photograph thoroughly before answering the questions
and understand what is being demanded by the question as this would help them to know how to
give precise answers. [1]
(ii) AOA: State two ways the river transports its load in this part of the river.
Comments on specific question
Most learners were able to answer the question. Some learners were defining instead of giving terms,
however, some were mentioning erosional processes like abrasion, hydraulic action, corrosion and
attrition as well as deposition.

Wrong answers
Most candidates mentioned erosional processes like abrasion, hydraulic action, corrosion and attrition
as well as deposition

Correct answers
Traction
Saltation
Suspension
Solution Any two

Suggestions on improvement
Teachers need to emphasise differentiating between erosional and transportation processes.
[2]
(iii) AOB: Describe the features of the river valley shown in Photograph A.
Comments on specific question
Well answered. Some learners were not using descriptive terms but just give names, like rocks,
mountains instead of rocky, mountainous. Most mention fast flowing water, pans and potholes.

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Wrong answers
Candidates mentioned rocks, mountains instead of rocky, mountainous. Most mention fast flowing
water, pans and potholes.

Correct answers
Deep
V-shaped
Interlocking
Bare rocks
Rocky /mountainous/hilly
Pale/multicoloured rocks
Little vegetation/sparse vegetation
Steep (sides)
No/ little floor/narrow valley/river fills the floor
Forest/coniferous/ evergreen/pine trees
Cliffs
Gorge
Shallow/er valley
Several streams
White water
Clear water
Large catchment area
Splashing water
Wider valley
Waterfall/Falling water Any two

Suggestions on improvement
Teachers should be able to use descriptive terms during lessons to minimise problems of just
identifying landforms. Descriptive terms such as rocky, mountainous, deep or wide must be
used when describing a valley or whenever other landforms are demanded by the question. [2]

(b) Fig. 1 is a sketch of the longitudinal profile of the section of the river valley that is shown in
Photograph A.

(i) AOB: Add labels to the sketch to describe the river at parts A, B and C.
Comments on specific question
Most got it correct though some confused it with marine features.

Wrong answers
Headlands, as well as labelling A as source and C as mouth.

Correct answers
A: gentle slope/smooth flow/upper course/resistent
B: very steep/steep drop/waterfall/middle course/cliff
C: irregular flow/rapids/rocky/lower course/less resistant
1 mark: 2 correct
0 marks: 1 correct
Suggestions on improvement
Teachers need to provide more diagrams for the candidates to analyse. [1]
(ii) AOC: Discuss how far you agree that people might object to a plan to build a dam
across this valley.
Comments on specific question
Not well answered. Learners failed to connect to dam building and impact on the community.

493
Correct answers
Agree because:
Converging air: In a low-pressure system, air tends to converge towards the center. As the air
converges, it rises, cools and condenses, forming clouds. These clouds eventually lead to rainfall as the
water vapour in the clouds condenses into liquid droplets.
Rising air: Low-pressure systems typically have rising air, which is caused by the upward motion of air
towards the center of the system. As the air rises, it expands and cools. Cool air holds less moisture than
warm air, which promotes the condensation of water vapour and the formation of rain.
Convections: Low-pressure systems often trigger convection, which is the vertical movement of air. As
air rises within the low-pressure system, it creates instability in the atmosphere, leading to the formation
of towering cumulonimbus clouds. These clouds are associated with heavy rain showers, as they contain
a large amount of moisture and strong updrafts.
Moisture availability: Low-pressure systems tend to be associated with moist air. This could be due to
the proximity of the system to a body of water or the presence of a weather front. Moisture availability is
a crucial factor in rainfall formation, as it provides the necessary water vapour for condensation and cloud
development.
Atmospheric instability: Low-pressure systems also contribute to atmospheric instability. The
combination of rising air, moisture availability, and temperature differences within the system cerate an
environment where warm, moist air can rapidly rise and cool, leading to the formation of clouds and
precipitation. The unstable atmosphere within a low-pressure system enhances the likelihood of rainfall.

Disagree because:
Lack of moisture: A low pressure system requires a sufficient amount of moisture in the atmosphere to
produce rainfall. If the air is dry, there may not be enough moisture available for precipitation to occur,
even in the presence of a low pressure system.
Stable atmosphere: In some cases, a low pressure system may be associated with stable atmospheric
conditions. In a stable atmosphere, the air tends to resist vertical motion, making it difficult for clouds and
precipitation to develop. Without the necessary upward motion to support the formation of clouds and
rain, a low pressure system may not result in rainfall.
Lack of triggering mechanisms: While a low pressure system can contribute to the development of
clouds and precipitation, it is not the sole factor responsible for rainfall. Other triggering mechanisms,
such as convergence of air masses, lifting of air masses over mountains or the presence of atmospheric
disturbances may be necessary to initiate and sustain rainfall. In the absence of these triggering
mechanisms, a low pressure system alone may not lead to significant rainfall.
Lack of instability: Rainfall is often associated with unstable atmospheric conditions, where there is a
significant vertical temperature gradient and potential for vigorous upward motion of air. If the atmosphere
remains stable within a low pressure system, the lack of instability can hinder the development of
widespread rainfall.
Subsidence: In certain cases, a low pressure system may be accompanied by a sinking motion of
air known as subsidence. Subsidence can suppress cloud formation and prevent the development of
rainfall. If there is strong subsidence within a low pressure system, it may mitigate the potential for
significant precipitation.
Reserve 1 mark: decision made
Reserve 1 mark: for discussion Any one

Suggestions on improvement
Teachers are to teach their learners the differences between LPS and HPS and teach the various
weather patterns associated with those pressure systems as well as their influences on the climate. [2]
[8]

4 (a) (i) AOA: Coal and oil are being referred to as non-renewable energy sources. Define non-
renewable energy sources.
Comments on specific question
Only a few learners could not define the non renewable energy sources.

Wrong answers
Sources that can be recycled, cannot be depleted, that can be used over and over

Correct answers
Sources that will run out/ become exhausted/they take very long to be replaced.

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Suggestions on improvement [1]

(ii) AOB: Complete Table 1 by giving the percentage of coal reserves for Latin America.
Comments on specific question
• Learners do not know how to give percentages
• Learners could not convert the percentage to degrees

Wrong answers
• 1.1
• 3.6
• 0.5

Correct answers
1
Suggestions on improvement [1]
(iii) AOB: Use the information in Table 1 to complete the pie chart in Fig. 3 for the world coal
reserves. Use the key provided.
Comments on specific question
• Most learners could not plot the pie chart well
• Some failed to shade the pie chart well
• Some learners left it blank

Wrong answers
• Wrong plotting
• Wrong keys used

Correct answers

1 mark: division
1 mark: shading

Suggestions on improvement [2]

(b) (i) AOB: Use Table 1 and Fig. 3 to complete the following paragraph by writing the correct
answers in the open spaces.
Comments on specific question
The majority of learners could not answer the questions as they failed to match the answers to the pie
chart and the table.

Wrong answers
Over half of the oil reserves are found in North America, Africa, Europe and Russia.
• The world’s coal reserves are in middle East, Africa.
• The continent with less than 10% of the worlds’ reserves of both oil and coal is the Middle East,
North America, Latin America.
• Countries are developing the use of renewable sources such as coal, oil or most referred to Non
renewable sources
Correct answers
Over half of the oil reserves are found in the Middle East.

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The world’s coal reserves are found mostly in three of the six areas which are: Asia, Austaralia, Europe,
Russia and North America.
The continent with less than 10% of the world’s reserves of both oil and coal is Africa.
Countries are developing the use of renewable sources such as wind/solar/wave/geothermal/HEP/
tidal and biomass.
2 marks: 4 correct
1 mark: 2/3 correct
0 marks: 1 correct

Suggestions on improvement [2]

(ii) AOC: Discuss how far you agree with many world regions still using oil as a source of energy.
Comments on specific question
• Learners were repeating the question or lifting of answers.
• Learners could not compare oil with other sources of energy.
• Learners could not distinguish between agree and disagree to support their statements.

Wrong answers
• Oil is cheap with no comparison with other sources
• Oil is used worldwide
• A type of renewable source
• Produced by many countries
• Most countries depend on oil

Correct answers
Agree because:
Oil reserves are still plentiful in many countries, making it a readily available and accessible source of
energy.
Energy density: Oil has a high energy density, meaning it contains a large amount of energy per unit
of volume, making it efficient to transport and store.
Infrastructure: Many countries have existing infrastructure for oil extraction, refining and distribution,
which makes it convenient and cost-effective to continue using oil.
Economic benefits: Oil-dependent countries often have well-developed oil industries that contribute
significantly to their economies, creating jobs and generating revenue.
Trade and geopolitics: Oil can be a valuable geopolitical tool, allowing countries to influence global
markets and establish strategic alliances through oil exports and imports.
Familiarity: Oil has been widely used as a primary energy source for decades, and many countries
have established industrial processes and technologies based on its use.

Disagree because:
Environmental impact: Burning oil releases greenhouse gases and contributes to climate change,
leading to global warming.
Finite resource: Oil is a non-renewable resource, meaning it is being depleted at a faster rate than it is
being formed.
Price volatility: Oil prices are subject to geopolitical tensions, market speculation and supply
disruptions, leading to unpredictable and unstable energy costs.
Shifts in global energy transition: Many countries are transitioning to cleaner and more sustainable
energy sources, making oil-dependent countries less competitive in the long run.
Technological advancements: Rapid development in renewable energy technologies, such as solar
and wind power offer cleaner and more cost-effective alternatives to oil.

5 (a) (i) AOA: Define the term leisure.

Comments on specific question
• Fairly well answered, however, learners were referring to leisure as moving from one place to
another.

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Wrong answers
• Movement of people from one place to another
• Where people live
• The type of natural feature

Correct answers
Use of free time for enjoyment.

Suggestions on improvement [1]

Teachers should teach learners to distinguish the difference between leisure and tourism as well as
teach learners to apply their knowledge.
(ii) AOB: From Fig. 4, name one national park.
Comments on specific question
Well answered as learners could identify and name the national park from Fig. 4

Wrong answers
Pan
Park
National Park
Kaudom Game Park

Correct answers
Namib Naukluft National Park
Skeleton Coast National Park
Etosha National Park
Mundumu National Park
Mamili National Park Any one

Suggestions on improvement [1]

Teachers should teach learners to analyse, extract and interpret geographical information from maps
(iii) AOB: According to Fig.4, what type of communication makes tourism possible between
different tourist attractions in Namibia?
Comments on specific question
Not well answered as learners could not identify the communication from the key on Fig. 4 as most of
them were repeating the name of the National Parks

Wrong answers
National Park and Game Park
Using internet
Advertisement on social media

Correct answers
Main road/road

Suggestions on improvement
Teachers should teach learners to analyse, extract and interpret geographical information from maps [1]
(v) AOB: Name an outstanding natural feature on the Skeleton Coast Park.
Comments on specific question
Learners could not name the outstanding natural feature on the skeleton coast as they referred to other
natural feature not on Fig. 4.

Wrong answers
Dunes
Desert
Skeleton
Hotspring
Coast

Correct answers
Sossusvlei
Cape Cross Seal Reserve Any one

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Suggestions on improvement
Teachers need to focus more on AOB questions, meaning retrieving information from sketches. [1]

(b) (i) AOB: Complete Fig.5 to show the world’s tourist numbers in 2000 and 2012.
Comments on specific question
Learners could not plot the correct number of tourist for 2000 and 2012 although most learners could
use the key to shade the bar
Wrong answers
2000: 1 360 000
2012: 1 860 000
Correct answers

1 mark: plotting
1 mark: shading [2]
(ii) AOC: Discuss how far you agree that the tourism industry can provide an economic
advantage for local communities.
Comments on specific question
Most learners could provide the economic advantage for local communities

Wrong answers
• Provide food for local people
• Most industries are used for tourist

Correct answers
Agree because:
Economic growth: Tourism brings in money and stimulates the local economy.
Job creation: The tourism industry provides employment opportunities for local residents.
Increased income: With more job opportunities, locals have a chance to earn a higher income.
Small business support: Tourism helps small businesses in the community to thrive and grow.
Infrastructure development: Tourism often leads to the development of better infrastructure such as
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roads, airports and public facilities.
Preservation of cultural heritage: Tourism promotes the preservation of local traditions, customs and
historical landmarks.

Disagree because:
High cost of living: Tourism can cause the cost of living to rise significantly in local communities,
making it more difficult for locals to afford housing, food and other necessities.
Seasonal employment: Many tourism-related jobs are seasonal, leading to income instability and
unemployment for locals during the off-season.
Loss of cultural identity: Increased tourism can result in the commodification of local culture, leading
to the dilution or loss of traditional customs and practices.
Increased pollution: Tourism activities, such as transportation and waste generation, can contribute to
increased pollution in local communities.
Inequality: Tourism can exacerbate existing social and economic inequalities, with profits often
benefitting large corporations or foreign investors rather than the local community.
Noise pollution: Tourism activities, such as loud parties, concerts or increased traffic can contribute to
noise pollution, affecting the quality of life for locals.
Increased crime: Tourism can contribute to an increase in criminal activities such as petty theft, scams
or illegal activities in local communities.

6 (a) (i) AOA: Define the term urban sprawl.

Comments on specific question
Poorly answered as learners could not define the word urban sprawl. Most of learners refer to
urbanisation or rural urban migration

Wrong answers
The growth of urban areas/growth of town and cities. The movement of people from rural areas to
urban areas.

Correct answers
The spreading of urban structures into areas surrounding a city/undeveloped land/countryside/outskirts

Suggestions on improvement [1]

Teachers should teach their learners the definition of urban sprawl and gentrification.
(ii) AOB: Identify the rural settlement pattern at Z.
Comments on specific question
Well answered, however, some candidates could not spell the words dispersed or scattered pattern
correctly. Some learners refer to ”sparsely pattern.”

Wrong answers
Sparsely settlement/pattern

Correct answers
Dispersed/Scattered pattern

Suggestions on improvement [1]

Teachers should teach the learners the rural settlement patterns by means of defining, describing,
identifying and drawing.
(iii) AOB: Use the diagram to describe the linear pattern of settlement Y.
Comments on specific question
Not well answered, as most candidates indicated that houses are built near/close to the road

Wrong answers
Houses are built near the road /next to the road /close to the road

Correct answers
Built along the road.

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Suggestions on improvement [1]
Teachers should teach their learners example: The word linear means found along the road and not
near/closer to the road.
(iv) AOB: Use Fig. 6 to give a reason for the growth of settlement X.
Comments on specific question
Poorly answered as candidates could not give reasons for the growth of settlement X.

Wrong answers
Deep fertile soil, flood plain, next to the road for communication, water supply.

Correct answers
Cross roads/road junction/multiple roads crossing/ two roads crossing [1]

Suggestions on improvement
Teachers should teach the reasons for the growth of rural settlement patterns by identifying primary
factors.

(b) (i) AOB: Name the part of an urban settlement indicated in Photograph B and give one
piece of evidence for your choice.
Comments on specific question
Well answer, as most candidate scored a mark either for the CBD or evidence or for both. Some
candidates refer to the name of building e.g Avani

Wrong answers
Windhoek city, squatter settlement, Avani Hotel

Correct answers
CBD/Central Business District

Evidence:
Large/Tall buildings/Skyscrapers/Vertical Zoning
High volume of traffic/Multiple traffic lanes
Larger parking area

1 mark: naming part of urban settlement

1 mark: evidence provided

Suggestions on improvement [2]

Teachers should teach the features of urban morphology.
(ii) AOC: Discuss how far you agree that multiple traffic lanes in Photograph B solve the
problem of traffic congestion.
Comments on specific question
Not well answered, as most candidates repeated the question e.g solves the problem of traffic
congestion. Some candidates refer to traffic officer.

Wrong answers
Solves the problem of traffic congestion, traffic lights, people move freely, overcrowded.

Correct answers
Agree because:
Increased capacity: Multiple traffic lanes allow for a higher volume of vehicles to pass through a given
area, thereby increasing the overall capacity of the road.
Enhanced flow of traffic: With multiple lanes, vehicles can move at different speeds, reducing
weaving and merging conflicts that can cause congestion.
Improved lane discipline: Multiple lanes encourage drivers to stay in their designated lanes, reducing
weaving and merging conflicts that can cause congestion.
Enhanced ease of merging: Multiple lanes provide more opportunities for vehicles to merge into
traffic, reducing bottlenecks and congestion caused by merging manoeuvers.
Reduced stop-and-go traffic: With multiple lanes, drivers have more options to switch lanes and
avoid stopping unnecessarily, which helps to reduce congestion and improve traffic flow.

Disagree because:
Increased complexity: Multiple traffic lanes can lead to a more complex road network, increasing the
chances of confusion and errors for drivers.
Limited effectiveness: Adding more lanes may not always solve traffic congestion effectively, as it can
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simply attract more drivers to the area, causing congestion to persist or even worsen.
Increased risk of accidents: Multiple traffic lanes create more opportunities for accidents, such as
lane merging conflicts and sideswipes.
Difficulty changing lanes: In heavy traffic, changing lanes can be challenging and may contribute to
congestion and delays.
Reduced space for public transportation: Adding multiple lanes can limit the necessary space
for public transportation infrastructure, hindering efforts to promote sustainable mobility and alleviate
congestion.

7 (a) (i) AOB: What is the projected population for 2050?

Comments on specific question
Well answered, however, some learners could not read and interpret the graph very well.

• Check the weather forecast [1]

Comment on specific question

Well answered: most candidates could establish reasons as to why candidates should consider weather
however some learners could not link it to safety

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• to know the weather
• to make sure their safe (too vague)
• extreme temperature
• to get accurate results

Correct answers
• To determine whether it is going to rain
• To determine whether it’s going to be low tide or high tide
• To determine whether it’s going to be sunny or cloudy
• To determine whether it’s going to be windy or calm
• To wear suitable shoes/clothing/waterproof/helmets
• Bad weather conditions e.g. rainy, sunny, windy
• To know the appropriate day to do research

Comment on specific question

Well answered: most candidates could give correct reasons for taking a cellphone however few could
not link the use to safety and gave general.

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• Not allowed to have cellphone
• To get accuracy
• Taking selfies for memories

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Correct answers
• To call emergency services if an accident occurs
• To google emergency remedies for stings/bites from aquatic animals
• To take pictures/ record audios of their findings
• Time
• Direction
• Check the weather (tide schedules)

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• Measure distance across the banks
• Use clinometer to measure pebble size
• Measure the height of ranging poles with clinometer

Correct answers
• Two ranging poles: erect one ranging pole up the beach and another where the slope of the
beach changes/ erect ranging poles across the beach
• Tape measure: measure the distance between the two ranging poles/measure transect line
• Clinometer: measure the angle from one ranging pole to the other.

1 mark for a description of how each of the equipment will be used. [3]
Positive suggestion
• Emphasize on the instrument and their functions in relation to their fieldwork, e.g the clinometer is
to measure the angle of the slope.
(ii) AOD: Describe two problems the group may have had in ensuring their measurements
were accurate.
Comment on specific question:
Fairly answered,

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• Inaccurate measurement
• learners are not prepared
• No enough recorders
• No repetition

Correct answers
• Learners did not know how to use a clinometer/Incorrect use/reading of clinometer/error of parallel/
misunderstanding/ lack of cooperation among learners/malfunction of the instruments
• Tape measure was twisted/short
• Waves may have been distracting them (distractions)/tides/low or high tides
• Learners did not measure the distance between the two ranging poles accurately
• Use was not consistent/carried out by different people.
• Poles may not have been vertical/been stuck in the sand
• Bad weather conditions e.g. strong winds, weather changes

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Wrong answers commonly given by candidates
• Does not give accurate measurements
• Less time consuming

Correct answers
• Only selecting 1 pebble every metre/sample is too small/few pebbles/not reliable
• Selected pebble may be an anomaly/not representative/no variation
• Learner selects preferred pebble/involves bias
• Time consuming Any one [1]

Improvement (1)
Comment on specific question:
fairly answered

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• Use systematic sampling
• Paint the pebbles
• Measure the pebbles
• Different pebbles where picked up
• Not all pebbles were picked up
• Use venier caliper
• Do it the next day

Correct answers
• Measure one pebble-larger / smaller sample at each site and average results/ consider picking
different pebble sizes at different sites
• Use a quadrat and measure all pebbles within frame
• Choose pebbles at shorter distances to get bigger sample/ conduct the experiment at different or
more sites or transect
• Choose another sampling method/random sampling/equal chances/cluster/layered Any one [1]

Positive suggestions
• Learners must be taught the sampling methods and how they are integrated in a specific field work
with their advantages and disadvantage

Comment on specific question:

Fairly answered, few of candidates could plot correctly, majority could not plot either the dots or connect
line correctly, most candidates scored marks at 3 m but lost marks at 8 m.

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• Wrong plotting and connection

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Correct answers
Completion of cross-section at (3 m 0.5) and 8 m (1.1 m)
1 mark – correct plotting/cross touched the intersection
1 mark – lines connected at both distances [2]
Or
1 mark per correct site

Positive suggestion
• Emphasize on the plotting and completion of graphs
• Follow already establish example of plotting or connecting
• Use of past question papers to practice.
• The interpretation of graphs should be emphasized from lower grades (grade 8)

(d) (i) AOC: What conclusion would learners make about Hypothesis 1: The profile of the
beach will be similar to the textbook example of a typical beach? Support your answer
with evidence from Fig. 1 and Fig. 2.
Hypothesis proven/correct/true/accepted

Comment on specific question

Poorly answered, majority of learners could not make a correct judgement between the two profiles,
leaners decision was not link to their judgment, majority could not give comparative statements.

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• beach profile is decreasing with ranging poles
• Fig. 1 has longer pebbles
• most refer to river long profile
• no using of evidence
• candidates used table 1 instead of only Fig. 1 and Fig. 2

Correct answers
• Both profiles have three/four levels
• Both profiles sloping/slope up/down
• Both profiles change in gradient/steep slope at each tide level
• Each section is a concave on both profiles
• Low water mark is 1.6 m which is the lowest and same as textbook mark. The high tide is at
1.0 m which is the second lowest and same as textbook profile

Hypothesis unproven/incorrect/untrue/false/accepted

Comment on specific question

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates
• Incorrect data

Correct answers
• Fig. 2 has a flatter section above the low water mark/more gradual
• Fig. 2 has a flatter section above high tide
• Fig. 1 is less steep above high spring tide/gentler/more gentle
• Fig. 2 has no flat section at the top of the beach/above storm tide
• Fig. 2 is flatter overall/Fig. 1 steeper in profile measured by learners

Hypothesis partially proven/correct/true/accepted

Comment on specific question
Few candidates gave partial decision, majority either agree/disagree but give both judgements,

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• Both profiles are steep slopes

Correct answers
• Both profiles sloping /slope up/down, but Fig. 1 is flatter overall/steeper in profile measured by
learners
• Some section is a concave on both profiles, but Fig. 2 has no flat section at the top of the beach/
above storm tide
• Fig. 1 is less steep above high spring tide, but both profiles change in gradient/steep slope at each
tide level

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• On the typical beach from the back to storm tide has a sharp curve while on textbook example there
is a cliff
Other relevant answers to be considered.
1 mark – decision made on hypothesis
2 marks – data/ comparative statements that supports decision made. E.g cliff, levels, slope
(gradient, steep, concave, convex, numbers in metres. [3]

Positive suggestions
• Include questions on AOC in tests to familiarise learners with judgement and decision making
questions
• Learners should draw data from referred diagrams as supporting evidence
(ii) AOB: Use the results in Table 1 to plot the pebble size measurements at 7 m and 15 m
from the back of the beach on Fig. 3.

Plotting two results on scatter graph: 7 m = 10 cm, 15 m = 2 cm

Comment on specific question

Well answered, majority could plot correctly

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• Few candidates could not score marks for incorrect plotting of 15 m

Correct answers
1 mark – 7 m = 10 cm
1 mark – 15 m = 2 cm [2]

Positive suggestion to teachers

• Teachers should emphasize to learners to always follow the established example to complete the
graph
• Teachers emphasize on practice of scattered graphs
(iii) AOC: What conclusion would learners make about Hypothesis 2: Pebbles become longer
as distance from the back of the beach increases? Support your answer with evidence
from Table 1 and Fig. 3.
Hypothesis proven/correct/true/accepted

Comment on specific question

Poorly answered, majority of candidates repeated the hypothesis without making a judgement and not
using data/evidence from table 1 and Fig. 3 to make a decision

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• data given not corresponding with decision made
• candidates not using two sets of data to support decision

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Correct answers
Hypothesis is proven/correct/true/accepted
• At 1 metre from the back of the beach, the pebble size increased from 15 cm to 20 cm at 2 metres.
• At 8 metres from the back of the beach, the pebble size is 2 cm
• Then increases to 9 cm at 9 and 10 metres from the back of the beach
• Then increases to 10 cm at 11 metres from the back of the beach.

Hypothesis unproven/incorrect/untrue/false/accepted
Comment on specific question
Candidates gave reasons to why pebbles are smaller instead of using the graph to make judgement
and decision

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• some pebbles are small due to erosion
• mixing up the data

Correct answers
Hypothesis unproven/incorrect/false/unaccepted
• At 0 metres from the back of the beach, the pebble size is 18 cm
• But at 1 metre, the pebbles are 15 cm
• At 8 metres from the back of the beach, the pebbles are 2 cm
• While at 7/11 metres, the pebbles are 10 cm.

Hypothesis partially proven/correct/true/accepted

Comment on specific question

Few candidates gave a partial decision, however those that did few could not give the fluctuating
pattern to show that some areas its increasing and some its decreasing

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

Correct answers
• At 0 metres from the back of the beach, the pebble size is 18 cm, while at 7 metres, the
pebbles are 10 cm, showing that the pebble size did not increase, but decreased.

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• some pebbles are small some are large
• there is a large number of pebbles present
• deposition
• velocity of the river
• bank of the river

Correct answers
• More powerful swash/strong waves/big waves/storm waves take all material up the beach/high or
low tides
• Less powerful backwash/water going back carries smaller material down
• Erosion more rapid close to the sea where there is more frequent wave action
• Erosional processes/name and explain, each gets a mark
• Rock falls from the back of the beach provide larger material closer to the back of the beach.
• different sizes of wave/wave energy/types of waves
• coastline shape/orientation/shape of the beach/beach profile/distance from the beach/ distance

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from the back of the beach
• longshore drift movements/materials carried over longer distance are prone to erosion/swash and
backwash
• geology of beach material/ variation in resistance of rocks or beach materials/types of rocks/ soft
and hard rocks
• human activities/ soft and hard engineering methods/constructions of groynes/gabions/ rip-raps etc.

Comment on specific question:

Fairly answered, majority of learners could score marks for AOB (skill) but few scored marks for AOA
(knowledge)

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• No arrows in the diagram to indicate movement
• No oblique arrow for swash
• No arrows to indicate the direction of LSD and prevailing wind

Correct Answers
AOB: Drawing
1 mark - swash and back wash arrows repetitive motions
1 mark - waves approaching coastline at an angle/ prevailing wind direction
AOA: Description
1 mark - swash and back wash words (arrows must be there)
1 mark - direction of longshore drift [4]

Positive suggestions
• Emphasize on how to draw annotated diagrams that are well labelled
• Emphasize on arrows that indicate the prevailing wing direction
(ii) Describe a fieldwork the group of learners could have carried out to determine the direction of
longshore drift.
Comment on specific question:
Poorly answered, majority of candidates were describing the process of longshore drift instead of how
to determine the direction of longshore drift.

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• Use compass to determine LSD
• Process of LSD
• Use sand
• Wind vane
• Use the internet to determine LSD

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Correct answers
Use of tracers/marked pebbles
Introduce artificial tracers such as coloured sand or biodegradable material at specific points on the
beach.
Time the investigation
Monitor the movement of these tracers to visualize the direction and extent of longshore drift.
Observation:
Select a specific stretch of the beach
Observe the beach over a period of time
Take notes of any noticeable changes

Marking points:
Identify a prominent natural feature along the beach: e.g. Landmarks, distinct rocks, debris
Use stakes, markers, or other visible indicators to mark the initial positions of these features.
Come back after a few days or weeks and observe your initial position of the indicator
Find an area with groynes
Measure the height of the beach on each side of the groynes
If heights differ, longshore drift is taking place
Drop an orange/a float into the sea
Mark starting point/position with ranging poles
Allow orange/float to move for a period of time
Measure the distance the orange/float has moved
Do the test several times to get an average
If orange/float moved, longshore drift is taking place
Paint pebbles/colored balls
Group them close to water’s edge
Leave them for period of time
Put ranging poles where pebbles start and another at a fixed distance along beach
Find the pebbles/see how many moved from starting point
Do test several times to get an average
If pebbles have moved, longshore drift is taking place

Method should describe how longshore drift will be proven.

Credit the first response.
Other relevant answers
1 mark - selecting method
2 marks - Description of the method [3]

Positive suggestions
• Differentiate between the process of longshore process and how to determine the direction of
longshore drift
• Introduce learners to different methods of field work
• Learners be encouraging to answers in sequence/steps of processes

2 (a) (i) AOA: Apart from the high number of pedestrians and multi-storey buildings, describe
two other characteristics expected of a town’s CBD.
Comment on specific question
Fairly answered: Most learners manage to give the correct descriptions on the characteristics of a
town’s CBD. However, some learners could not give the third degree of comparison.

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• Traffic survey
• High way
• Overpopulation
• Number of cars
• Tall buildings/sky scrapers
• Infrastructure
• Many people

Correct answers
• Multiple lanes of traffic
• High number of vehicles/traffic congestion/ highest traffic volume
• Overcrowded
• Different functions/High and low order functions/Most services
• Central point of a town/Accessibility/Convergence for major transport networks/Highest

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concentration of businesses e.g. Financial institutions, corporate offices etc.
• Oldest buildings/Historical buildings
• Shopping malls/Retail stores
• Few residential areas
• High land values/Highest land value/Expensive/High rental
• Limited parking/Tolls for parking/Large parking garages
• Deserted at night
• High sphere of influence
Other relevant answers to be considered.
Any two [2]

Positive suggestions
• Emphasize on the difference between the CBD and town.
• Teachers should expand on learner’s knowledge on the characteristics of the CBD and use of the
third degree of comparison when describing the characteristic of the CBD.
• Expose learner’s to surveys about the characters of a town’s CBD.
(ii) AOA: Explain two reasons for the variations of building heights found around a town.

Comment on specific question:

Poorly answered: Most learners could not clearly give distinctive reasons on why there may be
variations on building heights around a town. Some learners were giving reasons based on the size
variations and not on heights or stating the characteristics instead of reasons.

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• Tall buildings are houses
• Because it’s a CBD
• Traffic congestion

Correct answers
• Limited area to build on/Less space for building means they have to be high OR more space so
buildings are lower
• Maximize use of land/planning laws may restrict building height in certain places.
• Municipal rules and regulations/ Zoning regulations/ Unplanned cities/ Poor planning
• Preserve old buildings
• Architectural design
• High land values mean tall buildings are cost effective.
• Land may be unsuitable for foundations needed for tall buildings.
• Demand for land can vary
• Different land uses/examples of two land uses requiring different heights/ Different functions or
customers
• Size of land/ Availability of land

Any two [2]

Positive suggestions

(b) (i) AOD: State three safety considerations learners should consider when conducting a
pedestrian count.
Comment on specific question:
Well answered: Most learners could correctly state the safety considerations.

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• Do not count pedestrians
• Recording sheet
• Repeat the process
• Introduce yourself to the pedestrians
• Have a camera
• Visit where there is no people
• Interview them

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Correct answers
• Wear high visibility clothing/ Reflectors/ Wear a hat/ Apply sunscreen/ Umbrella hats/ protective
gear
• Obey traffic signals/ Awareness of traffic/ surrounding
• Use designated walkways
• Stay on sidewalks and pathways
• Avoid distractions
• Establish clear safety protocols for learners/ Do not talk to strangers/ observe from a safe spot/
Consider working in pairs/ groups
• Be aware of nearby emergency facilities or services
• Plan pedestrian during daylight hours.
• Coordinate with local authorities
• Collect emergency contact information for each learner
• Try not to obstruct sidewalks and paths
• Accessibility/ close proximity/ accessible
• Consider favorable/ bad weather conditions
• Cellphones for communication purposes

Comment on specific question:

Well answered: Most learners were able to give correct reasons for the method used. However, some
learners were not able to distinguish between pedestrians, traffic counts and passengers.

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• To know where pedestrians are coming from
• To know the numbers of cars
• It is suitable
• Tally
• It is useful
• To know how many people likes visiting the CBD

Correct answers
• To see if there is a variation in pedestrians during the day
• To increase learner’s safety/ safety
• More appropriate on a busy day
• Reduces human bias
• Easy to use
• To include factors which affect specific times e.g. going to work/lunch time
• To get a wider variety of results/average results/accurate results/
• To get a representative sample /to cover a larger area/ Spread out their counts
• So learners do not make mistakes – longer duration of counting is unreliable/ Quicker/ Faster/ Less
time consuming/ Few mistakes

Comment on specific question:

Poorly answered: Most learners could not identify the correct numbers of pedestrians to be tallied, or
tally correctly and neither write the tally total in the space provided.
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Wrong answers commonly given by candidates
• Learners switched the tally with the total ( on space provided)
• Tallied the total for all distance on Independence street (194)
• Tallying outside the space provided

1 mark - shading of area with more than 150 pedestrians - needs shading all 4 quadrants (not line
shading). [1]
(iii) AOB and AOD: Describe the distribution of pedestrians shown in Fig. 5 for the town.
Support your answer with evidence from Table 2 and Fig. 5.

Comment on specific question:

Poorly answered: Candidates could not correctly give the description on the distribution of pedestrians
using Table 2 and Fig. 5. Some could not link evidence to the description.

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Wrong answers commonly given by candidates
• Description without evidence or vice versa
• Data lifting from the tale or fig.5 e.g. 111 independence street

Correct answers
• Most pedestrians are mostly found around the CBD- 140-175 pedestrians
• The highest pedestrian flow is in the middle at 172.
• The further you move away from the CBD, the pedestrians become fewer. From 172 at the central
point – 19 pedestrians at the furthest point
• Flows reduce as you move away from the centre down to 52/39/19/32 at the edge
• Highest number of pedestrians are found at the central point- 172 pedestrians
• Lowest number of pedestrians found furthest away from the central point- 19 pedestrians
• Western/northern edge have higher flows than eastern/southern 52 to 32/39 to 19.
• Most rapid decree is to the east from 172 to 81
• Kalipi street has fewer pedestrians a total of 127 and Luderitz street has more pedestrians with 289
pedestrians/ Highest number of pedestrians along Luderitz street and lowest number of pedestrians
along Kalipi street
• Scattered all over/ scattered around the town
• E.g More pedestrians at 100m from the central point at 08:00-08:10 (2 marks)
1 mark: AOD – data provided
2 marks: AOB: description of distribution. [3]

Positive suggestions
• Teachers should elaborate more on the term “distribution” and how to answer the question which
requires learners to describe the distribution.
• Teachers should emphasise on the use of data
(iv) AOC: What conclusion would the students make to Hypothesis 1: Pedestrian flow
decreases away from the centre of the CBD? Support your answer with evidence from Table 2.

Hypothesis proven/correct/true/accepted

Comment on specific question:

Fairly answered: Most of the candidates could score two marks for correct description. However,
majority of learners could not score full marks as they could not provide supporting evidence from table
2 ONLY. Some used fig.5 instead of Table 2.

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• More pedestrians at central point 172, as you move away from Kalipi street, less pedestrians
recorded 19.
• Most pedestrians are found at the Centre of the town and decreased as they move away from the
Centre.

Correct answers
Hypothesis proven/correct/true/accepted
• At 100 m – 111 pedestrians
• At 200 m – 51 pedestrians
• At 300 m – 32 pedestrians
• Specific times and pattern of pedestrians should be credited when paired /

NB: Use only table 2

Other relevant answers to be considered.
1 mark- decision made on hypothesis
2 marks- data that supports decision made. [3]

(e) (i) AOB: Using Table 3, calculate the average number of storeys at this site. Round off your
answer to a whole number.

Comment on specific question:

Well answered: Most candidates could calculate the average correctly and rounded it off. However,
some learner’s candidates could round off to the whole number and they lost marks.

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Wrong answers commonly given by candidates
3.2, 32

Correct answers
- 32/10 = 3 (must be whole number) [1]

Positive suggestions
Advocate for numeracy skills across curriculum, especially average.
(ii) AOA: Suggest one possible problem of using the number of storeys to estimate the
height of a building.

Comment on specific question:

Fairly answered. Most learners could suggest a problem of using the number of storeys to estimate the
height of a building.

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• Time consuming
• The building can fall down.
• The heights of buildings are not the same
• It’s hard
• Buildings are on higher elevation of flatter area

Correct answers
• Storeys of different buildings vary in height/ Storey height varies depending on use/age of buildings
(newer buildings may have taller storeys, shopping mall will have taller storeys than apartments etc)
• Inaccurate as it is not measured in a unit/ Height is normally measured in metres, not in storeys/
unreliable/incorrect/wrong etc.
• Some storeys might be obscured by other buildings/trees etc
• Some buildings may have windows that do not correspond to storeys/no windows or features to
count
• If the building is very tall it may be difficult to count from street level
• One building may have different parts with different number of storeys
• There may be storeys below the ground level/ some buildings are basements/ bunkers/
underground basement
• Shape of the building/ architectural design

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• Observation
• Estimation
• Counting the number of windows
• Random sampling/ systematic sampling
• Compare with other buildings
• Throw a stone and use a stop watch
• Workout the area of the yard

Correct answers
Use a clinometer/ Measuring/ Tangent formula for calculating angles
• Surveying and trigonometry/ Geometry/ Calculating/ Divide area by length
• Google Earth or online mapping tools/ GIS
• Photogrammetry/ Take a picture and calculate using the picture
• Consult municipality/owner of the building/secondary data

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• Ask/interview
• Use of drones
• Using the shadow length of the building

Comment on specific question:

Poorly answered: Most candidates failed to make a correct judgement (proven/ unproven/ partially) or
to provide correct data from fig.6. However, they gave general evidence. Data did not correspond with
their decision or hypothesis. Some repeated the hypothesis.

Wrong answers commonly given by candidates

• Tallest are always in the CBD
• CBD has tallest buildings because there are rich people
• Many people are going to work/ town for shopping
• CBD always has high buildings

Hypothesis unproven/incorrect/untrue/false/accepted

Correct answers
• Tallest buildings are outside/west of CBD/near motorway/near market
• Tallest buildings in CBD are 4 storeys high and tallest buildings outside CBD are 5/6 storeys high.

