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 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES

Candidate’s Name Assessment Number

School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
-MATHEMATICS-
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT
803: MATHEMATICS
TERM 2 ENDTERM 2025
Time: 1 hour 40 minutes
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Sign and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
5. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions numbered 1 to 30.
6. Section B comprises short, structured questions number 31 to 42.
7. Answer ALL the questions in section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.
8. Answer ALL the questions in section B in the spaces provided in this QUESTION PAPER.
9. Do NOT remove any page from this question paper.
10. Answer ALL the questions in English.
For official use only
Section Task Question No. of Max Candidate
Numbers Questions Score Score
Section A Multiple Choice Q1 – Q20 20 MCQs 20 marks
Section B Task 1 – Operations & Word Q21 – 3 16 marks
Problems Q23
Task 2 – Algebra & Geometry Q24 – 2 14 marks
Q25
Task 3 – Measurement & Q26 – 3 20 marks
Geometry Q28
Task 4 – Data Handling & Q29 – 3 18 marks
Probability Q31
Task 5 – Pie Chart & Time Q32 – 2 12 marks
Allocation Q33
TOTAL 100 marks
This paper consists of 13 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain
that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series
Turn over
 SECTION A: (20 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. What is the value of (−3)² + (−2)³? Working space

A. 17
B. 1
C. -1
D. -17
2. Express 0.45 as a simplified fraction.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3. The area of a triangle with base 12 cm and
height 8 cm is:
A. 96 cm²
B. 48 cm²
C. 20 cm²
D. 40 cm²
4. Solve the equation 4x − 7 = 9.
A. 0.5
B. 2
C. 4
D. 16
5. What is the next number in the sequence
2, 5, 10, 17, ...?
A. 24
B. 26
C. 28
D. 30
6. A shopkeeper buys an item at Ksh 200 and
sells it at Ksh 250. What is the percentage
profit?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 125%
7. The sum of angles in a quadrilateral is:
A. 90°
B. 180°
C. 270°
D. 360°
8. Simplify: 3(2a + b) − 2(a − 2b)
A. 4a − 3b
B. 4a + 7b
C. 8a − 3b
D. 8a + 5b
9. Convert 36 km/h to m/s. Working space
A. 0.1
B. 10
C. 100
D. 360
10. Find the square root of 289.
A. 15
B. 17
C. 18
D. 19
11. What is the value of the digit 5 in
345,678,902?
A. Ten million
B. Five million
C. Hundred thousand
D. Ten thousand
12. What is the interior angle of a regular
octagon?
A. 108°
B. 120°
C. 135°
D. 144°
13. Which shape has all sides equal but angles
not necessarily 90°?
A. Rectangle
B. Square
C. Rhombus
D. Trapezium
14. If y varies directly as x, and y = 12 when x
= 3, find y when x = 5.
A. 4
B. 15
C. 20
D. 60
15. Find the volume of a cuboid 5 cm by 3 cm
by 2 cm.
A. 10 cm³
B. 15 cm³
C. 30 cm³
D. 60 cm³
16. A bag contains 3 red, 2 green, and 5 blue
balls. Probability of picking red is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
17. What is the range of the set: 10, 18, 22, 15, Working space
25?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
18. Find the gradient between points (2, 4) and
(4, 8).
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 0
19. Constructing an angle of 90° using compass
and ruler involves bisecting:
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 180°
20. Convert 37.5°C to Kelvin. (K = °C + 273)
A. 310.5 K
B. 305.5 K
C. 312.5 K
D. 300.5 K
 SECTION B: (80 MARKS)

Answer all questions in the spaces provided. Show all workings.

Question 21.

(a) Evaluate: (4 marks)

(b) A farm is shared: Alice gets ⅓, Ben ½ of the remainder, Carol the rest. Total land is
30 hectares. Find land Carol gets. (4 marks)
(c) Round off 456.783:
(i) To the nearest ten.

(ii) To 1 decimal place. (2 marks)

(d) Express 0.0032 in standard form. (2 marks)

Question 22.

(a) Solve the simultaneous equation graphically

2x + 3y = 11
x − y = 3 (6 marks)
(b) Simplify the expression completely:

5x−3(2x−4)+x (2 marks)

(c) Factorize:
6x² − 18xy (2 marks)

(d) Solve:
3x + 2 = 27 (2 marks)

Question 23.

(a) The angles in a triangle are in ratio 2:3:5. Find the three angles. (4 marks)
(b) Construct a triangle ABC where AB = 6 cm, AC = 5 cm, and ∠BAC = 60°. (5 marks)

(c) Measure angle ABC and state its size. (2 marks)

(d) Construct the perpendicular bisector of line AB. (2 marks)

Question 24.

The marks scored by 10 learners: 15, 20, 25, 18, 30, 22, 28, 15, 24, 23
(a) Find:
(i) Mean (2 marks)

(ii) Median (2 marks)

iii) Range (1 mark)

(b) A bag has 7 red, 5 blue, and 3 green balls. A ball is picked at random. Find the
probability that:
(i) It is red (2 marks)

(ii) It is not blue (2 marks)

(iii) It is green or red (2 marks)

Question 25.

A cylindrical tank has diameter 1.4 m and height 2.1 m. Use π = .

(a) Find:
(i) Area of the base (3 marks)
(ii) Volume of the tank in cubic meters (2 marks)

(iii) Capacity in liters (1 m³ = 1000 L) (2 marks)

(b) A car moves 120 km in 2 hours. Find:

(i) Its average speed in km/h (2 marks)

(ii) Convert the speed to m/s (2 marks)

(iii) How far will it go in 45 minutes? (2 marks)

 Question 26.

The table shows the number of chapatis sold per day:

Day Chapatis Sold Frequency

Mon 10 2
Tue 12 4
Wed 14 3
Thu 16 5
Fri 18 1

a) Draw a bar graph to represent the total number of chapatis sold per day. ( 3 marks)
b) How many chapatis were sold that week? (2 marks)

c) Find the mean number of chapatis sold. (2 marks)

Question 27

A learners's daily routine is as follows:

Sleep: 8 hours
School: 6 hours
Homework: 2 hours
Other: 8 hours

a) Draw a well labelled pie chart to represent the information above. (3 marks)

b) What angle on a pie chart represents 'School'? (2 marks)

c) What percentage of time is spent on 'Homework'? (2 marks)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES
Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT

801/1: ENGLISH (Reading Comprehension, Oral Skills and Grammar)

Paper 1 ENDTERM 2 2025

Time: 1 hour 40 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. You have been given this question paper and a separate answer sheet. The question paper
consists of 50 multiple choice questions.
2. Answer ALL questions on the ANSWER SHEET provided, NOT on the question paper.
3. Do all the necessary rough work on the question paper.

HOW TO USE THE ANSWER SHEET

4. Use an ordinary HB pencil.

5. Confirm that the answer sheet you have been provided with has the following:

YOUR ASSESSMENT NUMBER YOUR NAME NAME OF YOUR SCHOOL NAME OF THE SUBJECT

6. Keep the answer sheet clean and dry. DO NOT fold it.
-ENGLISH-

7. For each of the questions 1 – 50, four options are given. The options are lettered A, B, C and
D. In each case, only ONE of the four options is correct. Choose the correct option.
8. On the answer sheet, the correct answer is to be shown by drawing a DARK LINE inside the
box in which the letter you have chosen is written.

Example In the Question paper:

40. Which one of the following means the opposite of the word “better”?

A. weak B. wrong C. worse D. wasted

The correct answer is „C‟. On the answer sheet, in the set of boxes given for number 40, draw a
DARK LINE inside the box with the letter C printed in it as marked below.

40 A B C D

9. Your dark line MUST be within the box. DO NOT make any marks outside the boxes.
10. For each question, ONLY ONE box is to be marked.

This paper consists of 5 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to
ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series
Turn over
 Read the following story and answer questions 1 to 6.

Long ago, Hare was known for his cleverness, but also for his trickery. One day, he challenged Tortoise to a
race. Tortoise was slow, and Hare was very fast, so Hare was sure to win. They agreed to race from the big
mango tree to the riverbank.

On the day of the race, Hare dashed off quickly, leaving Tortoise far behind. After running for a while, Hare
got tired and decided to take a nap under a shady tree. He thought, "Tortoise is so slow, he will never catch
up!" Hare fell fast asleep.

Meanwhile, Tortoise kept walking slowly but steadily. He never stopped, not even for a rest. By the time
Hare woke up, Tortoise was already near the riverbank. Hare was surprised and ran as fast as he could, but it
was too late. Tortoise reached the finish line first and won the race.

From that day on, Hare learned that being slow and steady can sometimes be better than being fast and
careless.

1. Why was Hare sure that he would win the 4. What surprised Hare when he woke up?
race? A. That the sun was setting.
A. Because Tortoise was also very fast. B. That Tortoise was near the finish line.
B. Because he was known for his kindness. C. That other animals had joined the race.
C. Because Tortoise was slow and Hare was D. That he had slept for a long time.
fast. 5. The phrase "dashed off quickly" in the story
D. Because they were racing to his home. means
2. Where did Hare decide to take a nap? A. walked away slowly.
A. Under the big mango tree. B. ran away very fast.
B. Near the riverbank. C. hopped around playfully.
C. Under a shady tree. D. crawled on the ground.
D. In Tortoise's house. 6. What is the main lesson we learn from this
3. What did Tortoise do during the race? story?
A. He ran very fast. A. It is good to take naps when you are tired.
B. He stopped to eat mangoes. B. Being fast always leads to success.
C. He walked slowly and steadily. C. Slow and steady wins the race.
D. He asked Hare for help. D. Cleverness is more important than speed.

Read the following poem and answer questions 7 to 11.

My Little Seed

I planted a little seed, In soil soft and brown.

I gave it water every day, As the sun shone down.
Slowly, slowly, day by day, A tiny sprout appeared.
It reached up tall and green and strong, My little seed I cheered.
It grew some leaves and then a bud, A promise sweet and small.
And then one day, a lovely bloom, The prettiest of all!

7. What did the speaker plant? 8. What did the speaker give the seed every day?
A. A big tree B. A small flower A. Sunlight B. Water C. Fertilizer D. Air
C. A little seed D. A green leaf
 9. What appeared after the seed was planted? 11. What grew after the leaves on the plant?
A. A big fruit A. A strong branch
B. A tiny sprout B. A sweet fruit
C. A long root C. A lovely bloom
D. A colorful bird D. A small bud
10. The word "sprout" in the poem means
A. a flower that is fully grown.
B. a new, young plant.
C. a seed that is ready to be planted.
D. a leaf that has fallen off a plant.

Read the following instructions on how to wash your hands properly and answer questions 12 to 16.

How to Wash Your Hands

 Wet your hands with clean, running water.