Hypothesis partially proven/correct/true/accepted

Correct answers

Hypothesis proven/correct/true/accepted
There are 4 storey buildings in the CBD
Further east and northeast the buildings storeys decrease to one storey buildings.

Hypothesis partially proven/correct/true/accepted

Correct answers
There are tall buildings in the CBD which are 4 storeys high, but tall buildings are also found on the
outside of the CBD which are 5/6 storeys high.

Evidence: market, storey, direction, edge of CBD (150) isoline, Hage Geingob street

1 mark - decision made on hypothesis

2 marks - data that supports decision made [3]

Positive suggestions
Include questions on AOC in tests to familiarise learners with judgement and decision making questions
Learners should draw data from referred diagrams as supporting evidence

(f) AOD: Describe a method they could use to do this.

Comment on specific question:

Poorly answered: Majority of learners could only score 1 mark for the identification of the method but they
could not describe the method correctly.

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Wrong answers commonly given by candidates
• Counting the number of people/ cars or buildings
• Use a tally method
• Walking around the place
• Do it across the town
• Use systematic method/ specific sampling methods

Correct answers
Walk along the transect/street selected/ Identify the street
Observe or ask for the land use of the buildings/ Questionnaires/ interview/ use of secondary data from
municipality
Mark the type of land use off according to the key/ Record information on or using a recording sheet

Method should describe how information about land use will be collected.
1 mark – mention on where survey will take place
1 mark – mention on how land use will be determined
1 mark – mention on how information will be recorded.
Other relevant answers to be considered.
[3]

Positive suggestions
Expose learners to more fieldworks or urban studies or urban areas.
Emphasise the methods on how to conduct the land use surveys/ outline clear steps on how land-use survey
is done.

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HISTORY
6138
Paper 1

GENERAL COMMENTS

Learners continue to use sound knowledge and understanding of their chosen topics to answer the questions. Some
learners communicate their ideas clearly and accurately, whether explaining the reasons for past events and historical
features or building an argument to reach a balanced historical judgement. There were few rubric errors, and most
learners had used the time allocated effectively and completed the paper.

Part (a) answers should focus on description and only include relevant details. Answers, therefore, should be precise,
as an explanation is not required.

Parts (b) and (c) of the questions require understanding and explanation, and part (c) also requires analysis. Learners
must be selective of the factual knowledge needed to explain events rather than using a purely narrative or ‘listing’
approach.

Most part (b) questions ask ‘why’ a particular event happened, so learners must direct their answers to address the
reasons rather than provide a description of what happened. Good answers were carefully organised, usually using
separate paragraphs for the different reasons that were being explained. Narrative or long introductions are not required.
In part (c), learners need to argue for and against the focus of the question. Less successful answers often focused on
one side of the argument only, and these answers could have been improved by including more contextual examples
on both sides of the argument to produce a balanced and stronger answer.

1 (a) Briefly describe how the German people were affected by the Treaty of Versailles. [5]
The question was fairly answered as most learners described the effects of the Treaty of Versailles. A
few number of learners confused the effects with the terms of the Treaty of Versailles.

Most of Germans were not happy because they felt betrayed by the Allies.
The people blamed the Weimar Republic for signing the Treaty of Versailles in which Germany lost good
farmland, and industrial areas (1) which previously produced enough food. (2)
Germany’s army was reduced to a 100 000 men which caused unemployment.
Reparations fees led to economic problems such as hyperinflation in 1923.
The military restrictions made Germany vulnerable to foreign attacks.
Territorial terms resulted into some Germans being minorities in the newly created countries like
Czechoslovakia and Poland. [1-5]

Consider other problems caused by the terms of the Treaty of Versailles.

(One mark for each relevant point; additional mark for supporting details).

(b) Explain why President Woodrow Wilson was dissatisfied with the Treaty of Versailles. [7]
Fairly answered, though most learners stated the aims of Woodrow Wilson instead of the reasons
why he was dissatisfied or unhappy with the Treaty of Versailles.

Level 1: General answer

He did not trust the French and British representatives. [1]

Level 2: Identifies the reasons

He wanted an everlasting peace but Clemenceau’s desire for revenge worried him.
He did not want Germany to be punished harshly but this got him into disagreement with
Clemenceau.
Most of his “Fourteen Points” were not considered.
Most of his points differed from the priorities of his other allies. [2-3]
Wilson’s self-determination was not achieved because the Germans found themselves as
minorities in other countries.
(One mark for every identified reason)

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Level 3: Explains one reason. [4-5]
President Woodrow Wilson wanted an everlasting peace based on his Fourteen Points and he
wanted all nations to reduce their armaments, so he was dissatisfied when only the defeated
nations, like Germany, were forces to disarm because this left a lot of other countries in Europe
with their forces ready for another war. (4) For example, Germany had to reduce their army to
100,000 men meaning they could not defend themselves against an attack or even keep the peace
in their own country. (5)

(One mark for a basic explanation with an additional for a developed explanation)

Level 4: Explains more than one reason

One mark for each explanation with an extra mark available fora more developed explanation to
a maximum of 7 marks e.g. 6 marks for two basic explanations, 7 marks for both explanations
offering good details. [6-7]

(c) To what extent was the Treaty of Versailles fair to Germany? Explain your answer. [8]
It was fairly answered. Most learners were able to identify the reasons why the treaty was fair.
However, they failed to explain the effects of the treaty’s terms on Germany. Many learners were able
to identify points on each side, but they were not well explained.

Level 1: General answer

It was fair / unfair [1]

Level 2: Identifies reasons on one side

Germany had given Austria encouragement to declare war on Serbia, so could be said to have
started it all.
It did not weaken the German economy as much as Germany claimed.
Germany had caused a huge amount of deliberate damage when retreating, that needing paying
for.
Germany had invaded Belgium to get to France bringing both France and Britain into the war
making it a ‘world war’ rather than a minor Balkan war.
The Germans started the war
The treaty of Brest-Litovisky imposed on Russia by Germans was more harsh than the Treaty of
Versailles.

Peace was forced on the new Weimar Republic when it the Empire and the Kaiser that had been in
charge during the war.
Many people in Germany did not get self-determination when parts of Germany were moved to be
in other countries.
Germans were forced to sign because their country was blockaded until they did and people were
starving.
It left Germany vulnerable to attack.
They complained because it was dictated.
The high reparations affected the ordinary citizens. [2-3]

(One mark per example)

Level 3: Identifies relevant facts for both sides [4]

Level 4: Explains reason(s) on one side

e.g. Many felt the Treaty was fair because peace markers did a reasonable job considering the
demand for revenge from the public. The Treaty of Versailles balanced these demands with the
need to leave Germany able to rebuild after the war. This meant that when the Allies took the Saar
region to help pay for the costs of the war it was only for 15 years and then it could be returned to
Germany. (5) The same with the Rhineland, France wanted it to be a separate state but it was left
as part of Germany and they could benefit from its industry. This means the Treaty was fair, it was
only putting back damage Germany had done. (6)

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e.g. The Treaty can be seen as unfair because of the way Germany was forced to accept paying
reparations. Firstly, they had to sign without knowing what the figure would be. The amount was
decided by the Reparations Committee, and they didn’t announce the amount until much later (5).
Also, they had to pay reparations in money or goods but had industrial land removed that could
help them pay, like the Saar region. This made it much harder to pay so made it unfair. (6) [5-6]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

Level 5: Explains reasons on both sides [7-8]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

2 (a) Briefly describe the British attitude towards the remilitarisation of the Rhineland. [5]
Poorly answered. Most learners focused on Hitler’s foreign policy than the British attitude towards
Hitler’s remilitarisation of the Rhineland. Some learners focused on France instead of the British
attitude towards the remilitarisation of the Rhineland.

Some British people were concerned but most just didn’t want any more fighting and so wouldn’t support any
military action.
Some British people thought the Treaty of Versailles was too harsh so didn’t mind if a small part of it was
reversed.
Britain would not act without France and France wouldn’t do anything so even if Britain wanted to it was very
difficult to take action.
Some British thought Hitler ‘walking into his own back yard’ was acceptable and didn’t want to do anything.
Some British knew Hitler was breaking the Versailles (and/or Locarno) and wanted to stop Hitler. [1-5]
Britain was reluctant to act because the Rhineland was too far.
NB: Reasons why Britain did not take action against it (acceptable)
(One mark for each relevant point; additional mark for supporting details).

(b) Explain why Hitler’s foreign policy was successful up to 1938. [7]
Poorly answered. Most learners gave the aims of Hitler’s foreign policy instead of explaining why his
foreign policy was a success.

Level 1: General answer

e.g. Britain and France did not want to oppose him. [1]

Level 2: Identifies reasons

e.g. Some people felt that the Treaty had been hard on Germany and some changes were
acceptable.
He signed treaties and agreements which gave him sufficient confidence to implement his
aggressive foreign policy to achieve his territorial goals, e.g. Rome-Berlin axis
Anglo Naval Pact
In the 1930s Britain and France followed the policy of appeasement.
The failure of the League of Nations over Manchuria and Abyssinia allowed Hitler an opportunity to
further his policy of destroying the Treaty of Versailles. [2-3]
Britain and France were not ready for war.
The League of Nations was powerless
(One mark for every identified reason)

Level 3: Explains one reason

e.g. Hitler’s foreign policy was successful up until 1938 because during the 1930s Britain and
France followed a policy of appeasement that meant they chose not to do anything, they allowed
him to break international law, such as when Hitler wanted to add part of Czechoslovakia to
Germany. (4) This saw Hitler be allowed to annex land that had never been German because they
trusted him to stop there, and they didn’t want to go to war over a far off land. (5) [4-5]

(One mark for a basic explanation with an additional for a developed explanation)

Level 4: Explain more than one reason

One mark for each explanation with an extra mark available for a more developed explanation
to a maximum of 7 marks e.g. 6 marks for two basic explanations, 7 marks for both explanations
offering good details. [6-7]

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(c) ‘The Soviet Union gained more than Germany from the Nazi-Soviet Pact.’ How far do you agree
with this statement? Explain your answer. [8]
Poorly answered. Most learners focused on describing the Nazi-Soviet Pact instead of answering
the question of who gained more from it. Some described Hitler’s foreign policy instead of the Nazi-
Soviet Pact.

Level 1: General answer

Agree/disagree [1]

Level 2: Identifies reasons on one side

e.g. The Soviet Union gained extra land from Poland.
The Soviet Union gained an ally.
The Soviet Union acquired more land from the Baltic States.
The Nazi-Soviet Pact allowed the Soviet Union time to build up a strong army that would stand up
to any future attack from Germany.

e.g. Germany gained Lebensraum (extra living space) in Eastern Europe.

The Pact allowed Germany an opportunity to extend its Empire.
The Pact cleared the way for Germany’s invasion of Poland.
Germany gained vital raw materials from the Soviet Union that helped rearmament.
Germany avoided being dragged into a war on two fronts. [2-3]

(One mark per example)

Level 3: Identifies reasons on both sides [4]

Level 4: Explains reason(s) on one side

e.g. The USSR gained more from the Nazi Soviet Pact because it gave them time to be ready for
the expected Nazi attack. Stalin expected Hitler to attack him at some point and his Great Purge
had weakened the army. It had taken out many experienced generals and he needed time to
replace them ready to fight. (5) Not only this but Soviet industry wasn’t ready to produce weapons,
Stalin needed time to supply an army, and the Nazi Soviet Pact gave him this time. (6)

e.g. The Nazis gained more from the Nazi Soviet Pact because it meant they would avoid the
possibility of fighting a war on two fronts. The invasion of Poland could take place without having
to worry about what action the USSR would take. (5) The Pact bought the Nazis time to defeat
Poland and other countries, like France, before turning East to attack the USSR meaning they
would only have to fight on one front at a time. (6) [5-6]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

Level 5: Explains reasons on both sides [7-8]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

3 (a) Briefly describe the Berlin Blockade and Airlift of 1948 to 1949. [5]
Fairly answered. Some learners were able to describe the Berlin Blockade and airlift, but a few
described the Berlin Wall as they failed to differentiate between the Berlin Blockade and the Berlin
Wall.

The USSR believed that the Western Allies had no right to be in Berlin.
Stalin saw the Western Allies presence as a threat because they had a base within the Communist bloc (1)
so in June he blocked access to Berlin meaning the Western part was inaccessible. (2)
The United States and Britain organised an airlift to keep the city supplied with essential goods (1), many
were worried that Stalin would shoot the planes down and cause further conflict. (2)
The airlift lasted for 11 months until May 1949 (1), in the end the Soviet Union lifted the blockade and
allowed the Western powers access to Berlin again. (2) [1-5]
The Western Allies introduces a new
(One mark for each relevant point; additional mark for supporting details).

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(b) Explain why Stalin distrusted the Western Allies after the Second World War. [7]
Fairly answered. Most learners could identify the reasons why Stalin distrusted the West, but failed
to explain the reasons identified.

Level 1: General answer

e.g. Because of the war. [1]

Level 2: Identifies reasons

e.g. The USA refused to share the secret of how to make atomic bombs.
The West was slow to open a Second Front during the Second World War to help the Russians
fight Hitler.
The differences between the Soviet communist system and the American capitalist system made
the two countries frightened of each other. [2-3]

(One mark for every identified reason)

Level 3: Explains one reason

e.g. Stalin distrusted the Western Allies after the war because whilst they were still allies the
Western Allies had not been completely honest with him about their progress with the atomic
bomb. Stalin knew how far advanced they were because of his spies and knew they were keeping
secrets from him, and this created distrust before the war ended. (4) So, when Truman didn’t tell
Stalin about the bomb until Potsdam, after a successful detonation, Stalin was worried it was
because they planned to win worldwide power and to destroy communism, so this created even
more distrust. (5) [4-5]

(One mark for a basic explanation with an additional for a developed explanation)

Level 4: Explains more than one reason

One mark for each explanation with an extra mark available for a more developed explanation
to a maximum of 7 marks e.g. 6 marks for two basic explanations, 7 marks for both explanations
offering good details. [6-7]

(c) ‘The Cuban Missile Crisis was a victory for the USA.’ How far do you agree with this statement?
Explain your answer. [8]
Fairly answered as learners were able to identify the reasons why the Cuban Missile Crisis was a
victory for Kennedy and Khrushchev but failed to provide explanations.

Level 1: General answer

Agree/disagree [1]

Level 2: Identifies reasons on one side

Kennedy’s reputation as a great leader was made.
Khrushchev’s downfall evolved from the Crisis.
It was diminished by the Crisis because the USSR was seen to back down to the USA.
The direct threat of Soviet missiles was removed from Cuba.
The Soviet influence in Cuba was diminished by the Crisis.

It was a victory the USSR as Cuba remained a Communist state.

The US was forced to remove missiles in Turkey.
The Soviets maintained their considerable influence because they did leave some nuclear
weapons in Cuba/continued to fund Cuba.
Communism maintained its stronghold in an American sphere of influence in the Caribbean
territory. [2-3]

(One mark per example)

Level 3: Identifies reasons on both sides [4]

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Level 4: Explains reason(s) on one side
The Cuban missile crisis was a victory for USA because Kennedy increased his reputation at home
and worldwide by avoiding war and forcing Khrushchev to back down.(5) Kennedy managed to
stand up to Khrushchev and his decisive action removed the threat of a nuclear base in Cuba.(6)

The Cuban Missile Crisis was a failure for the USA foreign policy of containment because Cuba
remained a Communist state despite the removal of missiles, the Bay of Pigs incident and the
withdrawal of trade. (5) Cuba considered itself a strong ally of the USSR and could depend on it for
protection and considerable aid. (6) [5-6]
(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

Level 5: Explains reasons on both sides [7-8]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

4 (a) Briefly describe the role of the Security Council of the United Nations. [5]
Poorly answered. Most learners described the composition of the security council and not its role,
and only a few learners managed to outline the role.

e.g. The Security Council has the basic responsibility of maintaining peace and security in the
world.
To investigate international disputes and recommend appropriate methods of settling them.
It can call on member states to apply economic sanctions against the aggressor (1) and thus to put
pressure on the guilty state to stop aggression. (2)
The Security Council may take military action against the aggressor, if required.
It is the executive wing of the UN to implement the resolutions taken by the General Assembly.[1-5]

NB: Do not accept the composition of the Security Council e.g. the number of countries required
and the number of times they supposed to meet.

(One mark for each relevant point; additional mark for supporting details).

(b) Explain why the membership of the United Nations has grown since 1945. [7]
Poorly answered. Most learners failed to identify the reasons why there was an increase in the
membership of the UN. Some learners confused the UN with the League of Nations.

Level 1: General answer

e.g. Because of the Second World War. [1]

Level 2: Identifies reasons

e.g. The UN has shown it will protect the independence of smaller countries making membership
important for them.
The promotion of social and economic development has attracted so many countries to join the
UN.
Memories of the Second World War made some countries want to join an international organisation
for protection.
Being part of the UN is seen as a symbol of Nationhood so when countries became independent,
they wanted their new status recognised by joining the UN.
Process of decolonisation after 1945 has increased the number of independent countries eligible to
join the UN. [2-3]
Many countries started getting their independence.

(One mark for every identified reason)

Level 3: Explains one reason

e.g. Membership of the UN has grown because of the process of decolonisation that has
happened since 1945 and this has had different effects. Firstly, the UN aims to uphold the
principles of equality and self-determination and having helped some countries in their struggle for
independence those countries have then joined, increasing the number of countries at the UN. (4)
Also, many countries saw the vital role of the UN in their struggle and recognised its value as an
international body, so it was logical to join something they saw as important. (5) [4-5]

(One mark for a basic explanation with an additional for a developed explanation)
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Level 4: Explains more than one reason
One mark for each explanation with an extra mark available for a more developed explanation
to a maximum of 7 marks e.g. 6 marks for two basic explanations, 7 marks for both explanations
offering good details. [6-7]

(c) ‘The UN has been successful in solving disputes after the Second World War.’ How far do you agree
with this statement? Explain your answer. [8]
Poorly answered. Most learners could not identify the successes and failures of the UN after WWII
but described the success of the League of Nations.

Level 1: General answers

e.g. Agree/disagree [1]

Level 2: Identifies reasons on one side

e.g. It has been successful because there is no world war
It has helped to prevent some local conflicts from growing into wider ones.
The UN gained respect over Korea.
The UN was critical of apartheid South Africa because it was seen as a threat to world peace.

e.g. The Cold War tensions hinder the work of the United Nations.
The UN has been unable to solve the ongoing conflict between the Palestinian Arabs and the
Israelis over rights to Palestine/Israel.
In many other world crises, the UN involvement has been ineffective due to the conflicting interests
of the Superpowers (USA and USSR) in the Security Council. [2-3]

(One mark per example)

Level 3: Identifies reasons on both sides [4]

(One mark per example)

Level 4: Explains reason(s) on one side

e.g. Despite the controversial aspects of its actions in Korea, the UN had demonstrated that, unlike
the League of Nations, it could and would use military force to back its decisions. Without the UN
action, it is unlikely that South Korea would still exist. (5) This earned the UN more respect from
its member countries and a clear message was sent to would be aggressors that the UN would not
hesitate to take action. (6)

e.g. The Cold War that developed simultaneously with the establishment of the UN prevented the
it from becoming actively involved in major crises immediately after the Second World War. The
exercising of veto power in the Security Council by the permanent members meant the UN was
unable to pass resolutions and implement action. (5) This negatively affected the maintenance of
international peace and security as it made it difficult for its permanent members to take decisions
on any issue where they perceived their interests to be in conflict.(6) [5-6]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

Level 5: Explains reasons on both sides [7-8]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

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5 (a) Briefly describe how South West Africa (Namibia) came to be governed by South Africa after the First
World War. [5]
Fairly answered. Most learners described the illegal occupation of South West Africa by South Africa
instead of how it came to be governed by SA after the First World War.

South West Africa (Namibia) like any other German colony was placed under the control of the League of
Nations after the First World War.
South Africa invaded South West Africa (Namibia), ruled it for Britain and then was given the mandate.
The mandate to administer South West Africa (Namibia) was given to Britain (1) and later to South Africa as
it was a member of the British Empire. (2)
South West Africa (Namibia) was classified as a ‘C’ mandate which gave South Africa more powers (1) and
even allowed them to enforce their own laws in South West Africa (Namibia). (2) [1-5]

(One mark for each relevant point; additional mark for supporting details).

(b) Explain why South Africa tried to annex South West Africa (Namibia) after 1945. [7]
Fairly answered. Most learners could identify reasons SA wanted to annex Namibia but could not
explain the reasons identified.

Level 1: General answer

e.g. To gain extra land. [1]

Level 2: Identifies reasons

e.g. South Africa wanted South West Africa (Namibia) to become a fifth province of South Africa.
To obtain more land for white people.
South Africa wanted to have easy access to the country’s natural and human resources.
South Africa did not recognise UN as the legal succession of the League of Nations. [2-3]
(One mark for every identified reason)

Level 3: Explains one reason

e.g. South Africa tried to annex South West Africa (Namibia) after 1945 as an attempt to increase
South Africa’s land. After World War II mandates ended and South Africa was supposed to hand
over the running of the country to the UN but it refused because it wanted to be more powerful,
with more land. (4) South Africa said that Namibian people wanted to be part of it and wanted to be
a fifth province and so they should annex South West Africa (Namibia) to make this happen. (5)

(One mark for a basic explanation with an additional for a developed explanation)

Level 4: Explains more than one reason

One mark for each explanation with an extra mark available for a more developed explanation
to a maximum of 7 marks e.g. 6 marks for two basic explanations, 7 marks for both explanations
offering good details. [6-7]

(c) ‘South Africa was successful in administering the League of Nations mandate over South West Africa
(Namibia) up to 1945.’ How far do you agree with this statement? Explain your answer. [8]
Fairly answered. Most learners were able to identify the successes and failures of South Africa in
administering Namibia as a mandate up to 1945.

Level 1: General answers

e.g. Agree/disagree [1]

Level 2: Identifies reasons on one side

e.g. Life continued to improve for the white people of South West Africa (Namibia).
Some infrastructure such as roads were improved / built to improve the economy of the country,
e.g. Mines, harbour, Schools
White settlers were encouraged to farm the land and that brought employment e.g. Contract labour
system

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South Africa failed to look after the interests of the majority of people because what they did only
benefited white people, e.g. People were exploited
South Africa did not keep mandating conditions, e.g. did not prepare the country for independence/
only wanted to annex the land.
South Africa practiced the divide and rule policy.
Whites took the productive land from the indigenous people. [2-3]
South Africa stopped sending annual reports.
(One mark per example)

Level 3: Identifies reasons on both sides [4]

(One mark per example)

Level 4: Explains reason(s) on one side

e.g. South Africa improve/built some infrastructure such as roads to improve the economy of
the country. This made it easier for the transportation of goods and services to other parts of the
country. (5) This in turn created employment opportunities for the Namibian people which helped
them to acquire new skills and maintain their live hood. (6)
OR

e.g. South Africa failed to look after the interests of the majority of people because what they did
only benefited white people .South Africa formed native reserves and the land allocated to the
black people was of poor quality and unproductive. The best farming land was given to the white
people at the expense of the Namibia people. (5) This left them with no choice but to provide cheap
labour on white owned farms for their survival. (6) [5-6]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

Level 5: Explains reasons on both sides [7-8]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

6 (a) Briefly describe the ways in which independent churches resisted South African colonial rule in South
West Africa (Namibia). [5]
Poorly answered. Most learners lacked contextual knowledge of the role of independent churches.
Some learners mentioned the open and pastoral letters without describing how they helped to resist
the South African colonial rule. Others described the role of missionary churches.

The leaders wrote an open letter to the South (1) emphasizing its presence in South West Africa (Namibia)
was illegal. (2)
The leaders of the churches published a protest letter in newspapers addressed to the South African Prime
Minister, John Vorster (1) where they criticised its policies like the human rights abuses taking place. (2)
The churches strengthened opposition to apartheid and united black people against South African rule (1) by
writing to their church members describing their opposition. (2)
They organised a referendum with Bishop Auala that allowed people to show their opposition to South
African rule (1) because it showed that most people believed South African’s rule was illegal. (2) [1-5]
They allowed freedom movements to make use of their premises e.g.
Oniipa Printing Press.
The Churches supported the strike of 1971
(One mark for each relevant point; additional mark for supporting details).

(b) Explain why SWAPO started the armed struggle in 1966. [7]
Fairly answered. Most learners were able to identify the reasons but could not explain the reasons
identified.

Level 1: General answer

e.g. To fight. [1]

Level 2: Identifies reasons

e.g. To achieve independence for Namibia.
The Namibians were tired of peaceful methods that did not bring the desired results.
They wanted the indigenous/black people to have control over themselves/to rule themselves.
SWAPO wanted to get rid of colonial oppression and exploitation of natural resources.
The International Court of Justice failed in 1966 to declare South Africa’s rule in South West Africa
illegal.

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The Cold war meant that communist countries were supporting African peoples struggles for
independence with money and arms making armed struggle possible in the late 1960s. [2-3]
Events of the Windhoek Massacre of 1959
(One mark for every identified reason)

Level 3: Explains one reason

e.g. The start of Swapo’s armed struggle to drive out the South African colonists was a direct result
of decades humiliation in their hands. The South Africans had divided people up into separate
ethnically based homelands where there were few chances to improve things. This made an
organised political campaign more difficult but recruiting angry men, with little work, into fighting
units easier. (4) The different homelands were supposed to divide and rule but they actually meant
people had little to lose by leaving their homes to go and fight for things to get better and this is
why SWAPO decided they could start an armed struggle (5) [4-5]

(One mark for a basic explanation with an additional for a developed explanation)

Level 4: Explains more than one reason [6-7]

One mark for each explanation with an extra mark available for a more developed explanation
to a maximum of 7 marks e.g. 6 marks for two basic explanations, 7 marks for both explanations
offering good details.

(c) ‘The Odendaal Plan that created the apartheid system boosted the economic development of South
West Africa (Namibia).’ How far do you agree with this statement? Explain your answer. [8]
Fairly answered. Most learners could identify the recommendation of the Odendaal Plan but failed to
explain how it boosted the economic development in Namibia.

Level 1: General answer

e.g. Agree/disagree [1]

Level 2: Identifies reasons on one side

e.g. The Bantu Investment Corporation was introduced.
New diamond and copper mines were opened.
More jobs were created in the mining and farming sectors of the economy.
The development of the infrastructures such as roads and railways were realised, e.g. Hydro
electric Power Station
The Plan/apartheid allowed rich white people to feel secure in South West Africa (Namibia) so they
invested their money in businesses

e.g. The introduction of apartheid laws limited people’s ability to participate in the development of
the country.
The natural resources were controlled by the minority white population meaning they could not be
exploited to benefit the whole economy and country.
The Namibian people lost arable land which made it difficult to grow/develop the economy. [2-3]

(One mark per example)

Level 3: Identifies reasons on both sides [4]

(One mark per example)

Level 4: Explains reason(s) on one

The Odendaal Plan/apartheid system encouraged new diamond and cooper mines to be
established because white people were allowed to exploit South West Africa (Namibia) under the
system. This created new jobs and for many people their standard of living improved. (5) The
increase in investment and the increase in money being made encouraged further investment
and led to the introduction of new technologies that made the mining industry more profitable.
Diamonds became the main export further developing the economy of the country. (6)

The Odendaal Plan/apartheid system did not encourage economic development in South West
Africa (Namibia) because it gave the money and power to the minority white population, and this
restricted how much money could be used for the development of the economy especially as
so many of the business owners were from South Africa and the profits went there. (5) It was

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impossible to own and run your own business as a black person so any money and benefit made
from the very profitable businesses, in things like diamonds, was not seen by the larger population
and could not be used by them to develop the economy. (6) [5-6]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

Level 5: Explains reasons on both sides [7-8]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

7 (a) Briefly describe the terms of the Separate Amenities Act of 1953. [5]
Well answered. Most learners identified the terms of the Separate Amenities Act of 1953. Only a few
described the apartheid laws.

e.g. The Act legalised the racial segregation of public amenities and business premises(1) it meant the best
areas and facilities were reserved for white people. (2)
It meant separate schools for black and white students.
It meant black people had to travel on separate buses, coaches and trains from white people.
It also meant that black people had to use separate cafes, toilets, park benches, hospitals and beaches. [1-5]
An attempt was even made to enforce segregated worship in Churches.
It was also known as Petty apartheid. The division of public services space.
(One mark for each relevant point; additional mark for supporting details).

(b) Explain why the National Party won the 1948 election. [7]
Fairly answered. Learners managed to identify the reasons but could not explain the identified
reasons.

Level 1: General answer demonstrating no specific knowledge.

e.g. They made promises to white people. [1]

Level 2: Identify or describe reasons [2-3]

e.g. The Nationalists had the benefit of the rural vote.
There was an increasing growth of Afrikaner nationalism.
The government had relaxed laws concerning segregation which was a threat to the Afrikaner
nationalism.
The National Party offered total separation or apartheid.

(One mark for every identified reason)

Level 3: Explains one reason

e.g. Malan, leader of the National Party made his campaign about the preservation of white
supremacy, and this was very appealing to the white people who saw black people as a danger so
a lot voted for them to stop black people having power. (5) This was because during World War II
many black people had started doing jobs that were usually done by white people and white people
saw them of more threat in 1948. So, voting for a party that promised to limit their power felt like a
good idea. (6) [4-5]

(One mark for a basic explanation with an additional for a developed explanation)

Level 4: Explains more than one reason

One mark for each explanation with an extra mark available for a more developed explanation
to a maximum of 7 marks e.g. 6 marks for two basic explanations, 7 marks for both explanations
offering good details. [6-7]

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(c) ‘The policy of apartheid was effective at suppressing black people in the 1950s.’ How far do you
agree with this statement? Explain your answer. [8]
Poorly answered. Most learners just described the apartheid laws instead of writing about the effects
of the laws.

Level 1: General answer [1]

e.g. Agree/disagree.

Level 2: Identifies reasons on one side

e.g. Laws were passed, like the Native Laws Amendment Act of 1952, that allowed the government
to make black people second class citizens
The Bantu Education Act meant that black people got a poor education
Changes to education meant that black people were only educated well enough to carry out menial
jobs
When black people protested the laws the government arrested them and the system of apartheid
made it difficult to get good legal representation
Apartheid encouraged white people to think that black people weren’t as good as them

e.g. The ANC and other groups supporting black people gained more popularity
Demonstrations continued to take place like over the introduction of passes for women
The Freedom Charter was drawn up and gave black people a focus for their protests [2-3]

(One mark per example)

Level 3: Identifies reasons for both sides [4]

(One mark per example)

Level 4: Explains reason (s) on one side

e.g. The government used its powers to suppress black people by arresting and imprisoning those
who opposed them. This was seen in 1956 when 156 people were charged with high treason for
drawing up the Freedom Charter this made it dangerous to oppose the government and helped
suppress black people. (5) Those who were arrested were eventually all released but they were
banned from political activity for 5 years meaning many black and Indian leaders were removed
from directing and helping protest further suppressing the rights of black people. (6)

e.g. Black people were encouraged to fight against the government because they took such a
hardline stand and meaning they had little to lose by their opposition. Throughout the 1950s
support and membership of the ANC grew meaning that black people weren’t suppressed, they still
fought for their rights. (5) In 1952 Nelson Mandela led the popular Defiance Campaign showing
how black people were not prepared to simply accept apartheid, showing they weren’t suppressed.
(6) [6-7]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

Level 5: Explains reasons on both sides [7-8]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

8 (a) Briefly describe the part played by Steve Biko in the struggle against apartheid. [5]
Fairly answered. Learners were able to describe the role played by Steve Biko. However, some
learners gave the role of Nelson Mandela.

e.g. Steve Biko played a very important role in South Africa.

He established the Black Consciousness Movement which aimed at resisting apartheid in the country.
He also encouraged black South Africans especially the youth to strike against the apartheid government.
Biko was also instrumental in organising the Soweto Uprising of 1976(1) which was against the use of
Afrikaans in black school. (2)
He died or was rather killed while in prison in 1977. [1-5]

(One mark for each relevant point; additional mark for supporting details)

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(b) Explain why there was an upsurge of violence in South Africa by the mid-1980s. [7]
Poorly answered. Most learners misinterpreted the word upsurge. Most of the learners focused on
the Soweto uprising and the Sharpeville massacre as reasons why there was an increase in violence
in South Africa.

Level 1: General answer

e.g. Black people were unhappy [1]

Level 2: Identify or describe reasons

e.g. Black people were still not allowed to vote and saw violence as an alternative.
ANC made a call to make apartheid unworkable/the country ungovernable.
There were increased rents and electricity charges.
The majority of those who were oppressed chose to react to the violence of the security forces.
The declaration of the State of Emergency by the government which suspended civil liberties.
South Africans were disappointed with Botha’s constitutional reforms.
There were tribal tensions between the Xhosa and the Zulu tribes. [2-3]

Level 3: Explains one reason

e.g. Violence increased after civil liberties were suspended following the declaration of the State of
Emergency. The authorities could arrest without warrants and people felt this was an infringement
of their rights and responded with violence. (4) There were reports of torture and beatings and the
reaction was to attack police stations and government buildings meaning there was increasing
violence. (5) [4-5]

Level 4: Explains more than one reason

(c) ‘International opposition to apartheid was effective.’ How far do you agree with this statement?
Explain your answer. [8]
Poorly answered. Many learners explained the anti-apartheid events that happened after the 1950s,
such as the Sharpeville massacre, the Soweto uprising, etc.

Level 1: General answer

e.g. It was very effective/not effective. [1]

Level 2: Identifies reasons on one side

e.g. It led to the end of apartheid through the imposition of sanctions.
Sports teams were boycotted.
Nelson Mandela was freed from prison.
In 1986 the Common Market banned the purchase of South African iron and steel.

e.g. Sanctions failed as great powers continued to trade with South Africa.
African countries were too weak to end apartheid.
The South African government successfully used a mixture of financial incentives and Cold War
propaganda to win support for apartheid from the Western countries. [2-3]

(One mark per example)

Level 3: Identifies reasons for both sides [4]

(One mark per example)

Level 4: Explains reason (s) on one

e.g. The international opposition to apartheid was effective because the constant pressure of
sanctions on South Africa and other countries resulted in South Africa not to have a choice but to
give in to the pressure. (5) Foreign investors were increasingly unhappy with apartheid in South
Africa and began to withdraw their business from the country. The Barclays Bank sold its large
South African bank network. This caused great problems for South Africa (6)

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e.g. The international opposition to apartheid was ineffective because sanctions which were
imposed on South Africa with the intention to cripple the economy did not work because countries
such as Britain, USA, Germany and Japan still wanted to maintain the good relationship with South
Africa. This was mainly because a lot of their people and companies had invested money in South
Africa. (5) South Africa had a large supply of diamonds and gold which modern industry cannot do
without. Therefore, the developed world depended on South Africa’s mineral wealth. (6) [5-6]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

Level 5: Explains reasons on both sides [7-8]

(One mark per explanation or two marks for a developed explanation)

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Paper 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
A significant number of learners demonstrated adequate source-handling skills and the ability to apply relevant
contextual knowledge. However, some learners struggled with questions that required comparing two sources. They
need additional support in tackling comparison questions, as they often paraphrase each source instead of comparing
them point by point. Most learners could not identify the agreements and disagreements between the sources.

Many learners often struggle to infer meaning from various sources because they tend to read at a surface level. To
grasp the underlying messages fully, it is essential to consider not only the tone and language of these sources but
also the context in which they were created. This is especially important when analyzing cartoons.

Several learners lost marks for failing to express a clear choice regarding the usefulness of the sources or whether the
sources agree or disagree. Additionally, shortcomings in English literacy skills and vocabulary hinder many learners’
understanding of key terms and the requirements of the questions.

Teachers and tutors are advised against solely providing marking schemes to learners. Instead, they should focus on
helping them develop the necessary skills for this paper. Some learners still use “Y” and “N” instead of “Support” and
“Reject” when responding to the final question, resulting in lost marks.

Advice to take at heart:

• Learners should interpret sources instead of simply summarising them.
• Cartoons do not need to be described, nor does every detail in a cartoon have to be analysed and discussed at
length. For instance, when asked about the message of a cartoon, learners should aim to infer and articulate a valid
message, support it with relevant details from the cartoon, and then proceed to other points.
• Use or copying words from the source(s) is not allowed when it is required that you must make an inference/
assertion, rather encourage your learners to use similar words or synonyms otherwise it will be seen as copying
and they will not score any mark.
• It is important for learners to provide clear, direct answers to questions. This can be achieved by taking a few
minutes to think through the answer before writing it down. Begin your response with a sentence that directly
addresses the question, such as, “This source is useful because...” or “This source is less useful because...”. This
approach will help prevent learners from writing excellent evaluations of sources without clearly stating whether a
source is useful or less useful.
• To achieve high marks, learners must make choices when required; failing to do so could result in receiving the
lowest scores, even if the answer contains all the necessary elements for a high-quality response. It is essential
that these choices are well-considered and balanced.
• When they use support, it must fit with their choice.
• Practice with learners in class on how to write a purpose or main message. To find the purpose or main message
in a source, carefully analyse the text, considering the author’s background, the historical context in which it was
created, the intended audience, the tone of the writing, and key phrases used, asking questions like: who wrote it,
when was it written, why was it written, and what is the author trying to convey to the reader?
• Some questions require comparison of historical sources for similarities and differences. It is important that this
comparison is carried out point by point and not by summarising one source and then the other.
• When answering Question 5, it is important to directly respond to the hypothesis given in the question. When
writing about each source, a clear statement needs to be made, making it clear whether the source supports
or disagrees with the hypothesis. Encourage your learners to include at least four quotations that support the
statement and four that reject it in their response to achieve full marks.
• When quoting from a source, it is essential to provide the full quotation. Learners should not use ellipses (...) and
leave out crucial parts of the quotation.
• Work on the vocabulary and the use of proper English in class.
• Enhance the learner’s understanding by teaching the content of the prescribed depth study and integrating the
necessary skills for this paper.
• Workshops are a must, especially for novice and former Junior Secondary school teachers who might be teaching
the subject at this level for the first time.
• Teachers reach out to others who are more experience: nobody can survive on an island alone.

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Here is an example on how an evaluation/testing of the reliability of a source should be done:
• Source A is reliable
• Explanation: In 1933, von Papen pressured Hindenburg to appoint Hitler as chancellor and von Papen as vice-
chancellor. Von Papen believed he could control Hitler and use him to create a political majority.
• NB: the candidate must choose only (reliable/less reliable (one side) in their answer.
• Author: British cartoonist (why) to show that the friendship between Hitler, Hindenburg and von Papen will not
last.
• Date: January 1933, (why) because it was the time that Hitler became Chancellor in Germany.
• Audience: the world/students (why) to that Hitler can’t be contained by Hindenburg and von Papen and therefore
this temporarily alliance will not last and the Allied countries need to be wary of Hitler’s actions.

• Source A is less reliable: It could be just have been just propaganda to tarnish the image of Hitler.
• Author: British cartoonist (why) to show that the friendship between Hitler, Hindenburg and von Papen will not last.
• Date: January 1933, (why) because it was the time that Hitler became Chancellor in Germany.
• Audience: the world(why) to let people know that Hitler can’t be contained and everyone should be ready for
confrontation with him, inside and outside Germany, to brought division in German politics and their foreign
relationship with the Allies.

An example of cross referencing:

• Source A can be cross referenced with Source E.
• Source A: “I always argued with my father as I was very much in favour of the Hitler regime which was against his
background as a working man.” Source E: “I joined the party because I thought and still think that Hitler did the
greatest Christian work for two years. I saw seven million men rotting in the streets, often I was there too, and no
one seemed to care.”
• Linking statement: Sources A and E confirm that Hitler was highly regarded by his people.

An example of a similarity and difference:

Similarity: Both sources show disapproval of Hitler.

• Support: Source C: “But these remarkable powers were combined with hatred, resentment, the desire to dominate
and where he could not dominate, to destroy.” Source D: “Hitler’s intolerance and cruelty, the fact that power was
his only motive, make him ordinary rather than great.”

Difference: Source C shows his human qualities while in Source D it shows his supernatural qualities.
• Support: Source C: “His abilities were many: his mastery of the emotional factors in politics, his insight into the
weaknesses of his opponents, his sense of timing, and his willingness to take risks.” Source D: “All his personal
characteristics do not add up to a real person.”

An example of a main message

The message is that show that Hindenburg and Von Papen needed to work with Hitler despite their distrust
of him because he was their only hope to keep on ruling Germany.

The source shows that Hindenburg and Von Papen make a mistake by supporting (why) Hitler because he
will not be contained by them and everybody should be wary of Hitler.
NB: the intentions of the cartoonist must come out and the possible reaction he wants from the
audience.
Support: it shows his facial expression and how he pushed down the heads of Hindenburg and Von Papen.

Tips on how to assess a source’s usefulness:

• Check the author’s credentials.
• Evaluate publication date.
• Consider the source type.
• Analyze the content for bias.
• Compare information with other sources.

Tips on how to assess the less usefulness of sources:

• Outdated information
• Lack of author credibility:
• Biased perspective.
• Limited scope:
• Questionable source origin:
• Irrelevant information:

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2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS
Question 1
The question was answered satisfactorily. Most learners were able to provide a valid inference with
supporting evidence. However, a lack of contextual knowledge continues to hinder learners from achieving
the highest marks. Many responses displayed paraphrasing, and some learners even attempted to assess the
reliability of the source, which is a skill that is not required for this particular question.

1 Study Source A.
What can you learn from Source A about the attitude of the German people towards Hitler? Use the source and
your knowledge to explain your answer. [6]

Level 1: General comment not answering the question, copying, misinterpretation, no valid source use or
inference, contextual knowledge only. [1]

Level 2: Unsupported Inference (s) [2-3]

e.g. The youth adored Hitler. They were proud of Hitler. Some German people were against Hitler.
The elderly criticized him. They feared him. Some were happy about Hitler. Some were unhappy with
Hitler.
One mark for each Valid Inference.

Level 3: Inference(s), supported [4-5]

One mark for each Valid Inference supported with evidence from the source.

Level 4: Level 3 + contextual knowledge [6]

Contextual knowledge must be based on the youth’s adoration of Hitler or why the working people did
not support him/how women felt about Hitler, after they lost their jobs.

Question 2
The question was not answered well, as most learners could not identify the main messages. Instead, many
relied on surface details and failed to use their contextual knowledge to understand the cartoonist’s intention
in creating the cartoon. This issue highlights a general lack of contextual knowledge among learners. As a
result, they tend to paraphrase sources or use the introduction as their response to the question. Teachers
and tutors must explain to learners that a purpose or main message typically reflects the author’s intention,
such as to criticize, tarnish, or praise and promote, followed by a detailed explanation.

2. Study Source B
What is the message of this source? Use the source and your knowledge to explain your answer. [7]

Level 1: General comment not answering the question, surface detail, misinterpretation, no valid source use or
inference, contextual knowledge only. [1]

Level 2: Sub-message(s) not supported [2-3]

e.g. Hitler was supported by the masses/or Von Papen and Hindenburg. Hitler demanded the post of
Chancellor. It shows Papen and Hindenburg did not like/trust Hitler. Hindenburg and on Papen don’t
want him in charge. Hitler came to power due to Von Papen’s help/ support.
One mark per example of sub-message

Level 3: Sub-message(s) supported [4-5]

e.g. Hitler got to be Chancellor because of the help or actions of Hindenburg and Von Papen. Evidence
in the source that shows this is that the cartoon shows both Von Papen and Hindenburg physically lifting
Hitler as he uses their heads to balance above them.
One mark per example of sub-message

Level 4: Main message not supported [6]

e.g. Hindenburg and Von Papen thought they had Hitler under control, between them they could
keep him in check and that it was only supposed to be temporary while they found another way to rule
Germany.

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Hindenburg and Von Papen needed to work with Hitler despite their distrust towards him, because he
was their only hope to continue ruling Germany.

Level 5: Main message, supported by details from the cartoon or contextual knowledge. [7]

Level 4 + They look uncomfortable with the arrangement, with Hitler scrambling over them. It suggests
they do not like or trust Hitler. Contextual knowledge must point out their need for Hitler to be a
Chancellor because they needed his popularity with the masses to stay in power.

Question 3
Most learners made a choice but did not provide clear agreements and disagreements. The majority summarised
the sources without making any point-by-point comparisons. In many cases, learners gave general answers
and attempted to include contextual knowledge and cross-references, even though this was not required for
the question. Very few learners presented agreements and disagreements, and those who did often failed to
provide the necessary supporting evidence, resulting in a loss of marks. It was evident that when a disagreement
was identified, the support was drawn from only one source. Additionally, many learners misinterpreted the
sources. A small number of less successful responses focused on the provenance of the sources and hardly
used the content of the sources. What the sources say always matters.

3. Study Sources C and D

How far do these two sources agree? Use the sources and your knowledge to explain your answer. [7]

Level 1: General comment not answering the question or simple answer to the question such as the sources
agree/disagree, copying, no valid source use or inference, contextual knowledge only. [1]

Level 2: Compares provenances [2]

e.g. Both sources are secondary. Both shows Hitler was an authoritarian. Both shows Hitler was a bad
leader.
Source C was published in 1952 while Source D was published in 1973.

Level 3: Agreement OR disagreement, unsupported [3]

Agreement:
both show Hitler was gifted
both show he had a dark side

Disagreement:
C shows Hitler gifted while D shows him as ordinary.
E shows Hitler did not tolerate opposition while D shows he was tolerant in 1923.

Level 4: Agreement OR disagreement, support [4-5]

Level 5: Agreement AND disagreement, unsupported [6]

Level 6: Agreement AND disagreement, supported [7]

Question 4
The question presented a considerable challenge for most learners, as reflected in their responses, which
typically scored only at level 1. Many learners did not clarify whether the source was useful, and most could
not provide valid statements regarding its utility. Only a few learners offered general comments or assertions
that did not directly address the question. Additionally, many learners struggled to explain why the source
might be less useful. A small number focused on the source’s utility, while most failed to include linking
statements when referencing other sources. The lack of contextual knowledge significantly contributed to the
difficulties learners experienced in answering this question.

4. Study Source E
How useful is this source to a historian studying what Germans thought of Hitler’s policies? Use the
source and your knowledge to explain your answer. [8]

Level 1: General comment not answering the question or simple answer to the question such as the source is
useful/not useful, copying, no valid source use or inference, contextual knowledge only. [1]

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Level 2: Useful because of what it tells you about the view of a Nazi official
e.g. To show that some Germans disapproved the ill-treatment of the Jews. He applauded Hitler’s
achievements.
OR

Not useful because it does not explain explicitly how the Jews were ill-treated. [2-3]

Level 3: Both aspects of L2 [4-5]

Level 4: Utility based on cross reference to another source OR contextual knowledge [6-7]
e.g. Source E is useful because cross referencing to Source A, both sources talk about how Hitler’s
policies made Germany better. (6) In Source A the author says Hitler was building “a strong Germany”
and in Source E it says Hitler gave men “security and work”.

6 marks for a valid identification of useful/not useful using cross reference or contextual knowledge and
7 marks for support, showing how this identification was made.

Level 5: Utility based on cross reference to another source AND contextual knowledge [8]

e.g. Source E is not useful because I know that Hitler’s policies were popular with a lot of young men
who felt he gave them hope and work through things like ignoring the Treaty of Versailles and starting
conscription again.

Question 5
The question was generally answered well; however, several learners made wrong choices, paraphrased
sentences from the sources, and grouped multiple sources under a single choice. A significant portion of
the learners did not attempt to test the reliability of any two sources for the additional bonus marks, and
those who did were unable to earn any points for their efforts as it was not done correctly. Additionally, many
learners relied on contextual knowledge, which was not a requisite for this question. Furthermore, some
learners simply reproduced the sources without proper analysis.

5. Study all the sources

“The German people supported Hitler.”
How far do these sources support this view? Use the sources to explain your answer. [12]

Level 1: General comment(s) not answering the question or simple answer to the question such as the sources
support/ do not support, copying, no valid source use or inference, contextual knowledge only. [1-3]

Level 2: Uses sources to support or reject the statement [4-6]

• 1 Yes Or 1 No = L2/4
• 2 Yes Or 2 No = L2/5
• 3 Yes Or 3 No = L2/6

Level 3: Uses sources to support and reject the statement [7-12]

• 1 yes and 1 No = L3/7
• 2 Yes And 1 No = L3/8
• 2 Yes And 2 No = L3/9
• 2 Yes And 3 No = L3/10
• 3 Yes and 3 No = L3/11

Award 1 bonus mark for evaluation of sources.

Source use must be reference to a source by letter, by provenance or by direct quote. There must be
examples, from source content. There must be an explanation of how this supports / does not support
the statement.

Support Reject
A A
B C
D D
E E

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SOURCE A
Support: “It was a great feeling.”

Support: “You felt you belonged to a great nation again.”

Support: “Germany was in safe hands and I was going to help to build a strong Germany.”

Reject: “But my father of course felt differently about it.”

Reject: “[He warned] ‘Now Henrik, don’t say to them what I am saying to you’.”

Support: “I always argued with my father as I was very much in favour of the Hitler regime which was against his
background as a working man.”

Reject: “I always argued with my father as I was very much in favour of the Hitler regime which was against his
background as a working man.”

SOURCE B
NB: Choice, Valid Inference and Support (Surface detail)

Example: Choice – Support or Reject the statement

•VI = support: Von Papen and Hindenburg turned to Hitler, appointing him as Chancellor with Von
Papen as Vice Chancellor. They believed they could control Hitler and get him to do what they wanted.
Caption/Surface detail (support) = “Hindenburg and Von Papen carry Hitler.”

NB: Choice, valid inference and support (surface detail)

Example: Choice – support or reject the statement

• VI = reject: Hitler acted/behave like a bully; Von Papen was irritated with Hitler’s actions.
Caption/surface detail (support) = “Von Papen facial expression shows irritation with Hitler.”

“A British cartoon published in January 1933 showing Hindenburg and Von Papen carrying Hitler.”

SOURCE C
Support: T”he Nazi Party, its propaganda and its tactics - these were all Hitler’s.”

Support: “His personal power in Germany has rarely, if ever, been equalled in a modern industrialised state.”

Support: “He began with few advantages: he was not even a citizen of the country he hoped to rule.
“
Reject: “He began with few advantages: he was not even a citizen of the country he hoped to rule.”

Support: “To achieve what he did Hitler needed – and possessed – talents out of the ordinary which amounted to
political genius, however evil the results.”

Reject: “To achieve what he did Hitler needed – and possessed – talents out of the ordinary which amounted to political
genius, however evil the results.”

Support: “His abilities were many: his mastery of the emotional factors in politics, his insight into the weaknesses of
his opponents, his sense of timing, and his willingness to take risks.”

Reject: “But these remarkable powers were combined with hatred, resentment, the desire to dominate and where he
could not dominate, to destroy.”

Reject: “His twelve years’ dictatorship lacked any ideas except the extension of his own power.”

Reject: “ Even this power resulted in SS garrisons and concentration camps.”

Reject: “It is this lack of ideas to justify the suffering he caused which makes Hitler so hateful a figure.”

Reject: “Hitler will have his place in history, but it will be alongside the monsters of history.”

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SOURCE D
Support: “Should we call Hitler great? No one caused so much rejoicing; no one so much hate.”

Reject: “Should we call Hitler great? No one caused so much rejoicing; no one so much hate.”

Support: “He created everything himself.”

Support: “He was his own teacher, organiser of a party, tactician, saviour, leader, statesman.”

Support: “He dominated his revolution.”

Support: “In spite of the collapse of all his hopes after the attempted “putsch” in 1923 he did not take back a
single word.”

Reject: “In spite of the collapse of all his hopes after the attempted “putsch” in 1923 he did not take back a single word.”

Reject: “He later said, “Everyone said I was crazy in those days.”

Support: “But only a few years later everything he wanted was reality: democracy, political parties and unions
were all on their way out.”

Reject: “But only a few years later everything he wanted was reality: democracy, political parties and unions were all
on their way out.”

Reject: “And yet we hesitate to call Hitler “great”.

Reject: “Someone who is so hateful is unfit to be a hero.”

Reject: “Hitler’s intolerance and cruelty, the fact that power was his only motive, make him ordinary rather than great.”

Support: “All his personal characteristics do not add up to a real person.”

Reject: “All his personal characteristics do not add up to a real person.”

Support: “Though one of the greatest orators of history, he said nothing that is memorable.”

Reject: “Though one of the greatest orators of history, he said nothing that is memorable.”

Reject: “And similarly, there are no stories about him by the people who knew him best.”

SOURCE E
Reject: “I hate the treatment of the Jews.”

Reject: “I think it is a bad side of the movement and I want nothing to do with it.”

Reject: “I did not join the party to do that sort of thing.”

Support: “I joined the party because I thought and still think that Hitler did the greatest Christian work for two years.”

Support: “I saw seven million men rotting in the streets, often I was there too and no one seemed to care.”

Support: “Then Hitler came and he took all those men off the streets and gave them health and security and work.”

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HOME ECONOMICS
6155
Paper 1

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

We would like to thank all the teachers who put in extra effort and did their best for the benefit of the Namibian child
and of course other role players, parents and communities as well as all the learners who wrote this examination for the
first time and the centres that entered the subject for the first time for their commitment as well as contribution to the
education of our children.

The marks of the candidates ranged among a large number of candidates, the majority of whom performed on average
to poor and a few performed well. Evidence also shows that quite a few candidates did not know how to answer certain
questions successfully and even the majority did not attempt certain questions at all. This situation can only be mastered
when more training is given to the teacher on how to teach the syllabus successfully.

Candidates still find it difficult to understand the demands of the question regarding terms such as discuss and explain.
Therefore, candidates are urged to take time to read through the question paper thoroughly before answering.

Good feedback was received from the centres regarding the quality and standard of the question paper. That it could
be well interpreted regarding; the language uses, clear allocation of marks and overall good coverage of syllabus.
Besides the good response from centres; the responses of the candidates to the questions were not the same, hence
most of the questions were misinterpreted. Only a few good responses were given for certain questions, especially
questions 3, 5 and 12 where the candidate could score good marks. Another concern that is disheartening is that only
a few candidates attempted question 18 section C as it was poorly answered by the majority of candidates who scored
low marks.

We would like to thank all the centres as there was a huge improvement in how the essay format was written by most of
the candidates. Most candidates were able to write their section C in the correct essay format despite the poor response
to the question:

Section C must always be written in an essay format form:

- Heading that is not written in a question form
- The introduction that is not more than four lines to introduce the essay.
- The body where the candidate answers the question in paragraphs
- A conclusion that sums up the essay

Some parts of the syllabus were poorly covered by most centres. Teachers must pay attention to:
- different classes of nutrient
- different types of recipe terms.
- different recipe outlays
- different decision-making terms
- description of housing types
- financial terms.
- figure types
- interpretation of care symbol
- incorporation of different raising agents into flour mixture
- clothing and consumer education.

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2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

SECTION A

FOOD AND NUTRITION

1 This question the candidates were able to answer well, but (b) and (d) were poorly answered.
The correct answers were:

(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Under-nutrition
(c) Dextrin
(d) Deficiency disease
(e) Basal metabolism

2 This question was fairly well answered, which was not supposed to be the case because this is a topic
covered from junior secondary until grade 11. Candidates misinterpreted the question with high energy
value food and failed to give the correct description of the two classes of protein.
The correct answers were:

(a) (i) High Biological value: Protein that contains all the indispensable amino acids in sufficient
quantity/high-quality protein that provides all nine essential amino acids. /complete protein
Sources: meat, fish, eggs, milk, cheese, poultry and soya beans
(ii) Low Biological value: do not contain all essential amino acids/incomplete protein/lack one or
more essential amino acids.
Sources: dried beans, nuts and cereal products like bread, breakfast cereal, pasta, rice, barley,
and mealies.

(b) (i) Are given a diet enormously rich in complete protein to promote the repair of tissues and
subsequent healing.
(ii) Nursing mothers require more than normal for milk production during breastfeeding./help
maintain muscle mass and support tissue repair in recovering mother/regulate hormones and
support immune function for the mother.

3 This question was well answered by most of the candidates.

The correct answers were:

Weight 
Height2

70

2.25 = 31 (1.50 x 1.50 = 2.25)

31 obese/obesity 

4 This question was fairly welll answered by most candidates. Some candidates misinterpreted the question,
which could be due to the fact that they did not grasp the content during practicals.
The correct answers were:

(a) To combine shortening and sugar till light and creamy

(b) To cook food completely covered in hot oil
(c) Narrative form

5 This question was well answered by most candidates.

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The correct answers were:

(a) Visible fat: easy to detect on food: fat on meat, butter, margarine, lard, suet, cooking fat and oil
Invisible fat: is a constituent part of food and is difficult to detect: lean meat - fat within the muscle
(marbling), egg yolk, the flesh of oily fish, nuts, seeds, fruits, prepared food e.g. pastry, cake, biscuits, fried
foods, e.g. fritters, croquettes.

(b) - Provides a convenient and concentrated source of energy,

- Surrounds and protects certain vital organs e.g. kidneys, and glands.
- Forms an insulating layer (adipose tissue) beneath the skin to help preserve body heat and protect
the skeleton and organs. /keep the body warm
- Forms part of the structure of cell membranes throughout the body, especially in the brain.
- Provides a source of the fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K.
- Provides a reserve of energy for long-term storage, which can be used if energy intake is restricted.
- Provides texture and flavor in food and helps to make it palatable.
- Food containing fat provides a feeling of fullness (satiety) after a meal, as fat digestion is slow.
- Promote healthy skin and hair

6 This question was fairly well answered, although some candidates misunderstood the question and defined
micro-organisms instead of pathogenic organisms.
The correct answers were:

(a) Pathogenic organism: harmful micro-organism/microorganisms that can cause disease/infection/poison

(b) 30°C - 40°C (not only room temperature)

FAMILY LIFE EDUCATION

7 This question was well answered by most candidates.

The correct answers were:
(a) Socialization
(b) Conflict
(c) Stress
(d) Blended family

8 This question was fairly poorly answered by most candidates.

The correct answers were:

(a) (i) Decision made through careful thought to ensure the best solution possible
(ii) Decision made on a spur of moment without proper planning

(b) (i) Single house unit/detached house/core house/house on a stand-alone

(ii) Hostel/boarding house/townhouse, block of flats (and not flat) squatter camps, hotels, apartments,
triplexes

(c) (i) Place an amount of money regularly into separate account for future use
(ii) Laying out money for profit, resulting in a net addition to capital
(iii) The total amount of money a person earns per month
(iv) Transaction whereby you buy goods and pay for the items immediately

9 This question was poorly answered. Candidates fail to correctly describe the figure type as expected.
Instead they responded to the question with a lack of seriousness so teacher need to pay more attention
to this content.
The correct answers were:

(a) (i) Women with an hourglass figure are equally balanced on top and bottom.
(ii) All the weight is carried from the shoulders to the hips. From the front and side perspective, there
is a rounded torso which begins with curved shoulders and a rounded back.
Apple shape has a little waist area. The bust line and waistline shape almost connect having the
same circumference.

(b) (i) Warm iron/moderate iron/medium heat

(ii) Hot /too hot for hand washing/this garment should be washed in hot water

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SECTION B

10 This question was fairly well answered. The reason is that some candidates could not draw the correct
cereal grain diagram. Instead they drew the egg diagram, plant cell, or rather just an oval shape with no
clear labeling.
The correct answers were:

11 This question was poorly answered by most candidates. Candidates could not explain the details of UHT.
The correct answers were:

(a) Ultra-heat-treated milk (UHT) or homogenized milk is heated to 140°C for 2 to 4 seconds, then cooled
rapidly. It will keep, if unopened, for six months

(b) To make it safe, to kill pathogens, to preserve it for longer

(c) - Keep in the coldest part of the refrigerator

- Keep it in a clean,covered container
- Buy from reputable stores
- Check sell-by dates
- Never mix old milk with fresh milk
- Never leave milk outside; it will spoil
- Milk should not be kept in the deep freezer
- After opening use within 4-7 days,
- Read instructions on the packet
- Avoid storing milk with strong-smelling food like onion and garlic
- Unopen life milk uHT can be kept in cool, dry clean storage

12 This question was well answered by most candidates.

The correct answers were:

(a) - Prevents the fish from breaking up

- Keeps the moisture and nutrients in the fish
- Prevents the fish from absorbing the oil in which it is fried
- Improve the appearance and general taste of the fish/crispy crust

(b) - Protein of high biological value

- Contain saturated fats. Lipids are found mostly in egg yolk
- Eggs are not a good source of carbohydrate
- Eggs contain no vitamin C
- Vitamin A and D are present in the egg yolk
- Riboflavin is present in useful amounts in both the egg white and yolk
- The minerals iron, calcium and phosphorus are present in useful quantities in the egg yolk
- Sulphur is present in the egg white and is responsible for the characteristic smell of boiled eggs
- Egg is made up of 75% water content
- Also contains vitamin B12

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13 This question was poorly answered by most candidates. Still, candidates need to pay attention to the
demands of the question.
The correct answers were:

(a) Different cuts of beef

Grading of beef
Ripening of beef/tenderness of beef
Appearance of beef/freshness of the beef
Appropriate colour/texture of beef
Amount of fat and bone

(b) The collagen is converted to gelatin in the presence of moisture,

which greatly increases the tenderness
(c) To fill the cavity of a bird through its tail vent with foodstuff to enhance flavor, keep the meat moist, and yield
more servings

14 This question was poorly answered by the majority of candidates. The candidates failed to read and
understand the demand of the question, which shows poor subject content understanding
The correct answers were:

(a) Poaching, steaming

(b) Sifting dry ingredients

Rolling and folding dough/kneading dough
Beating batter, beating egg and sugar together
Adding beaten eggs or egg white

(c) - Mix the flour with melted fat to keep the grain apart
- Stir the flour into the melted fat for approximately one minute to allow starch grains to become well
coated with fat
- Use the correct proportion of starch to liquid
- Heating must be done at a low temperature
- Use a saucepan with a heavy bottom as it spreads heat evenly
- Mixture must be stirred constantly while being heated
- Add milk while stirring
- Flour must be sifted

15 This question (a) was poorly answered by most candidates, who misunderstood the question and rather
gave answers for communication breakdown. Question (b) was well answered by most candidates.
The correct answers were:

(a) Effective communication means good communication and understanding the context in which the
communication is taking place. Keeping in mind whether the timing of the message you want to
communicate is right, communicating clearly, respecting what the other person is communicating
even when you do not agree with it truly listening to the message the other person is trying to convey
and it is important to react to the message you receive to let the other person know you have been listening

(b) (i) This stage lasts from the time the children leave until the couple retires from employment and
covers approximately fifteen years/the stage when the last born child also leaves the house.
(ii) This is a stage in which the married couple establishes their home but do not yet have children

16 This question (a) was fairly well answered by most candidates. Candidates can distinguish between the
two types of resources but be unable to explain in detail and apply to real life situations how to use the
resources in accomplishing the goals. Question (b) was well answered by most candidates.
The correct answers were:

(a) For a goal to be successfully achieved, you need human and non-human resources at your disposal.
Example: goal of passing grade 12. You will need to study hard and be committed. Human resources.
Knowledge of subject content. Non-human: books, pens, etc. (Any related example)

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(b) - Small kitchen with adequate storage and counter space
- Every equipment/material is within easy reach
- A small kitchen is preferable as it conserves energy
- A small garden to keep them busy but still manageable enough to conserve energy
- Good lighting for clear vision around the house
- Plenty of sun and warmth
- Safety doors are important
- Non-slippery floors are important, especially in the bathroom
- A single-story house without stairs is preferable
- Cheaper accommodation as they are pensioned so they can afford it
- Accommodation should be near their friends, relatives, shops, church, health facilities and doctor
- Extra room for visitors/grandchildren when they come to visit
- Space to keep their valuable items
- Accommodation should not be at noisy area as they need sufficient rest

17 This question (a) was poorly answered by most candidates, with clear evidence that candidates have little
to no understanding regarding what conforming to clothing is all about. They wrote about comfortability
when dressing. Question (b) was well answered by most candidates.
The correct answers were:

(a) Conformity means to do what everybody is doing in terms of clothing: you are conforming when you
are dressing according to the uniformity (dress code) put in place. By choosing not to conform, you
do not always fit into a group.
e.g. school-going learners. By wearing a school uniform to look the same as everyone else, you are
conforming

(b) - To improve the nutritive value e.g. add nutrients iron, vitamin B group and calcium to preserve
them from decay and spoilage
- As preservatives to improve the sustainable qualities of the food {sodiumchloride, benzoicacid,
ascorbicacid, Sulphur dioxide.
- Improvement/enhance the flavor e.g. monosodium glutamate
- To prevent oxidation (ascorbic acid is added to margarine to prevent oxidation)
- As preservatives; sodium chloride is added to pickles and corned meat. Vinegar is added to fish
and sugar is added to fruits
- As colouring: to improve colour to make it more appealing and acceptable
- To improve texture e.g. gelatin, pectin, agar, disodium phosphate, glycerol monostearate
- To produce uniform food during large scale manufacture.
- To provide easy-to-prepare convenience food in a busy society and spend less time in the kitchen
than in past years.
- As a non-nutritive sweetening agent

SECTION C

18 Even though most candidates presented the format correctly, this question was poorly answered by most
of the candidates, who failed to give the correct answers to the question. Instead of writing about the
economic factors, some candidates wrote about all the factors that contribute to consumer behaviors
instead of focusing only on the economic factors. Also some wrote about the consumer’s behaviour, right
and responsibilities. Some wrote about factors that contribute to wardrobe planning and some did not
even attempt to answer the question at all, leaving the question blank. All in all this question was of all
the questions performed poorly with candidates scoring from 0-4 marks just for the format out of a total
of 20 marks. Therefore, teachers are urged to put more effort into making sure that the entire syllabus is
covered, understood and candidates are coached on demand prior to the start of the national examination.
The correct answers were:

Essay question

This question is to be answered in an essay format!

Topic/heading: 1 mark
Introduction: 1 mark
Paragraph: 1 mark
Conclusion: 1 mark

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Economic factors which influence consumer behaviour.
(1 mark) awarded for identifying the three factors: packaging, shop layout and advertisement as well as price
strategy.

Packaging:
- General appearance: Bright colours, extraordinary shapes and a neat appearance attract attention.
- Special packaging: characteristics such as an example aerosols, self-applicators or re-usable containers will
influence the consumer to buy.
- Unique and tempting packaging can be so attractive that a consumer will be willing to pay for it.
- Multiple packaging: where related products are packed together for example soap, shampoo, and
deodorant are offered at a lower price may attract the consumer because of the economic factor involved.
- Kaleidoscopic packaging is a strategy in which part of the packaging, is used from time to time for collector’s
pieces as example when superheroes appear on the back of breakfast cereal boxes or celebrities on the
caps of cold drink bottles. (5 marks)

Shop layout:
- Necessities like bread are placed at the back of the shop so that the customer has to pass numerous items
on her way there.
- More expensive and less essential items are placed at eye level.
- Shelves are often re-arranged so that shoppers have to search for things that they want in that way noticing
other things.
- Small items like sweets,magazines, razor blades and batteries are placed conveniently at the checkout tills
to attempt customers who are waiting in the queue to pay.
- Special offers are usually placed in prominent positions.
- An atmosphere conducive to spending is created by pleasant music. (5 marks)

Advertisement:
- Advertising serves a valuable purpose because it informs consumers regarding what is there to buy.
- An advertiser not only informs consumers about his product, he also encourages them to buy the product.
- Different approaches that are used to advertise products:
a) The agony appeal: is usually used for products which relieve physical discomfort. The advertiser has
sympathy and offers a solution.
b) Comparative advertising: The advertiser explicitly names or identifies more competitors to claim
superiority.
c) Abrasive advertisement: The irritation caused by the advertisement creates a lasting image.
For example, soap powder advertisement uses the perfect housewife appeal.
d) Humorous approach: can be very successful if it is used with taste.
e) Identification with persons or situations: this advertisement relies on most people’s desire to achieve
something and be someone. Celebrities, experts and the common man are used to portray a typical
problem situation that was solved by using the advertised product.
f) Self-actualizing: these advertisements rely on most people’s desire to achieve something and be
someone. (5 marks)
Price strategy
a) some consumers are attracted by high prices because they believe the more expensive the product the better
the quality.
b) others always try to buy the cheapest product to stay within the means of their income. (additional 2 marks)

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6155
Paper 2

GENERAL COMMENTS

• For each coursework exercise the teacher should provide candidates with two assignments from which they must
choose one.

• These coursework exercises must be the unaided work of the candidate and must be carried out under examination
conditions.

• Candidates’ Time Plans should include brief but accurate details of preparation and cooking methods, cooking
times, as well as oven temperatures.

• In general, the timing of dishes should be more carefully considered: dishes requiring cooling should be prepared
first, while hot dishes should be planned for later in the test.

• Preparation sheets should be fastened together with staples in the correct order as the names appear in the
checklist.

• Marks should be carefully totaled, scaled and transferred to the Practical Exercise Summary Mark Sheet as well as
the MS1. A Head of Department/ Subject Head/ Senior Teacher must check these marks internally for accuracy
and quality assurance.

• Bundles of loose papers are not acceptable! Each candidate’s work should be arranged and stapled together.

• The total mark for Coursework is out of 200, (exercise 1 is 100 marks and exercise 2 is also 100) but should be
converted to 100 marks which is the final mark to be entered.

• All candidates’ work must show evidence of having been marked, with annotations clearly written to show how and
where credit has been awarded.

• Candidates should indicate in the question number section of the Preparation Sheet which assignment dishes are
being prepared.

• Examiners are reminded to indicate on the Preparation Sheets how much credit has been awarded for each dish,
with justification given on the Practical Exercise Summary Mark Sheet.

1. Key messages to the subject teacher

• The inclusion of photographs as supporting evidence is compulsory.

• One clear, good-quality photograph of each candidate’s finished dishes and table settings is required. One close-
up photograph of the finished dishes and one group photograph of all the candidates of the section sitting at their
serving tables is required.

• Examiners should refer to the Coursework Manual and ensure that the mark scheme is accurately, rigorously and
consistently applied.

• All examiners should refresh their knowledge regarding the instructions and mark scheme annually.

2. Candidates’ performance

• Overall, the quality of the dishes prepared by the candidates was very encouraging and demonstrated a variety of
cooking techniques and skills. There was an improvement in the work from different centers.

• Most centres have made use of old, practical question papers for Grade 11 and 12 to ensure that recipes and
assignments were completed on the Grade 11 level.
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• However, it was observed that centres do not include the assignment given, recipe booklet as well as marking
scheme when sending the candidates’ work for moderation.

3. Please take note of the following:

• Ensure that candidates’ numbers, candidates’ names and assignment numbers appear at the top of each
preparation sheet.

• If a certain ingredient is not available in a region or town, replace it with something similar. Just indicate the name
of the replaced ingredient on the marking sheet.

• Candidates are required to carry out two (2) practical exercises for the duration of the coursework. It is compulsory
one should be completed by the end of Grade 10 and the second one by the end of the second term of Grade 11.

• For each coursework, teachers must provide candidates with two assignments from which they must choose one.
If teachers provide the recipes, they should provide at least nine (9) recipes from which candidates can choose.

• These coursework exercises must be the unaided work of the candidates and must be carried out under examination
conditions.

• During the completion of coursework exercises there should be proper supervision.

• All ingredients and equipment for baking as well as serving should be collected. Tins and dishes should be greased.

• Candidates should measure correctly; sift dry ingredients together; use the equipment for the task correctly; use
beaten eggs immediately and know mixing as well as preparation methods e.g. cutting in method, folding in, roux.

• Some examiners still allocate high marks for a low standard of work. Words like “food is nice, good, attractive,
tasty” cannot receive a mark.

• Please encourage learners to evaluate each dish separately according to appearance, taste and texture. One
word to describe an evaluation of dishes is not good enough. Candidates should describe the dishes using
descriptive words.

4. Improvement was noticed regarding the following:

• The quality of pictures from most of the centers was good and visible. Thank you very much.

• Time plans of most centers were neatly written.

• Dishes were displayed attractively and only a few centers did not include decoration as well as garnishing of the
dishes.

• The standard of dishes was at a Grade 11 level.

• The standard of marking of scripts at some centers was better. However, teachers are discouraged from awarding
unrealistic marks to candidates.

NB: KEEPING RECORDS AND RECORDING MARKS ON ASSESSMENT FORMS

Teachers should be responsible for keeping records and recording marks for the following components.
• Coursework exercise number one forms (CW1) must be used for coursework exercise no. 1 which is
• completed in Grade 10.
• Coursework exercise number two forms (CW2) must be used for coursework practical exercise no.2
• which is completed in Grade 11.
• Summary form for coursework exercises one and two (CW3) the marks of CW1 and CW2 will be
• transferred on to CW3. The converted marks on this form will be transferred to the USB for MS1 (provided by
DNEA).

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6155
Paper 3

Key messages to the subject teachers:

• The inclusion of photographs as supporting evidence is compulsory.
• One clear quality picture of the candidates’ finished dishes and table settings is required,
• A group photograph of the group of candidates who did the practical at the same time, with their dishes is required.
• Candidates should be seated behind their serving tables with their dishes displayed on a table.
• All centres must ensure they are familiar with the instructions which are available at all centres. These instructions
clearly state that the Examination numbers, Centre number, Centre name, Candidate name and assignment
number are to be written on the Preparation Sheets and Practical Test Mark Sheets.
• Centres should ensure that they use the updated documents for the administration of the practical exercise.
• The Practical Exercise Summary Mark Sheet, attendance register and the MS1 should all be included with the
work.
• Teachers must make sure that the names of the candidates are in the same order on all documents.

PREPARATION FOR THE PRACTICAL TEST

Examiners must:
1. Familiarize themselves with the INSTRUCTIONS to teachers.

2. Ensure that candidates are familiar with the format of the practical exercises and practical test.

3. Remind candidates that recipe books may be brought into the examination room for the written preparation.

4. Allow candidates to choose one of two assignments.

5. Collect all question papers and preparation sheets at the end of the written preparation.

6. Before the practical exercises and practical test mark the preparation sheets, order ingredients for candidates,
ensure that all necessary equipment is available, and complete an individual mark sheet for each candidate.

NB. Marks should be allocated for the dishes planned by the candidate during the Written Preparation. These must
not be changed.

If the candidate produces dishes that do not appear on the form, “Dishes chosen”, no marks can be awarded
for the dish.

A. FOOD ORDERS

Examiners must:
1. Compile the food orders for each practical session so that there is a sufficient supply of each ingredient.
2. Where an ingredient could not be purchased and has to be substituted, it should be recorded on the shopping
list of the candidate. It is important that this is taken into account when marking the practical exercises and
practical test.
3. Ensure that supplies arrive early. Non-perishable items should be bought at least 2 days before the examination.
4. All other perishable foods, with the exception of less hardy vegetables, should be bought the day before the
examination.

B. TABLE WITH INGREDIENTS

1. All ingredients should be ready at least 15 minutes before the examination.
2. Where candidates bring in some ingredients from home, examiners are to check that quantities and ingredients
tally with those on the shopping list.
3. Candidates are not allowed to measure ingredients for individual dishes before the start of the practical.
4. No prepared ingredients should be given to candidates. All food must be prepared during the practical.
5. Pulses may be pre-soaked if this is stated in the time plan.
6. Candidates should be advised not to bring in any ready prepared garnishes.
7. Examiners should ensure that food supplied to candidates is fresh and neatly laid out on trays.
8. Individual plastic bags of food should not be secured so tightly that candidates will have difficulty untying them.
It is suggested that food like tomato paste/or any packaged food without a lid should be put into small, clear and

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labelled containers with covers.
9. Only necessary items should be on the table to avoid cluttering.
10. Bottles and containers should be clearly labelled. Labels should be on the sides of containers and not just on
the covers to avoid confusion.
11. Canned food should be in suitable containers and not left in open tins.
12. Examiners should supply just enough garnishes e.g. parsley and lettuce for each examination session.
13. Examiners should avoid leaving large quantities of milk on the table.
14. Examiners should supply sufficient ‘soft’ butter or margarine for candidates’ use.
15. Oil for deep-fat frying should be fresh and free from food particles.

C. APPEARANCE OF CANDIDATES
1. Candidates need to be neatly and appropriately dressed.
2. Hair styles should be neat and hair should be away from the face.
3. Finger nails should be short and unvarnished.
4. Jewellery should not be worn.
5. A label (15cm by 10cm) with the candidate’s name and examination number should be fixed securely on to
the apron for the practical test.