 Apply soap and lather your hands by rubbing them together. Make sure to lather the backs of your
hands, between your fingers, and under your nails.
 Scrub your hands for at least 20 seconds. You can hum the "Happy Birthday" song twice to time
yourself.
 Rinse your hands well under clean, running water.
 Dry your hands using a clean towel or an air dryer.

12. What is the first step in washing your hands B. To remove all the dirt and germs.
properly? C. To make the soap last longer.
A. Apply soap. D. To make your hands feel soft.
B. Rinse your hands. 15. What can you do to make sure you scrub your
C. Wet your hands. hands for the right amount of time?
D. Dry your hands. A. Count to ten.
13. How long should you scrub your hands with B. Sing your favorite song once.
soap? C. Hum the "Happy Birthday" song twice.
A. For 5 seconds. D. Wash your hands very quickly.
B. For at least 20 seconds. 16. What should you use to dry your hands after
C. Until they are dry. washing them?
D. Until the soap disappears. A. Your clothes.
14. Why should you lather the backs of your hands B. A dirty cloth.
and between your fingers? C. A clean towel or an air dryer.
A. To make your hands smell good. D. The air only, without wiping.

Complete the following conversation between two friends, Ken and Alice. Choose the best response for
the blanks numbered 17 to 20.

Ken: Hi Alice, have you read the new book by our favorite author?
Alice: Hello Ken! No, I haven't. …………………………17.
Ken: It's a really exciting adventure story. I think you would enjoy it.
Alice: Oh, that sounds interesting. ……………...…………18.
Ken: I borrowed it from the school library. You can borrow it from me when I'm done.
Alice: …………………19. When do you think you will finish reading it?
Ken: Probably in a few days. I'm almost halfway through.
Alice: …………………….20. I'll look forward to it!

17. A. Is it a storybook? 19. A. That's not a good idea.

B. What is it about? B. Thank you very much!
C. Who is the author? C. I don't like reading.
D. Where did you buy it? D. Maybe I should buy my own copy.
18. A. Do you have it with you? 20. A. I have other books to read.
B. Where did you get it? B. I don't like adventure stories.
C. Can we read it together? C. Great! Let me know when you are done.
D. Have you read other books? D. I will ask someone else.

Read the following passage with missing words and choose the best word to fill each blank numbered 21
to 30.

Yesterday, my family and I went for a picnic in the park. The sun was shining …………..21. and the birds
were singing sweetly. We spread a large blanket …………22. the green grass and unpacked our food. My
mother had prepared delicious sandwiches, fruits, and juice. My younger brother started to …………..23. a
ball, while my sister and I helped to set out the plates and cups.

After eating, we decided to ………………24. some games. We played hide-and-seek and tag. It was a lot of
…………..25. running around and laughing together. Later, we sat …………..26. the shade of a big tree and
read books. My father told us some interesting ……………..27. about his childhood.

As the afternoon …………….28. to an end, we packed up our things. We made sure to leave the picnic area
clean and tidy. We all felt happy and …………………29. after spending such a wonderful day ………….30. nature.

21. A. brightly B. loudly C. softly D. quickly

22. A. on B. under C. beside D. over
23. A. cook B. eat C. play D. watch
24. A. watch B. read C. play D. sing
25. A. work B. fun C. noise D. trouble
26. A. on B. in C. under D. beside
27. A. questions B. stories C. songs D. drawings
28. A. came B. went C. drew D. moved
29. A. angry B. tired C. relaxed D. bored
30. A. at B. in C. near D. around

33. The children are ___________ (play) in the garden

For questions 31 to 40, choose the correct form of the right now.
word in brackets to complete the sentences. A) play
B) played
31. My friend and I often ___________ (go) to the C) are playing
library on Saturdays. D) plays
A) go B) went 34. Yesterday, we ___________ (visit) our
C) gone D) going grandparents.
32. She ___________ (write) a beautiful poem for her A) visit
mother. B) visited
A) writes B) wrote C) visiting
C) written D) writing D) have visited
 35. If I ___________ (know) the answer, I would tell B. along
you. C. through
A) know B) knew D. around
C) known D) knowing 44. The gift is ___________ you.
36. They ___________ (be) very excited about the A. for
upcoming school trip. B. to
A) is B) am C) are D) be C. with
37. The cat ___________ (catch) a mouse in the D. at
kitchen. 45. They live ___________ a big city.
A) catch B) caught C) catches D) catching A. on
38. We are ___________ (learn) about different B. in
cultures in our social studies class. C. at
A) learn D. near
B) learned
C) learning 46. Which of the following sentences uses correct
D) learns punctuation?
39. He ___________ (help) his father wash the car last A. My favorite colors are blue green and yellow.
weekend. B. My favorite colors are blue, green and yellow?
A) help C. My favorite colors are blue, green, and yellow.
B) helps D. My favorite colors are blue green, and yellow!
C) helped
D) helping 47. Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.
40. By next year, I will have ___________ (finish) my A. Them boys are playing football.
degree. B. Those boys is playing football.
A) finish C. Those boys are playing football.
B) finished D. That boys are playing football.
C) finishing
D) finishes 48. Choose the best way to rewrite the following
sentence in passive voice.
For questions 41 to 45, choose the correct preposition
to complete the sentences. The teacher praised the students.

41. The book is ___________ the table. A. The students praise the teacher.
A. in B. The students were praised by the teacher.
B. on C. The students are praised by the teacher.
C. under D. The teacher was praised by the students.
D. beside
42. The cat jumped ___________ the chair. For questions 49 and 50, choose the word that is
A. over B. under opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
C. into D. behind
43. She walked ___________ the street.
A. across
49. The journey was long and tiring.

A. short B. fast C. easy D. pleasant

50. She always helps her classmates.

A. teaches B. ignores C. likes D. joins

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES
Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT

801/2

ENGLISH (Composition and Literary Analysis)

Paper 2

TERM 2 ENDTERM 2025

Time: 1 hour 50 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided.

2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided.
3. Write the date of the assessment and sign in the spaces provided.
4. This question paper consists of two sections: A and B.
5. Answer ALL questions in this paper.
6. Write ALL the answers in the spaces provided in this question paper.
7. Do NOT remove any page from this question paper.
8. Answer the questions in English.
-ENGLISH-

For official use only

SECTION TASK Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

A Task 1 1 15
B Task 2 2 10
Task 3 3 5
Task 4 4 10
Task 5 5 10
Total: 50

This paper consists of 8 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that
all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series
Turn over
SECTION A: COMPOSITION (15 MARKS)

TASK 1: COMPOSITION

1. Write your composition in the spaces provided.

Write a composition beginning:

The day started like any other. Little did I know that by sunset, my life would have changed
completely.

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SECTION B: LITERARY ANALYSIS (35 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

TASK 2: ORAL LITERATURE (10 marks)

2. Read the story below and then answer the questions that follow.

Spider was known for his greed. One day, he heard that the Sky God was inviting everyone to a feast, but
only those who brought themselves. Spider wanted to go, but he didn't want to carry himself because he was
lazy.

So, Spider collected all sorts of sticky threads. He spun a very long thread and tied one end to his waist. Then,
he asked his children to each hold onto a part of the thread and hide in different corners of the land. He told
them that when he shouted a special word, they should all pull him towards the sky.

When the day of the feast arrived, Spider shouted the special word. All his children pulled, and Spider was
lifted into the sky. He arrived at the Sky God's feast without carrying himself.

However, the Sky God was wise. He knew Spider's trick. After the feast, when it was time to go down, the
Sky God announced that everyone should jump down. Spider couldn't jump because he would fall. He was
trapped in the sky, all because of his greed and trickery.

(a) Identify the following in this story. (2 marks)

i. A trickster character:
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

ii. A wise character:

________________________________________________________________________

(b) If you were to narrate this story in a school assembly, give two ways you would make it lively for the
audience. (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

(c) What does Spider's plan to reach the Sky God's feast reveal about his character? (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
(d) Give an example of each of the following features of style in this story.

i. Dialogue (1 mark)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

ii. Irony (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

(e) What important lesson can be learned from this story? (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
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TASK 3: POETRY (5 marks)

3. Read the poem below and then answer the questions that follow.

Our Village Market

Early in the morning light, The market square is a busy sight.

Vendors call out, their voices strong, Selling their goods all day long.

Fruits and vegetables, fresh and bright, Clothes and crafts, a colorful flight.

People gather, friends meet and greet, The heart of our village, oh so sweet.

As evening falls, the crowds depart, Leaving behind an empty heart.

But tomorrow brings the same old cheer, To our beloved market square, so dear.

(a) What is the subject of this poem? (1 mark)

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(b) Identify two words in the poem that create a sense of sound. (2 marks)
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(c) What does the phrase "the heart of our village" suggest about the market? (2 marks)
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TASK 4: DRAMA (10 marks)

4. Read the section of a play below and then answer the questions that follow.

Scene Three

A classroom. Teacher Wanjiku is writing on the blackboard. Two learners, Kamau and Njeri, are talking
quietly.

TEACHER WANJIKU: (Turning around) Kamau, Njeri, is there something you would like to share with
the rest of the class?

KAMAU: (Looking down) No, Madam. We were just... asking about the homework.

NJERI: Yes, Madam. We didn't understand question number three.

TEACHER WANJIKU: (Sighing) You know you should be paying attention when I explain. Now, listen
carefully. For question three... (She begins to explain).

(Another learner, Omondi, raises his hand.)

TEACHER WANJIKU: Yes, Omondi?

OMONDI: Madam, can you please explain it again? I also didn't understand.

TEACHER WANJIKU: (Smiling patiently) Of course, Omondi. It's important that everyone understands.
Let's go through it one more time, slowly.

(The teacher continues to explain the question.)

(a) Where does this scene of the play take place? (2 marks)
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(b) What is the main issue being addressed in this scene? (2 marks)
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(c) With examples, identify two character traits of Teacher Wanjiku. (4 marks)
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(d) What does the learners' need for clarification suggest about learning? (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
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TASK 5: NOVELLA (10 marks)

5. Read the section of a novella below and then answer the questions that follow.

The small island was home to a close-knit community. They relied on fishing for their livelihood and lived
peacefully with the rhythm of the sea. One day, a large, modern fishing ship arrived near their shores. The
ship had powerful nets and sophisticated equipment.

At first, the islanders were curious. But soon, they noticed that the ship was catching a huge number of fish,
far more than they ever did. Their own catches started to dwindle. Fear began to spread among the
community.

Old Man Kai, the wisest among them, warned that if the big ship continued, their fishing grounds would be
empty, and their way of life would be destroyed. The younger people grew angry, wanting to confront the
ship's crew. The future of their island and their traditions hung in the balance.