D. EQUIPMENT
1. The refrigerator should be cleaned and the freezer defrosted a few days before the practical exercises and
practical test.
2. Ensure that all stoves and electrical appliances are in working order. If electrical appliances have 2-pin plugs,
adaptors must be provided.
3. Chopping boards and sieves must be in good condition for candidates’ use.
4. Ensure that equipment is not oily or grubby.
5. Saucepans and frying pans should be clean.
6. Stoves and sinks should be allocated before the start of the practical exercises and practical tests. No more
than 1 candidate should be assigned to a stove.

E. WORKSPACE AND SERVING TABLES

1. Candidates should be arranged according to examination number order for the practical test.
2. The room and floor should be clean.
3. Work areas should be equipped with similar basic equipment for each session.
4. All work areas and serving tables should be clearly labeled with candidates’ examination numbers.
5. Serving dishes may be stacked together and left on serving tables before the examination commences. Setting
out at this stage is not allowed.
6. Any aids for the presentation of dishes e.g. tablecloth, menu cards, and table decorations may be brought to
the practical.
7. Candidates should be advised against purchasing expensive flowers for decorating their tables.
8. Before the practical exercises and practical test begin, candidates must collect all equipment and ingredients
needed.

F. SAFETY PROCEDURES
1. Ensure that there is a fire extinguisher in the room. Know how to operate it.
2. Have a bucket of sand nearby.
3. A large cover may be used to cut off the oxygen supply to fires in overheated frying pans.
4. Ensure that there is a first-aid box that is suitably equipped with fresh stock.
5. Make sure that the location of the nearest telephone is known.
6. Arrange for a messenger to be available at all times in case of emergency.

G. GENERAL POINTS
1. Clean tea towels and dishcloths should be provided for each practical exercise and practical test. If brand new,
they should have been washed before use.
2. There should be a reliable clock in the room.
3. The room should be entirely at the disposal of the examiner for at least 20 minutes before the practical exercises
and practical test and for at least half an hour afterward.
4. An interval/ample time should be allowed between the written preparation and the practical exercises and
practical test to facilitate the ordering of ingredients, but schools should not organize between these dates, any
practice which might be relevant to the practical exercises and practical tests.

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H. KEEPING RECORDS AND RECORDING MARKS ON ASSESSMENT FORMS
Teachers should be responsible for keeping records and recording marks for the following components.
• Practical test assessment summary form (PT 1) – must be used for the practical test ONLY.

PLEASE CHECK CAREFULLY

• The final mark should be transferred to the mark sheet (USB) provided by DNEA.

Another person must check that:

• all additions on the Individual mark sheets are correct
• the transfer of the final mark to the mark sheet(USB) is the same and correct as in the assessment summary form.

The person who checked the mark sheets should initial each mark sheet in the top left-hand corner.

POSITIVE SUGGESTION TO TEACHERS

• Teachers are encouraged to give more practical exercises to candidates to be able to apply the principles for the
preparation of food such as fats, cereals and cereals products, dairy and non-dairy products, eggs, sauces, meat,
poultry, fish, vegetables and fruits, pulses, flour mixtures and raising agents.

• Practical exercises should be incorporated into theory at all times so that candidates are fully prepared for the
practical end-of-year examination.

• Teachers, especially new teachers teaching senior secondary level (grade 10-11), are strongly advised to study
their syllabus thoroughly and familiarize themselves with the scheme of assessment.

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HOSPITALITY
6156
Paper 1

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

We would like to thank all our teachers for their unwavering hardworking, dedication and eagerness. Allow us to
recognize your efforts, motivation, encouragement and positive support you render to our prospective candidates. It
is evident from the candidates’ answers that most examiners are working very hard and mentoring them in the right
directions. Thank you to all examiners for teaching with the syllabus objectives and for using the prescribed text book.
Also, candidates’ answers have proven that they were well taught and prepared for the examination.

Candidates’ performance ranged from minorities performing above average, followed by additional candidates
performing on average as well as candidates performing below average.

Candidates should prepare themselves for final examinations and be able to master all the objectives very well.
Examiners should also mentor candidates well on how to read all the question with outmost understanding.

Still the following command verbs remain a challenge to our candidates: EXPLAIN, DESCRIBE and DISCUSS.
Examiners are still encouraged to mentor and prepare our candidates well on how to answer questions with those
command verbs. At least candidates should state three points followed by well-structured in-depth discussions to score
six marks.

The use of past question papers is recommended but with caution because we noticed candidates giving exact answers
as of previous question papers to a wrong question. Examiners should caution candidates very well on the use of
previous question papers.

Examiners should encourage candidates to masters all objectives well for them to be ready and well prepared for the
examination.

Below is candidates’ performance descriptions:

Above Average Performance Questions: 1. (a), 1. (b), 2. (a) (i), (ii), 3. (a) (i) (ii), (b), (c), (d), 4. (b), 5. (aa), (bb), 5.
(b), 5 (c), 5 (d), 5 (e), 5. (f), 5. (h) and 6 (b).

Below Average Performance Questions: 1. (c), 1. (d), 2. (iii), 4. (a), 4. (c), 4. (d), 5. (i) (cc), 5. (ii), 5. (g), 6. (a) (i), 6.
(a) (ii), 6. (b) and 6. (c).

Teaching focusing on the syllabus objectives remais our most important new normal focus.

Teaching using the Hospitality prescribed text book is still of outmost importance.

Preparing our candidates using previous question papers is still to candidates’ advantages.

Coaching candidates to ensure that they read all the examination questions with clear understanding will lead to good
performance, because in this case candidates will give the correct answers to the right question.

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2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Question Answers
This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to
match the Hospitality Regulatory bodies to their correct descriptions.

The correct answers were as follow:

1 (a) (i) C
(ii) D
(iii) B
(iv) A
(b) This question was performed above average by more candidates. However, there were still a few
candidates who could not give correct answers to this question.

The correct answers were as follow:

A Kitchen/Housekeeping
B Restaurant/Bar/Front Office
C Front Office/Reception Area/Bar/Restaurant
D Housekeeping
(c) This question was performed below average by more candidates. More candidates focus on
the relationship between front office and housekeeping. However, the questions focus is on the
relationship between housekeeping department and front office department. In this case it means
Housekeeping department reporting to the Front Office department

The correct answers were as follow:

• Housekeeping staff would need to inform the front office of the availability of rooms for guests
checking in
• Housekeeping staff would inform front office of guest complaints
• Housekeeping staff would inform front office of lost and found items
• Housekeeping staff would inform front office of damaged/stolen items by the guest
• Housekeeping staff would inform front desk of any additional costs for room service or laundry.
(d) This question was performed below average by more candidates. More candidates did not discuss
the correct answers of positive and negative impacts of tourism in Namibia. Most candidates focus
more on economic, environmental and technological positive and negative impact of tourism in
Namibia. Also, more candidates only listed the correct answers but could not give depth well-
structured answers. Candidates were expected to at least state three correct answers followed
by well-structured in-depth answers on positive and negative social impacts of tourism in Namibia.
Candidates were also given freedom to either focus on positive impacts or negative impacts or
focusing on both positive and negative social impact of tourism in Namibia as long as they state
three correct answers followed by well-structured in-depth answers.

The correct well-structured in-depth answers were as follow:

Social impact - Positive

• Tourists desire to experience different cultural settings in their natural environment, especially
the social interactions that occur between tourist and host which improves cultural authenticity
(the genuineness of cultures)
• Local inhabitants copy the behavioural patterns of tourists and younger members of a host
community imitates tourists which impacts traditional value systems
• Community members are actively involved in tourism, which strengthens communities and
helps to create a sense of belonging, trust and credibility among members
• Community participation boosts both the tourist and communities as their respect for traditional
lifestyle and values of the destination community is increased
• Community participation also contributes towards acculturation, often seen as a method of
modernizing a community
• Public facilities, such as parks and benches are kept well for the tourists, improving the overall
aesthetics of the host community
• On a more social level, tourism leads to intercultural interaction. Tourists engage and learn from
the locals increasing pride in locals as they want to show off their community that tourists have
chosen to visit

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Question Answers
• The increase in people also leads to creating more social venues and experiences where locals
and tourists can interact
• More entertainment and recreational facilities will allow for more opportunity to socialize and
engage with each other in traditional activities like songs, dance and historical events
• It also opens up communities to the wider world, new ideas, new experiences and new ways of
thinking

Social impact - Negative

• Tourism has also led to the rise of delinquent behaviour in local host communities
• Crime rates like alcohol, illegal drug use and loud noise have been seen to rise with the increase
of tourists
• On the other hand, gambling and prostitution is increasing due to tourists looking for a “good
time”
• Traffic Congestions on the roads (1) there will be more cars on the road especially during peak
seasons that might slow down traffics and might make local people late for their daily duties (2)
• Overcrowding in shops (1) local shops will be very full (1) causing delay to local people to do
their shopping well (2)
2 This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to
(a) (i) explain with relevant evidence on how Jacob should display his professional work ethics.

The correct answers were as follow:

• He should show up on time (1) to help with shift setup and staying until services are done (2)
• He should refrain from wearing too casual attire like T-shirt without collar (1) to appear
professional, well presentable towards the guest/to be well groomed (2)
• He should be able to make eye contact (1) to show that he/she is engaged and paying attention
to what they say (2)
• He should use the hotel protocols for greeting and serving guests (1) to maintain the hotel
professional standards (2)
• It is advisable to wear uniforms, which are properly pressed, no sagging hemline, not faded (1)
to portray good, personal hygiene, cleanliness/neatness (2)
• He should always have a pleasant smile and positive disposition (1) so that others will feel more
comfortable and at ease with him (2)
• He should be careful of overtone-pitch of voice, volume and body language. He should avoid
unpleasant non-verbal messages like sneering look, crossing arms, pointing finger, shaking
head (1) to maintain calmness/ peaceful environment among the guests (2)
• He should speak with clarity, (1) to check if he is understood after sending a message (2) to
ensure they know or understand their roles/co-duties and/or job description well
• He should be neat and neatly combed hair should be covered/ clipped on both sides if it is long
(1) to maintain good personal hygiene/cleanliness and neatness (2)
• He should be able to practise: Fairness, Trustworthiness, Commitment to excellence, Honesty,
Loyalty, Integrity and Accountability.

(ii) This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to
name three aspects of telephone etiquette that Jacob should uphold.

The correct answers were as follow:

• Punctuality / respect for time of others
• Reliability / keep promises / give correct information
• Being well informed / competency/interest/knowledge
• Attentiveness / listening skills
• Positive attitude / optimistic, problem solving skills/helpful
• Personal demeanor / friendly / patient / reasonable / understandable

This question was performed below average by more candidates. More candidates were not able
(iii) to give the correct definition of the term professionalism.

The correct answers are as follow:

• Professionalism is the standard behaviour, aims or qualities (1) that characterise a profession
or a professional person (1)
OR
• Is the skill or competence expected of a professional (1) in a certain professional situation (1)

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Question Answers
(b) (i) This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to
describe how the waitress would deal with the customer’s complaint about a cold meal that is of
poor quality. More candidates were able to describe how the waitress could deal with this complaint.

The correct answers were as follow:

• Acknowledge the customer complaint (listen)

• Apologies to the customer
• Try to resolve the problem
• Speak to the chef in regards to the meal/replacement meal/meal back to the kitchen
• Reassure the customer that she will have the issue resolved
• Ask the customer how she would like her complaint resolved
• Customer discount e.g. take the dish from the bill, voucher, free drink or dessert
• Speak with manager, who may deal with complaint directly
• Log complain

(ii) This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to give
well-structured in-depth discussions on the influence of poor customer service on the sustainability
of the hospitality industry and its establishments.

The correct well-structured in-depth answers were as follow:

• Customers will not stick around through repeated experiences with poor service, especially in a
competitive market where they can easily take their business elsewhere.
• When a customer leaves, the establishment will lose money, but can also lose the word-of-
mouth advertising that only a satisfied customer can provide.
• It takes more effort to attract new customers than it does to retain a valued one, so losing
customers is something no business can afford
• People tend to believe impersonal sources such as advertising and they give more weight to
negative reports than to positive reports.
• It starts when dissatisfied customers talk to people they know about the poor service they
received, and it escalates when they express those feelings online.
• Comments on Twitter and Facebook can go viral and those comments can also last forever.
• Once an establishment is known for poor customer service, it is difficult, if not impossible, to
repair the image
• Employees know when something is not right with the business they work. They may leave.
• If they see repeated instances of poor customer service, they are likely to start looking for
opportunities with other companies.
• Dealing with dissatisfied customers makes their jobs more difficult and eventually the working
environment becomes toxic.
• The resulting high employee turnover further tarnishes the company’s reputation and it creates
more cost because of the increased need for recruiting, side effects in all areas of business.
• Not only does it lose customers, but the establishment runs the risk of losing its best employees.
• Poor customer service is bad financially. The shrinking customer base results in fewer bookings
at the establishment, which leads to direct loss of revenue.
• Customers today are quick to write negative reviews online when they have a bad experience with
an establishment. In addition to leaving critical reviews, customers also vent their frustrations
on social media for their friends, family, colleagues and the entire world to see.

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Question Answers
3 This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to
recognise the health hazard.

(a) (i) The correct answers were as follow:

• Spillage/wet
• wet surface
• slippery surface
• liquid on floor
• Physical Health Hazards
(ii) This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to set
out two explanations on how to prevent the wet/slippery floor. More candidates were able to support
their answers with relevant practical reasons.

The correct answers were as follow:

• Training should be provided for all staff on safety and health of all staff and customers (1) to
allow them to handle safety and health issues professional/to be well educated and well skilled
in their job (2)
• All staff who work in the kitchen must be provided with effective anti-resistant footwear (1) to
avoid further accidents (2)
• The restaurant manager should set up a clean cleaning schedule for the kitchen (1) to ensure
floor spillages are cleaned and do not lead to slips (2)
• Staff should act fast to quickly clear up spills (1) as soon as they occur to avoid slips and falls (2)
• Wet floor signs should be used (1) to mark an area where there are spills so that people are
aware that there is a hazard (2)

(b) This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to list
five correct examples of security elements in a front office department.

The correct answers were as follow:

• Trained employee
• Bell/Porter person for luggage
• Safety Procedures
• Access Procedures
• Security Guards
• Policies
• Security Equipment (Proper lightning, Cameras/CCTV/, Locking System/master keys/Access
cards/ cardholder data information, emergency Button in the front office/ Alarm System/Phone/
alarm button

(c) This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to
set out two important reasons of confidentiality to customers who visit the hospitality establishment.

The correct answers were as follow:

Basic responses
• Trust between business and customer
• experience customer privacy
• feel happy and safe
• no sharing of information to third parties

Detailed answers
• If customers know that their information will not be shared widely they will trust the establishment
and know that they will experience customer privacy.
• To try and protect their privacy, some celebrities’ check-in under an alias (other name) or as
a Non-Registered Guest (NRG) when staying at a hospitality establishment.
• Customers will feel happy and safe when their information stays or is kept a secret.

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Question Answers
(d) This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to set
out three well-structured depth discussions on the role of a security officer at the bar section of the
hospitality establishment.

The correct well-structured in-depth answers were as follow:

• Patrols the bar from time to time to look for any threats to the bar security
• Prevent underage individuals from entering, monitors entrances and exits
• Ensures that individuals who have been barred do not come into the establishment, resolves
conflict and restrains anyone who lands into a fight
• Ensures that patrons are safe when they are within the bar premises
• Manages inventory and uses security systems
• Ensures which employees have keys or access code/monitor employees access
• Checking references or doing background checks especially for employees who are entrusted
with handling money, receiving stocks, having the keys to the stockroom or cellar
• Protects customers’ privacy
4 (a) This question was performed below average by more candidates. More candidates were not able
to state three descriptions on food hygienic rules that a restaurant should comply with in relation to
food storage.

The correct answers were as follow:

• Dry food should be stored in rooms which are clean, dry and well ventilated
• Fridge must not be overstocked
• Follow the food manufacturer’s instructions on how to store the food
• Do not use food after its “use by date”
• Store ready to eat food above and well separated from raw food in covered containers
• Always check/set fridge/freezer temperatures accordingly
• Food with a “use by date” should be checked regularly and stored in a fridge

(b) This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to
differentiate between Food Contamination and Cross Contamination.

The correct answers were as follow:

• Food contamination refers to the unplanned presence of harmful organisms or substances in

food
• The risk of contamination by dangerous bacteria from food
• Refers to food that is spoiled because it either contains micro-organisms such as bacteria or
parasites or toxic substances that makes it unhealthy for consumption
• Cross contamination
• Is the transfer of harmful bacteria from one food item to another. This may be through contact
with dirty hands, other food, dirty surfaces, sponges, cloths, towels or contaminated utensils
(which touch raw food, were not cleaned and were then used on foods that was ready to eat)

(c) This question was performed below average by more candidates. More candidates were not able to
complete the table/state the causes and symptoms of Salmonella and Staphylococcus.

The correct answers were as follow:

(i) Raw chicken/meat/eggs/contaminated protein rich foods/Bacteria

(ii) Abdominal pain and cramps, severe diarrhoea, vomiting/nausea, dizziness + headache,
stomach cramps/pain,
(iii) Not washing hands with soap/bad hygiene/Bacteria
(iv) Blood in the stool, vomiting/nausea, diarrhoea, extreme weakness

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Question Answers
(d) This question was performed below average by more candidates. More candidates were not able to
relate to the scenario and set out well-structured in-depth discussions on the principles of food safety
when reheating the vegetable soups.

The correct well-structured in-depth answers were as follow:

• Reheat the soup to a safe internal temperature of 74°C

• Use a digital food thermometer to check the temperature
• Food thermometer should be properly cleaned and disinfected both before and after use
• Bring the soup to a full, rolling boil and stir during the process
• Keep the soup at above 60°C to avoid bacterial growth
• Discard the soup after it has been reheated or after being left out at room temperature for more
than 4 hours
5 (a) (i) This question was performed above average by more candidates.

The correct answers were as follow:

(aa) Chicken soup with Croutons

(bb) Peach Halves with Egg Custard Sauce

(cc) This question was performed below average by more candidates because candidates could not write
the full main course as it appears on the given menu. Candidates were only able to write one or two
dishes which led them to lose the mark on this question.

The correct answers were as follow:

Roasted Stuffed Leg of Lamb

Roasted Potatoes
Stewed Peaches
Mashed Pumpkin
Carrot Salad

(ii) This question was performed below average by more candidates. More candidates were not able to
state two correct cooking methods to be used to make chicken soup with croutons.

The correct answers were as follow:

Roasting
Stewing
Boiling
Frying

(b) This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to set
out a description on how the availability of equipment influences menu planning for the family.

The correct answers were as follow:

• All households are not equipped with modern kitchen equipment and a menu should be planned
accordingly
• If a family does not have an oven roast meat and baked products cannot feature on the menu
• If food has to be cooked on an open fire, it will make no sense to plan a menu with dishes
requiring modern equipment
• If equipment is readily available, it will make the preparation much easier and faster

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Question Answers
(c) This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to list
three hot beverages which can be included in a breakfast menu.

The correct answers were as follow:

• Tea
• Coffee
• Cappuccino
• Milo
• Hot chocolate

(d) This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to
state one function of the tablecloth.

The correct answers were as follow:

• Protect the table surface from scratches and stains
• Hide tables that are functional but not aesthetically beautiful
• Enhance the decor of the venue

(e) This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to
identify one example of table decoration.

The correct answers were as follow:

Flowers/candles/center piece/small live plants

(f) This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to
state one importance of table decoration.

The correct answers were as follow:

• To draw attention and make a statement
• To add interest, character and a finishing touch to a table
• Help to carry out a theme and provide an interesting table space
• They can add a light hearted touch or give a feeling of elegance for special occasions

(g) This question was performed below average by more candidates. More candidates were not able to
identify the different types of glassware.

The correct answers were as follow:

(i) Irish coffee glass
(ii) Hurricane glass
(iii) Brandy sniffer glass

(h) This question was performed above average by more candidates. More candidates were able to
state the term for each of the serving styles.

The correct answers were as follow:

(i) Take away service
(ii) Silver service
(iii) Buffet Service
(iv) Plate Service

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Question Answers
6 (a) This question was performed below average by more candidates. More candidates could not state
whether the statements were true or false. More candidates were guessing the answers which led
to them giving wrong answers, because in this case the correct answers were all true.

The correct answers were as follow:

(i) True
(ii) True

(b) This question was performed above average by some candidates but yet some candidates performed
below average. Fifty percentage performed above average while fifty percentage performed below
average.

The correct answers were as follow:

• Used to cover the space from the bottom of the mattress to the floor
• used to cover the bed frame/bed base

(c) This question was performed below average by more candidates. More candidates could not list the
seven steps of making a bed in a guest room.

The correct answers were as follow:

(i) Put the fitted sheet on the bed

(ii) Put the top sheet on
(iii) Make hospital corners
(iv) Place the duvet/comforter on top
(v) Fold the top sheet and duvet down
(vi) Fluffy the pillows
(vii) Add the finishing touches

(i) Remove soiled linens from the bed

(ii) Inspect the mattress protector for stains and remove/treat the stains
(iii) Straighten the protector and ensure that the mattress and the bed box are even
(iv) Cover the mattress with mattress protector and place the top sheet on the mattress.
(v) Place a duvet inside the duvet cover neatly on the mattress/neatly fold it and place it on the bed.
(vi) Cover all pillows with their correct pillow cases and place them on the bed
(vii) Decorate the bed with decorative cushions, throws, towels and bed runners.

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6156
Paper 2

KEY MESSAGES
• The inclusion of printed clear and good-quality photographs as supporting evidence remains as important for
identification purposes and to prove that it is that particular candidate’s work.
• Most centres sent sufficient evidence for moderation purposes. However, centres are still advised to improve the
quality of pictures.
• Centres are also encouraged to ensure that the photographs of dishes are taken at close range to ensure that no
candidate is disadvantaged.
• Examiners are advised to prepare their candidates well for both their written and practical tests.
• There are positive improvements in most centres regarding the written test and practical cookery. However, new
centres are still finding difficulties here and there. Thus, new centres are advised to familiarise themselves with
centres’ comments, examination reports and the Hospitality Syllabus as well as networking with other Hospitality
teachers.
• The practical written test preparation should be treated as part and parcel of the National Examination as stipulated
by DNEA. Thus candidates are expected to conduct their written test as per DNEA requirements and a well-
established seating plan according to the checklist. At some centres, candidates wrote similar answers and made
similar mistakes which gave an impression that they had copied one another.
• Examiners must provide enough preparation forms as the candidates may be required to complete their written
preparation components successfully.
• Examiners are still advised to mark all their candidates’ work thoroughly. Some candidates were awarded marks
and the evidence submitted to the DNEA for moderation did not support the marks allocated.
• All candidates’ three dishes should be well presented and served. All pieces of evidence should be forwarded to
DNEA for moderation purposes. Candidates should be trained to start preparing their longest dish first, depending
on the examination question, to enable them to finish their practical test within 2 hours. Examiners are advised
to study the scheme of assessment well and be able to award marks to candidates who deserve the marks.
Examiners should be able to mark wrong answers wrong and right answers correct.
• Centres should at all costs refrain from including other candidates’ dishes in photographs of candidates who could
not finish or cook all of the dishes.

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
Examiners should train candidates to write their evaluation in essay format, using the evaluation assessment criteria by
commenting on individual dishes.

Candidates are expected to give valid reasons and ensure that they are commenting on each dish. In most cases, the
appearance, texture and taste are part of each recipe. Thus, examiners should train the candidates well on how to
comment on each dish using the correct terminology based on the final product of the candidates.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

1 DISHES CHOSEN: Most candidates managed to choose the three suitable dishes as required:

Dish 1: BEEF STEW WITH WHITE CORN PORRIDGE

Dish 2: CHICKEN MACARONI AND CHEESE
Dish 3: BOEREWORS AND BUTTERBEANS STEW WITH HERB DUMPLINGS

• It is imperative that candidates are sensitized and well prepared always to choose dishes to cook based on
the requirements of the question paper and not based on their choices or simply choosing dishes they would
like to indulge in.
• It is of utmost importance that candidates are sensitized from the junior grades to detach emotionally from the
food being cooked and focus on the fact that practical tests are done for assessment purposes.
• Candidates were expected to choose three dishes that are high in protein. There is always a question that
needs to be answered, so candidates should be able to answer the question by selecting the right dishes.
• Examiners are advised to ensure that candidates are provided with a list of examples of the food types in each
food commodity covered in the syllabus.

2 INGREDIENT LIST

• Most candidates performed below average on this component. There were omissions and inaccuracies of
some ingredients. Most candidates still transferred the ingredients without the preparation techniques e.g. 1
cube chicken stock and 1 slice corn cob instead of 1 cube chicken stock (dissolved in 1 cup of boiling water)
and 1 sliced corn cob (± 2-2.5 cm each).
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• It is of utmost importance that candidates include the preparation techniques because in their absence, their
dishes would not meet the desired results.

3 PLAN OF WORK

Time Plan:
• Some candidates managed to write their correct time intervals of 5 minutes, 10 minutes and 15
minutes correctly as well and their time spread was 120 minutes starting from 08h00 to 10h00.
• However, there are still candidates who are allocating more than 15 minutes for their activities. Some
are planning for more than 120 minutes and some less. With that said, it is disheartening to have
observed that in such cases, candidates were still allocated full marks, which unfortunately gives the
impression that examiners too are not doing their part in ensuring that candidates are properly prepared
for examination practical examinations. Please do not hesitate to reach out to other examiners,
especially the ones who are well-experienced for assistance.
• Most candidates are still failing to allocate appropriate and sufficient time for their activities. The
time allocation of slots (5, 10 or 15 minutes) and activities should be guided by the preparation that is
required for all the ingredients that will be used during that particular activity.
• For example, in method number 3 in the Beef Stew with White Corn Porridge recipe, candidates are
required to add the sweet potato and butternut before cooking for 10 minutes. In a case such as this,
the candidate should then take into consideration that she needs to peel the sweet potato and cube it,
then peel the butternut and cube it as well. The time they are to allocate to this specific method should
then be determined by the preparation required and not only by the addition of these ingredients to the
pot or pan. The same goes for the preparation of peeling and chopping vegetables or grating cheese.
Order of work in systematic order:
• Most candidates with very few exceptions still perform very poorly on this assessment criterion because
candidates failed to plan systematically.
• Most candidates do not plan to start a new dish when the one they were busy with is required to cook for
example for 25 - 30 minutes. Instead of starting the next dish during this time, they plan to continue with
the next method in the next slot.
• Most of them are equally failing to plan to return to dishes when the cooking time lapses. Most
candidates do not indicate the dish they are busy with and just continue with the methods which can
greatly disadvantage them during marking and moderation.
• Most candidates still do not plan to clean sufficiently during cooking. Cleaning and washing up should
equally be guided by the preparation that has taken place and should not just be planned randomly.
• Examiners are, therefore, advised to ensure that candidates are properly trained and prepared in this
regard.
Special Points:
• Most candidates performed poorly on this assessment criteria because they wrote unnecessary
information, minutes that were less than 10 minutes and some did not at all indicate the special point
which was in this case cooking times. Candidates were expected to write oven temperature only and
minutes from 10 minutes and above.

4 SHOPPING LIST
Ingredients List under Correct Heading:
• Most candidates performed poorly on this assessment criterion because they listed ingredients under
the wrong headings.
• Ingredients such as butter beans, garlic, chicken stock, maize meal or flour, corn kernels were listed
under the wrong headings.
• Examiners should ensure that candidates are properly prepared in this regard.
• Please also ensure that candidates are properly trained about ingredients that can be listed under two
different types of headings depending on whether they are fresh, frozen or canned. A good example
includes in this case, broccoli and cauliflower which are bought either fresh or frozen.
• In the case of ingredients such as beans and corn kernels, candidates should take into consideration
what the ingredient is going to be used for and for how long it will need to cook. This should then guide
them as to which one needs to be purchased. For example, dried or fresh beans would need to be
cooked slightly longer than canned beans. This should then provide guidance as to which beans are
referred to in the recipe.
All Ingredients Transferred to Shopping List:
• Most candidates perform poorly on this assessment criteria because they failed to transfer all of the
ingredients to the shopping list. Some candidates are still transferring water to the shopping list under
OTHER ingredients. Water should not be transferred to the shopping list because, during our practical
test, tap water should be used.
• Examiners are strongly advised to encourage candidates to tick all ingredients as they are transferring
them to the shopping list to avoid missing some ingredients.
• Some centres included garnishing ingredients on the shopping list that do not form part of the recipe.

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Candidates should be discouraged from doing so as this greatly disadvantages them.
Accurate Quantities:
• Most candidates managed to perform poorly on this assessment criterion because they did not add
accurate quantities e.g. Salt and garlic, which in this case is 10 ml for salt and 3 cloves for garlic in all
three dishes. A pinch of salt will remain 0.5 ml.
Amount of Similar Ingredients Add Together:
• Most candidates performed poorly on this assessment criterion because they failed to add similar
ingredients together.
• Examiners should ensure that candidates are sensitized about ingredients that are the same but are
called different names. For example, cake flour, plain flour and flour are all the same ingredient. Full
cream milk and fresh milk are also the same ingredient.
• Most candidates also failed to add crushed and chopped garlic together. Both of them are fresh.

5 METHODS OF WORKING
• Based on most candidates’ work, it is evident that they have a good command of the general approach, use the
cooking methods correctly and show the correct use of cooking methods as well as correct use of equipment.
Most candidates also demonstrate good cooking skills by applying all the required cooking techniques correctly.
• It is also evident that most candidates are fuel efficient by switching off the electricity here and there when the
stove is not in use and by ensuring that the practical cookery test ends in two hours.
• Furthermore, most candidates according to their examiners seem to possess good food safety skills by
ensuring that they wore their Protective Equipment (PPE) during practical cookery such as hairnet, apron and
protective shoes which in this case were their school shoes which are still acceptable.
• Additionally, most candidates show good food economy since they managed to measure their quantities
accurately.
• Evidence from the photographs indicated that most candidates’ workstations were clean and tidy.

6 COMMENTS ON QUALITY OR RESULTS

• It is evident that some candidates from some centres managed to produce quality results and this is an
indication that, they were well-trained to complete their practical cookery effectively.
• However, there are still some more candidates whose dishes were not presented as per the requirements of
the recipes.
• For some, photographic evidence suggested that the boerewors was separated from the stew, which gives the
impression that the boerewors was prepared separately or may be served separately.
• For some centres, it appeared as though the cheese in the chicken macaroni and cheese was melted on top
of the dish only after serving which was not at all what was required by the recipe.
• Please ensure that sufficient food is served for better judgment, depending on the examination instructions. If
candidates only serve a portion of what they prepared, it does not provide an accurate picture of their overall
performance.
• Some candidates still do not make sure that their dishes are properly wiped and cleaned before photographs
are taken. Please encourage them always to make sure that the cleanliness of the dishes is key.
• Some also train candidates not to over garnish their dishes as the garnish is not supposed to be overpowering
in the sense that it changes the appearance of the dish in some cases. Encourage them to use garnishing that
is suitable and it must be neatly done.
• In cases when a cake is garnished with icing sugar, please train candidates to dust the icing sugar on to the
cake and sprinkle it on. Sprinkling the icing sugar on to the cake makes it appear very untidy.

7 EVALUATION

Most candidates performed poorly on this assessment criterion because candidates commented on their feelings
about the cooking experience and did not focus on their final products. Examiners should ensure that candidates
comment on all five assessment criteria to consider when they are evaluating their dishes after their initial practical
cookery test in essay format. Some candidates still fail to use the correct terminology to describe their dishes.

TECHNIQUES USED: Candidates should be able to comment on an individual dish by providing sufficient
techniques.

BEEF STEW WITH WHITE CORN PORRIDGE: cube, slice, chop and stir

CHICKEN MACARONI AND CHEESE: chop, crush, stir and grate

BOEREWORS AND BUTTERBEANS STEW WITH HERB DUMPLINGS: chop, stir, mix, rub in, grate and mould

TIME MANAGEMENT: Candidates should give valid reasons why they managed or did not manage their time,
such as I followed my order of work systematically. Thus, I finished my practical cookery on time or I did not plan
well.

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REASONS FOR SUCCESS OR FAILURE: Some candidates gave valid and sufficient reasons why they think
their practical cookery was a success or failure, such as by following their order of work systematically or achieving
the desired results.
COMMENTS ON APPEARANCE AND TEXTURES OF THE DISHES: Most candidates did not manage to
sufficiently comment on the appearance, texture and taste of the dishes;
Below are some examples of the terms that the candidates could have used:
Dishes Appearance Texture Taste
Beef Stew With White Corn Pale, creamy white from Smooth, dense, grainy, Mild,sweetness from the
Porridge the maize, with golden or coarse kernels, creamy.
yellow corn kernels
Chicken Macaroni and The golden-yellow colour Soft, tender, smooth Savoury, well-seasoned
Cheese from the melted cheese taste from the chicken,
and browned chicken sweetness from tomato
is visible among the sauce, cheese taste
macaroni. Reddish colour
from the tomato paste/
sauce
Boerewors and Butterbeans Browns and reds from the Soft, fluffy and tender, Savoury taste, creamy from
Stew with Herb Dumplings simmered boerewors the butterbeans,

Examiners are advised to study these written preparation forms and train their candidates to improve their performance
for the 2025 examination.

Below are examples of how candidates must complete the practical test preparation forms.

Page 1 – Dishes Chosen

Dishes Chosen Ingredients for each dish
Beef Stew with White Corn Porridge Beef Stew
500 ml water
200 g cubed/small pieces of beef
1 cubed sweet potato
250 ml cubed butternut
1 sliced corn cob (± 2-2,5 cm each)
250 ml mushrooms
2 chopped carrots
45 ml cooking oil
250 ml green beans
2 florets broccoli
2 florets cauliflower
2 chopped cloves garlic
1 chopped onion
1 chopped tomato
15 ml curry powder
5 ml mixed herbs
5 ml salt
5 ml black pepper
15 ml honey
15 ml lemon juice
White Corn Porridge
500 ml water
500 ml white maize flour
125 ml corn kernels
30 ml butter/margarine
15 ml parsley

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Dishes Chosen Ingredients for each dish
Chicken Macaroni and Cheese 60 ml cooking oil
1 chopped onion
2,5 ml crushed garlic
1 chopped green pepper
200 g chicken strips
2,5 ml black pepper
2,5 ml salt
2,5 ml chilli powder
1 chopped tomato
125 ml tomato sauce/paste
1 cube chicken stock (dissolved in 1 cup of boiling water)
250 ml elbow macaroni
125 ml baked beans
125 ml grated cheddar cheese

Boerewors and Butterbeans Stew With Herb Stew

Dumplings
15 ml cooking oil
200 g boerewors
1 chopped onion
1 chopped carrot
1 chopped tomato
125 ml water
125 ml butterbeans

Dumplings
500 ml self-raising flour
30 ml butter
250 ml cheddar cheese
5 ml mixed herbs
2,5 ml salt
2,5 ml black pepper
125 ml fresh milk
30 ml chilli beef soup powder
250 ml water

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Page 2 – Plan of work
Time Order of work and method Special points
08:00-08:05 Beef Stew with White Corn Porridge 25-30 minutes

Pour all the water into a pot and add the beef pieces. Cook.
08:05-08:20 Chicken Macaroni and Cheese

Heat the cooking oil in a pot on medium heat. Add the onion
and crushed garlic. Add the green pepper. Add the chicken
strips. Season with black pepper and salt. Add the chilli
powder, stir and cook.
Clean up 10 minutes
08:20-08:35 Boerewors and butterbeans stew

Stew

In a pan, fry the boerewors in the cooking oil for 2 minutes. Add
onion and stir. Add the carrots and cook. Add the tomatoes.
Add the water. Add the beans. Stir and simmer for 2 minutes.

Chicken Macaroni and Cheese

Add the tomato. Add the tomato sauce/paste. Add the 10-15 minutes
chicken stock. Add the macaroni and cook until the
macaroni is cooked.
08:35-08:40 Beef Stew with White Corn Porridge

Add the sweet potato and butternut and cook. 10 minutes

Clean up
08:40-08:50 Boerewors and Butterbeans Stew

Dumplings

Pour the 2 cups of flour into a bowl. Add the butter and rub
it into the flour using your hands until thoroughly mixed. Add
cheese, mixed herbs, salt and pepper. Add milk and mix
slowly. With your hands, mould the dough into small balls
and place them in the stew. Dissolve the soup powder in the
water. Pour this over the stew, ensuring that it covers the
dumplings. Cover the pan and simmer on low heat until the
dumplings are thoroughly cooked. 15-20 minutes

Beef Stew with White Corn Porridge

Add the pieces of corn cub, mushrooms and the carrots. Add
the cooking oil and cook for 5 minutes.

08:50-09:05 Chicken Macaroni and Cheese

Add the baked beans and simmer for 5 minutes.

Beef Stew with White Corn Porridge

Add the curry powder, mixed herbs, salt and pepper and stir.
Add the honey, and lemon juice, stir and cover. Simmer for
5 minutes.

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09:05-09:15 Boerewors and Butterbeans Stew

Serve hot

Chicken Macaroni and Cheese

Add the grated cheese to the mixture, or only top the mixture
with the cheese. Cover the pot and cook for 1-2 minutes to
melt the cheese. Serve hot.

572
candidates who are being recorded should be present in the room to prevent candidates from being distracted.
• Examiners are highly encouraged to do their recording and not other candidates to record the videos. It was evident
that this was the case at some centres and one could see the discomfort in the body language of the candidates
being recorded.
• Centres are, therefore, strongly encouraged to purchase a camera and a tripod to effectively carry out the recording
process.
• Examiners should not interrupt or guide the candidates as soon as they start with video recording.
• Candidates being assessed are highly encouraged to act professionally and demonstrate proper communication
and customer service skills throughout their role play.
• Examiners, especially the ones offering the subject for the first time or who did not manage to prepare their
candidates according to the required standards are highly encouraged to seek assistance from other centres.

MARKS SHOULD BE AWARDED TO ALL CANDIDATES WHO MEET THE FOLLOWING ASSESSMENT
CRITERIA AS FOLLOWS:

CRITERION MARK ALLOCATION

COMMUNICATION
Acceptable presentation/demonstration 1 A mark should be allocated to a candidates who have properly
introduced themselves and the establishment to the guests in a
clear and understandable manner.