(a) What is the main setting of this part of the novella? (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

(b) Describe two ways the arrival of the fishing ship affected the island community. (4 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

(c) Name two groups of people mentioned in this section of the novella. (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________
(d) What conflict is emerging in this part of the novella? (2 marks)
________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________

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 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES

Jina Ya Mtahiniwa Nambari Ya Mtihani

Jina Ya Shule Namba Ya Shule
Saini Ya Mtahiniwa Tarehe
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT

802/1 KISWAHILI LUGHA

Karatasi ya 1

MUHULA 2 2025
-KISWAHILI-

Muda: Saa 1 dakika 40

MAAGIZO KWA WATAHINIWA

1. Umepewa kijitabu hiki chenye maswali 50.

2. Jibu maswali yote kwenye karatasi ya majibu uliyopewa. Usijibu chochote kwenye kijitabu hiki.

JINSI YA KUTUMIA KARATASI YA MAJIBU

3. Tumia penseli ya kawaida, aina ya HB.

4. Hakikisha karatasi yako ya majibu ina:

NAMBARI YAKO YA MTIHANI JINA LAKO JINA LA SHULE YAKO JINA LA

SOMO

5. Weka karatasi yako ya majibu safi na usikunje.

6. Kwa kila swali, 1 – 50, umepewa majibu manne, A, B, C, D. Chagua jibu sahihi.

7. Kwenye karatasi ya majibu, onyesha jibu sahihi kwa kuchora kistari katika kisanduku chenye herufi uliyochagua kuwa jibu sahihi.

Mfano: Katika kijitabu cha maswali:

25. Orodha ifuatayo ni ya majina ya vitu vinavyopatikana katika mazingira yako. Ni jibu lipi lenye vitu vinavyotajwa na nomino za ngeli ya I-ZI?

A. kucha, sahani B. kuta, ngoma C. nyuta, kamba D. pamba, taa

Jibu sahihi ni ‘D’.

Jibu sahihi ni ‘D’. Katika karatasi ya majibu, palipo na visanduku vinavyoonyesha majibu ya swali namba 25, chora kistari ndani ya
kisanduku chenye herufi D.

25. [A] [B] [C] [D] Chora kistari chako vizuri. Kistari chako kiwe cheusi na kisijitokeze nje ya kisanduku.

Kwa kila swali, chora kistari katika kisanduku kimoja tu, kati ya visanduku vinne ulivyopewa.

Kijitabu hiki kina kurasa 7 zilizopigwa chapa. Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote
za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.

© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series

Geuza ukurasa
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu swali la 1 hadi la 6.

Hapo zamani za kale, katika kijiji kimoja kilichokuwa karibu na msitu mnene, waliishi ndege wa ajabu.
Ndege hawa walikuwa na manyoya ya rangi zote za upinde wa mvua na sauti zao zilikuwa tamu kuliko
asali. Watu wa kijiji hicho waliwapenda sana ndege hawa na waliwaamini kuwa walikuwa na baraka
maalum.
Siku moja, mvua kubwa ilianza kunyesha na haikuacha kwa siku nyingi. Mto uliokuwa karibu na kijiji
ulifurika na maji yakaanza kuingia kwenye nyumba za watu. Watu walikuwa na hofu kubwa na hawakujua
la kufanya.
Katika hali hiyo ya kukata tamaa, ndege wale wa ajabu walikusanyika juu ya kijiji. Walianza kuimba wimbo
mmoja wa ajabu ambao haukuwahi kusikika hapo awali. Sauti zao zilienea hewani na kufikia masikio ya
watu wote.
Wakati ndege wanaimba, mvua ilianza kupungua polepole. Mto ulianza kurudi kwenye matandiko yake na
maji yakaanza kupungua kutoka kwenye nyumba za watu. Watu walishangaa sana na walifurahi. Waliamini
kuwa ni ndege wale ndio waliookoa kijiji chao.
Tangu siku hiyo, watu wa kijiji waliwapa ndege wale heshima kubwa zaidi. Waliwakaribisha kwenye
makazi yao na hawakuwahi kuwadhuru. Walijua kuwa ndege wale walikuwa zawadi maalum kutoka kwa
Mungu.
Na hivyo, kijiji kiliendelea kuishi kwa amani na furaha, wakikumbuka daima jinsi ndege wa ajabu
walivyoleta matumaini wakati wa shida.
1. Kulingana na kifungu, ndege wa ajabu 4. Watu waliamini nini baada ya mvua
walikuwa na sifa gani? kupungua?

A. Manyoya meusi na sauti mbaya. A. Walijiokoa wenyewe.

B. Manyoya ya rangi zote za upinde wa mvua na B. Ni bahati tu ilikuwa imebadilika.
sauti tamu. C. Ndege wale ndio waliookoa kijiji chao.
C. Manyoya ya kahawia na sauti ya kawaida. D. Mungu hakuwa na uhusiano wowote na tukio
D. Manyoya meupe na hawakuwa na sauti. hilo.

2. Ni tatizo gani lililikumba kijiji? 5. Watu wa kijiji walifanyaje kwa ndege

baada ya tukio hilo?
A. Ukame mrefu.
B. Moto mkubwa msituni. A. Waliwafukuza.
C. Mvua kubwa na mafuriko. B. Waliwaua.
D. Ugonjwa hatari. C. Waliwapa heshima kubwa na kuwakaribisha.
D. Waliwapuuza.
3. Nini kilitokea wakati ndege walianza
kuimba? 6. Kisa hiki kinatufundisha nini?

A. Mvua iliongezeka. A. Ndege hawawezi kusaidia watu.

B. Mto ulifurika zaidi. B. Mvua kubwa ni jambo la kawaida.
C. Mvua ilipungua polepole. C. Kuwa na imani na kuthamini msaada.
D. Upepo mkali ulianza kuvuma. D. Sauti tamu haina maana yoyote.

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu swali la 7 hadi la 12.

Kijiji cha Tumaini kilikuwa maarufu kwa ukarimu wake. Watu wote walikuwa na roho ya kusaidiana na
kushirikiana. Hakukuwa na mtu aliyehisi upweke au kutelekezwa. Kila mmoja alijua kuwa anaweza
kumtegemea jirani yake kwa msaada wowote.
Siku moja, msichana mgeni aliwasili kijijini. Jina lake lilikuwa Zaina. Alikuwa amepoteza njia na alikuwa
amechoka sana na mwenye njaa. Alipofika kwenye nyumba ya kwanza, aliomba msaada.
Mama mwenye nyumba, Mama Furaha, alimkaribisha Zaina kwa uchangamfu. Alimpa maji ya kunywa na
chakula kitamu. Zaina alishukuru sana kwa ukarimu huo.
Habari za kuwasili kwa Zaina zilienea haraka kijijini. Watu wengi walikuja kumwona na kumkaribisha. Kila
mmoja alitaka kumsaidia kwa njia yake. Wengine walimletea nguo, wengine walimpa mahali pa kulala, na
wengine walimsaidia kutafuta familia yake.
Zaina alishangaa sana na ukarimu wa watu wa kijiji cha Tumaini. Alikuwa hajawahi kukutana na watu
wakarimu kama hao hapo awali. Alihisi amepata nyumbani.
Baada ya siku chache, familia ya Zaina ilipatikana na walikuja kumchukua. Zaina aliondoka kijijini huku
machozi yakimtoka kwa furaha na huzuni. Alifurahi kukutana na familia yake lakini alihuzunika kuwaacha
watu wakarimu wa kijiji cha Tumaini.
Aliahidi kuwa hatasahau ukarimu wao na angejaribu kuiga mfano wao katika maisha yake yote. Kijiji cha
Tumaini kiliendelea kuwa mfano wa ukarimu na upendo kwa wageni wote waliopita.
7. Kijiji cha Tumaini kilikuwa maarufu kwa 10. Watu wa kijiji walifanyaje baada ya kusikia
sifa gani? kuhusu Zaina?

A. Uvivu na ubahili. A. Walimp игнорировать.

B. Ukarimu na ushirikiano. B. Walimcheka.
C. Ugomvi na wivu. C. Walikuja kumwona na kumsaidia.
D. Hofu na uoga. D. Walimzomea.

8. Nani alifika kijijini akiwa amechoka na 11. Zaina alihisije kuhusu watu wa kijiji cha
mwenye njaa? Tumaini?

A. Mama Furaha. A. Aliwaogopa.

B. Jirani wa kwanza. B. Aliwachukia.
C. Msichana mgeni aliyeitwa Zaina. C. Alishangaa ukarimu wao na kuhisi amepata
D. Familia ya Zaina. nyumbani.
D. Aliwapuuza.
9. Mama Furaha alimfanyia nini Zaina
alipoomba msaada? 12. Zaina aliahidi nini alipoondoka kijijini?

A. Alimfukuza. A. Angesahau kila kitu kuhusu kijiji.

B. Alimpiga. B. Angerudi haraka iwezekanavyo.
C. Alimkaribisha na kumpa chakula na maji. C. Hatasahau ukarimu wao na angejaribu kuiga
D. Alimp игнорировать. mfano wao.
D. Angeongea vibaya kuhusu kijiji.
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu swali la 13 hadi la 17.

Umuhimu wa elimu katika maisha ya binadamu hauwezi kupuuzwa. Elimu ni ufunguo wa mafanikio na
maendeleo katika nyanja zote za maisha. Mtu aliyeelimika ana uwezo mkubwa wa kufanya maamuzi bora,
kutatua matatizo, na kuchangia vyema katika jamii.
Elimu humpa mtu ujuzi na maarifa yanayomsaidia kupata kazi nzuri na kujipatia kipato. Katika dunia ya leo
inayozidi kuwa na ushindani, elimu bora ni muhimu sana kwa ajili ya kupata ajira yenye malipo mazuri.
Zaidi ya hayo, elimu humsaidia mtu kukuza uwezo wake wa kufikiri kwa kina na kwa ubunifu. Kupitia
elimu, mtu anajifunza kuchambua taarifa, kutoa hoja zenye mantiki, na kuunda mawazo mapya. Hii ni
muhimu sana katika kukabiliana na changamoto za maisha.
Elimu pia ina jukumu kubwa katika kukuza maadili mema na uraia wema. Kupitia elimu, mtu anajifunza
kuhusu haki, wajibu, na umuhimu wa kuheshimiana. Hii husaidia kujenga jamii yenye amani na ushirikiano.
Serikali na jamii kwa ujumla zina wajibu wa kuhakikisha kuwa kila mtoto anapata elimu bora. Kuwekeza
katika elimu ni kuwekeza katika maendeleo ya taifa. Elimu ndio msingi wa jamii yenye ustawi na
maendeleo endelevu.
Kwa kumalizia, tunapaswa kutambua umuhimu wa elimu na kuhakikisha kuwa tunaitafuta kwa bidii. Elimu
ni hazina isiyoisha ambayo humsaidia mtu kufikia malengo yake na kuchangia vyema katika ujenzi wa
dunia bora.
13. Kifungu kinazungumzia nini hasa?

A. Umuhimu wa kazi kuliko elimu. B. Umuhimu wa elimu katika maisha ya binadamu.

C. Changamoto za kupata elimu bora. D. Jinsi ya kupata pesa nyingi bila elimu.

14. Elimu humsaidiaje mtu kupata kazi nzuri?

A. Kwa kumfanya awe mvivu. B. Kwa kumfanya awe na ujuzi na maarifa yanayohitajika.
C. Kwa kumfanya awe na kiburi. D. Kwa kumfanya awe na hasira.

15. Elimu inasaidiaje kukuza uwezo wa kufikiri?

A. Kwa kumfanya mtu akubali kila kitu anachoambiwa.

B. Kwa kumfanya mtu asisome vitabu.
C. Kwa kumfundisha mtu kuchambua taarifa na kutoa hoja zenye mantiki.
D. Kwa kumfanya mtu awe na mawazo finyu.

16. Ni jukumu gani la elimu katika jamii? 17. Ni wajibu wa nani kuhakikisha kila mtoto
anapata elimu bora?
A. Kukuza ugomvi na chuki.
B. Kukuza maadili mema na uraia wema. A. Wazazi pekee.
C. Kukuza ubahili na uvivu. B. Walimu pekee.
D. Kukuza uongo na udanganyifu. C. Serikali na jamii kwa ujumla.
D. Watoto wenyewe.
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu swali la 18 hadi la 20.

Bwana Juma ana duka kubwa la kuuza vifaa vya shule. Wateja wake wengi ni wazazi na wanafunzi kutoka
shule mbalimbali. Anauza vitabu, madaftari, kalamu, penseli, rula, na vifaa vingine vingi.
Kila mwezi, Bwana Juma huagiza bidhaa mpya kutoka kwa wasambazaji. Anahakikisha kuwa anakuwa na
akiba ya kutosha ya vifaa vyote ili kukidhi mahitaji ya wateja wake.

Katika kipindi cha kuanza shule, duka lake huwa na wateja wengi sana. Wazazi huja kununua vifaa kwa ajili
ya watoto wao na wanafunzi huja kujinunulia mahitaji yao. Bwana Juma na wafanyakazi wake hufanya kazi
kwa bidii kuhudumia wateja wote kwa haraka na kwa ufanisi.
Bwana Juma anapenda sana kazi yake kwa sababu anajua kuwa anachangia katika elimu ya watoto.
Anafurahi kuwaona wanafunzi wakija dukani kwake wakiwa na furaha na matumaini ya kuanza muhula
mpya wa masomo.
18. Bwana Juma anauza nini dukani kwake? 19. Ni nani wateja wakuu wa duka la Bwana
Juma?
A. Chakula na vinywaji.
B. Nguo na viatu. A. Wafanyabiashara wengine.
C. Vifaa vya shule. B. Watalii.
D. Samani za nyumbani. C. Wazazi na wanafunzi.
D. Madereva na kondakta.
 20. Kwa nini Bwana Juma anapenda kazi yake?

A. Kwa sababu anapata pesa nyingi.

B. Kwa sababu anapumzika sana.
C. Kwa sababu anachangia katika elimu ya watoto.
D. Kwa sababu anapenda kukaa dukani peke yake.

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu swali la 21 hadi la 25.

(Mama anazungumza na mtoto wake, Amina.)

Mama: Amina, umemaliza kufanya kazi zako za nyumbani?

Amina: Bado mama. Nimefanya kusafisha chumba changu na kuosha vyombo, lakini sijafanya bado
kufagia uwanja.

Mama: Ni muhimu kumaliza kazi zote ulizopewa. Ufagie uwanja sasa hivi kabla giza halijaingia.

Amina: Sawa mama. Nitaenda kufanya hivyo mara moja.

(Amina anatoka nje na kuanza kufagia uwanja. Baada ya muda mfupi, anarudi ndani.)

Amina: Mama, nimemaliza kufagia uwanja. Kuna kazi nyingine ninayopaswa kufanya?

Mama: Asante sana Amina kwa kumaliza kazi zako. Sasa unaweza kupumzika kidogo kabla ya kufanya
kazi zako za shule.

Amina: Sawa mama. Nitapumzika kidogo kisha nianze kusoma.

Mama: Hiyo ni vizuri. Ni muhimu kuwa na nidhamu katika kufanya kazi na kusoma.

Amina: Nimeelewa mama. Nitajitahidi kuwa na nidhamu kila wakati.

Mama: Ninafurahi kusikia hivyo. Endelea hivyo Amina, utafanikiwa.

21. Amina alikuwa amefanya kazi gani za 23. Mama alimtaka Amina afanye nini mara
nyumbani tayari? moja?

A. Kupika chakula na kufua nguo. A. Aende kucheza. B. Afanye kazi za shule.

B. Kununua bidhaa dukani na kumwagilia maua. C. Afagie uwanja. D. Apumzike.
C. Kusafisha chumba chake na kuosha vyombo.
D. Kufagia uwanja na kupanga vitabu. 24. Baada ya kumaliza kufagia, Amina alifanya
nini?
22. Ni kazi gani Amina alikuwa bado
haijafanya? A. Alianza kucheza na marafiki zake.
B. Alirudi ndani na kuuliza kama kuna kazi
A. Kuosha vyombo. nyingine.
B. Kusafisha chumba chake. C. Alikwenda kulala.
C. Kufagia uwanja. D. Alianza kupika chakula.
D. Kupika chakula.
25. Mama alimshauri Amina kuhusu nini?
A. Umuhimu wa kucheza sana.
B. Umuhimu wa kuwa na nidhamu katika kazi na kusoma.
C. Umuhimu wa kulala sana.
D. Umuhimu wa kuepuka kufanya kazi.

Kifungu kifuatacho kina nafasi 26 hadi 35. Umepewa majibu manne hapo. Chagua jibu lifaalo zaidi kujaza
nafasi.

Michezo ni muhimu sana kwa afya zetu. Inatusaidia kuwa _______26 , wenye nguvu, na kuepuka magonjwa
mengi. Watoto wanapaswa kucheza michezo mbalimbali _____27 miili yao ikue vizuri.

Kucheza michezo pia kunatusaidia kujifunza mambo mengi muhimu. Tunajifunza jinsi ya kushirikiana na
wenzetu, kufuata sheria, na kuheshimu maamuzi ya _____28 . Hii inatusaidia kuwa watu wazima 29 .
Pia, michezo ni njia nzuri ya ____30 na kujifurahisha. Tunapocheza, tunasahau matatizo yetu na tunakuwa
na furaha. Hii inatusaidia kuwa na akili _____31 .

Kuna aina nyingi za michezo tunayoweza kucheza. Kuna michezo ya nje kama vile mpira wa miguu, mpira
wa kikapu, na kukimbia. Pia kuna michezo ya ndani kama vile drafti, bao, na kucheza kadi. Ni muhimu
kuchagua michezo ________32 tunapenda na ambayo inatufanya _______33 vizuri.
Wazazi na walimu wana jukumu la kuwahamasisha watoto __________34 kucheza michezo. Wanapaswa
kuwapa nafasi na vifaa vinavyohitajika ili waweze kushiriki katika michezo mbalimbali. Michezo ni haki ya
kila mtoto na inapaswa _________35 kwa wote.

26. A. wazito B. warefu C. wembamba D. wazima

27. A. ili B. lakini C. kwa sababu D. ingawa
28. A. wachezaji wengine B. mashabiki C. waamuzi D. wazazi
29. A. wabaya B. wazuri C. wavivu D. wajinga
30. A. kusoma B. kuimba C. kupumzika D. kuburudika
31. A. changamfu B. huzuni C. hasira D. uchovu
32. A. ambayo B. lakini C. kama D. kwa
33. A. vibaya B. vizuri C. polepole D. haraka
34. A. wasicheze B. wacheze C. walale D. wasisome
35. A. kupigwa marufuku B. kuchezwa C. kuuzwa D. kuharibiwa

Kutoka swali la 36 hadi la 50 chagua jibu sahihi.

36. Neno, enzi katika sentensi, Enzi hizo C. Amemaliza kazi yake.
zilikuwa za amani, ni nomino ya kawaida. D. Tutasafiri kesho.
Chagua sentensi ambayo neno lililopigiwa
mstari ni nomino ya pekee. 38. Ni sentensi gani inayoonyesha matumizi
sahihi ya viambishi vya ngeli ya YA-I kwa
A. Mto una maji mengi. nomino mama?
B. Shule yetu ni kubwa.
C. Ali ni mwanafunzi bora. A. Huyu mama ni wazuri.
D. Soko limejaa watu. B. Yule mama ni mzuri.
C. Hao mama ni mzuri.
37. Chagua sentensi ambayo kitenzi kikuu kiko D. Hili mama ni wazuri.
katika hali ya wakati uliopita timilifu.
39. Chagua kielezi cha namna kutoka katika
A. Tunakula matunda. sentensi ifuatayo: Aliimba kwa furaha.
B. Walikuwa wakiandika barua.
A. Aliimba A. Wanafunzi wengi wamefaulu.
B. kwa B. Kitabu kizuri kinasomwa.
C. furaha C. Gari lake ni jipya.
D. . D. Nimeona ndege watatu.

40. Ni methali gani inamaanisha kuwa 45. Ni sentensi gani iliyoakifishwa ipasavyo
usimdharau mtu kwa sababu ya hali yake ya kuonyesha mshangao?
sasa?
A. Wee! Umefanya nini? B. Wee, umefanya nini.
A. Damu ni nzito kuliko maji. C. Wee? Umefanya nini! D. Wee. Umefanya nini?
B. Haba na haba hujaza kibaba.
C. Usione vyaelea vimeundwa. 46. Sentensi, Baba alimjengea mama nyumba,
D. Akili ni mali. ina maana gani nyingine?

41. Ukanusho wa sentensi, Amekuja, ni upi? A. Baba na mama walijenga nyumba pamoja.
B. Mama alijenga nyumba kwa ajili ya baba.
A. Hajaja. C. Baba alijenga nyumba kwa manufaa ya mama.
B. Hakuja. D. Mama alimjengea baba nyumba.
C. Hatakuja.
D. Hangekuja. 47. Chagua sentensi ambayo imetumia
tamathali ya usemi ya tashbihi.
42. Chagua sentensi ambayo imetumia vizuri
kiunganishi lakini. A. Juma ni simba jukwaani.
B. Bahati ilikuwa imemwangukia kama mlima.
A. Atakula wali na nyama. C. Alikimbia mbio kama upepo.
B. Alikuwa mgonjwa lakini alihudhuria shuleni. D. Maneno yake yalikuwa sumu.
C. Wanafunzi walisoma kwa bidii au wangefeli.
D. Ingawa alichelewa, alipata nafasi. 48. Ni maana gani ya neno laini?