Good interaction 1 A mark should be allocated to the candidate who demonstrated

the ability to establish a connection with the guest and generally
interacted well with the customer.

Listening Skills 1 A mark should be allocated to the candidate who demonstrates

the ability to actively listen for the essence of the speaker’s
thoughts, details, major ideas and their meanings.

Confidence 1 A mark is allocated to the candidate who demonstrates the

ability to convey the message with clarity and use appropriate
body language.

Friendliness 1 A mark is allocated to the candidate who is demonstrating:

• Politeness to avoid angry and aggressive language in favour
of stating his/her thoughts politely.
• Can remain positive and pleasant.
Respect 1 A mark is allocated to the candidate who demonstrated sensitivity
when dealing with the customer, respecting his/her values and
beliefs, culture and religious preferences.
English Language Use 1 All candidates should possess a good command of English
proficiency skills.
Acceptable Voice Tone 1 Candidates playing the role of the Housekeepers are expected
to speak in a polite tone of voice, not too high and not too loud.
Rudeness is unacceptable.
Maximum Marks 8
CUSTOMER SERVICE SKILLS
Attentiveness 1-2 2 marks are allocated to the candidate who

• Maintained eye contact, listened to what the customer had to

say, followed the conversation and responded appropriately
• Considered the guest as important enough to prioritize his/
her concerns and needs.

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Positive Attitude 1-2 2 marks are allocated to the candidate who:

• Personalized dealing with the customer by introducing

himself/herself and allowing the customer to introduce
himself/herself if desired.
• Dealt with the customer in a genuinely friendly and courteous
manner by using plain understandable language.
• Showed interest by asking questions and listening to
requirements.
• Demonstrated a balance between the commitment to the
customer and the establishment, through flexibility and
problem solving
• Finished by saying goodbye and waiting for the customer to
hang up before he/she does
Accept mistake 1-2 2 marks are allocated to the candidate who:

• Fully acknowledged his/her mistake and demonstrated

accountability.
• Did not blame external forces for his/her mistake.
Maximum Marks 6
PROFESSIONALISM
Time Management 1 A mark is allocated to the candidate who was ready after the 20
minute preparation time allocation and was able to complete the
role-play within 5 minutes.
Personal presentation on hygiene/ 1 This mark was allocated to all candidates.
Grooming
Neat/Trimmed hair 1 A mark is allocated to a candidate whose hair is neat and
trimmed.
Clean hands and nails 1 A mark is allocated to the candidate whose hands are clean and
whose nails are cut short and clean.
Neatly pressed clothes 1 A mark is allocated to the candidate whose school uniform is
clean and neatly pressed/ironed.
Introduction 1 A mark is allocated to candidates who properly introduced
themselves to the guest as per instructions of the coursework
task and have done so in a professional manner.
Indication of duties 1 A mark is allocated to candidates who have properly indicated
their duties and responsibilities as a housekeeper to the guest.
Expression on the matter 1 A mark is allocated to candidates who expressed themselves
professionally on the matter at hand without demonstrating
any unprofessional behaviour and who demonstrated that they
are knowledgeable about the operations of the establishment
without creating an impression that the establishment is not
professionally operated
Rendering of the apology 1 A mark is allocated to candidates who rendered a detailed
apology to the guest and who gave an appropriate and acceptable
reason for entering the guest’s room without knocking
Clear and loud voice 1 A mark is allocated to candidates who throughout the task spoke
clearly and understandably without mumbling.
Preparedness 1 A mark is allocated to candidates who demonstrated
preparedness to perform the job as a housekeeper with the
equipment provided for by the examiners by the instructions and
requirements of the task
Alertness 1 A mark is allocated to candidates who demonstrated alertness
throughout the task in a professional manner, especially in
response to the guest

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Acceptable response 1 A mark is allocated to candidates who responded professionally
to the customer throughout the conversation, without being
playful and using slag words or generally responding in an
unprofessional manner.
Maximum Marks 13
TOTAL MARKS 27

TASK 2 – MENU AND TABLE SETTING

GENERAL COMMENTS:

• It is imperative that Examiners ensure that all candidates are properly trained by syllabus requirements and
international standards about menus and table settings.
• Examiners should ensure that all candidates are familiar with the different items required for table settings which
include eating utensils, all of the linen as per the requirements of the syllabus as well as the other items which
include table decorations, cruet sets, etc.
• Candidates are required to during their training to acquire sufficient knowledge of all the eating utensils used for
specific food items.
• Candidates are required to know and positively identify the different forks, spoons and knives used to eat specific
food items.
• Examiners should ensure that they train and prepare candidates well on the internationally acceptable standards
and rules of table settings, such as the correct placements of the cutlery, crockery, and glassware used by guests
when dining at restaurants.
• Most centres included unsuitable items on the table such as the dessert bowl, wine and juice glasses, bread plate,
and butter knife.
• Examiners are required to prepare candidates only to plan and place the suitable items or utensils when setting
their tables.
• In case the menus do not indicate any beverages, candidates are required to include only a water glass on the
table, no other glassware.
• In cases of desserts, guests are expected to use the crockery from the top to the bottom. Meaning the first-course
plate or bowl will always be set on top and the last course at the bottom.
• For this reason, since dessert is always the last course, which in this case would mean candidates would have to
place the dessert bowl at the bottom and a dinner plate on top of it, this would be impractical.
• We, therefore, required candidates to utilise a plate service from the kitchen which would not require them to place
a dessert bowl on the table.
• Examiners should ensure that they provide candidates with white A4 paper for candidates to design their respective
settings.
• Candidates are expected to use pencils, black fine-liner pens and blue fine-liner pens only for their tray layout.
Colourful A4 papers and colouring pencils are unacceptable.
• Examiners should ensure that they avail a variety of items used for setting a table, suitable and unsuitable to the
menu provided cutlery, crockery, glassware and decorations for the course work.
• Candidates are expected only to place the correct items on the table.

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MARKS WERE AWARDED TO ALL CANDIDATES WHO MET THE FOLLOWING ASSESSMENT CRITERIA AS
FOLLOWS:
TASK 2 - MENU AND SERVICE STYLES
CRITERION MARK ALLOCATION
PLANNING/DESIGN OF A TABLE SET
Well-designed layout (Formal table set) 1-2 2 marks were allocated to candidates whose designs
met the standards of a formal table about the formal
table setting rules generally.

Neat drawing 1 A mark was allocated to candidates whose drawings

were neat without any stains or erased marks that
were still very visible on the paper.
Correct indication of: A mark each was allocated to candidates who:
̶ cutlery 1
̶ crockery 1 • correctly indicated the correct placement of all
̶ glassware 1 the eating utensils, linen and decorative items on
̶ decoration 1 their designs
̶ linen 1 • and who identified the items correctly on the
designs.

MARKS WERE AWARDED TO ALL CANDIDATES WHO MET THE FOLLOWING ASSESSMENT CRITERIA AS
FOLLOW:

TASK 3 - HEALTH, SAFETY AND CLEANING

CRITERION MARK ALLOCATION
PLANNING
Suitable cleaning equipment 1-2 2 marks are allocated to candidates who listed all of the required cleaning
listed equipment. These include:

• At least two washing basins

• Paper towel or cloth to be used to treat stains
• A soft brush depending on the stain being removed
NB: Candidates were required to indicate on the form the type of stain
they were going to remove to support the type of agents listed.
Suitable cleaning agents for 1-2 Two marks were allocated to candidates who listed all of the cleaning agents
that particular stain listed needed to treat the stains and the linen.
The agents may include, depending on the stain:
• Red wine stain remover
• Vanish
• Jik
• Lemon juice
• Dishwashing liquid
• Baking soda
• Vinegar
• Any other suitable industrial stain remover
Washing agents:
• Washing powder
• Liquid laundry detergent
Softening agents:
• Any fabric softener

NB: Candidates were required to indicate on the form the type of stain
they were going to remove to support the type of agents listed.

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Maximum Marks 4

COLLECTION OF EQUIPMENT & CLEANING AGENTS

Collection of correct cleaning 1-2 2 marks are allocated to candidates who collected all of the required cleaning
equipment equipment.

1 mark was allocated to candidates who collected some of the required

equipment.

Please note: Photographic evidence supported for allocation of these marks.

Collection of correct cleaning 1-2 2 marks are allocated to candidates who collected all of the required cleaning
agents agents for the specific stains.

1 mark was allocated to candidates who collected some of the required

agents.

Please note: Photographic evidence supported for allocation of these

marks.
Maximum Marks 4

ORDER OF WORK
Correct usage of cleaning 1-2 2 marks were allocated to candidates who correctly used the cleaning
equipment equipment

1 mark was allocated to candidates who correctly used the cleaning equipment
but made some errors

Please note: the teacher’s mark was solely considered in this regard
unless photographic evidence suggests otherwise.
Correct usage of cleaning 1-2 2 marks were allocated to candidates who correctly used the cleaning agents
agents
1 mark was allocated to candidates who correctly used the cleaning agents
but made some error

Please note: the teacher’s mark was solely considered in this regard
unless photographic evidence suggests otherwise.
Correct stain removal method 1-2 2 marks were allocated to candidates who used the correct methods to
remove the specific stains

1 mark was allocated to candidates who used the correct methods to remove
the specific stains but made some error

Please note: the teacher’s mark was solely considered in this regard
unless photographic evidence suggests otherwise.
Maximum Marks 6

QUALITY OF WORK
Spotlessly cleaned bed linen 1 A mark was allocated to candidates whose linen was cleaned spotlessly.

Please note: this mark was only allocated to candidates with

photographic evidence of both pieces of linen.
Two different bed linens 1 A mark was allocated to candidates who removed stains and washed two
cleaned different pieces of linen.

Please note: this mark was only allocated to candidates with

photographic evidence of both pieces of linen.

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PPE used appropriately 1-2 2 marks were allocated to candidates who used all of the required PPE
throughout the task

1 mark is allocated to candidates who used some of the PPE throughout the
task

The required PPE included:

• Gloves
• A mask
• Apron
• Hair net (though not mandatory)
Stain removed 1-2 2 marks were allocated to candidates who removed stains from both pieces
of linen

1 mark was allocated to candidates whose linen still had visible marks or stain
residue.

Please note: photographic evidence was required to support the

allocation of marks.
Linen softened 1-2 2 marks were allocated to candidates who softened both pieces of linen

Please note: the teacher’s mark was solely considered in this regard
unless photographic evidence suggests otherwise.
Linen dried well 1-2 2 marks were allocated to candidates whose linen dried well

Please note: the teacher’s mark was solely considered in this regard
unless photographic evidence suggests otherwise.
Maximum Marks 10

PROBLEM-SOLVING
Safe handling of equipment 1-2 2 marks were allocated to candidates who had demonstrated the ability to
and cleaning agents handle all of the equipment and cleaning agents in a safe manner

Please note: the teacher’s mark was solely considered in this regard
unless photographic evidence suggests otherwise.
Able to hand wash bed linen 1-2 2 marks were allocated to candidates who were able to properly hand wash
correctly the bed linen

Please note: the teacher mark was solely considered in this regard
unless photographic evidence suggests otherwise.
Readiness of the bed linen 1-2 2 marks were allocated to candidates whose bed linen was ready for use after
drying

Please note: the teacher’s mark was solely considered in this regard
unless photographic evidence suggests otherwise.

Maximum Marks 6
TOTAL MARKS 30

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The following evidence indicates the list of cleaning agents, equipment, PPE and the type of stains to be treated
or removed.

TASK 3 - HEALTH, SAFETY AND CLEANING

PLANNING FORM:

LIST OF ALL THE SUITABLE CLEANING AGENTS, EQUIPMENT AND MATERIALS OR PPE TO REMOVE STAINS
AND WASH BED LINEN

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The following evidence indicates all of the photographic evidence required by the DNEA.

CANDIDATE WITH THE COLLECTED EQUIPMENT, AGENTS AND PPE

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CANDIDATE SCRAPING THE MUSTARD OFF

CANDIDATE TREATING THE STAIN

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CANDIDATE WASHING THE LINEN

CANDIDATE WITH CLEAN AND DRIED LINEN NUMBER 1

CANDIDATE WITH CLEAN AND DRIED LINEN NUMBER 2

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586
INTEGRATED PERFORMING ARTS
6150
Paper 1

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The theory section of Paper 1 is problematic. After studying music theory for four years, candidates should know the
basic music theory such as rests, time signatures and very basic Italian words. Only one candidate was successful in
answering this section. Mime and Stand-up comedy were poorly answered with many candidates scoring a zero for
these sections.

Candidates do not answer in sentences where needed e.g. when asked to explain or describe. They also struggle with
the same action verbs and often answer with only one word.

Level C questions are usually not answered.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Question
SECTION A
Number
1 (a) Candidates do not know the traditional names for instruments. This instrument is from the chordophone
family.
(b) (i) All candidates were successful in recognizing Meriam Makeba as the vocalist.
(ii) Most candidates answer Zulu or Xhosa instead of Swahili.
(iii) Many candidates reasonably well describe the features as loving, slow but none could identify the
contracts in the extract e.g. moving from soft to loud etc.
(c) (i) Most candidates could identify flute, guitar and drums correctly
(ii) Candidates were mostly successful in identifying the three actions needed for change namely:
Stand up for our rights
Fight these injustices
Walk our paths/be who we want to be
(iii) Tenor was correctly underlined by most candidates
2 (a) (i) Only a few candidates identified “Mercury” correctly
(ii) Mercury is described as the “winged messenger”. Only two candidates were successful.
(iii) Fast was correctly named as the tempo. Some also wrote Presto or Allegro, which are also correct.
(iv) Only two candidates successfully recognised the instrument as the glockenspiel or celeste.
(v) Many candidates correctly identified one woodwind instrument such as oboe, flute or clarinet. Many
wrote instruments from the string or brass family.
(vi) & No candidate could give the Italian names namely pizzicato and Leggiero.
(vii)
(b) (i) The suite was correctly identified as “The Nutcracker” by most candidates.
(ii) However, none could identify the extract as the ‘’Russian Dance’
(iii) Few recognised the instrument as a Tambourine.
(c) (i) Only candidates from one centre could identify the sign as a ‘time signature’ but only one candidate
continued to explain the meaning of four beat time
(ii) It was quite shocking that maybe only 10% of all the candidates could identify f as forte and p as
piano. This terminology should already be general knowledge on NSSCO level.
(iii) Because the candidates could not identify the signs in (c) (ii), they also struggled to explain the
meaning of f and p as playing loud and immediately soft.
(iv) Very few candidates could recognise the quarter/crotchet rest. Most did not even recognise it as a
rest sign.

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Question
SECTION B
Number
3 (a) (i) Only a handful of candidates recognise one of the storytellers as British but many recognised the
other storyteller as South African.
(ii) Candidates struggled with the concept. They could recognise one storyteller as having high/low
energy or emotionless and excited, but answered in the wrong order compared to Question 3 (a)(i).
(iii) Most candidates wrote American instead of British, but at least the South African storyteller was
identified as African accent although Afrikaans would be more correct.
(b) (i) Candidates could not give detailed examples. They could describe the general sounds such as
“swoosh” but did not continue to say “make a swoosh sound to imitate the sound of the aeroplane.”
Or “make the sound of an explosion when imitating the explosion of the Indian masala bomb”.
Those who did describe it in full did well.
4 (a) (i) &
Most candidates could recognise the mime expressions as fear and joy.
(ii)
(b) (i) Candidates just described the two images again as fear and joy but could not link them to the example.
The answer was that his face expressed joy when he saw the birds but it turned into fear when he
found himself trapped in the same cage.
(ii) Very few candidates could describe the hand movements becoming smaller as the cage becomes
smaller.
(iii) Some candidates referred to him holding on to the bars, but none continued to described how he
moved around in an ever shrinking cage.
(c) Very few candidates could describe a proscenium stage. There were a few candidates who could
identify it as the “curtain which opens to reveal the stage to the audience” which is the correct answer.
If they added it is the “invisible wall which allows the audience to view the performance,” they also
scored full marks.
5 (a) (i) & Most candidates correctly identified the images as ballet and
(ii) Some type of ballroom such as salsa or tango, although just ballroom would have been correct
(iii) Again the candidates lost marks by just giving one word such as ‘stomping’ or “rattling’’. They had to
explain it with a full sentence such as “stomping your feet on the ground” or “rattling when you move
your feet”. The movement needed to be linked to feet.
(b) (i) & Most candidates could identify the apron and
(ii) wing correctly.
(c) (i) Candidates struggled to indicate how the hairstyles and clothing reflect the emancipation of women.
They need to also know about the historical politics of the 1920’s such as this was the time when
women fought to have voting rights, or due to the ending of WWI, women had to work as many men
were killed during the war. Some gave answers such as shorter hair or shorter dresses but they did
not link it to the emancipation. Had they added that women wore shorter dresses to indicate that they
can show their ankles if they are doing jobs which were previously considered ‘male’ jobs such as
being a reporter, they would have done well, or that doing a cabaret dance with revealing clothes and
feathers in their hair indicates freedom of speech.
(ii) Very few candidates recognised the song as the Tango danced in the cellblock which houses the
ladies accused of committing murder. In this Tango each lady tells the story of how she murdered her
husband or lover, but still insists that she is innocent because he “had it coming”.
6 (a) (i) Most candidates could not identify the character as “Wizard”, although many could describe his outfit
as boots, jacket and hat. Some described the outfit as cowboy which was awarded a mark.
Most candidates identified the building just as “old”’ but not adding the word “theatre” to the description.
Many candidates were correct in saying he gave street children shelter, but only a few were correct
in saying he gave them shelter where he taught them music in exchange for performing in the streets
to earn money for him.
(ii) No candidate had this answer correct with most of them confusing Evan with his father, not knowing
Evan and August is the same person. The most correct answer for this question is that they are both
precise in remembering how long it has been to “find” one another.
(b) (i) Most candidates were successful in identifying what type of material they would use, as well as the
colour e.g. carton and brown, paper and green.
(ii) Candidates were extremely successful in answering this question with most scoring a 2 or 3 for their
answer. Every two correct answers scored one mark. Kiaat’s voice should be tenor/soprano or alto
which means it is either male or female. Mopane should be alto or soprano making her an adult
female. Baobab is old and male.

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Question
Number
7 (a) (i) Many candidates struggled with the concept of setting and described the introduction and not the
opening scene. Some only gave one word such as flower. A correct answer would be a flower
market/train station in London.
(ii) About 70% correctly underlined close-up.
(b) Angry was mostly correctly given, though irritated was also correct.
(c) (i) Many candidates confused the character of Arthur Doolittle with that of Col Pickering. Those who
had the correct character mostly wrote “he wanted money”, which is correct but for another mark they
should have added “as he thought” that Professor Higgins is using her for certain favours.
(ii) Few candidates gave the correct answer of Doolittle thinking of marriage as “an obligation of the
middle class and it takes away your freedom”.
(d) Most candidates only identified e.g. he put marbles in her mouth, earning no mark for their answer.
Correct would have been “he put marbles in her mouth and then she needs to repeat a sentence” or
he would “award her with chocolates if she did well”.
(e) Again candidates did not answer the question in full. Some correctly describe the relationship with
answers such as Freddie was in love with Eliza but she did not love him, or Freddie would send
her flowers and chocolates to show his feelings. However, few candidates linked the two songs to
enforce their answers namely “on the street where you live” and “show me” where Eliza tells Freddie
not just to tell her he loves her but to show her how much he loves her. In the end she realises
Freddie is not the right person to spend her life with as she is in love with Prof. Higgins.

3. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Music theory must be practised on a regular base, at least once in a cycle to ensure a strong foundation. The
questions on music theory is not difficult and candidates can easily score 18 marks if they have a strong foundation.

• Let them orally practise how to describe and explain. Giving one word (unless specifically asked) is not correct.

• Listening, especially to European music is vital to be repeated often. Candidates cannot remember the sound of
music instruments if they do not hear it repeatedly. It can be part of the music theory lesson. This should already
be done in JS level.

• While watching the films, stop and explain terminology such as history, outfits, hairstyles, setting and filming
techniques to the candidates when they watch the film for the first time. They can later watch the film again as a
whole by themselves or as part of revision.

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1. GENERAL COMMENTS

Films overall have improved considerably from previous years.

Take note of the following to improve:

• Topics have become more creative but candidates can still focus on more creative and original films
• Allow candidates to do backup every day after filming, edit and save the videos on more than one device.
• Plagiarism should be avoided and candidates should consider their viewers and by using appropriate language.
• Candidates should refrain from reading biographies found on the internet but should write their own after doing
research.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

Planning and research

• Much effort went into planning at both centres.
• Candidates still need to spend more time, especially on their research. They seem to spend a long time planning
but then research is just done in the final few days before submitting.
• Candidates need to reference their research.
• Submitting a storyboard as part of the planning is a good idea.
• Teachers submitted proof of their input which was present in the films at this stage also. Thank you.

Process and Refinement

• This section was much more detailed in general. Candidates put commendable effort into processing and refining
so successful in describing how they had done so.
• Candidates should practise their dialogue before recording. Some would just repeat the same sentences such as
‘What do I do, what do I do’ up to eight times consecutively giving the impression they did not know what else to
say. Let them write it down and then memorize it beforehand.

Evaluation
• Evaluations were detailed and gave a good idea of the whole experience.
• Teachers were very involved in the planning process and their good ideas are appreciated.
• Many candidates were not happy with their outcome, due to the short period they allowed for filming and editing.
Do encourage them to start with the Grade 10 chosen software.
• In all cases the candidates had problems with the software, as they did not have smartphones to practice
beforehand. I would suggest teachers download some programmes and use them during a presentation to show
learners how to edit.

Quality of the film

• Some high quality films were produced in 2024.
• Most films were of the correct length of six minutes.
• The use of music and sound effects has improved remarkably.

3. POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Motivate candidates to start planning and doing research in Grade 10 already.
• Write reports at least three times throughout the process to encourage candidates and also for them to improve on
their research.
• Thank you to all the teachers for all the effort you have put in to guide candidates thoroughly on this paper.

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GENERAL COMMENTS

1. There was an overall improvement in all the performances.

2. At most centres the candidates presented creative storylines.

3. The group’s prepared and unprepared performances were delightful at all the centres.

Prepared and unprepared performances should focus on the following points

• Performers should speak to the audience at all times.
• Dragging of feet was still a challenge as it drowns the performer’s voice.
• Although some schools are doing it, it is recommended that the candidates perform at least twice before the
examination to an audience.
• Peer assessment can be used to improve performance.
• Please ensure that the group-prepared performances are based on the topic which is provided by DNEA, as
indicated in the syllabus.
• Candidates should use the time for individuals unprepared to their advantage. Some performances were very long
with their story development but no climax.

POSITIVE SUGGESTIONS TO TEACHERS

• Thank you for your input in preparing these candidates over the two years. The result is indicative of a lot more
creativity and general stage etiquette has improved in leaps.
• Keep on assessing the candidates from Grade 10 on their topics to keep them in practice.
• You are responsible for arranging the sound and video technicians, not the candidates.
• Ensure that the equipment is functioning correctly and maybe have a few practice runs beforehand.
• Cameras zooming in and out the whole time resulting in a few blurred videos, which could not be properly moderated.

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MATHEMATICS
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Paper 1

General Comments:

Majority of learners attempted the entire question paper by answering all questions. Generally, there was a slight
improvement in candidate performance. However, some learners answered questions in pencil, and others made
transfer errors when transferring their answers to the answer space. Misreading their own work and such answers led
to a loss of marks.

Candidates lost marks due to incorrect methods applied, even when the final answer was correct. It is crucial to
acknowledge that if a method is wrong, no marks will be allocated, regardless of the answer’s correctness. Candidates
should be discouraged from giving multiple choices in their workings or on the answer space. Teachers should emphasise
that marking is based on the method used to arrive at the answer. A correct answer with a wrong method will not
yield any marks.

Candidates are expected to understand the need to work to accuracies of more than 3 significant figures, or more than
one decimal place for angles. They should be discouraged from rounding off exact answers.

It was observed that many candidates lacked mathematical instruments, hindering their ability to answer construction
questions. Centres are encouraged to provide a few mathematical instruments at the examination venue for learners to
borrow when they are writing.

Candidates should be informed not to round off answers for limits of accuracy and may be encouraged to write their full
calculator display.

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

Question 1
This question was well answered, although some candidates lacked the skills of BODMAS rules. Some candidates
divided 15 by 3 and added 2 to the answer and multiplied by 7 to get 49.

1 19 1 c.a.o

Question 2
This question was fairly answered, although some learners struggled with the concept of the number line and
differentiating between < and > inequality signs. For part (a), learners had difficulty comparing negative numbers. For
part (b), learners rounded off the value of (π)2 and incorrectly equated it.

2 (a) > 1 c.a.o

(b) < 1 c.a.o

Question 3
This question was fairly answered, but some candidates couldn’t distinguish between decimal places and significant
figures. For part (b), some candidates wrote 0.054700 as the answer. For part (c), some candidates omitted the
negative sign on the index or exponent. Additionally, some candidates lost a mark by rounding their answer to 2
significant figures.

3 (a) 0.055 1 c.a.o

(b) 0.0547 1 c.a.o
(c) 5.47(35) × 10−2 1 c.a.o

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Question 4
This question was moderately answered, as many candidates used the wrong method, even though they arrived at
the correct answer. Some candidates used the direct proportional method to solve the problem.

M1 for 2783 – (15 × 145) o.e

OR
4 8 2 M1 for 15×145 + 76x = 2783 o.e

B1 608 seen

Question 5

This question was well-answered, with few candidates writing their common fraction not simplified.

21
5 50 1 c.a.o

Question 6
This question was poorly answered, with a common incorrect answer of 4. Many candidates did not use brackets on
the index, leading to some calculators making 16 to power 1 and dividing that answer by 4, to get 4. Some candidates
understood the laws of indices and correctly managed to obtain 2.

6 2 1 c.a.o

Question 7
This question was poorly answered, as many candidates interchanged the answers for parts (a) and (b). Many
candidates struggled to compare numbers written in different forms.

7 (a) 0.45 1 c.a.o

(b) 44.5% 1 c.a.o

Question 8
Part (a) was moderately answered, although some learners wrote time as a duration and hence losing a mark for that.
Part (b) was poorly answered, as many candidates correctly calculated the hours but failed to obtain the minutes. The
common incorrect answer was 3 hours and 35 minutes.

8 (a) 06:36 1 Allow 6:36(am) (0)6h36

(b) 3 hours 21 minutes 1 c.a.o

Question 9
This question was poorly answered as many candidates failed to shade the part of A∩B∩C also as it is also part of
B∩C.

9 1 c.a.o

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Question 10
This question was poorly answered as many learners calculated the difference between two upper bounds. Some
candidates worked out the difference first and found the upper bound of the difference rounded to 1 decimal place.

B1 for 3.05 and 7.35 seen

10 4.3 2
M1 for 7.35 − 3.05

Question 11
Many candidates calculated the loss but failed to calculate the percentage loss. Some candidates divided the loss by
the selling price instead of the cost price.

M1 for 60 × 100 o.e

11 17.39(130435)% 2 345
B1 seen 60

Question 12
This question was fairly answered, although some candidates used a compound interest formula. Some candidates
used a wrong method but arrived at the correct answer, resulting in no marks. Some candidates used a trial-and-error
method by substituting the correct answer into the interest formula.

12 4 years 2 M1 for 8 × 2500 × t = 800 o.e

100

Question 13
This question was poorly answered, as most candidates struggled with unit conversions, particularly for speed. It is
crucial to emphasise the conversion of length, volume and time units.

M1 for 0.6 × 3600 or 0.6 ÷ 1000

1000 1
4 3600
13 2.16 / 54 / 225 2
25 OR
0.6 × 3.6 or 0.6 ÷ 1000
1 ÷ 60 ÷ 60

Question 14
This question was fairly answered. Many candidates used 120g as a total mass and divided it into the given ratio.
However, most learners failed to calculate the amount given with one outcome to find the total mass.

M1 for 120 × 100 o.e

14 3000 g 2 4
B1 30 and 2850 both seen or 2880 seen

Question 15
Part (a) was poorly answered, as many candidates couldn’t determine the gradient from the given formula. Some
incorrectly wrote the gradient as −3x. Part (b) was also poorly answered, as learners struggled to understand the
relationship between parallel lines. Many candidates simply rewrote the given formula as their final answer. Some
candidates used a wrong method of substituting the given coordinate in the given formula to find the y-intercept.

15 (a) −3 1 c.a.o
M1 for m = − 3 or c = 4
15 (b) y = −3x + 4 2 B1 for y = −3x + c or y = −mx + 4
SC1 −3x + 4

Question 16
This question was poorly answered, as many candidates failed to identify the type of shape. Some recognised it as a
pyramid but could not specify the type of a pyramid. For part (b), candidates misunderstood the term “vertices,” often
counting only the vertices of the base.

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16 (a) Square (base) pyramid 1 c.a.o
(b) 5 1 c.a.o

Question 17
This question was moderately answered, with some candidates incorrectly stating 2 angles or 2 lines of symmetry.

17 2 1 c.a.o

Question 18
Part (a) was well-answered, although some learners spoiled their answer by writing it as a fraction. Part (b) was
moderately answered, with some candidates making errors in substitution due to a lack of brackets. The most
common incorrect answer was .

18 (a) 1 c.a.o

(b) 5 2 M1 for t2 = (−4)2 + (−3)2 o.e

Question 19

This question was fairly answered, but many candidates failed to identify the highest common factor (HCF). Some
managed to factorise the expression partially.

B1 for 3a 2 or 5a − 1 or −3a2 or −5a +1

SC1 for partial factorisation
3(5a 3 −a 2) or
19 3a2(5a − 1) 2
a(15a 2 − 3a) or
a2(15a − 3) or
3a(5a 2 − a)

Question 20

This question was poorly answered as many candidates failed to write the equation with a common denominator. Some
lacked the concept of solving fractional equations.

20 3

Question 21

This question was poorly answered, as most candidates could not find the reciprocal of the second fraction and change
the division sign to a multiplication. A common incorrect method was expressing fractions with the same denominator.

21 2

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Question 22

This question was poorly answered. Candidates struggled to find the value of k, which hindered their ability in finding
the value of x when y = 12. A common incorrect answer was 121.

22 242 3

Question 23

This question was poorly answered. Most candidates attempted to write 130 as a product of its prime factors. Some
didn’t recognize that 130 cannot be expressed with a base of 2 where the index is a whole number. Others lacked the
knowledge of applying logarithms. Some resorted to a trial-and-error method by substituting the correct value into the
equation.

23 3.01(11 83907)

Question 24

This question was poorly answered, as many candidates found the product of the two factors but spoilt it by adding the
third factor instead of multiplying the result with the third factor. Teachers need to teach learners more on the product
of three factors.

24 3

Question 25

Part (a) was well-answered, although there were a few candidates who rounded off exact answers. For part (b), many
scored well on plotting points but struggled to join them with a smooth curve. Some misread the scale, plotting 3.5
instead of 3.2.

25 (a) 2.5, 3.2 2 B1 for each correct value

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P2 for all 5 points plotted correctly.
P1 for 3 – 4 points plotted correctly.
(b) 3 C1 for the correct curve

FT2 for plotting all points

All points plotted correctly with a smooth

curve.

Question 26

This question was poorly answered. Many candidates did not know the formula for the sum of interior angles of polygons.
Despite the diagram not being to scale, some candidates regarded the diagram as to scale and made up by two
quadrilaterals that are symmetric. A common wrong formula of (n − 1) × 180 was seen. Some candidates had a wrong
formula with the correct answer which resulted in them not getting any mark.

26 141 3

Question 27

Part (a) was moderately answered as many candidates managed to draw the line of x + y = 5, but failed to draw the line
of y = 2x. Some used dotted lines, leading to mark deductions. Part (b) was poorly answered, as many candidates could
not identify the correct region. Teachers should put an emphasis on shading the unwanted regions of inequalities, not
just following the lines.

27 (a) Correct straight line drawn. 1 c.a.o

Correct straight line drawn. 1 c.a.o

(b) Correct region indicated with unwanted region 2 B1 if y ≥ 2x is shaded correctly.

shaded. B1 if x + y ≤ 5 is shaded correctly.

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Question 28

This question was fairly answered. Most candidates drew correct arcs and the perpendicular bisector. However, some
did not attempt the question. Candidates should be encouraged to leave construction arcs visible and use a straight
edge for accurate lines.

B1 for acceptable bisector with no or

Bisector of angle QPR drawn with two pairs of
28 2 incorrect arcs. OR correct pair of arcs
correct arcs.
without bisector

Question 29

This question was moderately answered. Many learners struggled to form the determinant equation. The common
wrong answer of −31 was seen. Many candidates were adding diagonal products instead of subtracting. Some lacked
a basic understanding of matrix operations.

29 3 2

Question 30

Part (a) was moderately answered. Some candidates incorrectly added the sides using the Pythagorean Theorem by
adding the two given side instead of subtracting. Others calculated the side length but rounded to 2 significant figures.
Part (b) was poorly answered, as some used the perpendicular height instead of the slant height of the cone.

30 (a) 2

(b) 24π or art 75.4 2 M1 for π(4)6

Question 31

This question was poorly answered. Many could not substitute values correctly into the formula for the area of a non-
right-angled triangle.

31 26.3(4339183)º

Question 32

This question was poorly answered. Many candidates did not recognise the trough as a half-cylinder or a prism with a
semicircular cross-section. Most calculated the volume of a full cylinder.

32 art 75 400/ 24000π

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Question 33

This question was poorly answered. Many could not find the total number of learners in the class. A common error was
calculating the total number of boys and the common wrong answer was .

33
1 c.a.o

Question 34

This question was poorly answered. Many candidates struggled to find the midpoints of the intervals. Some calculated
the width of the intervals instead of the midpoints.

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Key Message

Candidates are expected to understand the need to work to accuracies of more than 3 significant figures, or more than
one decimal place for angles, when calculations involve a number of steps in the working; only then can the final answer
be given to an appropriate level of accuracy. Candidates should realize that answers should be given to 3 significant
figures or better except in questions where a different accuracy is demanded. Candidates should also be advised not to
round off answers of exact numbers.

Better knowledge and understanding of mathematical concepts, terms and definitions would help candidates to answer
questions from the required perspective. For that reason, definitions, descriptions and appropriate mathematical
language and spelling should receive the necessary emphasis. This problem is always experienced especially when
candidates are asked to describe transformations. For example, in question 28, many wrote the transformation as
translated, transformed etc.

General Comments

Majority of learners attempted the whole paper by answering all the questions. The questions were well distributed
through the targeted grades (A, C, E and G). That is why most candidates completed the paper by making an attempt
at most questions. However, it was worrying to see some candidates (both full time and part time) getting few marks
throughout the paper.
The standard of presentation and amount of working was generally good. Centers should continue to encourage
candidates to show formulae used, substitutions made and calculations performed. Candidates should greatly be
encouraged to show their working especially in questions with more than one (1) mark, as some marks are usually for
the methods used or for correct substitutions in the correct formulae. Showing their work increases the candidates’
chance of earning a mark even if their final answer ends up being wrong.

Many candidates struggled to answer questions on similarity, probability and statistics correctly. it seems as if some
centers did not cover them during teaching. Teachers should make the necessary efforts to teach the whole syllabus in
full before the candidates sit for their examinations.

SPECIFIC QUESTIONS

QUESTION 1
This question was well answered.
1 (a) 1 cao
(b) 169 1 cao
(c) –7 1 cao

QUESTION 2
This question was well answered.
2 (a) 4 1 cao
(b) 300 1 cao

QUESTION 3
This question demanded that candidates should not use a calculator. However, many did not follow this instruction.
They were expected to show their work and methods on how they arrived at their final answer. Many candidates also
failed to give their answer as a mixed number.
3 2
M1 for OR for , accept any
common multiple with correct numerator.

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QUESTION 4
Reverse percentage is always a challenging topic for the candidates. Centers should expose the candidates to similar
questions and advise them on how to calculate reverse percentage. Many candidates just calculated 12% of N$ 924
which was incorrect.
4 N$ 1050 2
M1 for OR

QUESTION 5
This question was moderately answered. Many candidates were able to convert the units properly, many of those that
failed to get the correct answer was because they did not divide properly.
5 34.2 km/h 2
M1 for OR o.e

QUESTION 6
Candidates attempted this question very well. However, many failed to get the correct because they did not put –2 in
brackets in their substitution.
6 −11 2
M1 for OR 4 –15

QUESTION 7
Candidates answered this question very well. However, a few spoilt their correct answer by adding x6 to y4 to obtain
xy10.
7 2 B1 for any 2 correct

QUESTION 8

(a) The usage of the words at least and at most are always a problem to many candidates. Centers are
therefore hereby advised to put more emphasize and to make sure that candidates are comfortable
with the usage of those words. Many candidates lost a mark because they wrote > instead of ≥.

8 (a) 2 B1 for OR n ≥ 5 [n should be an

expression with a variable]

(b) Candidates answered this question well. Even those that failed to get the correct inequality in (a) still
attempted to solve their inequality well.

(b) FT2 M1 for

FT2 for solving their inequality in (a)

QUESTION 9
Many candidates could score at least a mark at this question. Many spoiled their answers by adding the terms that
they got after expanding. They did not realize that the terms were not alike.
9 2 B1 for OR

QUESTION 10
This question was poorly answered. Many candidates struggled to correctly remove the square-root from the left hand
side. It seems there is a need to put more effort in teaching candidates on how to do the operations correctly and in
order. Candidates should also be advised not to write 2 operations in one line of work as this sometimes becomes
unclear and also confusing for them.
10 3
M1 for o.e

M2 for OR o.e

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QUESTION 11
This question was moderately well answered. It was pleasing to see candidates using different methods to solve this
question. Candidates should however be told be careful when using substitution. For some that used substitution,
they went wrong because they did not multiply out well mostly because they did not use brackets when substituting.
11 x=1 4 M1 for AND o.e

y=3 M2 for OR
A2 for obtaining the value of x and y

QUESTION 12
Many candidates struggled in answering this question well. Many failed to get the LCM of the two denominators.
Centers should therefore get the candidates to practice more on such questions to make them comfortable in
answering them. Some that got the correct LCM lost marks in dealing with the –(x – 3) correctly.
12 3

SC1 for OR

M2 for

QUESTION 13

(a) Many candidates answered this question really well. It was however a worry to see that some
candidates could not perform the simple steps that were required to solve such a linear equation.
Some candidates did not change the sign of the numbers when moving them either side of the
equal sign.