43. Badilisha sentensi ifuatayo iwe katika hali A. Si ngumu.

ya udogo: Mlima mrefu unaonekana. B. Si kubwa.
C. Si ndogo.
A. Milima mirefu inaonekana. D. Si fupi.
B. Kimlima kirefu kinaonekana.
C. Mlima mfupi unaonekana. 49. Ni sentensi ipi iliyo katika hali ya masharti?
D. Vimlima vifupi vinaonekana.
A. Tunaimba kwa pamoja.
44. Chagua sentensi ambayo ina kivumishi cha B. Ukienda sokoni, utaninunulia matunda?
sifa. C. Walikula wali jana.
D. Tutasafiri kesho.
50. Umemshauri rafiki yako mara nyingi lakini haambiliki. Ni methali gani inafaa kumwambia?

A. Akili ni nywele, kila mtu ana zake. B. Asiyesikia la mkuu huvunjika guu.
C. Haba na haba hujaza kibaba. D. Kikulacho ki nguoni mwako.

HUU NDIO UKURASA WA MWISHO ULIOPIGWA CHAPA.

 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES

Jina Ya Mtahiniwa Nambari Ya Mtihani

Jina Ya Shule Namba Ya Shule
Saini Ya Mtahiniwa Tarehe
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT

802/2 KISWAHILI (Insha na Utangulizi wa Fasihi)

Karatasi ya 2

MUHULA 2 END-TERM 2025

-KISWAHILI-

Muda: Saa 1 Dakika 45

MAAGIZO KWA WATAHINIWA

1. Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani kwenye nafasi uliyoachiwa hapo juu.
2. Andika jina na nambari ya shule yako kwenye nafasi uliyoachiwa hapo juu.
3. Tia sahihi kwenye nafasi uliyoachiwa hapo juu.
4. Andika tarehe ya mtihani ipasavyo.
5. Karatasi hii ina sehemu mbili; A na B.
6. Jibu maswali yote.
7. Andika majibu yote kwa nafasi ulizoachiwa katika kijitabu hiki.
8. Majibu yote ni lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.

Kwa Matumizi ya Mtahini Pekee

SEHEMU ZOEZI Swali Alama ya upeo Alama ya mtahiniwa

A Zoezi I 1 15
B Zoezi II 2 10
Zoezi III 3 10
Zoezi IV 4 10
Zoezi V 5 5
JUMLA 50

Kijitabu hiki kina kurasa 7 zilizopigwa chapa.

Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa
sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.

© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series

Geuza
ukurasa

SEHEMU A (Alama 15)

ZOEZI I: INSHA

Maagizo i. Inapendekezwa uchukue muda wa dakika 40 katika zoezi hili. ii. Andika insha yenye maneno kati
ya 280 - 330 katika nafasi uliyoachiwa.

1. Andika hadithi inayoanzia na maneno, "Siku hiyo mvua ilinyesha kwa nguvu kiasi kwamba..."

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SEHEMU B (Alama 35)

ZOEZI II: FASIHI SIMULIZI (Alama 10)

2. Soma hadithi ifuatayo kisha ujibu maswali.

Zamani za kale, palikuwa na mbweha mjanja aliyeitwa Mbweha Kichwa. Mbweha Kichwa aliishi karibu na
mto ambako mamba wengi waliishi. Mamba hao walikuwa wakali sana, na hakuna mnyama yeyote
aliyethubutu kuvuka mto peke yake. Mbweha Kichwa alitamani sana kufikia upande mwingine wa mto
ambako kulikuwa na shamba kubwa la mizabibu yenye matunda matamu.

Siku moja, Mbweha Kichwa alipata wazo. Alikwenda ufukweni mwa mto na kuanza kuwapigia kelele mamba.
"Enyi mamba wa mto mkuu! Njoni! Njoni hapa!" Mamba mmoja mkubwa aliinua kichwa chake kutoka majini
na kusema, "Unataka nini, Mbweha? Hatuna muda wa kucheza nawe." Mbweha Kichwa alijibu kwa sauti ya
kusihi, "Mfalme wa mamba, nimekuja na ujumbe kutoka kwa mfalme wa ardhi. Anataka kuhesabu idadi yenu
ili ajue ni kiasi gani cha samaki awatengenezee karamu kubwa." Mfalme wa mamba alisikia neno 'karamu' na
akapendezwa. Alipenda sana kula samaki. Akamwambia Mbweha Kichwa, "Sawa, tutakusaidia. Tuambie
tufanye nini." Mbweha Kichwa akasema, "Pangeni mstari mrefu kutoka hapa ufukweni hadi ufukweni wa pili.
Nitahesabu kila mmoja wenu kwa kukanyaga mgongo wenu."

Mamba walikubali kwa tamaa ya karamu. Walipanga mstari mrefu juu ya maji, migongo yao ikiunda kama
daraja. Mbweha Kichwa alifurahi sana. Alianza kuruka kutoka mgongo wa mamba mmoja hadi mwingine,
akihesabu kwa sauti kubwa: "Mmoja... wawili... watatu..." Aliendelea kuruka hadi alipofika ufukweni
mwingine. Alipofika salama, aliruka chini na kusema, "Asanteni sana, enyi mamba wajinga! Nilikuwa tu
nataka kuvuka mto! Hakuna karamu yoyote!"

Mamba walikasirika sana walipogundua wamepigwa mwereka. Walijaribu kumfuata, lakini Mbweha Kichwa
alikuwa tayari amekimbilia shambani na kuanza kula mizabibu mitamu. Tangu siku hiyo, mamba walimchukia
Mbweha Kichwa na kuwa makini zaidi na wanyama wengine wanaotaka kuvuka mto.

(a) Bainisha kipera cha hadithi hii. Toa sababu mbili. (Alama 2)

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(b) Eleza sifa mbili za mhusika Mbweha Kichwa. (Alama 2)

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(c) Hadithi hii inatupa mafunzo gani kuhusu akili na nguvu? (Alama 2)

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(d) Bainisha jukumu moja la fasihi simulizi linalojitokeza katika hadithi hii. (Alama 1)

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(e) Taja na ueleze mbinu mbili za lugha zilizotumiwa katika hadithi hii. (Alama 2)

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(f) Ni matarajio gani ambayo mamba walikuwa nayo? (Alama 1)

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ZOEZI III: HADITHI FUPI (Alama 10)

3. Soma sehemu ifuatayo ya hadithi fupi kisha ujibu maswali.

Mlango wa kibanda ukafunguka polepole, na Bi. Zawadi akaingia, uchovu ukisoma usoni mwake. Alikuwa
ametoka shambani, mgongoni akiwa amebeba mzigo mdogo wa kuni, mikononi akiwa ameshika jembe na
kikapu cha mboga. Nyumba ilikuwa kimya. Watoto hawakuwa wamerudi kutoka shule bado. Aliweka mizigo
yake chini na kukaa kwenye kiti cha mbao kilichokuwa kimechakaa. Alifunga macho, akijaribu kutuliza akili
yake iliyojaa mawazo.

Maisha yalikuwa magumu tangu mumewe, Bwana Juma, alipoondoka kwenda mjini kutafuta kazi miaka
mitatu iliyopita. Habari zake zilikuwa haba, na pesa kidogo alizotuma mara chache hazikutosha. Bi. Zawadi
alilazimika kufanya kila kazi – kulima shamba ndogo, kuokota kuni, kuuza mboga sokoni – ili kuhakikisha
watoto wake wanapata chakula na kwenda shule. Shule ilikuwa tumaini lake pekee. Aliamini elimu
ingewakwamua watoto wake kutoka lindi la umaskini waliokuwa wakikabiliana nao.
Mara nyingi aliketi nje ya kibanda chake jioni, akiangalia nyota angani, akimwomba Mungu amlinde mumewe
na kuwapa yeye na watoto wake nguvu ya kuvumilia. Wakati mwingine majirani walimhurumia na kumpa
msaada kidogo, lakini Bi. Zawadi alikuwa mwanamke mwenye utu na hakupenda kuombaomba. Aliamini
katika kufanya kazi kwa bidii. Alifungua macho yake, akapumua, kisha akainuka. Kulikuwa na sahani ya viazi
vilivyosalia kutoka mchana. Alivichukua, akaanza kuvipakua kwenye sahani mbili. Watoto wangekuwa na njaa
watakaporudi.

(a) Eleza mandhari ya sehemu hii ya hadithi fupi. (Alama 2)

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(b) Bainisha sifa mbili za Bi. Zawadi. (Alama 2)

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(c) Fafanua masuala mawili ya kijamii yaliyoshughulikiwa katika dondoo hili. (Alama 2)

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(d) Eleza mbinu mbili za lugha zilizotumiwa na athari zake. (Alama 2)

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(e) Nini ilikuwa tumaini la Bi. Zawadi? (Alama 1)

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(f) Kwa nini Bi. Zawadi hakupenda kuombaomba? (Alama 1)

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ZOEZI LA IV: TAMTHILIA (Alama 10)

4. Soma sehemu ifuatayo ya tamthilia kisha ujibu maswali.

TENDO LA 1 Onyesho la 1

(SEHEMU YA SHULE. WANAWAKE WAWILI, MWALIMU JANET NA MWALIMU BWANA KELVIN,

WANAKAA MEZANI OFISINI. MWALIMU JANET ANAONEKANA MWENYE FURAHA NA
NISHATI. MWALIMU KELVIN ANAONEKANA KUCHOKA.)

MWALIMU JANET: (Akichangamka) Bwana Kelvin, asubuhi njema! Unafanya nini ukiwa umekunja uso
hivyo? Leo ni siku nzuri kuanza kazi!

MWALIMU KELVIN: (Akipiga miayo) Oh, Janet. Asubuhi njema. Nilikesha nikisahihisha mitihani. Macho
yanauma, kichwa kinauma... Na leo nina masomo matano!

MWALIMU JANET: Hah! Hiyo ndiyo kazi yetu, mwalimu mwenzangu. Tumechagua taaluma hii kwa
mapenzi yetu. Watoto wanatusubiri. Nguvu ni muhimu!

MWALIMU KELVIN: Nguvu... au caffeine nyingi? (Anafumbua macho yake, akitazama kikombe chake cha
kahawa) Nadhani nahitaji nyingine.