(b) Very well answered too. Candidates should be discouraged from firstly expanding out the brackets
and then solving the equation obtained when already given the equation in a factorized format.

13 (a) 2 M1 for OR
/ −1.25 /

(b) or 2 B1 B1 for each answer

QUESTION 14
This question was poorly answered. Since the candidates knew what the answer would be, because it was a show
question, they tried, mostly using wrong log or indices laws, to come out to the required answer. Of course that did not
score them marks. Candidates should be taught that for show questions, they are expected to correctly show all their
working and steps written out clearly for them to score marks. Candidates should also be taught log and indices laws
properly. Many of them struggled, especially, in changing 1x to 3−2x.
9
14 M1 for
M2 for o.e
E1
3

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QUESTION 15

(a) Many candidates could only score 1 mark out of the two allocated. This was mostly because
many tried to write in indices form but failed. Again, candidates struggled to apply indices
laws and log laws properly.

(b) Another poorly answered question. Even for some candidates who got part (a) correct, they
failed to substitute correctly. Instead of substituting m for log 3, many candidates had a wrong
substitution leading to log m.

15 (a) 2 B1 for OR

QUESTION 16
Well answered. Many candidates could figure out the sequence. It was interesting to see candidates somehow
knowing that the common difference was –2 without any working visible. Many listed the terms of the sequence
properly and thus could identify the common difference and the first term.
16 a=8 3 M1 for AND

d = −2 B1 for B1 for

QUESTION 17
Majority of the candidates could recall and correctly substitute into the formula for finding the area of a trapezium.
Hence, this question was well answered.
17 22 2
M1 for o.e OR o.e

QUESTION 18
Part (a) was satisfactorily well answered. However, part (b) was poorly answered. Candidates should be taught how to
define the relationship of two sets using set notation.
18 (a)(i) 1 cao

(a)(ii) 1 cao

(a)(iii) 1 cao

(b) or 1 cao

QUESTION 19

(a) Many candidates had very good attempts in answering this part question. Many of them could at least
score a mark out of 2. Many of those that only scored 1 mark was because they constructed lines that
were not intersecting and therefore failed to get the position R.

(b) This part question was also well answered. However, for part (ii) candidates didn’t realize that the
angle was a bearing and needed to write 095° instead of just writing 95°.

19 (a) 2 B1 B1 for each construction line

SC1 for lines not intersecting but correct

(b)(i) 242° 2 M1 for 180° + 62° OR 360° – 118°

(b)(ii) 095° 2 M1 for 180° – 85o OR 95o or 85 seen

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QUESTION 20
This question was extremely poorly answered. Candidates really struggled to understand the concept of similar
figures. Many could be seen dividing 6 by 3 to obtain 2 but seemingly didn’t know what to do thereafter. Some wrongly
calculated volume of a cylinder using the formula of a circle.
20 240 3
M1 for ratio = 2 or

M2 for 23× 30 OR o.e

QUESTION 21
The whole of this question was very well answered. Only a few candidates struggled in getting the correct entries of
the matrix in part (c) because they seemingly didn’t realize that they had to subtract matrix B from A.
21 (a) 392 1 cao
(b) 59 1 cao
(c) 2 B1 for 2 correct entries

QUESTION 22
This question was also very well answered. Few candidates however seemed to have been confused between the
mean and median as they could be seen arranging the masses in order of size and then taking the average of the
numbers in the middle of the list.
22 (a) 73 1 cao

(b) 12 1 cao

QUESTION 23
This question required candidates to know and apply the angle properties of a quadrilateral inscribed in a circle and
circle geometry in general. Many candidates did not answer this question well. Teachers must give more attention to
circle geometry, ensuring that learners develop a strong understanding of its concepts and applications.
23 2 M1 for
1
1 cao F.T 90º − their (x)
1 cao F.T 180º − their (x)
cao

QUESTION 24

(a) This part question required candidates to complete the square of the given expression. Such
questions have repeated in this course for some time now and still candidates continue to
perform poor. When completing the square of an expression whose leading coefficient is not 1,
candidates should be taught to factor out the leading coefficient. Some candidates who rather
divided across with the leading coefficient and never recovered it in their work or final answer
lost marks unnecessarily.

(b) This part question was moderately well answered. A good number of candidates at least
understood how obtain the coordinates of the turning point from their expression in (a).

24 (a) 3 M1 for

M2 for

(b) (1, 4) FT2 F.T (− their ) B1 for (1, q) OR [p, 4)

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QUESTION 25

(a) Part (i) and (ii) were very well answered. However, some candidates did not get marks in part (iii).
Again candidates should be advised to use brackets when substituting numbers or expression
into a formula or expression. Some candidates knew that they had to substitute 2x + 3 into f(x)
but then did not use brackets and hence failed to expand properly. Some only squared the 3 and
not the 2x.

(b) Very well answered.

25 (a) (i) −7 1 cao

(a) (ii) 2(2x)+3 oe 1 cao

(a)(iii) 2 M1 for OR
(b) 2 M1 for OR
g−1(x)

QUESTION 26
The whole of this question was satisfactorily answered. Although some candidates seemed to know that it is about
coordinate geometry, many did not score marks because of using wrong formulae. For example, in part (a) where they
were expected to calculate a distance many calculated the gradient. Centers are advised to put more emphasis in this
topic.
26 (a) 10 units 2 M1 for o.e

(b) 2
accept M1 for

B1,B1

QUESTION 27

(a) This was very well answered.

(b) This was not very well answered. Many candidates knew the “paths” of how to find but
struggled in finding the vector . Since it was given that = 2 : 1, many candidates
simply thought the length of is 1 and not a CT.

27 (a) 3q oe 1
(b) 2 M1 for OR −2q + p + 3q o.e
(p + q)
FTM1 −2q + p + their(a)
B1,B1

QUESTION 28

(a) Well answered. Candidates should be taught that the names of the transformations are:
translation, rotation, enlargement and reflection. They should not write them as translate, rotate,
enlarge or reflect as it is most times the case.

(b) Very well answered.

(c) Poorly answered. Many candidates are probably on exposed to enlarging with a scale factor
greater than 1 as many of them ended up drawing an image that was bigger than the original.

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28 (a) Translation by vector 2 B1 B1

(b)&(c) On the diagram 1

SC1 for correct enlargement with the wrong

2 centre

QUESTION 29

(a) Very well answered. Many candidates could complete the branches correctly.

(b) Part (i) was also very well answered. However, a good number of candidates did not do well in

part (ii). Many of them simply multiplied which were the probabilities of not late at the
branches.

(c) Very well answered.

29 (a) 2 B1 for any 2 branches correct

(b)(i) 2
M1 for

(b)(ii) 3
FTB1 for OR OR OR OR

seen

FTM2 for + OR OR

1−

QUESTION 30

(a) This part was poorly answered. It seems like candidates were poorly prepared on how to find the
frequency from the cumulative frequency table.

(b) Also poorly answered. Many candidates again seemed not to know what was required of them.

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Many drew bar graphs instead of a cumulative curve. Candidates should be advised to take care
in drawing the curves, many lost marks because their curves were not smooth and also that
some had double lines at some sections. Candidates should also be advised to show the plots
(blobs) in such questions as some of the marks are given for just showing their plotting. A good
number also seemed to have struggled in recognizing the scale that was used on the axes as
many had plots at the wrong places.

(c) (i) In their attempt to find the median, some candidates simply divided 120 by 2 to obtain 60
and did not do anything thereafter. This question was not very well answered.

(ii) Also poorly answered. A good number of candidates seemed not to know how to calculate
the inter-quartile range.

30 (a) 3 B1 for any 2 correct

Amount (£) spent Frequency
100 < A ≤ 150 12
150 < A ≤ 200 17
200 < A ≤ 250 22
250 < A ≤ 300 29
300 < A ≤ 350 17
350 < A ≤ 400 10

(b) P2 all points plotted correctly

P1 for 4 – 7 points plotted correctly
C1 accept ruled

(c) (i) £235 - £245 1 cao

(c) (ii) £125-135 2 B1 for Q3 in 290 to 300 AND Q1 in 160

to 170

QUESTION 31
Poorly answered. Many candidates did not show an understanding of how to calculate the frequency from the
frequency density graph.
31 70 3 B1
120 B1
100 B1

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METALWORK AND WELDING
6188
Paper 1

GENERAL COMMENTS

Metalwork and Welding is one of the popular vocational subjects in the schools, but due to lack of facilities, only a
few schools can offer it. It could be observed during national marking that all candidates who sat for the examination
completed within the given time frame. The Chief Marker would like to encourage Centre’s to continue the good efforts
to the benefit of the Namibian child despite various challenges at different centres. It is strongly advised for centre’s to
get candidates accustomed to regular practical activities from as early as from the Junior Secondary phase in order to
get them thoroughly prepared for the NSSCO external examination.

The Chief marker observed that Centre’s still struggle to correctly answer questions that require candidates to describe
and explain processes, e.g. painting process, etc. These processes can only be mastered if candidates are allowed
to perform these processes practically. Centre’s also need to pay attention to problem solving questions and practical
application questions that require candidates to sketch and note manufacturing processes

The candidates entered for this subject really tried their level best to improve the quality of work even though it was
observed at some centres where candidates left questions without attempting them.

Good responses were received from the centres regarding the quality and standard of the question paper. No report was
received indicating any challenges with regard to the question paper in terms of time, language and figures or graphic.
From the responses of the candidates based on the questions, there were no problems answering the questions, it was
well interpreted. However, fair responses were given for most questions and candidates could score good marks.

It is evident that the quality of the candidates work or answers is better than the previous years which made the
performance better also compared to the previous years. All centres are encouraged to keep up the good work and to
ensure timely preparation of our candidates for their National Examinations

Comments on specific questions

Section A

1 Fig. 1 shows a cut off saw commonly used on metal.

Fig. 1

(a) List two items of safety wear that are required when operating a cut off saw.
Most of the learners performed well in this question, they were able to name personal protective equipment
required when operating the cut off saw
Possible answer
1. Wearing of eye goggles to protect eyes from sparks.
2. Wearing of a leather apron to protect clothes from flying particles and sparks
3. Consider all personal protective (Any 2) [2]

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(b) The cut off saw is a power tool. Explain one reason why moving parts of power tools have guards.
Almost all learners scored maximum marks.
Possible answer
To prevent injury (1) from moving parts (1)
To make sure hands (1) do not make contact with moving parts (1) (Any 2)
To protect users from moving parts and sparks [2]

2 Fig. 2 shows a metal joint.

Fig. 2

(a) (i) Identify the part labelled X in Fig. 2.

Majority of the candidates failed to identify the object at X.
Possible answer
A: Gusset plate / gusset [1]
(ii) State the function of the part labelled X in Fig. 2.
Most candidates were able to relate the purpose of the gusset plate. Possible answers were:
Possible answer
To give additional support to the joint
To hold the channels together
To strengthen the joint [1]

(b) Fig. 3 shows a welding symbol.

Fig. 3
Few candidates where able to draw the single fillet weld with a weld bead shown on the correct side
Possible answer
Single fillet weld joint shown [1]
Weld bead correctly shown [1]
Symbol correctly indicated [1]

3. Name one item from a first aid kit that is used when checking airway, breathing and circulation (ABC).
Most candidates got this mark and mouth piece was the dominant answer
Possible answer
CPR Pocket Mask
Mouth piece [1]

4. Explain the main function of National Occupational Safety Association (NOSA).

Majority of the candidates where listing safety rules instead of the functions of the Association
National Occupational Safety Association provides safety, occupational health and environmental risk
management services and solutions
Possible answer
Promotes safety in workshops and workplaces [2]

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5. Fig. 4 shows a steel rule

Fig. 4
State the unit of measurement used on a steel rule.
Candidates where all able to score this mark
Possible answer
mm (millimetres)
Also consider CM (centimetres) [1]

6. Fig. 5 shows two forms of testing destructive testing and non-destructive testing.

Fig. 5
Define the following terms.
Most candidates attempted this question, with most of them scoring marks, they were able to recall the
definitions.

Possible answer
Destructive testing
Destructive testing is accomplished by forcing a part to fail and with destroying of tested components (1) by the
application of various load factors (1). [2]
Non-destructive testing
Non-destructive testing does not affect the part’s future usefulness, as no component is destroyed.(1) And leaves
the part and its component materials intact (1). [2]

7. Complete the table below.

This question was well answered by all centres.

Possible answer
Name of tool Use of tool

(ii) Pliers are a multi-purpose hand tool with opposing jaws for
[2]
gripping, bending and cutting.
(i)…pliers (combination)

(iv) to cut and trim sheet metal and other thin yet tough materials [2]
(iii) tin snip

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8. Define the following properties of metals:
Majority of the candidates struggled in defining this terms.

(a) Brittleness

Possible answer
A material will fracture (1) with little or no deformation (1). [2]

(b) Thermal conductivity

Possible answer
The ability of metal to transfer heat and electricity from one point to another. [2]

9 Complete the table on metals below.

Majority of the candidates could not recall the composition of bronze, centres should put in more emphasis on
metals their composition and properties
Possible answer
Metals Composition Uses Properties
Bronze bronze is made up of Used in the construction of sculptures, • Reddish-brown color,
copper and tin (2) musical instruments and medals, and in • Hardness and brittleness
industrial applications such as bushings
• Melting point of 950 degrees
and bearings Any 1 (1)
Celsius.
• High resistance to corrosion from
saltwater.
• Exhibits low metal-to-metal friction
• Conductor of heat and electricity
Any 1 (1)
[4]

10. Give another name for high carbon steel.

Only few candidates where able to score a mark here
Possible answer
Tool steel [1]

Section B

11. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.

(a) Fig. 6 shows an eye bolt that is made from mild steel.

Fig. 6

(a) (i) State the tool used to cut the external thread on the eye bolt.
Most centres were able to answer this question, with some candidates writing it in full as tap and die.
Possible answer
Die [1]

(ii) Describe a method of cutting the external thread on the eye bolt by hand.
This question was fairly attempted by some centres.

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Possible answer
• Insert the work piece into the holding device (bench vice).
• Insert the die stock with the appropriate holder into the tailstock Please pay attention to the
dimension!
• Use proper lubricant (in our case conventional cutting oil).
• Place the die on the work piece and start to cut it.
• After the chamfer, the die automatically cuts the external thread on the work piece due to its pitch
angle and the thread is finished.
• Turn die clockwise two thirds of a rotation and then one quarter one quarter anti clockwise to
ensure the cuttings are freed [3]
(iii) State two reasons why lubricant is used during the screw cutting process
The question was well answered by most centres
Possible answer
It allows the tool to move over the surface of the material with minimum friction and therefore
minimizes the power required and the heat generated. [2]

(b) Use sketches and notes to show how part Y on the bolt could be formed
Majority of the candidates failed to properly answer this question, candidates still struggle to come up with
reasonable sketches showing the manufacturing process and appropriate notes to explain their processes
Possible answer
Appropriate drawing shown [1]
Sensible diagrams with suitable notes and labels [2]
Sequenced and clear demonstrating for understanding of production [1]

12 Fig. 7 shows oxy-acetylene welding equipment.

Fig. 7

(a) Name the colour of the hoses fitted to the: some candidates switched up this answers

(i) Oxygen cylinder: Blue

Acetylene cylinder: Red [2]
(ii) Describe how oxy-acetylene cylinders should be stored safely
This question was well answered by most candidates
Always store compressed acetylene gas cylinders in areas that are:
a. Dry and well ventilated
b. Equipped with fire fighting equipment such as sprinklers
c. Free from sources of ignition and heat
d. Easily accessible, yet away from main traffic zones, elevators, or staircases
e. Labelled with warning signs.
f. Cylinders must be stored upright
g. Store full cylinders separate from empty ones [3]

A safe method of testing for gas leaks.

Well answered by majority of the candidates
Gas leak detector/Apply soapy water (1) with a brush on the hoses and connections to test for signs of
bubbles (1). [2]

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(b) Use sketches and notes to illustrate the leftward welding technique.
Some candidates did not attempt to answer this question and most that tried could not fully sketch the
correct method
Possible answer
• appropriate Diagram drawn [1]
• Sensible diagrams with suitable notes and labels [2]

13 (a) Fig 8 shows a candle holder.

(i) Name a suitable metal for part A and give a reason for your choice.
Question well answered by candidates
Possible answer
Name: Mild steel sheet, galvanized sheet, copper sheet, aluminium sheet, stainless steel [1]
Reason: Flexibility to weld.
Cost-effective.
Ductility.
The gift of recycling (Any 2) [1]
(ii) State a suitable method of joining part A to part B.
Possible answer
Arc welding or gas welding also consider any appropriate joining methods for metals (Any 1) [1]
(iii) Use sketches and notes to show a modification to the candle holder shown in Fig. 8 that
will make the base more stable.
Most candidates where able to sketch a suitable solution for the base
Possible answer
Appropriate improvement shown (1)
Relevant notes (2)
Suitable joint (1) [4]

(b) Fig. 9 shows a butt weld.

Fig. 9
Use sketches to show how the butt weld in Fig. 9 must be welded.
Well answered by most candidates but difficulties where observed at the V preparation of work pieces
Possible answer
Butt joint drawn [1]
correct beads shown on both sieds with V preparation of work pieces. [2]

14 (a) State two causes of incomplete penetration when welding.

Majority of the candidates were able to answer this question with a few mixing up the causes from the other
welding defects

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Possible answer
• Moving the bead too fast which means little deposition of the weld metal
• Too much space between welded metal can cause incomplete penetration.
• Using too low amperage which may not be enough to melt the metal completely
• Poor edge preparation of the work pieces
• Angle of the electrode (Any 2) [2]

(b) State remedies to eliminate the following welding defects:

Question well answered by all centres
Possible answer
(i) Slag inclusion
• Increase the welding current to appropriate levels.
• Increase the welding speed so that weld and slag don’t mix.
• Clean all surfaces including all edges and previous welds.
• Ensure that the weld pool cools down moderately, not to fast
but not too slow either
• Maintain an appropriate angle (Any 2) [2]
(ii) Spatter:
• Use the right polarity as per weld requirements.
• Adjust the amperage settings. (decrease current)
• Clean up the surface before you do any welding.
• Increase the plate angle according to the condition of the welding
• Reduce the arc length
• Use an appropriate electrode (Any 2) [2]

(c) Explain why non-destructive tests are preferred to destructive tests.

This question was attempted with mixed feeling by some candidates that focused on the definition of Non-
destructive rather than saying the reasons why it is preferred
Safety issues can be easily identified. Non-destructive testing is used to ascertain whether or not a
component is in need of repair, and whether it is safe to use.
Possible answer
In the process, no material that is being tested is damaged compared to destructive testing. [2]

(d) Name two flaws that could be found during the visual inspection of a welded joint.

This question was well answered by the candidates

The most common flaws found in weld NDT are:
Possible answer
Flaws caused by incorrect technique or setup in how the weld was created
Environmental damage to the weld (i.e., temperature extremes, the presence of moisture, or the use of
incompatible metals)
Also consider all the welding defects (Any 2) [2]

[10]

15 Fig. 10 shows multiple views of shaped mild steel flat bar.

Fig. 10

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(a) Fig. 10 show multiple views of shaped mild steel flat bar.
Most candidates failed to score marks here as they were not able to sketch processes as required.
Describe how to measure and mark the curved ends in Fig. 10.
Possible answer
• Appropriate Diagram drawn [1]
• Sensible diagrams with suitable notes and labels [2]
How to mark out and drill the hole:
• Hole drawn [1]
• Sensible diagrams with suitable notes and labels [2]

(b) Describe how to prepare and apply a paint finish to the shaped mild steel flat bar shown in Fig. 10
Majority of the candidates focused only on the preparation of the works peiece and did not consider how to
apply the paint

Possible answer
Start with a medium grit sand paper and finish with a fine grit paper (1).
Use a high quality primer with a hard finish to seal the cabinet (1) and prepare it to accept paint. After the
primer dries, sand it perfectly smooth again (1).
Use a brush to apply paint and wait until it dries (1). [4]

16 (a) Explain how to care for and maintain of hand files

This question was well answered by the candidates, it proves that candidates knows their tools.
Possible answer
- clean files regularly with a file card
- store files in an appropriate manner, e.g. hanging them
- do not drop files
- use the files for the intended purpose
- ensure the handle is firmly attached to the file
Any appropriate 3 answers [3]

(b) Fig. 11 shows a vehicle being supported in an unsafe way on a jack during maintenance.

Fig. 11
This question was fairly answered by some of the candidates were able to come up with a suitable solution
but they could not sketch and note the processes of the solution

Possible answer
Suitable device drawn (2)
Appropriate notes (2)
Appropriate rendering (1)
Materials and processes indicated (2) [7]

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17 (a) Fig. 12 shows a Vernier calliper at A and micrometer at B.

Fig. 12
This question was poorly answered by all centres, candidates failed to interpret the readings correctly from
the measuring tools.
Possible answer
A: 11 + 0.6 (1)
= 11.6 mm (1) [2]

B: 7 + 0.5 + 0.24 (1)

= 7.74 mm (1) [2]

(b) Fig. 13 shows details of a steel gate.

Fig. 13
This question was fairly answered, some candidates came up with mechanisms that are suitable but wrongly
placed, some candidates came up with solutions that are not suitable as the gate won’t be able to open and
close anymore. Emphasis should be made on the sketches and notes of processes.
Possible answer
Suitable Mechanism drawn (2)
Appropriate notes (2)
Appropriate rendering (1)
Materials and processes indicated (1) [6]
[10]

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6188
Paper 2

General Comments

The DNEA would like to thank all the center’s for the efforts by providing resources such as materials and tools ready
for the examination. Photographic evidence also show that some centers do not have the proper required tools and
had to improvise to complete their practical examination. This kind of practice by regions are uncalled for and must be
discouraged.

In order to facilitate a seamless and effective practical examination, centres are urged to make sure that the procurement
of materials and equipment is done well in advance. It was also observed that some centres only include two or
three photographic evidence per candidate and some still in black and white. Centre’s are hereby encouraged to
include enough photographic evidence that shows various stages in the making of the examination product. Possible
stages to be shown includes but not limited to, Measuring and marking out, cutting, joining, bending, drilling, finishing.
Photographic evidence can be submitted in USBs or rewritable Discs.

During the national marking it could be observed that majority of candidates who sat for the examination completed
within the given timeframe as there was no report submitted with regard to time. The Chief marker would like to
encourage center’s to continue the good efforts to the benefit of the Namibian child despite various challenges at
different centre’s. It is strongly advised for centers to expose candidates to regular practical activities as early as from
the Junior Secondary phase in order to get them thoroughly prepared for the NSSCO external examination. Centres are
also encourage to conduct practical examination for Mock examinations, this will expose the candidates and be aware
of what to expect in the National examination. It will prepare them with regard to speed accuracy and safe practice.

Certain centers still neglect to familiarize themselves with the teachers’ instructions so that they can make the appropriate
and essential preparations of the examination rooms, despite the fact that it was made very clear that materials and
tools must be tested four days prior to the actual examination date.

Centers are yet reminded not to mark part A and part C, it was observed that some centres internal moderators changed
the marks allocated by the teacher at the different sections in the summary form, this is highly discouraged and a report
should always be attached stating reasons and this can only be done if the moderator is also an expert in the subject.
Teachers are also encourage to be consistent with the allocation of marks and be fair.

Part A

1. State two holding devices that would be used during the manufacture of the stool.
This question was well answered, candidates are aware of the Holding devices used in metalwork and welding
worksrooms.

Answer
Bench Vice
Hand Vice
G Clamp
V blocks
Pliers (Any two) [2]

2. State two items of safety clothing that must be worn during arc welding.
All candidates answered this question as they are aware of the safety gears to be worn when welding

Answer
Welding helmet
Leather Apron
leather spats
Leather handgloves
Overalls
Safety boots (Any two) [2]

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3. List one safety precaution that must be observed when cutting mild steel.
This question was well answered by all centres

Answer
Avoid sharp corners and edges;
remove burss; safe edging‘;
Make sure moving parts (curring disks, drill bits) are secured
Dont use broken or damaged discs/ drill bits.
Switch machine off when work is completed.
Avoid frayed or defective cables. (other possible answers) (Any one) [1]
[5]

Part B Practical ( Making of the artefact/product)

Evaluation Indicators Mark
2 Interpretation of data 5
3 Practical skills - marking out 5
4 Practical skills - safe working 5
5 Practical skills - correct use of tools 5
Practical skills - Joint 1 5
6
Practical skills - Joint 2 5
7 Accuracy of product 5
8 Practical skills neatness 5
TOTAL 40

PART B: Practical assessment criteria

Assessment Objectives Level of Response Mark Max.

Range Mark
2 Interpretation of Limited understanding and inaccurate result of the item made. 0-1 5
data
Partial understanding of the specifications given but not producing
an accurate item. 2-3

Excellently understanding of the specifications given and producing

an accurate item. 4-5
3 Practical skills Poor marking out skills, not using the correct tools. 0-1 5
Marking out
Moderate marking out skills, using the correct tools incorrectly.
2-3
Excellent marking out skills, using all tools correctly.

4-5
4 Practical skills Applying the safety measures using tools. 0-1 5
Safe working
Applying some safety rules, but still with the risk of injuries. 2-3

Applying all safety rules and works without 4-5

risk.
5 Practical skills Not using the tools in the correct manner. 0-1 5
Correct use of
tools Using tools as they should be, but lacks the skill to do it correctly’ 2-3

Uses all tools correctly.

4-5

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6 Practical skills Joint is not according to the specifications given. 0-1 5
Joint 1
Joint is correct according to measurements given, but is inaccurate 2-3
more than a millimeter and fits too loosely or cannot be assembled.

Joint is accurate and has a snug fit.

4-5
Joint is not according to the specifications given.
Practical skills 0-1 5
Joint 2 Joint is correct according to measurements given, but is inaccurate
more than a millimeter and fits too loosely or cannot be assembled. 2-3

Joint is accurate and has a good fit.

4-5
7 Accuracy and quality Joints are not according to the specifications given. 0-1 5
of
products Joints is correct according to measurements given, but is inaccurate
more than a millimeter and is not cut straight. 2-3

Joints is accurate and has a smooth finish.

4-5
8 Practical skills The length of parts are incorrect, surfaces are un neat and the 0-1 5
Neatness product has an overall poor appearance

Parts may be cut inaccurately, but the appearance and surfaces are
fair. 2-3

The lengths and joints are cut according to sizes given and the
surfaces are relatively smooth/ straight.
4-5
Total 40

Part C

1. Suggest alternative materials that could be used for:

Many candidates failed to answer this part as they repeated the same materials that where used in stead of
writing the other possible materials

Part A: Top
Zinc sheet
Mild steel sheets
Aluminium sheets (Any one) [1]

Part D: leg
Round rod
Angle iron
MS Pipe
Round tube (Any one) [1]

2. Explain the purpose of Part E foot piece.

The question was well answered by most candidates

Stability
Preventing it from penetrating or damaging the floor surface. [2]

3. Give one property that makes mild steel a suitable material for the laboratory stool.
This question was fairly answered by some candidates, with some writing properties not related to the type of
metal

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Malleability
Machinable (Can be welded)
Hardness (Any one) [1]
[5]

[50]

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Metalwork and Welding Practical Examination Assessment Summary Form (NSSCO)

622
Please read the instructions printed overleaf before completing this form.
Centre number Centre name November
2

Teaching Part A Part C Total Internally Externally

group/set Part B (practical) mark moderated moderated
Short Making (max 40) mark mark
questions
(Planning) Reflection
Interpretation Practical Practical Practical Accuracy Neatness (Questions)
of skills skills skills and
Candidate data Marking safe correct Joining Cutting quality
Candidate name
number out working use Part and of
of A to shaping product
tools Part D Part A
&
Part B

(max 5) (max 5) (max 5) (max 5) (max 5) (max 5) (max 5) (max 5) (max 5) (max 5) (max 40) (max 40) (max 50)

Name of teacher completing Signature Date

this form
Name of internal moderator Signature Date

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Paper 3

GENERAL COMMENTS

There has been a slight improvement in the quality of coursework, though several issues still require attention. The
number of entries has increased compared to 2023, and centres are encouraged to continue promoting the subject to
further boost enrolment in the future. While the quality of coursework for NSSCO 2024 has shown some improvement,
errors were still observed at certain centres. Specifically, centres need to explain to candidates the differences between
the structure of Design and Technology folders and Metalwork and Welding folders. For Metalwork, the first stage should
involve exploring and generating ideas, whereas Design and Technology starts with analysing the situation to create a
brief. Misunderstanding these structures at some centres has led to wasted time and resources.

Additionally, the table of contents in the coursework should be aligned with the assessment criteria found on
page 25 of the NSSCO Metalwork and Welding syllabus. It is critical to stress that coursework submissions, which
count for 50% of the final mark, are made on time. It is concerning that in some cases, not all candidates submitted their
work, and no evidence of measures taken to address this issue was provided. Schools management and parents should
be involved in addressing such situations well before the coursework is due for external moderation.

Many centres are failing to provide adequate attention to coursework from the beginning of the Senior Secondary
phase. Coursework should begin in Grade 10 and be ready for submission by the beginning of second semester
of Grade 11, yet it is clear that many candidates are not spending enough time on it. Regional offices should offer
Continuous Professional Development (CPD) for teachers of Metalwork and Welding and collaborate with relevant
stakeholders (NIED, DNEA) to provide regular support. Effective internal moderation should be implemented to prevent
basic calculation errors in coursework assessment forms.

While there has been progress in the marking of coursework, some centres remain lenient in awarding high marks, even
when candidates work does not meet the expected standards. However, many centres successfully completed their
projects, which is commendable. Regional offices, Principals, and Heads of Departments must ensure that coursework
and projects are monitored throughout Grades 10 and 11, and internal moderation should be completed before marks
are sent to the Directorate of National Examinations and Assessment (DNEA) for external moderation.

Centres and Regional offices must also ensure that centres receive the necessary materials and tools in time
for students to produce high-quality models. The DNEA observed that some centres projects were affected by a
lack of resources. It is unacceptable for candidates to receive zero marks due to missing coursework when no evidence
or effort from teachers, HODs, or principals has been shown to address the issue. Since coursework is expected to be
completed over two years, it should not be rushed in just one week, as seen at some centres.

Some candidates failed to submit photographic evidence of their products, yet centres still awarded marks for the quality
of the products. This issue needs to be addressed, as photographic evidence is essential for evaluating candidates work.
A few candidates also made poor problem selections, showing limited creativity and design interpretation. Although the
work samples submitted for moderation were generally appropriate, some centres did not apply the assessment criteria
at the correct level. All folders should include clear photographic evidence of the artefacts, showing the final product in
detail to justify the marks awarded. Centres must make sure they receive their centre report in order to address
their specific comments.

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC ASSESSMENT HEADINGS

Generation and Exploration of Ideas

Candidates are expected to demonstrate original design creativity, not simply copy ideas from books or other sources.
However, it was observed that some candidates downloaded ideas from the internet. Candidates should present
a wide range of ideas (at least four), supported by annotated sketches. Too often, candidates provided only formal
drawings without measurements, limiting their ability to demonstrate their design skills and resulting in them focusing
on a single concept. Candidates should be encouraged to present their ideas through sketches and finer details,
including annotations explaining how the ideas align with the project specifications.

Development of Proposed Solution

In this section, candidates should take their chosen idea and make detailed decisions regarding the shape, materials,
and construction methods for the final product. The development of proposed solutions and production planning

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remains a concern. Candidates should demonstrate true design creativity through annotated sketches. While
some candidates excelled in the presentation of layout, diagrams, labels, and the use of colour, others struggled to
effectively communicate their design work. In some cases, it was difficult to follow how candidates applied their final
ideas, as they simply selected one of their initial ideas without further development.

Planning for Production

Candidates should be encouraged to use various communication and presentation techniques throughout the design
process. However, working drawings continue to be a challenge for many candidates. Teachers must guide students
in creating detailed plans that clearly outline the cutting list, tools and materials, time schedule and sequence of
operations for constructing the final product.

Product realisation
Candidates should be commended for using a variety of metals in their projects. Photographic evidence showed that
some candidates were capable of working independently and achieving an acceptable standard of construction and
finish. However, it remains a common issue for candidates not to submit photographic evidence, which is crucial for
assessing the quality of their products. Centres must discourage this practice. Additionally, while a range of metals
was used, some centres utilized materials unsuitable for producing high-quality products.

Testing and Evaluation

Candidates provided photographic evidence of product testing, which is commendable. Candidates should ensure that
their evaluation links the product outcomes to the original specifications and includes suggestions for modifications or
improvements. Centres are encouraged to use the full range of marks when assessing the functionality and purpose
of the products. In this section, candidates must thoroughly evaluate and test the product’s specifications to secure
maximum marks. It is important that suggestions for improvements and further modifications are included.

CONCLUSION
Centres tend to award full marks only in the high band, which may not be appropriate. It’s important to assess whether
the product meets its intended purpose, with careful consideration given to its functionality and alignment with the
original design specifications. There are several areas for improvement in the coursework and assessment process
for Paper 3. The report stresses the need for clear guidelines, proper resource allocation, and teacher training to
enhance the quality of education and evaluation. Consistent and early monitoring of candidates progress throughout
the two-year coursework period is essential for success.

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MOTOR MECHANICS
6189
Paper 1

General Comments:

It is our fifth year that National marking took place in Motor Mechanics. The total number of entries in Motor Mechanics
have increased from almost 95 in 2020 to 145 in 2024. The impression is that our candidates really like the subject. This
also demonstrates the demand of Motor Mechanics in the Namibian society.

General observations:

• It was evident that the candidates could not answer many questions, leaving blank spaces on the question paper.
• During the national marking it could be observed that all candidates who sat for the examination completed the
examination within the given time frame.
• The number of absent candidates still remains a concern.
• Content that was covered in the Junior Secondary phase and appears now in the current examination could not be
answered by the candidates.

Recommendations:
• Subject teachers must study their syllabuses and subject policy guides for their subject in order to familiarize
themselves with the content in it.
• The teacher must emphasize that the content of the Junior Phase is important and candidates can be examined
about it.
• Subject teachers must pay more attention to structured question related questions which can also relate to more
practical activities.

Possible answers to the questions in the examination:

Section A

1 State four categories of occupational health and safety measures.

Most of the candidates struggled with this question.
The correct answer should be:
• Biological hazards
• Stress hazards
• Ergonomics hazards
• Chemical hazards
• Physical hazards. (Any 4) [4]

2 Give the meaning of the signs labelled A and B.

Candidates could not correctly identify these safety symbols.
The correct answer should be:
A Be careful of overhead loads
Lifting of heavy loads (Any 1)
B Be careful, elevation in floor.
Watch your step
Uneven surfaces. (Any 1) [2]

3 Lubricating oils are classified according to certain characteristics, indicated by numbersand letters. An oil can
has SAE 20 W written on it. Lubricating oils are classified according to certain characteristics,
State what the following mean:
20: ……………………………………………………………………………………...
W: ……………………………………………………………………………………… [2]
Most candidates could not answer this question correctly.

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The correct answer should be:
20 – Viscosity of oil at cooler temperatures.
W – The viscosity given is in colder or winter time temperatures. [2]

4 Give three reasons why it is important to take good care of tools.

Answered well by most of the candidates.
The correct answer could be:
• It is part of good housekeeping practice.
• It makes tools safer to use.
• Tools are expensive.
• To last longer
• Any acceptable answer. (Any 3) [3]

5 Differentiate between electromotive force (emf) and potential difference (pd).

Candidates could not differentiate between the two.
The correct answer could be:
Electromotive force (emf):
• The voltage that is measured between the two terminals of a power source with the power source
disconnected.
• Independent from resistance in a current. (Any 1) [1]
Potential difference (pd):
• The voltage that is measured between the two terminals of a power source when a current runs through it.
• Directly proportional to resistance. (Any 1) [1]

6 Explain how you would react if you suspect that someone had been exposed to an electric shock.
Most candidates scored in this question.
The correct answer should be:
• Turn of the source of electricity.
• If not move the source away from the victim using a dry material such as a stick or plank.
• Apply CPR, if the victim show no signs of circulation ex breathing.
• Call for medical help (Any 3 in order 3)
(Any 3 not in order 2) [3]

7 Apart from overalls, list other Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) that would be needed in the following
situations.
Answered very well by the candidates.
The correct answers are:
• Handling a car battery:
Safety gloves/safety boots/ safety goggles/ safety mask (Any 1)
• Grinding mild steel
Safety goggles / face shield / leather apron/ safety gloves (Any1)
• Preventing dust inhalation:
Dust mask / Respirator (Any 1)
• Protecting your hearing from loud noises:
Ear plugs / Ear muffs/ ear buds (Any 1)
• Washing parts with chemicals:
PVC-gloves / Safety goggles/ dust mask/ apron/ safety boots
(Any 1) [5]

8 Suggest what combination he would use to measure

Not well answered by some candidates.
The correct answer is:
• 0.2 mm:
0.08 () + 0.12 () [2]
• 0.095 mm:
0.015 () + 0.08() [2]

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9 Give two reasons why clutch pedal free play is important.
Not well answered by the candidates.
The correct answer could be:
• To prevent the release bearing to work unnecessarily and continuously.
• To prevent the clutch from slipping.
• To ensure the full engagement of the clutch when applied (Any 2) [2]

10 Name three functions of tyres on a motor vehicle.

Most candidates could not answered this question well.
The correct answer could be:
• Carries the weight of the vehicle.
• Withstand load transfers during accelerating and braking.
• Maintains and/or change the direction of travel of the vehicle.
• Transmits the energy from the engine to the ground so that the vehicle can move forward.
• Absorbs road shocks. (Any 3) [3]

[30]

Section B

11 (a) Give three reasons why the low engine oil pressure warning light will light up when there is enough
oil in the sump.
Moderately answered by the candidates.
The correct answer should be:
• Oil pump failure.
• Pressure relief valve stuck in the open position.
• Defective oil pressure switch
• Low idling speed
• Blocked oil filter.
• Too low oil pressure. (Any 3) [3]

(b) List three functions of the piston in an engine.

Answered well by most candidates.
The correct answer could be:
• Causes a vacuum in the cylinder during the intake stroke.
• Forces out burnt gases during the exhaust stroke.
• Compresses the air-fuel mixture in the combustion chamber during the compression stroke.
• Transfers the force of the expanding gases to the crankshaft during the power stroke. (Any 3) [3]

(c) Differentiate between camshaft and crankshaft.