MWALIMU JANET: Bwana Kelvin, usiwe hivyo. Fikiria jinsi unavyowasaidia watoto. Unawafungulia
milango ya maarifa! Hiyo ni thawabu kubwa kuliko uchovu wote. Kumbuka kile kilichotuleta hapa.
MWALIMU KELVIN: Njia panda... kumbukumbu inarudi... Ah, sijui Janet. Wakati mwingine nahisi kama
tunajaza ndoo yenye tundu. Wanafunzi wengi hawaonyeshi bidii.

MWALIMU JANET: Usiseme hivyo! Kuna changamoto, ndiyo, lakini pia kuna matumaini. Wale wachache
wanaojitahidi ndio motisha yetu. Tuwatie moyo wengine!

(MLANGO UNAGONGWA. MWALIMU MKUU ANAINGIA OFISINI, AKITABASAMU.)

MWALIMU MKUU: Habari za asubuhi walimu wangu wapendwa! Tayari kwa kazi ya leo?

MWALIMU JANET & KELVIN: (Pamoja) Habari za asubuhi, Mwalimu Mkuu! Ndiyo, tuko tayari!
(a) Bainisha wahusika wawili wakuu katika dondoo hili. (Alama 1)

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(b) Eleza mandhari ya dondoo hili. (Alama 1)

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(c) Fafanua sifa mbili za Mwalimu Janet. (Alama 2)

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(d) Mwalimu Kelvin ana tatizo gani? Eleza kwa mujibu wa dondoo. (Alama 2)

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(e) Fafanua masuala mawili yaliyoshughulikiwa katika dondoo hili. (Alama 4)

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ZOEZI V: USHAIRI (Alama 5)

5. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali

(a) Eleza ujumbe mkuu wa shairi hili. (Alama 2)

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(b) Ni wahusika gani wanashauriwa katika shairi hili? (Alama 1)

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(c) Bainisha mbinu mbili za lugha zilizotumiwa katika shairi hili. (Alama 2)

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HUU NDIO UKURASA WA MWISHO ULIOPIGWA CHAPA.

 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES

Candidate’s Name Assessment Number

School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT

811/2: CREATIVE ARTS AND SPORTS (Theory)

-CREATIVE ARTS AND SPORTS-

Paper 2

ENDTERM 2, 2025 TIME: 1 Hour 40 Minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Put your signature and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of two sections A and B.
5. Each section has THREE parts: Part I - Performing Arts, Part II - Sports, Part III - Visual Arts.
6. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions number: 1 to 40.
7. Section B comprises short structured and analysis questions number: 41 to 52.
8. Answer ALL the questions in section A on the separate answer sheet provided.
9. Answer ALL the questions in section B in the spaces provided on this question paper for Part I -
Performing Arts and Part III - Visual Arts.
10. For Part II - Sports, questions 45 and 46 are COMPULSORY. Choose EITHER question 47 or 48.
11. Do not remove any page from this question paper.
12. Answer all questions in English.

For official use only

SECTION B Part Task Question Maximum Candidate’s
Number Number score Score
1 41 04
2 42 04
Part I: Performing 3 43 10
Arts
4 44 06
5 45 04
6 46 04
Part II: Sports OPTIONAL 7 47 05
8 48 05
Part III: Visual Arts 9 50 04
10 51 04
11 52 10
TOTAL 60
This paper consists of 9 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the
pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series
Turn over
SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (40 Marks)

Read the instructions carefully.

1. You have been given this question paper and an answer sheet. This section of the question paper consists of
40 multiple-choice questions.
2. Answer ALL questions on the answer sheet provided, NOT on the question paper.
3. Do all the necessary rough work on the question paper.

HOW TO USE THE ANSWER SHEET

4. Use an ordinary HB pencil.

5. Confirm that the answer sheet you have been provided with has the following:

 YOUR ASSESSMENT NUMBER

 YOUR NAME
 NAME OF YOUR SCHOOL
 NAME OF THE SUBJECT

6. Keep the answer sheet clean, dry and DO NOT fold it.
7. For each of the questions 1 – 40, four answers are given. The answers are lettered A, B, C and D. In each case,
only ONE of the four answers is correct. Choose the correct answer.
8. On the answer sheet, mark the correct answer by drawing a dark line inside the box as shown in the example
below.

Example: 17. Understanding the role of colour is important for artists to effectively communicate their ideas.
Which of the following best describes the role of colour as an art element? A. Colour is used to make artwork
visually appealing. B. Colour helps to show emotions and mood in artworks. C. Colour plays a role in realistic
and abstract artworks. D. Colour enhances the subject matter in an artwork.

The correct answer is ‘B’. On the answer sheet, in the set of boxes given, draw a dark line inside the box with
the letter B printed in it as marked below.

[A] [B] [C] [D]

9. The dark line MUST be within the box. DO NOT make any marks outside the boxes.
10. For each question, mark ONLY ONE box.
 SECTION A: (40 marks)
Answer all questions in this section
5. Which of the following musical terms is not
PART I: PERFORMING ARTS correctly matched with its corresponding sign?

1. Performance of a folksong involves an interaction A Minim

of various components. Which of the following is a
component of a folk song?
A. Articulation
B. Dynamics
C. Instrumentation B Quaver
D. Occasion
2. Below is the first half of a four-bar rhythm in 4 2
time signature:

C Crotchet
Which of the following options makes an
appropriate second half?

A
D Semibreve

C
6. A learner listed the following as features of a scale
in Music:
(i) Starts on G and ends on G
D
(ii) Has 3 sets of semitones
(iii) Has a sharp on note F
(iv) Has a total of 8 notes
3. A group of learners listened to a melody and noted
(v) Has a sharp on note G
the following features:
(i) It was easy to sing.
Which three of the features above correctly
(ii) It was easy to dance to.
describe the scale of G major?
(iii) It was easy to remember.
A. (i), (ii), (iv)
(iv) It had balanced phrases.
B. (i), (iii), (v)
C. (i), (ii), (v)
Which three of the above features constitute
D. (i), (iii), (iv)
qualities of a good melody?
A. (i), (ii), (iv)
7. Zedo performed a Kenyan folksong for
B. (i), (iii), (iv)
assessment. The teacher noticed that his voice
C. (ii), (iii), (iv)
could not be heard properly. Which vocal
D. (i), (ii), (iii)
technique did Zedo have a problem with?
A. Expression
4. Pitch in music refers to the.
B. Projection
A. highness or lowness of sound.
C. Diction
B. layering of notes to make sound.
D. Phrasing
C. loudness or softness of sound.
D. quality of notes that make sound.
8. Learners learnt about the parts of a musical note: 12. Which of the following notes is not correctly
which part is called the flag? matched with its rest?
D A
C
A
B

C
B

D
9. Study the diagram of the keyboard below and
answer the question that follows.
13. When a storyteller uses gestures, facial
expressions, and changes in voice to bring
characters to life, they are primarily employing:
A. Setting
B. Delivery
C. Plot
D. Theme
14. In many traditional African oral narratives, which
of the following is a common purpose of including
songs or chants?
A. To make the story shorter
B. To confuse the audience
C. To involve the audience and provide a break in
Identify the notes marked 2 and 1 respectively. narration
A. D and B flat D. To demonstrate the storyteller's singing ability
B. D and A flat only
C. D sharp and B 15. The main character around whom the events of a
D. D flat and A sharp story revolve is known as the:
A. Antagonist
10. Creative Arts and Sports play various roles in
society. Which of the following is NOT their social B. Narrator
role?
A. To promote unity C. Protagonist
B. To create employment
C. To preserve culture D. Sidekick
D. To promote patriotism
11. During a music lesson, Grade 8 learners tapped 16. A story that begins "Once upon a time in a land far
various rhythms. They incorporated three of the away..." is using a common element of:
aspects below except. A. Resolution
A. Beat B. Characterization
C. Plot
B. Duration D. Setting
17. Which of the following is NOT typically
C. Interval considered a stage in a conventional story plot?
A. Climax
D. Tempo B. Rising action
C. Introduction of new characters after the
resolution
D. Falling action
Sports & Physical Education 26. When an artist creates an artwork that draws the
viewer's eye to a specific point, they are using the
18. In football (soccer), which of the following is the principle of:
primary purpose of a 'throw-in'? A. Repetition B. Unity
A. To score a goal directly C. Emphasis D. Rhythm
B. To restart play after the ball goes out over the 27. What is the primary purpose of 'contrast' in visual
sideline art?
C. To penalize a foul in the penalty box A. To make all parts of the artwork look the same.
D. To pass the ball back to the goalkeeper B. To create visual interest and highlight
19. Which of the following running distances is differences.
classified as a 'sprint'? C. To fill all available space on the canvas.
A. 1500 meters B. 5000 meters D. To make the artwork appear blurry.
C. 100 meters D. Marathon 28. Which of the following is a characteristic of
20. When performing a correct 'chest pass' in 'asymmetrical balance' in an artwork?
basketball, the ball is primarily propelled by the A. Elements are identical on both sides of a central
extension of which body part? axis.
A. Legs B. Elements are arranged equally around a central
B. Wrists and arms point.
C. Shoulders C. Elements are different on either side but still
D. Hips feel visually weighted equally.
21. The main reason for performing a 'warm-up' before D. All elements are placed randomly without any
engaging in vigorous physical activity is to: sense of balance.
A. Increase strength immediately. 29. In traditional Kenyan carving, such as those made
B. Cool down the muscles. by the Akamba people, what is a common material
C. Prepare the body and reduce the risk of injury. used?
D. End the exercise session quickly. A. Glass B. Clay
22. In volleyball, the skill of hitting the ball high with C. Wood D. Metal
an open hand from behind the service line to start a 30. Looking at the artwork below, what artistic
rally is called a: principle is demo
A. Spike
B. Block
C. Dig
D. Serve
23. Which of the following is an example of good
sportsmanship?
A. Arguing with the referee about every call.
B. Cheering for your team only when they are
winning.
C. Shaking hands with opponents after a game,
regardless of the outcome.
D. Taunting the opposing team.
24. The ability of a muscle to exert force repeatedly or A. Contrast B. Balance
for an extended period is known as: C. Harmony D. Rhythm
A. Flexibility B. Speed
C. Muscular endurance D. Agility 31. During a painting project, learners were instructed
to mix a primary color with the secondary color
Visual Arts that is formed by mixing the other two primary
colors. What type of color relationship did they
25. In drawing or painting, 'texture' refers to:
create?
A. The outline of an object.
B. How colors blend together. A. Analogous colors
C. The perceived surface quality of an artwork. B. Monochromatic colors
D. The amount of light in a piece. C. Complementary colors
D. Tertiary colors
32. Ms. Chemutai's Grade 8 art class was studying the
principle of rhythm in visual art. Which of the
following best describes how rhythm is achieved in
an artwork?
A. By placing a single, dominant element in the
center.
B. By arranging elements in a random, chaotic
manner.
C. By repeating visual elements to create a sense of
movement or pattern.
How many dimensions does it have?
D. By using only warm colors throughout the A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
composition.
33. Analyse the reproduction below of a type of 38. A group of students is planning to create a short
drawing. Choose the type of drawing it represents. animated video for a school project. Before starting
the actual animation, they draw a series of sketches
that outline each major shot and scene, showing
how the action will progress. What is this series of
sequential drawings called?
A. Portfolio
B. Concept art
C. Storyboard
D. Blueprint
39. A local textile artist in Nairobi is creating a pattern
on fabric using the batik method. After applying
wax to the fabric, the next crucial step is to:
A. Landscape drawing B. Nature drawing A. Remove the wax immediately.
C. Portrait drawing D. Still life drawing B. Apply paint with a brush.
C. Dye the fabric.
34. In visual art, which of the following elements
D. Iron the fabric smooth.
refers to a three-dimensional object that has depth
40. In graphic design, especially when creating a logo
as well as height and width?
for a business,
A. Line B. Form
C. Color D. Space
35. A local artisan in Mombasa is renowned for
creating intricate sculptures from soapstone. Which
traditional technique is most commonly used to
shape this material into artworks?
A. Welding B. Weaving Which principle is most critical for ensuring the
C. Carving D. Firing design is easily recognizable and versatile across
36. During a school play, the stage backdrop features a various platforms?
vibrant orange sunset. To make the main A. Complexity
character's costume stand out most dramatically
B. Readability
against this background, which color would be the C. Redundancy
most effective choice for their attire? D. Inconsistency
A. Blue B. Yellow
C. Red D. Green
37. Look at the sculpture below.
 SECTION B: (25 Marks)

PART I: PERFORMING ARTS

Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided after each question.

41. (a) A choir from Ole Ntimama Junior School is preparing a traditional Maasai folk song for the County Music
Festival. The song primarily uses a pentatonic scale.

(i) Explain what a pentatonic scale is in music. (2 marks)

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(ii) Give two reasons why traditional folk songs are important to preserve in Kenya. (2 marks)
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(b) During a drama performance at your school, the main character's costume was torn during a crucial scene, but the
actors continued the play seamlessly.

(i) What quality did the actors demonstrate by continuing the performance despite the mishap? (1 mark)
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(ii) Outline three roles that stage lighting plays in enhancing a drama performance. (3 marks)
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PART II: VISUAL ARTS

42. (a) Imagine you are designing a poster to encourage recycling in your community.

(i) Identify two primary colors you would consider using to make the poster visually appealing and impactful. (2 marks)
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(ii) Describe one way you could use the principle of 'contrast' in your poster design to draw attention to the message. (2
marks)
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(b) A Grade 8 learner wants to create a sculpture using recycled plastic bottles.

(i) Which technique would be most appropriate for joining these plastic bottles together to form a sculpture? (1 mark)
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(ii) Explain the difference between a 'two-dimensional (2D) artwork' and a 'three-dimensional (3D) artwork' in terms of
space. (2 marks)
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PART III: SPORTS

43. (a) Your school is organizing an inter-class football tournament.

(i) List three safety measures that should be in place to prevent injuries during the tournament. (3 marks)
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________
(ii) Apart from physical fitness, state two other benefits learners gain from participating in team sports like football. (2
marks)
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) A Grade 8 athlete is training for a 400-meter race.

(i) Identify the type of race the athlete is preparing for . (1 mark)
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Describe two key elements of proper running form that the athlete should focus on for this type of race. (3 marks)
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE

 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES

Candidate’s Name Assessment Number

School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT

805/1: INTEGRATED SCIENCE (Theory)

-INTEGRATED SCIENCE-

PAPER 1

TERM 2 END-TERM 2025

TIME: 1 hour 30 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Sign and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
5. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions numbered 1 to 30.
6. Section B comprises short, structured questions number 31 to 40.
7. Answer ALL the questions in section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.
8. Answer ALL the questions in section B in the spaces provided in this QUESTION PAPER.
9. Do NOT remove any page from this question paper.
10. Answer ALL the questions in English. For official use only

SECTION B

Task Question Score per question Maximum score Candidate’s score

Task 1 31 03
Task 2 32 13
33
34
Task 3 35 16
36
Task 4 37 08
38
39
40
Total 40
This paper consists of 12 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the
pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series
 SECTION A (30 marks)

Answer ALL the questions in this section.

1. During a school science exhibition, learners 4. A laboratory assistant accidentally spills a

presented projects on topics like highly acidic solution on the bench-top,
'photosynthesis in plants', 'how batteries causing it to sizzle and damage the surface.
produce electricity', and 'properties of different The hazard symbol that would have been on
compounds'. Which component of Integrated the bottle for this chemical is:
Science was NOT clearly represented in these
projects?
A. Biology
B. Physics A B
C. Chemistry
D. History
2. A local community faces recurring problems
such as widespread waterborne diseases, soil
erosion leading to poor harvests, and frequent
power outages. How can the study of C D
Integrated Science empower this community to
address these issues effectively?
A. By teaching them only historical facts about
past epidemics.
B. By focusing solely on memorizing scientific
formulas without practical application. 5. During a Biology lesson, learners were asked
C. By providing them with a comprehensive to identify the part of the cell marked m.:
understanding of interconnected
environmental, health, and energy solutions.
D. By encouraging them to rely only on
external aid without understanding local
resources.
3. While preparing for a laboratory practical, a
learner observed the apparatus below.

W
The part marked Z is called?

A. Cytoplasm

B. Sap vacuole

C. Chloroplast
This part marked W is:
D. Nucleus
A. Air hole B. Chimney

C. Colar D. Base
6. During a practical session, a learner 10. A group of learners is studying the growth of a
accidentally slips on a wet floor and falls, plant over several weeks. They regularly
twisting their ankle. The immediate first aid measure the plant's height and the number of
measure for a sprain would be to: leaves it develops. What basic science skill are
they primarily using?
A. Apply heat to the affected area.
A. Inferring
B. Elevate the injured limb.
B. Predicting
C. Force the learner to walk to check for
mobility. C. Communicating

D. Ignore the injury and continue with the D. Measuring and Observing
experiment.
11. A biologist wants to observe the internal
7. While heating a liquid in a test tube, a learner structures of a plant cell in detail. Which
holds the test tube too close to the flame and laboratory instrument would provide the best
suffers a burn. The first aid for a minor burn magnification for this purpose?
involves:

A. Applying ice directly to the burn.

A
B. Applying butter or oil to the burn.

C. Running the burned area under cool running

water for at least 10 minutes.

D. Breaking any blisters that form. B

8. Before starting an experiment involving

chemicals, the teacher reminded the learners to
wear eye protection. This safety measure is
important to prevent:
C
A. Falls B. Scalds

C. Cuts D. Eye injuries from chemical splashes

9. A Grade 8 learner is tasked with accurately

measuring 50.0 mL of a liquid for an D
experiment. Which of the following laboratory
apparatus would be most appropriate for this
task?

A. Beaker B. Conical flask

C. Measuring cylinder D. Test tube

12. A learner needs to heat a substance gently and 17. A gardener notices that his soil is very acidic
evenly using a Bunsen burner. They should and wants to raise its pH to make it more
adjust the air hole to produce a: suitable for growing vegetables. Which
common substance, known for its basic
A. Roaring blue flame properties, could he add to the soil?

B. yellow flame A. Vinegar B. Lemon juice

C. Short, pale blue flame C. calcium hydroxide D. Sulphuric acid

D. Tall, orange flame 18. During a hot afternoon, a learner notices their
skin is wet with sweat.
13. Jane prepared a salad by mixing chopped
tomatoes, onions, and cucumbers. She could A
easily distinguish each component in the
mixture. This type of mixture is best described
as:
B C
A. Homogeneous B. Solution

C. Heterogeneous D. Colloid
D
14. During a chemistry lesson, a teacher
demonstrates separating different pigments Which part of the human skin is primarily
from a plant extract using paper. Which responsible for producing and secreting sweat?
separation technique is being demonstrated?
A. A B. B C. C D. C
A. Filtration B. Distillation
19. A patient is diagnosed with an infection in the
C. Chromatography D. Crystallization tube labelled X.

15. A chemist needs to obtain pure water from

seawater. Which separation technique would be
most effective for this purpose?

A. Filtration X

B. Simple distillation

C. Sublimation

D. Solvent extraction

16. A learner tests a solution with red litmus paper,

and it remains red. When tested with blue
litmus paper, it turns red. This indicates the Which part of the urinary system is affected?
solution is:
A. A base B. Neutral A. Ureter B. Urethra C. Kidney D. Bladder
C. An acid D. An indicator
20. A person consumes a diet very high in protein 24. A learner observed that a bar magnet attracted
and does not drink enough water. This habit small iron nails but had no effect on a copper
increases their risk of developing which wire.
common kidney disorder?

A. Urinary tract infection

B. Kidney failure

C. Kidney stones

D. Bladder cancer
Experiment A
21. A solar panel installed on a house roof is an
example of a device that converts light energy
from the sun into:

A. Heat energy B. Sound energy

C. Mechanical energy D. Electrical energy

Experiment B:
22. A learner sets up a simple electric circuit with a
battery, a switch, and a light bulb. When the This demonstrates that iron nails are:
switch is closed, the circuit is:
A. Non-magnetic materials.
A. Open, and the bulb will not light.
B. Magnetic materials.
B. Closed, and the bulb will light.
C. Electromagnets.
C. Short-circuited, and the bulb will not light.
D. Overloaded, and the bulb will burn out. D. Temporary magnets.

23. Which of the following is a critical electrical 25. When a bar magnet is freely suspended, it
safety measure to prevent electrocution when always aligns itself in a specific direction. This
handling electrical appliances? property is known as the:

A. Using damaged power cords if the appliance A. Repulsive property.

still works.
B. Inductive property.
B. Overloading power sockets with many
appliances. C. Attractive property.

C. Always ensuring your hands are dry before D. Directive property.

touching electrical switches or plugs.

D. Inserting metallic objects into electrical

sockets to test them.
26. An atom of a certain element has 10 protons 29. A fire started in a rubbish bin filled with paper
and 10 neutrons. What is its atomic number? and cloth.

A. 20

B. 10

C. 0

D. 5

27. Which of the following elements is correctly

represented by its chemical symbol?