Well answered by the candidates.
Correct answer is above.
Camshaft:
• Opens and closes the valves at predetermined times.
• Converts the rotary movement of the camshaft into the reciprocal movement of the valves. (2x1) [2]
Crankshaft:
• Crankshaft gear drives the camshaft gear.
• Converts the reciprocating movement of the pistons into rotating movement. (2x1) [2]

12. (a) State the units of measurement for the following:

Most candidates scored marks here.
The correct answers should be:
Electromotive force:
• Volts (V)
Current:
• Ampere (A) [2]

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(b) An electric circuit consists of three resistors, 20 Ω, 30 Ω, and 40 Ω allconnected in parallel to a battery
with an electromotive force of 10 V.

(i) Draw the electric circuit in the space below.

Most candidates failed to score full marks here.
The correct answer must be:

• correct electrical symbols (2)

• correct circuit layout (1)
• neatness (1) [4]
(ii) Calculate:
Candidates failed to score here.
The correct answers should be:

Total resistance offered to the current flow.

[2]
Total current

[2]

13. (a) Name the parts labelled A – E shown in Fig. 3.

Candidates failed to score in this section.
The correct answers should be:
A – Steel Balls
B – Inner ball race
C – Rubber boot
D – Outer ball race
E – Steel cage [5]

(b) Name the drive shaft joint shown in Fig. 3.

Most scored a mark here.
The correct answer is:
CV-joint / Constant Velocity joint. [1]

(c) List four advantages of the drive shaft joint shown in Fig. 3.
Almost all candidates failed to score here.
The correct answer could be:
• Has a large operating angle.
• Transfers power from the axles without interfering with the rotational speed.
• Reduces friction in that area
• Allows you to drive over bumps without any problems to steering. [4]

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14 (a) Name the parts labelled A – E shown in Fig. 4.
Candidates scored moderate here.
The correct answer is:
A – Input shaft/Pilot/spigot shaft
B – 2nd Gear
C – Output shaft/main shaft.
D – Reverse idler gear
E – Counter shaft / Layshaft [5]

(b) Give three possible causes for a gearbox to be noisy when in neutral position.
Candidates scored a low mark here.
The correct answer is:
• Low oil level
• Worn gears
• Worn bearings
• Loose components in gearbox. (Any 3) [3]

(c) State two functions of the interlocking device used in a manual gearbox.
Only a few candidates could scored full marks here.
The correct answer is:
• It prevents two gears to be engaged at the same time.
• It keeps the selected gear in place. [2]

15 Interpret each reading and diagnose the condition of each battery.

(i) Candidates could not interpret the reading.

The correct answer is:
• Battery is dead /very weak. [2]
(ii) Candidates failed to interpret the reading
The correct answer is:
• Intermediate condition. [2]
(iii) Candidates scored good marks.
The correct answer is:
• Battery is in good condition [2]
(iv) Candidates failed to score here.
The correct answer is:
• Battery in bad condition [2]
(v) Most candidates scored here:
The correct answer is:
• Battery in good condition [2]

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16 Complete the table below by filling in one possible cause of the condition,as well as one corrective action
to be taken for each condition.
A few candidates could not score full marks here.
The correct answer could be:

[10]

17 (a) Identify the type of cooling system shown in Fig. 5.

Candidates scored full marks here.
The correct answer is:
Direct cooling system / Air cooling system. [1]

• Check tyre pressures in all tyres is at the manufacturer's recommended pressures. 1

• (Park car a distance from a wall or garage door)(), (with the front of the car aimed at the wall)(). 2

• Bounce the car a couple of times on all four corners to make sure that the shocks are levelled. 1

• Measure the distance to the ground from both headlights to ensure that the suspension itself is
1
level.

• Switch lights on low beam. 1

• (Mark the horizontal and vertical centre lines of the headlight beams with masking tape)() (to
2
make two T’s on the wall or garage door)().

• Place a spirit level between the two marked centre lines to see if they are even. 1

• If they are not even, use a tape measure to measure how far up the wall the lower mark is and
1
lower the other centre line marker to the same height.

• Locate the adjusting screws. 1

• (Block one headlight)() (while adjusting and testing the other)(). 2

• Turn headlights on and off while making the proper adjustments to the headlights. 1

• After adjusting look at the light pattern on the wall. 1

• The top of the most intense part of the beam should be even with, or just below the centre of the
1
line of tape.

• The majority of the intense part of the beam should be to the left of the vertical line. 1

• Repeat the process on the other side of the headlight as well. 2

[20]

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Part C: Reflection

1 Give two reasons why it is necessary to adjust headlights on a car.

Candidates performed well in this part.
The correct answer should be:
• Your headlights allow you to see the road clearly at all times. ()
• Improper adjusted headlights can blind other drivers and make it harder for you to see. () [2]

2 Describe how the positioning of a car is done before headlight adjustment is undertaken.
Candidates performed well in this part.
The correct answer should be:
Park the a distance from a dark wall or garage door, with the front of the car aimed at the wall. ()
• Bounce the car a couple of times on all four corners to make sure that the shocks are levelled. ()
• Measure the distance to the ground from both headlights to ensure that the suspension itself is level. ()
[3]

3 Explain how you made sure that both headlights were level.
Candidates scored in this part.
The correct answer should be:
• Switch lights on Low beam. ()
• Mark the horizontal and vertical centre lines of the headlight beams with
masking tape to make two T’s on the wall or garage door. ()
• Place a spirit level between the two marked centre lines to see if they are even ().
• If they are not even, use a tape measure to measure how far up the wall the
lower mark is and lower the other centre line marker to the same height. ()
• Centre lines should not be higher than 1.1 m from the ground. () [5]
[10]

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6189
Paper 3

GENERAL COMMENTS

Each year the quality of the coursework is getting better and better. First a word of appreciation for NIED that facilitated
a workshop in Swakopmund during May this year. The effects of that workshop were clearly visible during the current
moderation of the coursework .It was a huge improvement. A word of appreciation to all the centres that are offering
Motor Mechanics! The efforts that you have put in were just remarkable!

It is the fifth time that assessment took place in this subject of Motor Mechanics since it was introduced in 2019. The
number of entries also increased (from 120 to 145), showing that there is a huge interest in Motor Mechanics. The
quality of coursework that were handed in, improved a lot. We can still and will improve and we need to improve.

Centres must make sure that they receive the following documents:
• Centre Report
• Examiner’s Report.

They must study and understand these documents in order to help them to improve in the subject. Recommendations
must be implemented at the centres that offers Motor Mechanics.

The coursework starts in Grade 10 and should be completed in the second term of Grade 11. Centres have ample time
to finish the coursework. Centres must use the prescribed checklist for marking. They must their utmost best to avoid
the tendency of absent

In some cases there were samples of work presented for moderation that were not acceptable.

The need for more clearly photographic evidence in some cases were there. Candidates in that cases lost valuable
marks.

All coursework must include clear photographic evidence. A decision was taken that the photographic evidence can be
put on a USB, provided that the USB do not disappear. The steps together with either a heading or short description
of each step, must accompany each photo to support the awarding of marks. It is advisable that the subject teacher
must be held responsible for the taking of the photos and not the candidate. Candidates do not always have the
necessary facilities to provide the photographic evidence. The checklist marked by the teacher must be included.

Regional Offices should give continuous professional development (CPD) programmes for teachers teaching Motor
Mechanics. If possible, networking with DNEA, NIED and other regions with Senior Education Officers as well as
relevant stakeholders should be initiated to have teachers capacitated and assisted on a regular basis. Regional offices
must encourage and help non-qualified teachers, giving more than that it is required, to obtain a teaching qualification
so that the centres can have a permanent teacher for the subject. The regular changing of teachers teaching the subject
at some centres is worrisome. Valuable knowledge and skills are getting lost.

COMMENTS ON SPECIFIC ASSESSMENT HEADINGS:

Task 1: Re-torque of cylinder head bolts to 90 NM:

Most of the candidates demonstrated a good level of knowledge and skills to perform the task. Most of the candidates
did not indicated the torque setting on the torque wrench. The sequence of tightening was also very important.

Task 2: Jumpstart of a car:

Most centres demonstrated an excellent level of knowledge and skills to perform this task. The importance was to
identify the correct terminals of the battery. The correct connection of the jumping cables (positive to positive and
negative to negative).

Task 3: Bleeding of a clutch:

Most centres demonstrated a very good level of knowledge and skills to perform this task. What was absent and
visible at most centres was the operation of the clutch pedal during the actual bleeding of the clutch. It was very

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important. At some centres it was not necessary to lift or jack up the car in order to bleed the clutch of the car.
(Especially front wheel driven cars)

Task 4: Test of fuel pump relay resistance:

This task was completed by most of the centres with a fairly good level of knowledge and skills. The connection to the
power supply was absent at some centres. Most candidates could not locate the fuel pump relay.

Task 5: Replace leaf springs shackle bushes:

A task that most centres demonstrated a good level of knowledge and skills. Some centres removed the wheel that
was not really necessary.

Conclusion.
Subject teachers must study the teacher’s instructions in the coursework assessment to familiarise themselves with
of which steps photos must be taken. This will guide the teacher and the candidate in performing the different tasks.
Quality and adequate photographic evidence can lead to that a candidate can gain high marks. Moderation is not
taking place from the teacher’s impression or sight, but from the photographic evidence provided to DNEA. Therefore
the quality and number of photos is very important.

Centres must make use of the additional financial assistance to equip themselves with the necessary equipment and
material to provide proper photographic evidence since this is of most importance during the moderation of the paper.

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NAMIBIAN SIGN LANGUAGE
6107
Paper 1 & 2

INTRODUCTION

Seven learners sat for the NSSCO NSL Examination for this academic year, November 2024.

Number of learners
Name of school
Male Female Total
Mweshipandeka SS 2 3 5
Haimbili Haufiku SS 1 1 2
TOTAL 3 4 7

All recordings were clear and easily accessible for moderation purposes.

PAPER 1

Part A: Observation and Comprehension

Question 1: a ‒ j

Learners responded well to this question; however, they should take note of the mark allocation and respond to
questions accordingly.

Learners should be exposed to questions where they must share their views about a specific statement.

Question 2

(a) The learners did not answer this question well. They need more exposure to general knowledge and
events happening around them. They should be encouraged to read more about everyday related news.

(b) Learners should practise writing essays and use a mind map to write down ideas for each paragraph.
Learners produced two sentences for a 20-mark essay.

PAPER 2

Part A: Linguistic skills

Learners responded satisfactorily to this part.

Part B: Deaf literature and culture

Learners should practise taking a stand for a specific topic. Learners should be exposed more to debate on a specific
topic as they lack general knowledge about events happening around them, to which they could not relate. Learners
need more exposure to the news in and around the world.

GENERAL OBSERVATIONS

All recordings were of good quality.

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638
OFFICE PRACTICE
6157
Paper 1

Very few learners reached the minimum speed of 30 w.p.m. which resulted in a very high failure rate.

Learners must TYPE ACCURATELY and FAST to be able to reach the REQUIRED SPEED of 30 W.P.M.

Accuracy tests and keyboard mastering should be practised at least once a week to improve accuracy and build speed.

Learners need to master touch typing, to obtain the required speed of 30 w.p.m.

If the learner applies touch typing, it will result in copy typing. Learners need to type what is given and not change the
words.

Because learners have not mastered touch typing, they are omitting words, sentences and even whole paragraphs.
This results in words being left out which adds to a high failure rate.

If a learner cannot type 30 w.p.m., he or she will not be able to complete Paper 2.

Display of margins has improved.

The display of line spacing still needs attention.
Line spacing for the Speed and Accuracy test should be 1.5 LINE SPACES with THREE LINE SPACES between
paragraphs. Only enter TWICE between different paragraphs.

Letter spaces after punctuation marks need attention. Leave two letter spaces after a full stop BUT only one space
after a comma.

Place Paper 1 answers in a separate plastic envelope provided by DNEA.

TEACHERS, PLEASE CONTINUE WITH YOUR HARD WORK IN ORDER FOR US TO IMPROVE OUR LEARNERS’
RESULTS.

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6157
Paper 2

TEXT LAYOUT (COMPUTER) GENERAL COMMENTS

THE GENERAL TYPING RULES IN THE KEYBOARD DIRECTIVES SHOULD BE STUDIED.

Accuracy REMAINS a major concern in Paper 2. Apply touch typing.

Learners should remember that ACCURACY carries more weight than DISPLAY and serious attention should be paid
to mastering the keyboard to enable learners to obtain a better mark.

The display/layout of the different topics still need much more attention.

SPELL CHECK and PRINT PREVIEW must form part of every completed question so that learners can pick up spelling
errors and the way the document will be printed.

TAKE NOTE:
Letter spaces after a full stop at the end of a sentence: two.
Letter spaces after a semi-colon and colon: two.
Letter spaces after a comma: one.

Page numbering needs much more attention as learners do not insert page numbers using the required method. Also
look at the font style of the page number, which should be in Courier New, 12 pt and NOT in bold.

REMEMBER to staple pages of each question together. That means that learners should staple the answers QUESTION
BY QUESTION and place them in the cover. The printer properties should be stapled at the back of the question.

Sort questions according to the number and place them inside the cover sheet.

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COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

1. CORRESPONDENCE (BUSINESS LETTER)

1.1 DATABASE

1.1.1 The execution of the database was answered satisfactorily. This is a topic that will always appear in Paper 2.
Please take note that a database can be applied across the spectrum of the syllabus. Therefore, take note of
the general requirements of typing a database as learners are losing marks unnecessarily. It is advisable to
use Ms Excel to create the database as it is more user-friendly.

1.1.2 COLUMN WIDTH:

Adjust the column widths to fit the contents of each column. Columns that are not adjusted/autofit will result
in accuracy marks lost. Autofit the column widths.

1.1.3 LAYOUT:
The database should:
• fit on to one page
• typed in Courier New
• 12 font size
• landscape orientation and not portrait orientation.

The order of the fields should be the same as on the question paper.

1.1.4 FIELD NO 5: “TO”

The contents of this field had to be typed in capital letters.
The names of the people to whom the circular is written should be typed in capital letters.

NB!!! “TO” should always be typed in U/C, and in double line spacing

TEXT WRAPPING

Learners did not apply text wrapping in Field No. 5

The different receivers must all be typed in U/C and underneath each other.

1.2 FORM LETTER

1.2.1 Completing a retrieved letterhead remains a problem.

• Do not change the font style and line spacing of the retrieved letterhead.
• Insertion of fields should be done in Courier New, font size 12 and not bold.
• Leave TWO letter spaces after a colon when inserting the Circular No, File No and Enquiries. Make sure
that the two letter spaces are in Courier New, font size 12.
• Leave TWO-line spaces before typing the date – right aligned (the letterhead was right aligned).

1.2.2 The margin of the letter remains a major problem. Insert a section break after the date to change the margin
left 1.5” as the letterhead was on 1”.

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1.2.3 Leave two-line spaces after the letterhead.
First TO, followed by the <<TO>>, followed by the Subject Heading. Use double-line spacing.

THE SUBJECT HEADING SHOULD BE TYPED AFTER THE SALUTATION.

DO NOT TYPE THE WORDS “THE SUBJECT HEADING”.

«TO»

A REVIEW OF NATIONAL POLICIES AND PROGRAMMES AFFECTING THE DEVELOPMENT OF PRE-

SCHOOL CHILDREN

1.2.4 Display rules for different paragraphs need much more attention.
The hanging indent of 0.4” for main paragraphs and 0.5” for sub-paragraphs was not applied correctly.
Refer to the directives on typing paragraphs.

If the proofing symbol instructs the learner to underline the paragraph heading, then the number should not
be underlined.
Headings should always be typed in capital letters, which is a typing rule.

1.2.5 Insertion of page numbers has improved, but still needs attention.

1.2.6 Pay attention to the different displays of a conclusion of a business letter.

Do not insert Mr or The in the conclusion, but type Ms, Dr and Prof.

For guidelines on starting up an ECD programme, contact the Early Learning Unit,
by telephone (061) 67 9527 or fax (061) 67 9530.

(Signed) MS NANDI MGWENYA

PROGRAMME DIRECTORATE

1.2.7 Some learners still omitted the conclusion. They stop typing at the last paragraph. That can result in losing
one display mark and 4 accuracy marks.

1.3 MERGE LETTERS

1.3.1 Some learners only printed one merged letter or did not print the merged letters at all.

1.3.2 Learners should look at the display of the merged letters, as when merging takes place, it may happen that the
display of paragraphs and page numbers may become distorted.
The business letter was poorly answered because of MANY ACCURACY errors.
The display was average, but the accuracy remains a concern.

Applying proofing symbols is improving.

Continune doing exercises with proofing symbols.

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2. TESTIMONIAL

2.1 Learners had to create the letterhead but they did not know how to display the given information to create
the letterhead. ATTENTION SHOULD BE GIVEN TO CREATING OF LETTERHEADS.

DESERT SANDS ACADEMY

PO Box 962 14 Hage Heights

Tel: 064-580 9023 Vinetta
SWAKOPMUND

1 November 2024

2.2 The introduction of the testimonial was poorly displayed.

LECTORI SALUTEM

The undersigned testifies in favour of

DIVAN GROENEWALD
(060505 0021 00 6)
2.2.1 Learners either omitted or replaced Lectori Salutem with the word “Testimonial”.

2.2.2 The name of the person should be in capital letters.

2.2.3 Use the insert page number function to insert page numbers.

2.3 Learners did not type the conclusion which resulted in -3 marks.
We express our best wishes for his future.

DR BRAIN MHANGO
PRINCIPAL

2.4 Accuracy mistakes are the main reason learners are struggling.

This question was very poorly answered.

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3. TABULATION

3.1 The correct method of typing tabular statements should be studied. Part of the table was open and part
was enclosed.

3.2 Rules for tabular statements should be applied: double line spacing after horizontal lines and single line
spacing before all horizontal lines.

3.3 Learners did not set the two spaces before and after the longest word(s) or number(s). Take note of the
table property settings.

3.4 The vertical headings must be blocked in line with the numbers in the columns below. That indicates that
the numbers are two letter spaces from the vertical lines and the vertical headings are double lines spacing
from the line.

3.5 Apply the rules in the Directives for typing numbers. The units should be kept in line with units.
Align the N$ to the left of the column, in line with the longest amount.

3.6 The complete table should be printed on one page in landscape orientation. Only footnotes may appear
on a second page.

3.7 Footnotes should be superscripted (M).

3.8 Look at the alignment of the footnotes. There is no letter space between the footnote and the first word of
the footnote.

3.9 Merging of columns and rows appeared to be a challenge to the learners.

This question was poorly answered.

4. TABLE OF CONTENTS

4.1 Learners struggled to type the table of contents.

4.2 The display of this question was very poor.

4.3 No table properties of 0.2” was done between the 3 columns.

4.4 The alignment of the columns was not executed correctly.

4.5 Refer to the directives for the correct display of pages.

This question was very poorly answered.

5. PROOFREADING

5.1 Remember to correct and underlinethe errors. There are still learners who only correct the errors.

5.2 Underlining should not exceed the word.

5.3 Underline the complete word, not only the character that is wrong.

This question was answered well.

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6. SPREADSHEET

6.1 The spreadsheet had to be created by the learners. Teachers should NOT give the learners Question 6.1
before they have not finished creating Question 6. Learners try to create and edited the spreadsheet at
the same time, which results in them not finishing the question.

6.2 Thirty marks are allocated for the editing instructions as indicated in question 6.1. (See edited 6.1 for mark
allocation.) and ten marks for accuracy.

6.3 The spreadsheet had to be typed in Arial and font size 12.

6.4 Row and column headings were given as a form of reference as to where data should be typed, but
learners did make not use of it.

6.5 Attention should be given to inserting columns. Learners struggled to insert “Litres of fuel” at the right
place, which resulted in many other problems when doing calculations.

6.6 Formulas need much more attention and practice.

When entering the formulae, highlight only the required figures, and do not exceed your range.

=Sum cannot be used when there is a need to subtract, multiply or divide.

Learners should pay attention to the instructions on calculating according to the examiner’s instructions.

Place the formula in the correct column and row.

6.7 Inserting borders needs far more attention.

6.8 Printing the spreadsheet seems to be a problem area. Print what is asked for.

6.9 More attention should be paid to the printing of the page with the formulae. Learners must adjust the width
of each column so that information will be visible. Autofit the column width and fit to one page.

This question was poorly answered as well.

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6157
Paper 3

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

Most of the learners DID NOT STUDY and questions were NOT ANSWERED SATISFACTORILY.

There is considerable room for improvement. Certain centres must see to it that learners study more.

Learners should READ THE QUESTIONS PROPERLY. Some answers were completely irrelevant to the question.

Learners should be taught the outcome for Name, Identify and Explain in a question. Questions are answered wrongly.

2. COMMENTS ON INDIVIDUAL QUESTIONS

1 (a) Poorly answered as learners could not identify the forms of payments or they just left it blank.
Answers
(i) Money order [1]
(ii) Stop order [1]
(iii) Postal order [1]

(b) Satisfactorily answered.

Answer
- Communicate: if you have a problem with someone in your group, talk to him about it.
- People in your group lose respect for you if you are constantly blaming others for not meeting
deadlines.
- If a teammate suggests something, consider the group's ideas to show you are interested.
- Do not brag as doing so will make others envy your personal successes and may create tension within
the group.
- Look at the person who is speaking to you, nod, ask probing questions and acknowledge what is said
by paraphrasing points that have been made.
- Share suggestions, ideas, solutions and proposals with your team members. [6]

(c) Poorly answered as learners do not know the advantages of teleconferencing.

Answer
- Saves on the cost of travel.
- Real-time responses.
- Office/conference room or cafeteria can be used.
- Enhances/promotes communication and coordination with head office.
- Flexibility in joining conferences whenever necessary. [5]

(d) Very poorly answered as learners confused this answer with the circulating of mail internally.
Answer
- Registered mail.
- Mail marked private/personal or confidential.
- Mail marked urgent.
- Mail not addressed to the business.
- Tenders or parcels.
- All other mail addressed to the business. [6]

2 (a) Question well answered.

Answer
- Degree of urgency
- Genre (oral, written, electronic, visual)
- Level of confidentiality, privacy
- Location and distance, time zones
- Cost, efficiency, effectiveness
- Audience size [6]

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(b) Poorly answered as learners gave actions of a supervisor.
Answer
- Managing relationships: always remain polite and professional towards your co-worker.
- Understanding the feelings of others: having empathy will help you develop strong relationships with
your co-workers.
- Cooperating with others: even though each employee might have his or her own individual tasks and
goals, the entire staff or team needs to cooperate to help the company be successful.
- Having a great attitude: a great attitude will help you cope with pressure and stress as well as help you
be more flexible in your job.
- Showing respect - you can show respect for others by being polite and using good manners, always
remember to say “Please” and “Thank you”.
- Appropriate contact: The way you act toward people at work will determine whether or not they feel
comfortable around you. For example, some people do not like to be touched, so it is important that you
respect people’s personal space.
- Active listening: be fully engaged while listening to someone speaking, be completely focused, giving
them eye contact, nodding and occasionally asking clarifying questions to make sure you understand.
Any five [5]

(c) Satisfactorily answered but learners should refrain from writing too little information.
Answer
- Allows for the discreet and confidential exchange of information.
- Ideal for long-term team projects.
- Encourages more personal contact between co-workers.
- Employees can decorate to their individual tastes.
- Usually located near a window, allowing for fresh air and sunlight.
Any three [3]

(d) Very poorly answered as learners could not list the responsibilities of an employee who handles the
petty cash.
Answer
- Being responsible for the ‘float’.
- Carrying out payments to employees to repay them for expenses incurred on behalf of the business.
- Requesting receipts and change to back up the expenses claimed.
- Keeping records of all the payments made and amounts received.
- Regularly checking the petty cash book is balanced (when the money in the fund is low, they have to
request that cash be withdrawn from the bank in order to restore the money that has been paid out).
Any four [4]

(e) Very well answered.

Answer
Private secretary
A secretary deals with the personal and confidential concerns of a business person or public figure.
Executive secretary
Secretary has administrative duties, especially as an official responsible for administering the activities and
business affairs of an organisation. [2]

3 (a) Very poorly answered as learners cannot explain the requirements of a good filing system. They are
used to listing the requirements.
Answer
- The aim of any concern is growth and expansion.
- The system that is chosen should be able to grow with the concern. [2]

(b) Very poorly answered as learners could not name the guidelines to be followed to avoid a fire in the office.
Answer
- Power cords should be inspected regularly for wear and be replaced if necessary.
- Cords should never overload outlets.
- Space heaters should not be placed near flammable materials like paper.
- Emergency exit routes should never be blocked or locked [4]

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(c) Satisfactorily answered as some learners misinterpreted the question with sorting incoming mail.
Answer
- Sign for mail upon receipt, open it separately and record any remittances.
- Deliver unopened mail to the persons concerned.
- Open it separately and deliver it immediately.
- Repost unopened mail. [4]

(d) Poorly answered as learners described the duties during the meeting.
Answer
- Make sure that all arrangements in connection with the venue, date, time, accommodation, transport,
and refreshments are in order and that nothing will go wrong.
- Discuss the agenda with the chairman again and ascertain that nothing has been forgotten.
- Place the minutes of the previous meeting in the minute book and use a bookmark to help find the place
easily.
- All documents, letters and notices must be placed in chronological order according to the agenda.
- Water-decanters, glasses and peppermints must be placed in strategic places to enable the speaker
and members to reach them easily without disturbing the meeting.
- The extra copies made of the notice and agenda, minutes and documents must be placed such that
members needing them can easily find them.
- Place a file with stationery on the seat of each member.
- The attendance register must be available.
- Visual aids which are required such as overhead projector, screen, loudspeaker system or
tape-recorder have to be in the room and make sure that they are in working order. Any six [6]

(e) Poorly answered as learners could not identify the filing methods.
Answers
(i) Horizontal filing [1]
(ii) Electronic filing [1]
(iii) Microfilming [1]
(iv) Tubular filing [1]

4 (a) Poorly answered as attention can be given to this type of question. Learners struggled with the
different positions.
Answer

[10]

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(b) Very poorly answered as very few learners could answer this question.
Answer
- Investing in products and services people need.
- Providing employment opportunities.
- Commerce and regional economic integration.
- New technologies promote efficiency.
- Addressing environmental challenges.
- Innovation happens where there is competition. Any five [5]

(c) Satisfactorily answered as learners should write in full, for example, Bulk mail pre-sorted.
Answers
(i) Express mail service - EMS [1]
(ii) Bulk mail pre-sorted [1]

(d) Poorly answered as learners use the word chronological again to explain the filing method.
Answer
- Organising and ordering documents and records in a dated sequence.
- This sequence can be according to their date of receipt, or the date and time of their creation.
- The latest item is usually in front of or on top of the previous items. [3]

5 (a) Very well answered.

Answer
- Telephone
- Electronic mail/E-mail
- Voice mail/V-mail
- Tele-text
- Video-text
- Teleconferencing
- Videoconferencing
- Internet
- Multimedia
- Fax Any five [5]

(b) Poorly answered as learners do not know the indexing systems.

Answer
- The cards are placed one on top of the other in a long drawer.
- The name of each card is, therefore, visible.
- It can be used for keeping records such as staff details, student cards or clients’ details. [3]

(c) Poorly answered as learners struggle with this type of question.

Answer
NR ANSWER
1 D
2 E
3 A
4 C
5 B [5]

(d) Very poorly answered as learners could not describe the procedure to complete a petty cash transaction.
Answer
- Money can only be taken out of the cash box for expenditure that has been authorised by a senior
member of staff.
- Whenever cash is paid out, a voucher should be obtained.
- Petty cash vouchers are then completed and signed by the person to whom payment is to be made.
- They must also be signed by the person authorising the payment (petty cashier).
- The voucher is handed to the person in charge of the petty cash box, who keeps it as a record of where
the money has gone. [5]

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(e) Well answered as learners are familiar with this topic.
Answer
System software
- Microsoft Windows (like Windows 10, Windows 8, Windows 7, Windows Vista, and Windows XP)
- Apple's macOS Any one
Application software
- MS Word
- Excel
- Publisher
- Access
- PowerPoint
- Outlook Any one [2]

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PHYSICS
6118
Paper 1

Question Question Question Question

Key Key Key Key
Number Number Number Number
1 D 11 C 21 A 31 C

2 D 12 B 22 B 32 B

3 B 13 A 23 B 33 A

4 C 14 C 24 D 34 B

5 C 15 C 25 B 35 D

6 A 16 B 26 A 36 C

7 C 17 C 27 B 37 D

8 B 18 D 28 C 38 A

9 * 19 D 29 A 39 D

10 C 20 B 30 B 40 A

General comments

Candidates answered Questions 5,22,30,36 and 38 quite well.

Questions 2,3,16,18,27,29 and 32 were more challenging for many candidates.

Comments on specific questions

1. Poorly answered
Most candidates thought that the correct option is C, the micrometer screw gauge. However, the micrometer
screw gauge cannot be used to measure internal (inner) dimensions. The vernier caliper has both inside
jaws and outside jaws to measure both internal and external dimensions. Only 39.7% chose the correct
answer.

2. Very poorly answered

13.8 % chose the correct answer. When an object is released from rest and falls to rest, it accelerates due
to gravity. At first, as the object begins to speed up, air resistance increases which reduces the net force on
the object and decreases its acceleration. When the force of air resistance equals the force of gravity, the
object reaches terminal velocity and stops accelerating. The object falls with a constant speed with zero
acceleration.

3. Poorly answered
The most common incorrect answer was option C.

The distance in the first 100s is: × 100 × 20 = 1000 m not 2000 m.

The deceleration is × 400 × 20 = 4000 m, thus option B is the correct answer.

Only 28.7 % chose the correct answer.

4. Fairly well answered by 57.8 % of the candidates.

Most candidates were able to rule out option A, but hey chose option B and C in almost equal numbers
indicating possible guessing.

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5. Very well answered by 82.9% of the candidates.

6. Fairly well answered by 52% of the candidates.

The formula for calculating pressure is .

If both quantities are doubled, the pressure remains the same.

7. Fairly well answered by 59.2% of the candidates.

300N × 0.40 = d × 350 + 0.50 × 100
120 = 350d + 50
70 = 350d
d = 0.20 m
Candidates chose the remaining options in almost equal numbers, indicating possible guessing.

8. Poorly answered
The most common incorrect answer was D. Stability of objects is affected by either the width of the base or
the centre of gravity. A wider base as well as a lower centre of gravity increases stability. Object B has both
a narrow base and a higher centre of gravity making it the least stable. 48.6% of the candidates chose the
correct option.

9. The correct answer for this question is 170 m/s.

400 × v + 200 × (-100) = (400+200)80
400v – 2000 = 48000
400 v = 50000
v = 170m/s
All the candidates were compensated for this question.

10. Poorly answered

Just before the ball is dropped, it has maximum potential energy (P.E) of 0.5 × 10 × 3.0 = 15m. As the ball
begins to fall, the P.E converts to kinetic energy (K.E) and reaches maximum just before it hits the ground.
At this point, all the P.E is converted to K.E. 37.7% of the candidates chose the correct option.

11. Fairly well answered by 60.1% of the candidates.

The most common incorrect answer was option B, kinetic energy showing a confusion between the two
forms of energy.

12. Fairly well answered by 59.7% of the candidates.

30N – 10N = 20N towards the right.

13. Poorly answered

The most common incorrect answer was option C, showing a confusion between the definition of specific
latent heat and specific heat capacity. 39.5% of the candidates chose the correct answer.

14. Poorly answered

The question seems to have been misunderstood by the candidates as many of them chose option A. 35%
of the candidates chose the correct answer.

15. Poorly answered

While most candidates recognized that change 1 one was solidification. Many of them failed to correctly
understand change 2, they confused it with melting when it was condensation. 39.9% of the candidates
chose the correct answer.

16. Poorly answered

Only good candidates could differentiate between absolute zero and freezing point. Those who recognized
that all particles stop moving at absolute zero, failed to recall the temperature at this point. An equal number
of these thought it was 0°C when it was actually 0 Kelvin. 23.6 % of the candidates chose the correct
answer.

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17. Well answered by 66 % of the candidates.

= 460 J /(kg °C

18. Poorly answered

All the options were chosen in almost equal numbers indicating possible guessing. Only 18.05 % of the
candidates chose the correct option.

19. Fairly well answered by 54.7% of the candidates.

20. Fairly well answered by 65% of the candidates.

21. Fairly well answered by 50.9 % of the candidates.

22. Well answered by 75.1 % of the candidates.

c = λf
= 3.0 × 10-7 × 1.0 ×1015
= 3.0 × 108 m/s

23. Poorly answered

The most chosen incorrect answer was option A. Sound requires a medium. The closer the particles in a
medium are, the faster the medium will transmit sound. 31.5% chose the correct option.

24. Fairly well answered by 59.3% of the candidates.

Most candidates thought the angle of refraction was the one represented by the letter y.

25. Poorly answered

Option B and D were chosen equally showing that the candidates were guessing. 32.1 % of the candidates
chose the correct answer.

26. Well answered by 68.9% of the candidates.

27. Poorly answered

= 333m/s
18.8 % chose the correct answer. The most chosen incorrect answer was option A.

28. Poorly answered. 43.1% chose the correct answer.

29. Poorly answered

Electron flow is from the negative to the positive terminal.
Many candidates chose option B. 26.6 % of the candidates chose the correct option.

30. Well answered by 72.4% of the candidates.

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31. Poorly answered
Most chosen incorrect answer is option A (0.5A). Many candidates seem to have added 4Ω + 4Ω to get a
total resistance of 0.5 A. 38.8 % chose the correct option.

32. Poorly answered

Length is directly proportional to resistance and diameter is inversely proportional to resistance. 25.4 % of
the candidates chose the correct option.

33. Poorly answered

There was evidence of guessing in this question. Only 43.6% chose the correct option.

34. Well answered by 63.6 % of the candidates.

35. Fairly well answered by 57.4 % of the candidates.

Option A was the most common incorrect answer.

36. Well answered by 71% of the candidates.

37. Poorly answered

There was evidence of guessing in this question. Only the strong candidates (32.8 %) chose the right option.

38. Very well answered by 85.6 % of the candidates.

39. Poorly answered

The most common error in answering this question was to incorrectly think that ‘nucleons’ are ‘neutrons’.
Many candidates subtracted 234 – 90 = 144 and chose option C. 30.9 % chose the correct option.

40. Fairly well answered by 57.8 % of the candidates.

There was some evidence of guessing between option B and C for the candidates who failed to choose the
correct answer.

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6118
Paper 2

Key messages
Candidates need to show their working and write the equations as this helps them to score some mark(s) when the final
answer is wrong.
Candidates should learn to write the correct symbols of physical quantities, including symbols such as gamma,
wavelength, etc.
It is important that candidates read questions carefully in order to understand exactly what the questions are demanding.
Candidates should ensure that they fully understand and are clear when answering questions requiring a description
or explanation.
Candidates should apply knowledge with understanding of physics concepts to help them tackle questions like in
Question 3(c) where candidates were to explain the energy changes when latent heat of vaporization is supplied.
Most definitions of scientific terminologies are not learned with understanding leading to candidates losing marks. This
paper demanded the definitions of e.m.f, wave front, latent heat and radioactive decay. Most candidates struggled to
demonstrate understanding on what are these concepts by definition.
Candidates should integrate mathematical skills to answer calculation questions like in Question 4d(ii) where candidates
were to use trigonometry (inverse of sin) to calculate the angle of refraction. Majority of candidates really struggled with
this question.

General comments
Few candidates demonstrated a good understanding of content across the syllabus. Many were not able to recall and
use equations correctly and apply their physics knowledge to explanations in different contexts.
There are still a significant number of candidates that seemed to attempt questions without reading the instructions.
Some answered calculation questions without showing working and wrote wrong units.
Many candidates struggled with the topic of thermal physics specifically subtopic 3.2.2 (thermal capacity) on the
definition of latent heat. Most candidates struggled to understand that there are two types of latent heat, latent heat of
fusion (which is a change from solid to liquid and liquid to solid) and Latent heat of vaporization (which is a change from
liquid to gas and gas to liquid) that occur when a quantity of heat energy absorbed or released for a substance to change
state without changing its temperature. Candidates should understand that there is no change in kinetic energy of the
molecules but potential energy since the temperature is constant.
The questions of defining electromotive force, wave front, sketching the graph of output voltage versus time when the
speed of rotation of the coil in the generator is doubled, mass of the radioactive substance remaining after some times
of the decay, writing correct symbols of physical quantities such as period, acceleration, speed, moment was a struggle
for many candidates. Candidates need to differentiate the graphs of motion (speed-time graph/distance-time graph), so
that candidates will be able to use the knowledge to the specific situation like for question 1(b).
Candidates should also be encouraged to read questions carefully to ensure that they answer exactly the question that
is being asked.
The number of marks given per question should guide candidates as how many points / or how much information they
should include in their answer. They should also be encouraged to write formulae where calculation is required.
Most candidates used wrong denotations of quantities and symbols and units. Instead of writing the symbol for speed
as v, most of them wrote s. candidates also struggled to convert units of measurement. Candidates seemed to be
acquainted with subject formulae but are still struggling to make variables in questions as subject of the formula. The
rounding off was also noted as a big struggle among candidates.
Candidates demonstrated a very good understanding of the electromagnetic spectrum. They were able to recall and use
the Physics knowledge gained during the teaching and learning process to answer questions correctly. The wavelength
decreases from left to right and few candidates had no idea.
Many candidates shown little knowledge on the topic of Alternating Current (A.C) generator mainly the structure and
working of an A.C generator.

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Comments on specific questions

Question 1

The majority of the candidates demonstrated a good understanding of scalar and vector quantities. However, the graphs
of motions seem to be not well understood by most candidates.
Most candidates were able to recall and use the equation for acceleration correctly.

(a) Many candidates answered this correctly, although some candidates could not identify kinetic energy
as a scalar quantity. A lot of candidates lost a mark because of spelling errors of the words that they
were supposed to copy.

(b) (i) This question was well answered by most candidates. Few candidates could not gain credit
because they confused ‘rest’ on a speed-time and distance-time graphs.

(ii) Most candidates could be able to identify ‘constant speed’ on the graph. Some candidates gave
the answer as B which is a constant acceleration.

(iii) Many candidates could not gain credit in this question. However, most candidates recalled and
used the formula . Few candidates could give the correct units. Weaker candidates chose

wrong part of the journey to calculate the acceleration.

(c) Few candidates drew the correct straight line from the origin to a speed of 10m/s in 20s to indicate
the constant acceleration. Many candidates added some unnecessary lines such as lines for constant
speed and constant deceleration which makes lose marks.

(d) Only the strongest candidates gained full credit. Many other candidates could not use comparative
words such as: ‘steeper line’, ‘greater gradient’ hence could not gain credit. Most candidates only
referred to calculate gradient and not using the graphs to compare.

(e) Candidates were required to calculate the total distance and the total time from the given information
and use it to calculate average speed. A number of candidates added the speeds together and divided
by three (3), which made them lose marks. Most candidates failed to understand the meaning of
average speed as total distance divided by total time.
1 (a) Scalar All 5 correct 
Vector 3-4 correct 
Scalar 2 correct 
3
Vector 1 or 0 correct 0
Scalar
correct spelling
(b) (i) A or E  1
(ii) C cao 1

= ()
(iii)
3
= ()

= 4  m/s2 
(c) Single straight line from origin drawn 
2
Diagonal line finishing at 10 m/s in 20 s 
(d) Steeper line / greater gradient  1
(e)
= 

= () 3

= 5.6
14

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Question 2

(a) (i) Most candidates answered this question correctly by writing the correct formula of moment of
force and hence got the answer. Few candidates struggled to write the correct unit as Nm.

(ii) Many candidates answered this correctly. Few candidates could not score marks as they did not
give sufficient details of the examples of using turning effects instead they only mentioned the
name of the tools e.g Spanner, Pliers etc.

(b) Few candidates could give the correct answer, however, the weaker candidates gave the answer as
increasing the length of the metal bar which is not enough because what increases the turning effect
is the increase of the perpendicular distance from the pivot to the line of force.

(c) Many candidates struggled to mention ‘‘no net moment’’ when the system is in equilibrium. Most
candidates answered the question wrongly by giving insufficient information as force on both sides
are equal instead of no resultant or net force acting on the system.

2 (a)(i) (Moment) = force x distance ()

= 150 x 0.5 ()
= 75  Nm  3
(ii) • Applying a force to a spanner to rotate a nut. accept: any examples involving
2
• Sitting on a seesaw. turning force.
• Opening or closing a door.
• Pushing or pulling a wheelbarrow. (any two) 
(b) Increase distance (of force from pivot)  1
(c) No resultant force / No resultant turning effect or torque or accept: (total) anticlockwise
moment  moment is equal to total
clockwise moment 1
7

Question 3

(a) Most candidates could not define latent heat. Few candidates confused the definition of latent heat
with specific heat capacity. Some candidates defined latent heat with no understanding because
some candidates were leaving out the part of constant temperature.

(b) Well answered. Most candidates could identify correctly the time where the temperature was not changing.

(c) Very poorly answered. Many candidates failed very much to figure out that the question is demanding
the explanation of energy changes undergone by the molecules of the substance when it is changing
the state of matter. Candidates could have used the knowledge of heating and cooling curve of pure
substance to understand this concept better. The molecules of the substance are not gaining kinetic
energy like many candidates wrote it, but they are gaining potential energy and the forces between
particles are weakened, that is why the temperature remain the same.

(d) (i) Fairly answered. Many candidates used the correct formula as Power x time, but failed to convert the
Power to Watts and the time to seconds for the answer to be in joules.

(ii) Fairly answered. Most candidates failed to make m as the subject of formula from the formula
as that could have helped them to get the mass of the substance being

heated. Many candidates also struggled to calculate the change in temperature as 75-32 .

3 (a) Is the quantity of heat energy absorbed or released  when 2

substance changes state without changing its temperature 
(b) Any time between 2 min and 14 min (inclusive)  1
(c) Potential energy of molecules increases  and bonds or forces 2
(between the molecules) are weakened or overcomed. 

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(d) (i) (E) = P x t ()
= 2000 W x 240 () 2
= 480 000 

(ii) ecf 3 (d) (i)

at least 2 s.f.
3

Question 4

(a) Well answered. Most candidates could identify maximum displacement of the vibrations as 2mm. Few
candidates could not be awarded marks because they refer to the time taken ending up giving the
valve of 0.25 etc. as the amplitude.

(b) Very few candidates answered this question correctly. Most candidates sketched a graph without
referring to the information given. Some candidates did not draw the wave from the origin and the
amplitude was not consistent.

(c) (i) Most candidates could only be awarded one mark for the equation, but failed to get the correct
value of a period from Fig 4.2 to determine the frequency of the wave. Few candidates could not
write the correct formula as some used incorrect symbol such as p for period.

(ii) Many candidates used the formula velocity = wavelength x frequency instead of to
calculate the time.

(d) (i) Most candidates failed to identify that the incident angle is the angle between the incident ray and
the normal line. Many simply copied the given angle (55) as their incident angle which is wrong.
Some candidates seemed to had measured the angle instead of calculating.

(ii) Fairly answered by most candidates. Many candidates failed to make r the subject of the formula
from the formula of refractive index . Some candidates did the correct substitution but
failed to calculate the inverse of sine to get the correct angle of refraction.

(e) (i) Most candidates failed to give the correct definition of wave front as stated in the syllabus.
Candidates should understand that wave front is a line joining adjacent points (either crests or
troughs) in the same phase from different waves.

(ii) Fairly answered. Most candidates could not differentiate between reflection and refraction of
waves in terms of how waves behave. Candidates failed to realize that the position of the boundary
determines the angle of refraction and thus the waves in this case were not supposed to bend.

4 (a) 2.0  1
(b) Same period with at least one wave 
Opposite phase to wave drawn 
2

(c)(i)
OR ()

2
= OR

=2 

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(ii)
()
ecf from 4c(i) 2
= ()

= 2.5 
(d)(i) 35 1
(ii) () ecf from 4 (d) (i)

2
() accept: at least 2sf
= 2.5 
(e)(i) The line containing (adjacent) points that are in the same 1
phase. 
(ii) at least 3 wave fronts after boundary  solid lines
vertical  3
smaller wavelengths 
14

Question 5

(a) Many candidates answered this question correctly. A few individuals missed out on the mark because
they could not spell ‘microwaves’ correctly. They spelled it as ‘macrowaves’ or ‘mircowaves’ which
makes the candidates to lose mark.

(b) Many candidates correctly answered this question. Most candidates demonstrated a clear
understanding of electromagnetic spectrum and that the speed of all electromagnetic waves is 3.0
x 108. Most candidates wrote it an ordinary number (300 000 000 m/s) instead of the standard form
(3.0 x 108). This led to some few candidates leaving out a zero which changed the value of the speed
of light.

(c) Many candidates correctly identified an example of electromagnetic spectrum which has a shorter
wavelength than that of visible light. Candidates had a variety to choose from as the table was given
to them. Although this was the case, a few candidates could not write the correct spelling of ultraviolet
waves, thus losing a mark. A few candidates also wrote a wrong symbol for gamma rays and were not
awarded a mark.

(d) (i) Most candidates answered this question moderately. Most candidates recalled the medical use
for x-rays and gamma-rays as for the treatment of cancer etc. Few candidates who referred to
x-rays as used to view skeletal structure in the human body were not awarded a mark as that is
not sufficient for the medical use. A mark was awarded to the candidates who indicated that the
skeletal structure is viewed to detect fractures or broken bones.

(ii) Many candidates could give the dangers of gamma rays to living organism as cause cancer,
damage cells. cause genetic mutation etc.

5 (a) Microwaves  1
(b) 3.0 x 108  1
(c) Ultraviolet (waves)/ UV) / X-rays / gamma rays correct spelling 1
(d) (i) X-rays: detecting broken bones / detect damaged teeth / treating
cancer (any one)
2
Gamma: treating cancer / sterilizing (hospital) equipment or food
(any one) 
(ii) Ionizing radiations / high frequency / high energy 
Damage or kill cells  (any two) 2
Cause radiation burns 
cause cancer 
cause (genetic) mutation 
7

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Question 6

(a) Poorly answered. Most of the candidates could not define electromotive force correctly as given in the
syllabus as total energy per charge or other related ways of defining emf.

(b) Well answered. Most candidates were able to recall the correct formula and used it correctly.

(c) Poorly answered. Most candidates were unable to transform formula to in order to
calculate the potential difference correctly..

(d) Poorly answered. Many candidates were unable to recall the formula for calculating Power. Most
candidates could not figure out that one of the ways to answer this question is to use answers obtained
from (b) and (c) to find the Power.

(e) Fairly answered. Most of the learners could state Ohm’s law, however some candidates could not
state the correct temperature limitation as constant temperature.

(f) The part (i) and (ii) were fairly answered. Few candidates could show understanding of the relationship
between resistance and diameter or temperature when other factors are kept the same.

6 (a) Is the amount of energy dissipated or supplied by a Allow:

source in driving unit charge (round a complete circuit)
The potential difference across the

cell  when no current is flowing or
Or when the circuit is open. 
energy transferred by the source per unit charge (in Allow:
driving charge round a complete circuit) 
the amount of Chemical energy
Or converted to electrical energy  per
charge (when charge passes through
the total energy per charge 
a power supply) 

Allow: 

(b) 48 seen ()

()

2
()

= 0.25 
(c) ecf from 6 (b)
1
4.5 
answer in 6(b) 18 – this is guidance
on how the answer was obtained.
(d)
P = V x I / P = I2 x R / P = () ecf from 6 (b) and 6 (c)
2
= 4.5 x 0.25 () at least 2sf

= 1.125 
(e) Current is proportional to voltage  2
Constant temperature 
(f) (i) decrease  clear comparison 1
owtte
(ii) increase  clear comparison 1
owtte
11

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Question 7

(a) Fairly answered. Many candidates confused the parts of AC generator and DC motor because most
candidates gave the answer as B instead of A.

(b) Poorly answered. Most candidates could not write the correct name of the component as slip ring.
Many candidates wrote split ring which is wrong.

(c) Most candidates struggled to get the direction in which current flows. Most of the candidates wrote
anticlockwise instead of x to y or to the left. The use of Fleming right hand rule could help the
candidates to identify the direction of current.

(d) Poorly answered. Most candidates could not recognize that they were expected to draw two waves
with a half period and double amplitude as the original wave because the speed of rotation of the coil
is doubled.

7 (a) A cao 1
(b) Slip ring(s)  1
(c) X to Y  1
(d)
2 waves 

Period of a wave is
0.05 s 

Amplitude 200  3

Question 8

(a) Most candidates could not score full marks for this definition. Most candidates could not mention a
break up/ disintegration/decompose/split of radioactive nuclei and release radiation.

(b) This question was poorly answered. Most candidates could not write the correct equation to show the
decay. Many candidates struggled to identify the daughter nucleus of the decay as Uranium written in
the nuclide notation and release alpha particles.

(c) The two parts c(i) were poorly answered as many candidates could not state correct comparison of
beta with alpha or gamma.

(ii) Well answered. Many candidates could write, wear gloves, use tongs, do not touch with bare
hands, wear protective clothes as correct answers.

(d) Poorly answered. Few candidates could score full marks on this question because candidates had no
idea of calculating the mass remaining in the sample after a certain time.
Few candidates used the formula but could not substitute the correct values thus gave a wrong answer.
8 (a) Break up of unstable nuclei or nucleus  by emitting radiation or
nuclear (particles) 2

(b) Allow: in place of He

2
Beta particles are weaker  owtte 1
(c) (i)
Beta particles are stronger  owtte 1

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(ii) • Wear lead lined apron / protective clothes / wear goggles
• Do not eat / do not drink 2
• Do not point the source of radiation to a person (Any two)
• hold the radioactive with tongs / tweezers / wear gloves / do
not touch with bare hands
• cover wounds 
(d)
()

() 3

= 1.5 
11

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6118
Paper 3

Alternative to practical

General comments

The aim of the examination is to enable learners to display their knowledge and understanding of practical physics
techniques, including the following:
• Plotting graphs
• Tabulating readings
• Manipulating data to obtain results
• Drawing conclusions
• Dealing with possible sources of errors
• Controlling variables
• Making accurate measurements
• Choosing the most suitable apparatus
It is assumed that, as far as possible, the NSSCO course will be taught so that learners undertake regular practical
work as an integral part of their study of physics. This examination should not be seen as suggesting that the course
can be fully and effectively taught without practical work. Some of the skills involved in experimental work, including
graph plotting and tabulation of readings can be practiced without doing experiments. However, there are parts of this
examination in which the learners are asked to answer from their own practical experience.
Questions on experimental techniques were answered much more effectively by learners who showed evidence of
having had regular experience of practical work. This was seen in the good practical details given by some learners in
Question 1(c), Question 2(a) and Question 3(e).
It is important that numerical answers should be correctly rounded to a number of significant figures which is appropriate
to the data given in the question or a measurement carried out by the learners. Use of a recurring symbol does not
indicate the intended number of significant figures. A set of similar quantities should be expressed to a consistent
number of significant figures.
Vast majority of learners showed lack of practical knowledge when answering Question 4.

Comments on specific questions

Question 1

(a) Very few learners answered this correctly. Many learners had not recorded the answer to the nearest gram.

(b) (i) Most learners recorded the readings accurately but many used colons instead of decimal point.

(ii) Moderately answered. Most learners added the values of time together, t1 + t2 + t3 but failed to
divide the total by 3 and get the average.

(iii) Most learners gained full credit but there were some rounding errors.

(iv) Most learners answered this question correctly.

(c) (i) Many learners obtained credit for the first part of this question but failed to give a proper
justification of their answers.

(ii) Very few learners answered this correctly. Many learners showed that they had no experience on
practical work of this type and thus provided unacceptable answers.

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Expected answers

Question Answer Additional guidance Mark

1 (a) 100 (g)  1
(b) (i) t1 = 15.08 1
t2 = 15.23
t3= 15.17
(b) (ii) (tave = 15.16  1
(b) (iii) 1.516  1
(b) (iv) To identify anomalous data / to enable an average to be 1
taken / to improve accuracy / to minimize errors
(c) (i) No  2
As the size of the card increases, T remains similar 
(c) (ii) The angle of swing / amplitude  1
Total 8

Question 2

(a) Very few learners answered this correctly. Many learners referred point Z to a bob and explained that
it is not part of a spring. This question asks learners to answer from their own practical experience.

(b) This question was moderately answered. Many learners were seen calculating extension using this
equation e = Ɩ – L instead of the given equation e = Ɩ0 – L.

(c) There were many well-drawn, accurate graphs with clearly labelled axes. Scales were usually chosen
sensibly with very few impractical intervals which led to problems with determining more difficult
positions for plotted points.
Plotting was mostly careful and many learners indicated the plots with fine crosses. Small dots are
acceptable but are often obscured when the line is drawn through them, making it more difficult for plotting
points to be seen clearly. The large or thick crosses and dots (blobs) used by some learners are not
acceptable as the intended value cannot be determined clearly.
A sharp pencil should be used for the plots and for the line so that accurate drawing may be achieved and
errors easily corrected.
Many learners produced a well-judged straight line as intended and as indicated by their accurate plots.
However, some joined points together or forced the line through origin when the plots did not justify this.
The pattern of plots should indicate the trend of the line whether straight as expected or a simple curve.

(d) Most learners showed a clear, large triangle drawn on the graph line and the value of the gradient (k)
were often in the expected range. However, a small number of candidates drew triangles to plotted
points which were not on the best fit line or omitted a triangle altogether.
Expected answers
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
2 (a) rings may extend differently to the coils 1
2 (b) 3, 4, 7, 10, 11, 13 2
2 (c) • axes labelled with quantity and unit and the right 5
way round 
• scales suitable and plots occupying at least half of
grid in both x and y directions 
all six plots correct to ½ small square 
well-judged thin line (½ small square) 
2 (d) indication on graph in both x and y dimensions  4
substitution of points matching indication ()
answer in the appropriate range  
mm/N 
Total 12

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Question 3

(a) Most learners stated correct names of instruments however, few learners swooped them. Wrong
spellings of Ammeter and Voltmeter were also seen in very few learners.

(b) Most learners recorded the readings of potential difference correctly but the value of current was read
incorrectly as 0.28A, in many cases.

(c) (i) well answered.

(ii) Most learners calculated correctly but there were often rounding errors. Very few learners
recorded these values with inconsistent number of significant figures.

(iii) Most candidates gained full credit but inconsistence in recording values was seen in few cases.

(d) Very few learners answered this question correctly. Most learners could not use proportion from other
values of R or use of values.

(e) There were very few correct suggestions of possible sources of inaccuracy. It was expected that
these would refer to sources which the experimenter would have no control over such as temperature
of the wire, crocodile clip not being precise or interpolate readings on meters.
Most learners referred to poor experimental practice despite the question stating that the experiment was
carried out carefully.

(f) Most learners showed a circuit with a series variable resistor, but this was sometimes negated by a
line through the symbol.
Expected answers
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
3 (a) 1 voltmeter  2
2 ammeter 
(b) V = 2.6  2
I = 0.36 
(c) (i) V and A  1
(c) (ii) R = 4.81  and 3.24 2
(c) (iii) 0.080 and 0.081 or 0.08 and 0.08

(d) R30 = 2.4 (Ω) 1

(e) any one from: 1
difficult to judge position of crocodile clip,
difficult to measure wire to nearest mm,
contact between wire and crocodile clip not precise,
difficult to interpolate readings on meters between marks 
temperature of the wire may vary
(f) correct symbol for variable resistor  2
in series (with all circuit elements in correct arrangement)
Total 12

Question 4
Many learners did not do well on this question and showed lack of knowledge on experimental techniques. Most
learners had difficulty in interpreting the required practical approach to investigate the given relationship.
The vast majority completed the question.
There were very few detailed, clear, coherent plans for practical work which would investigate the relationship
between volume of hot water and the rate of cooling. Very few learners gained full credit on this question. The mark
scheme also allowed some credit for descriptions which although they may not have satisfied the given brief entirely,
contained aspects of good practice in thermal energy experiment.
The best response showed a logical approach, structured as suggested by the question, with concise sentences
which communicated ideas well. Learners can often miss straight forward points if planning is not approached in a
sequential way.

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The correct required apparatus was often identified, sometimes within the body of the instructions if missing from a
list at the start. A stopwatch was the most common omission. The use of containers that are similar or of the same
material with different volume of hot water was recognized by many.
Expected answers
Question Answer Additional guidance Mark
4 Method 4

M1 pour (hot) water into a (beaker)/container 

M2 measure the (initial) temperature of water (using

thermometer) 

M3 Record the temperature change at equal interval of time

using a stopwatch

M4Repeat the procedures using different volume of water

Precautions for accuracy - any ONE from: 1
M5
• view the thermometer at right angle 
• ensure that the thermometer does not touch the sides of
the container
• allow thermometer liquid to expand completely before
taking the reading
• hold the thermometer at the tip
• place the container on a levelled surface
• read the volume below the meniscus
• repeat the measurements and take average
Table: 1
M6 Record the measurements in the table with clear
columns (time & temperature) AND with appropriate units
graph: 1
M7
sketch of axes for:
• temperature change / rate of cooling against volume of
water  or
• temperature against time  or
• temperatures against volume of water 
conclusion: 1
M8
• compare the temperature change against volume of
water to see if there is a pattern 
• compare the steepness of the graphs
• compare the gradients of the graphs
Total 8

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WOODWORK
6190
Paper 1

SECTION A

Answer all the questions.

1 Most candidates find it easier to answer this knowledge base question and in most cases, all centres
answer this question correctly. There were few candidates who confused the ear muffs and indicated it as
head phones.
The answer to this Safety symbol is:

(a) Protect your ears by putting on ear plugs/wear hearing protection or ear defenders. Ear muffs /
headsets / noise zone area. [1]

(b) Well answered by most of the centres.

Possible answers are:
First aid kit/ box to assist in immediate injuries before assisted by medical professional personnel.
Emergency box [1]

2. This question was answered by all the candidates. Only very few candidates stated it as a belt sander.
Candidates are encouraged to make use of the shapes to identify the two types of sanding machines.
(a) Possible answer: Orbital sander or Orbital sanding machine [1]

(b) This question was well answered by most candidates.

Possible answer: To smoothen wood surfaces [1]

3. Discuss three basic first aid procedures that includes the ABC of first aid application
Most of the candidates expressed themselves well on the basic first aid procedures that include the ABCs
application.
Possible answers are:
Airways (A) - Ensure that the airways are clear of obstruction by checking if the victim is breathing.
Breathing (B) - Ensure that the patient is breathing by checking the breathing rate.
Provide rescue (CPR) breathing or chest compressions if the victim is not breathing/chest compressions.
Circulation (C) Check the blood circulation (pulse or observation of blood colour and temperature of hands or
fingers. [3]

4. (a) Identify the equipment shown in Fig. 2.

The holding device in Fig. 2 was correctly identified by most of the candidates
Possible answer: G – Clamp [1]

(b) Name part A in Fig. 2.

This part question was well answered by all the centres. Some of the candidates went as far as to the
extend of describing the use of it on the G Clamp.
Possible answers: Handle / an adjuster [1]

(c) Give one use for the hand tool in Fig. 2.

To hold /clamp two parts together when glued or prevent from moving when working on the object. [1]
A B C

5. (a) Identify saws represented by A, B, C in Fig. 3.

This question was not fairly answered by many candidates. This is an indication that many candidates are
not exposed to variety types of saws. Most of the centres answered tool A as Tenon saw, Tool C as Gun
saw. Centres are encouraged to have different types of saws (physically or either in pictures) for learner’s
exposal.

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Possible answers are:
A: Dovetail saw
B: Bow cut saw
C: Key hole saw

6. Name four steps to be followed when felling trees.

This question was not fairly attempted by many candidates. Few that have attempted the question, were on the
signs of maturity in trees. It come as evident that steps to be followed when felling trees need a serious attention.
Possible answers:
- Identifying of the tree / mark the matured tree to be felled
- Determine the direction in which it will fall
- Cut a notch (v) in the trunk
- Cut on the opposite side of the notch
- Tree will fall in the direction where the notch was cut (Any 4) [4]

7 State one purpose for the saw labelled C.

The purpose of the key hole saw part X

(a) Name a suitable joint that could be used to join part X.

Few candidates attempted to answer this part question. However, very few candidates managed to indicate
the suitable joint used to hold the legs of the chair together. Corner joint, Housing joint and Dovetail joint
were the most common wrong answers provided by the learners.
Possible answers:
Mortise and Tenon or Dowel joint [1]

(b) Give one advantage of using this joining method mentioned in (a).

Well answered by many centres.

Possible answers:
- Strong and durable
- Parts fitting in each other can be strengthened by applying wood glue for durability [1]

8 Identify two safety precautions that should be considered when using a chisel.
This question was well answered by most of the centres. It is evident that most of the candidates have skills on
using the Chisel safely.
Possible answers:
1. Secure the pieces you working on in the vice / or with clamp to prevent moving around or being loose.
2. Always use sharp chisel
3. Never use a chisel with loose handles because it can cause injury
4. Do not cut towards body (Any 2) [2]

9 (a) (i) Identify tool A and B shown in Fig. 5.

The boring tools were fairly identified by so many candidates.
Possible answers:
A. Brace (ratchet) drill
B. Hand drill [2]
(ii) Describe the care and maintenance for the tools in Fig. 5.
Caring and maintenance of boring tools in Fig.5 were well described by most of the candidates,
However, candidates are yet to describe the maintenances of tools before and after each work, for
prolonging the life span of tools and equipment.
Possible answers:
- Store the tools at the appropriate places when not in use
- Use the correct tools for the right purpose
- Oil / lubricate (lightly) the moving parts of tools [2]

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10. (a) Name the timber product shown in Fig. 6 and give one use for it.
This timber product was fairly attempted by many candidates. Yet many candidates are struggling to identify
them correctly. So many candidates confused block board with battens board which is not the correct
manufactured board.
Possible answer:
(i) Block board [1]

(ii) Block board is used to build long book shelves, tables and benches, single and double beds,
settees, and lengthy wall panels., and interior and exterior doors.
[1]

(b) Fig. 7 shows an incomplete exploded joint. Complete the joint by free-hand sketch.
Candidates answered well this part question. However, drawing techniques remains a challenge among
many candidates.
Possible answer:

SECTION B

11. (a) (i) Give a suitable thickness for the table top.
Well answered by most of the centres. Few candidates are yet to master the unit standard used in
measurements, which is millimeters (mm).
Possible answers:
the ISO standard thickness for the table top are ranged from 16mm – 32mm. [1]
(ii) Suggest a hardwood material that could be used for the wedge.
This part question was well answered. [1]
Possible answers:
Oak wood/ Red Meranti/ Mahogany/ Saligna/ Rose wood. [1]

(b) (i) Name a power tool that could be used to cut out curved parts of the table in Fig. 8
This question was well answered by most of the candidates.
Possible answers:
Jig saw/ Router / Band saw [1]
(ii) Use sketches and notes to show a free-hand sketch of the assembled table in Fig. 8
Only few candidates managed to show a complete assembled table showing the table top secured with
dowel joints (to be drawn with hidden lines), and the support should have a point out end locked with
the wedges.
(iii) Explain why the use of manufactured boards for furniture production could be helpful to the
environment.
Only few candidates answered this part question. Therefore, sustainable production should be taught to
learners.
Possible answers:
Avoid depletion of forest / Deforestation / Desertification
Bio gradable
(iv) State a suitable adhesive you could use to join the table.
Well answered by almost the centres. Epoxy glue is still mentioned by candidates. However, this
adhesive is not usable in woodwork
PVA wood glue [1]
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12. (i) Identify the part on the tree trunk that will develop into a knot.
Well answered by most centres.
Possible answer:
Branch [1]
(ii) State the function of the bark.
Few candidates failed to state the function of barks on the tree. However, many candidates managed to
score full marks.
Possible answers:
- It protects the tree from insect’s attacks.
- Protection against fire or weather elements
- Provides insulation in cold conditions [1]
(iii) Use sketches and notes to explain the conversion method - plain sawing.
This question was fairly answered by most candidates. Few candidates failed to score any mark based
on the wrong interpretation of the conversion method. Plain sawing. Sketches and notes should be
emphasized.
Possible answer:
in plain sawing method, timbers are converted in a straight cutting.
(iv) Describe the effects of knots workability on wood to produce quality output on timber.
Fairly answered. Few candidates lose marks by not stating the negative effect of knots based on the
workability of wood and wood product.
Possible effects are:
Knot affect wood /timber product creating weakness and planks could break easily knots create hole
in wood that eventually leads to weak spots. knots make it hard to plane the wood surface and drilling
holes or nailing can cause cracks, workability on wood become difficult to produce quality output on
timber. [3]
(v) Describe one safety factor that needs to be considered when using a jig-saw.
Well attempted by most centres. However, most candidates focused more on personal safety rather
than, stating the safe factors to be considered whenever one is using the Jig saw.
Possible answers:
Secure the work piece by using a clamp or bench vice
Use the correct blade with correct core.
Inspect the electrical cords for tear and wear
Ensure that the jig saw has a guard
Wear appropriate PPEs
(vi) Give one reason why a chain saw is suitable for cutting tree trunks.
This question was not well answered by many candidates. Learners are not exposed to the chain saw.
thus, they lose the mark by not stating the reason why it is used to cut down trees.
Possible answers:
The blade rotation is fast for effective cutting of logs, cut trees trunks that are in upright positions,
flexible by cutting from any angle and it save time and easy to use [1]

13. (a) Complete the table below by stating the processes and name the tools or equipment required to
produce the joint in Fig. 11.
Most of the candidates scored full marks on this part question. However, very few candidates mixed up
stage 2 and 3. Thus, they lose marks for that.
Possible answers:
stage process tools/equipment
Measuring and Mark out on two wood
1 Pencil/Marking gauge, Any appropriate measuring tools
pieces

2 Cutting the wastes and chiselling Back saw , Dovetail saw, chisels, smooth planes
3 Assembling/Joining parts together PVA glue , clamp, screws

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Files, Sanding paper, cloth to clean up excess glue,
4 Clean up the edges of the joint.
Orbital Sander (based on the paper grit)

(b) (i) Identify the defect in wood shown in Fig. 12. [1]
This part question was well answered by most of the candidates. This is evident that candidates do
recall different types of defects in wood.
Possible answers:
Warping (Sideways warping or Bowing)
(ii) Describe the effects of the defect mentioned in (i) regarding its workability.
Fairly answered by most candidates. However, the term ‘workability” remains a challenge for so many
candidates.
Possible answers:
changes the shape of the wood.
It will reduce the strength, and durability/usefulness.
Makes it hard to joint
Makes it not easy to cut [3]

14. (a) Identify the fasteners and fittings labelled A and B shown in Fig. 13.
A bolt was well answered by most candidates. The barrel bolt was confused with a lock and catches. Thus
candidates should be well equipped with knowledge of different fittings and fasteners.
Possible answers:
A Bolt
B Barrel Bolt [2]

(b) State four advantages of screws over nails.

This was fairly answered by most centres. However, candidates are expressing that screws gave a
decorative appearance over nails, which is not the case in this regards.
Possible answers are:
less shock to wood
does not bend easily
greater holding power
easily moveable [4]

(c) State important information required when ordering screws.

Candidates scored full marks for this part question.
Possible answers:
type of head
- kind of metal
- length / Size
- diameter of shank [4]

15. (a) Identify the parts labelled A and B shown in Fig. 14.
Parts of the belt sander were mentioned by most of the centres, however, they are yet calling a pushing
knob as a handle.
Possible answers:
A Knob
B Dust bag / waste bag / dust collector

(b) Give two advantages of using a belt sander to smoothen wood surfaces.
This question was not well constructed, in terms of listing two advantages comparison. Instead supposed to
list the advantages of belt sander against using sanding papers. Thus, many candidates lose full marks.
Possible answers:
faster in smoothing surfaces
Cover bigger surface areas

(c) Describe two safety precautions when using a belt sander.

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Well answered by most candidates.
Possible answers:
Avoid loose hanging objects because it may be trapped in the belt sander motion
Always put the belt on the sander correctly according to the direction of the rotation of the belt to have
optimal output on the surface to be send.
Ensure that the dust extraction sack/bag is on
Wear appropriate safety clothing (PPEs)

(d) Give four ways how to maintain the belt sander.

Candidates should be taught to differentiate and make a clear difference of care and maintenance vs storing
of tools and equipment in the storerooms.
NB: Care and Maintenance is the process of keeping something in good condition, no matter it is in working
or not.
Possible answers:
electric cords must be in good condition (no damaged cords)
- wire must be connected securely and correctly
- replace/change worn belts
- use damp cloth for cleaning it no moisture must reach the motor
- Clean the dust extraction on a regular basis
- lightly oil or rubricate the moving parts of the machine [4]

16. (d) Identify the joining products A and B shown in Fig. 15.
Well answered by most of the candidates. However, the products in the picture are not joints but joining
products.
A. Lamello (biscuits)
B. Dowel sticks [2]

(e) Give one advantage of using products A and B.

(b) A – modern way of joining boards

– fast and easy
– not visible

B – fast and easy

– not visible
– strong joining
– if not accurate can be redone easily

(f) Use sketches and notes to illustrate how product A can be marked out to join two wooden parts below.
Many of the candidates scored full marks for this part question. Few of them misunderstood the question.
Thus, they sketched a joint were all the two joining products were used.
Possible answers:
(c) - tools listed
- selected or prepare same size timber
- mark off location of the biscuit and cut depth of slots of both timbers
- clean slots and apply glue
- align the board and clean excessive glue

17. (a) Classify trees labelled A and B under the two major groups.
This knowledge based question was well answered by most candidates

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A Broad –leafed tree (hardwood trees)
B. Conifers (softwood trees) [2]

(b) (i) Identify the hand tool shown in Fig. 17.

This marking out tool was correctly identified by many candidates. Few candidates failed to score full
marks on this hand tool. Distinction should be done between a marking gauge and mortise gauge, by
looking at the number of pins on the tool.
Possible answer:
Mortise gauge [1]
(ii) Explain the purpose of the two pins.
Possible answers:
mark two parallel lines along the wood grain to make a mortise and Tenon joints

(c) State four advantages of kiln as a form of seasoning

Most of the candidates scored full marks for this part question by stating the four advantages of Kiln /
Artificial seasoning method.
Possible answers:
1. The kiln seasoning process is quick.
2. The drying of different surfaces is even and uniform.
3. Kiln seasoned timber is less amenable to the attack of insects and fungi.
4. This seasoning process requires less stacking space. [4]

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6190
Paper 2

General Comments/Findings

Upon reviewing the Paper 2 2024 comment sheets submitted by various centres, it was observed that there was
satisfactory clarity regarding the general drawings, communication, and measurements in Paper 2. Many centres
expressed their satisfaction with the examination content.
It is essential for each learner to have access to the following equipment during the exam:
• All cutting tools must be sharp.
• All equipment must be in good working condition.
Most centres adhered to the provided instructions, which is highly commendable. To enhance the assessment process,
centres should consistently provide photographic evidence to showcase learners’ skills and knowledge. This ensures
that markers find the evaluation process more straightforward and authentic.

PART A
Answer

Equipment
Each learner must have access to the following equipment during the exam.
All cutting tools must be sharp and all equipment must be in good working order.
Group tools needed
• Cutting tools
• Finishing tools
• Measuring tools
• Marking off tools
• Clamping tools
1 Planning
- Pencil
- Marking knife
- Try square
- Marking gauge
- Steel rule /Folding rule/measuring tape.
- Tenon saw
- Dove tail saw
- 6mm chisel
- Smoothening plane
- Rebate plane
- Wood Mallet [5]

Please note that Part A should be marked by DNEA and not by the teachers at centres. It has been detected that
some centres still mark Part A and C which should not be the case.

Part B
This part had to be partially marked by the subject teachers and photographic evidence had to be sent to DNEA. Most
marks were fairly and honestly awarded, some were somewhat strict and some very lenient. Photographic evidence
was included by all schools but the quality of some could have been better.
Congratulations to all eight center’s offering woodwork for dressing all candidates proper PPE.

Teacher assistance
Teachers are not allowed to assist in the preparation of the material besides what was required by DNEA.

Part C
Candidates where asked to write a short evaluation of the product they made.
The desired answer should’ve referred to most work done as well as a general reflection and pointing out some
imperfections.
Photographic evidence should be send in for moderation.
To the woodwork teacher:
Please note that Part A and C should be marked at the DNEA and not by the teachers at centre’s.

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

674
6190
Paper 3

GENERAL COMMENTS

The coursework for 2024 showed a considerable leap from 2023. It’s crucial that Regional Offices take an active role
in ensuring that Examiner’s Reports are thoroughly studied and their recommendations are implemented. Examiner’s
Reports provide valuable insights into areas where students excel and areas that require improvement, and acting on
these insights can significantly enhance teaching and learning outcomes.

Regional Offices should give continuous professional development (CPD) programmes for teachers teaching
woodwork. If possible, networking with DNEA, NIED and other regions with Senior Education Officers as well as
relevant stakeholders should be initiated to have teachers capacitated and assisted on a regular basis. Some centres
still spend too much attention and time on unrequested criterion. Introduction, design brief and specification were not
needed in the folder. This was the same case in 2023. It’s concerning that some folders show minimal effort, especially
given that the project starts in Grade 10 and is meant to be completed by the second term of Grade 11. To address this,
it’s essential to ensure that both candidate and teachers manage their time effectively throughout the process. One can
draw the conclusion that Centre Reports are not studied and recommendations not implemented by many centres. Due
to the defiant negligence by some centres, the assistance of the Regional Directors is needed to make sure that Senior
Education Officers and Circuit Inspectors study and analyse these reports and monitor that the recommendations are
implemented at schools that present woodwork as a subject.

Once again, Regional Offices, principals and HOD’s are pleaded to take the responsibility to ensure that the folders and
projects are monitored throughout Grades 10 and 11 towards the end of the second term of the Grade 11 year.

The folders should be internally moderated before the marks are dispatched to DNEA for external moderation. Regional
Offices must make sure that NSSC schools are provided with the necessary materials and tools for candidates to build
quality models. DNEA observed that some centres’ projects were compromised by the lack of adequate resources.

Candidates who do not submit photographic evidence or video footage will be negatively assessed. The sample of
work presented for moderation was suitable in most cases and centres generally applied the assessment criteria
appropriately, although, in some cases, this was not at the correct level.

Generation and Exploration of ideas

The majority of candidates presented three or more ideas and most gave neat and well thought ideas although too
much computer aided drawings are used. If computer aided drawings are used please use appropriate software and
not Microsoft Word Drawing tools. The overall intension is that learners should use their own ideas and presented as
a drawing, Isometric, picture view or free hand.

At least four to six ideas are acceptable but each idea needs details such as materials needed, size and dimensions,
reasoning for selection, evaluation and some evidence of testing.

Development of Proposed Solution

Compared to the previous year, this section had an improvement in some centres, the rest seem to not read the
instructions fully. Candidates included Isometric, freehand, orthographic and exploded drawings. Details of joining
methods as well as materials used were shown. Photographic evidence was well presented. Candidates should be
encouraged to present the development in a flow chart or similar that shows the sequence from the start until the
finishing.

Planning for production

Planning for production continues to be a challenge for candidates, as in previous years. This phase is critical
because it demonstrates students’ understanding of the entire manufacturing process, from material selection to the
steps required to assemble the final product. Some centres entirely skipped this part. This is where candidates can
show evidence of genuine design creativity and not copies from one or another source. Some candidates included
a step by step plan enhanced by clearly annotated sketches and others just presented a timeline. These steps can
be presented most successfully through sketches and candidates should be encouraged to include everything that
comes to mind. Annotations should include comments as to how an idea might link to the specification.

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

675
Product realisation
The physical products were well done although only three centres made use of solid wood and only one centre used
proper woodwork joints. Appraisal can be given to almost all centres that produced very compelling products and
supplied DNEA with clear photographical evidence.

Testing and Evaluation

All candidates included photographic evidence to show the testing of the product, which is commendable. They are,
however, encouraged to link the outcome of the original specifications and make objective judgements on the success
of their products.

The section should also include suggestions for further modifications or possible future improvements. Therefore,
centres are urged to ensure that the specifications are fully evaluated and tested in this section, which will guarantee
maximum marks for the candidates. Unfortunately, testing is simply putting pot plants on the product.

NSSCO Examiners Report 2024

676

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