A. Hydrogen - H

B. Sodium - So

C. Aluminium - Al

D. Nitrogen - Ni
The fire triangle components present were fuel
28. A learner observes water boiling in a kettle, (paper, cloth), heat (from ignition), and oxygen
producing steam. (from air). To control this fire by removing the
fuel, one could:

A. Pour water on it.

B. Cover it with a fire blanket.

C. Remove other flammable materials nearby.

D. Use a CO2 extinguisher.

30. During a biology practical, a learner prepared a

temporary slide of an onion epidermal cell.
When observing it under the microscope, they
noted the presence of a cell wall and a distinct
nucleus. Which other basic component of a cell
This change is an example of: would also be clearly visible?

A. A chemical change and is temporary. A. Chloroplasts

B. A physical change and is permanent. B. Mitochondria

C. A physical change and is temporary. C. Cytoplasm

D. A chemical change and is permanent. D. Endoplasmic Reticulum

 SECTION B (40 marks)

Answer ALL the questions in this section.

31. During a science lesson, learners were asked to identify different parts of the human skin.

(a) Name the parts of the human skin. (2 marks)

U: _________________________________________________________________________________

V: _________________________________________________________________________________

(b) State the primary function of the sweat glands in the human skin. (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________

32. A group of learners is tasked with separating a mixture of sand, salt, and iron filings.
(a) Describe how the learners can separate the iron filings from the mixture. (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) After removing the iron filings, describe a step-by-step procedure to obtain pure salt from the remaining
mixture of sand and salt. (4 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________
 (c) State one difference between a homogeneous mixture and a heterogeneous mixture. (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

33. (a) A farmer tested his soil and found it was too acidic for optimal crop growth. He decided to add a basic
substance to neutralize the soil.

(i) State one characteristic physical property of acids that makes them dangerous. (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Explain the purpose of adding a basic substance to acidic soil. (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Describe how you would prepare a natural acid-base indicator using hibiscus flower petals. (3 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

34. (a) A learner prepared a temporary slide of a plant cell and observed it under a light microscope.

(i) Name two major differences a plant cell has compared to an animal cell when viewed under a light microscope.
(2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________
 (ii) If the eyepiece lens of the microscope is 10x and the objective lens is 40x, calculate the total magnification of
the cell. (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________
(b) A tea bag is placed in a cup of hot water. After some time, the colour from the tea bag spreads throughout the
water.

(i) Name the process responsible for the spreading of the tea colour in water. (1 mark)

_____________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Explain how increasing the temperature of the water would affect the rate of this process. (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

35. (a) During a reproductive education lesson, learners learned about the male reproductive system and its functions.

(i) Name the parts labelled X, Y and Z. (3 marks)

X: ___________________________________________.

Y: ___________________________________________.

Z: ___________________________________________.
 (ii) A person experiences painful urination and urges to urinate frequently. Name a common kidney disorder that
could cause these symptoms. (1 mark)

______________________________________________________________________________________.

(b) A health worker visited a school to talk about adolescence and reproductive health.

(i) State two challenges that adolescent girls may face during menstruation. (2 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________________.

______________________________________________________________________________________.

(ii) Explain the process of fertilization in human beings. (2 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________________.

______________________________________________________________________________________.

36. (a) A small fire started in a classroom due to flammable liquids catching fire.
(i) State the class of fire and suggest one appropriate method to extinguish it, other than water. (2 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________________.

______________________________________________________________________________________.

(ii) Explain one danger associated with using water to extinguish a fire caused by flammable liquids. (1 mark)

______________________________________________________________________________________.

(b) During a fire safety drill, learners were taught about the fire triangle.
 Name the three components of the fire triangle. (3 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________________.

______________________________________________________________________________________.

______________________________________________________________________________________.

37. (a) A learner is setting up a simple electric circuit to light a bulb using a dry cell.

(i) Name the source of electricity in this circuit. (1 mark)

______________________________________________________________________________________.

(ii) State one electrical safety measure the learner should observe while working with electrical circuits. (1 mark)

______________________________________________________________________________________.

(b) Describe how magnets are used in everyday life. (2 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________________.

______________________________________________________________________________________.

38. A curious learner observed that when a piece of ice is placed in water, it floats, but when salt is added to the water,
the ice melts faster.

(a) Name the physical change that occurs when ice turns into water. (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Explain the effect of impurities on the melting point of water. (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________
 (c) An atom of Neon has an atomic number of 10 and a mass number of 20. How many neutrons does this atom
have? (1 mark)

______________________________________________________________________________________

39. (a) A learner is learning about elements and compounds.

(i) Write a word equation for the reaction between Hydrogen gas and Oxygen gas to form Water. (1 mark)

______________________________________________________________________________________

(ii) Name two uses of the element Carbon. (2 marks)

_______________________________________________________________________________________

______________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Differentiate between a physical change and a chemical change in matter, giving one example for each. (2
marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

40. (a) A learner wanted to measure the mass of a substance. Name the SI unit for mass. (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________

(b) Name the apparatus shown below. (2 marks)

M N

M: _______________________________________

N: ________________________________________

(c) During a field trip, learners were asked to classify animals based on their modes of nutrition. They identified
an animal that feeds on both plants and animals. What is the mode of nutrition for this animal? (1 mark)

_____________________________________________________________________________________

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES

Candidate’s Name Assessment Number

School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT
-INTEGRATED SCIENCE-

805/2: INTEGRATED SCIENCE (Practical)

PAPER 2

TERM 2 END-TERM 2025

TIME: 1 hour 30 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Sign and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of 2 questions.
5. Answer BOTH questions in the spaces provided on this QUESTION PAPER.
6. Do NOT remove any page from this question paper.
7. Answer the questions in English.

For official use only

Task Task 1 Task 2 TOTAL

Question 1 2 SCORE
Maximum Score 20 10 30
Candidate’s Score

This paper consists of 4 printed pages.

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series
Turn over
QUESTION ONE (20 marks)

You are required to use a natural indicator to test whether different solutions are acidic, basic, or neutral. You
are provided with solution X (a natural indicator), and test solutions labeled A, B, C, D, and E. Assume
Solution X is prepared from red cabbage or hibiscus flowers.

Procedure:

1. Obtain approximately 5 cm³ of solution X.

2. Test a known acidic solution (like lemon juice or vinegar) with a few drops of solution X. Observe and
record the colour change of the indicator in the acidic solution.
3. Test a known basic solution (like soap solution or baking soda solution) with a few drops of solution X.
Observe and record the colour change of the indicator in the basic solution.
4. Test clean water with a few drops of solution X. Observe and record the colour change of the indicator
in a neutral solution.
5. Add a few drops of solution X to approximately 5 cm³ of each of the test solutions A to E, one at a time.
Observe and record the colour change in the Table below.
6. Based on the colour changes observed with known acidic, basic, and neutral solutions, draw a
conclusion for each test solution (A to E) in the table.

Record your observations and conclusions in the table below. (10 marks for table)

Substance Tested Observed Colour Change with Solution X Conclusion (Acidic, Basic, or Neutral)
Known Acidic Acidic
Known Basic Basic
Clean Water Neutral
Test Solution A
Test Solution B
Test Solution C
Test Solution D
Test Solution E

(a) Name one example of a natural source from which solution X could have been prepared. (1 mark)

______________________________________________________________________________________
(b) Name one alternative solution that could be used as a known acidic solution in place of lemon
juice/vinegar. (1 mark)

_______________________________________________________________________________________

(c) State three basic science skills you applied during this practical activity. (3 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________

(d) Name three laboratory apparatus necessary to carry out this practical. (3 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________

(e) State two safety precautions you took during the practical. (2 marks)

_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

QUESTION TWO (10 marks)

You are provided with a liquid (e.g., cooking oil) and apparatus to measure its mass and volume. You are
required to determine the density of the liquid.

You are provided with the following:

a) Beaker or small container

b) Measuring cylinder
c) Liquid Y (e.g., cooking oil)
d) Weighing scale or beam balance
Procedure:

1. Measure and record the mass of the empty beaker/container.

2. Using the measuring cylinder, measure approximately 40 cm³ of Liquid Y and pour it into the
beaker/container. Record the exact volume of Liquid Y.
3. Measure and record the mass of the beaker/container with Liquid Y.
4. Calculate the mass of Liquid Y.
5. Calculate the density of Liquid Y using the formula: Density = Mass / Volume.

(a) Record your measurements: (i) Mass of empty beaker/container = ________________________ g (2

marks) (ii) Exact volume of Liquid Y (V) = ________________________ cm³ (2 marks) (iii) Mass of
beaker/container + Liquid Y = ________________________ g (2 marks)

(b) Calculate the mass of Liquid Y (M). Show your working. (2 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________

(c) Calculate the density of Liquid Y. Show your working and state the units. (2 marks)

_______________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

 CONFIDENTIAL GUIDE FOR TEACHERS

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES

Teacher’s Name TSC NO.

School Name School Code
Teacher’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT
805/2 INTEGRATED SCIENCE
PAPER 2 (practical)
TERM 2 ENDTERM 2025
-INTEGRATED SCIENCE-

Experiment: Acid/Base Testing with Natural Indicator

Overall Guidance for Teachers:

 This experiment focuses on chemical properties, observation, and drawing conclusions based on
evidence.
 The preparation of the natural indicator (Solution X) is critical and should be done in advance.
 Ensure a clear range of acidic, basic, and neutral test solutions are available.
 Safety with unknown solutions and proper disposal should be emphasized.

Preparation of Materials (Prior to Exam):

 Solution X (Natural Indicator):

Red Cabbage Indicator: Chop red cabbage, boil in water for 10-15 minutes, strain the
liquid. The liquid should be purple.
Hibiscus Flower Indicator: Steep hibiscus petals in hot water until the water turns dark
red/purple. Strain.
Known Acidic Solution: Lemon juice, vinegar (acetic acid).
Known Basic Solution: Soap solution, baking soda solution (dissolve baking soda in water),
dilute ammonia solution.
Clean Water: Distilled or clean tap water (neutral).
 Test Solutions A, B, C, D, E: A mix of acidic, basic, and neutral solutions (e.g., dilute fruit juice,
dilute soda, dilute detergent, salt solution, sugar solution, milk). Ensure sufficient quantity. Label clearly A-
E.
 Beakers/Test Tubes: Small beakers or test tubes for each solution and for testing.
 Droppers/Pipettes: For adding solution X.

Question One (20 marks)

Procedure Monitoring:


Steps 1-4 (Calibration of Indicator):
Teacher's Role: Crucial for learners to establish the color changes for known acid, base, and
neutral solutions. This baseline is used for comparison with unknown solutions.
Expected Outcomes (Approximate - depends on indicator source):
Red Cabbage: Acidic (red/pink), Neutral (purple/blue), Basic (green/yellow).
Hibiscus: Acidic (bright red/pink), Neutral (purple/dark red), Basic (green/yellow).
 Steps 5-6 (Testing Unknown Solutions):
Teacher's Role: Observe careful addition of indicator, observation of color change, and linking
observations to conclusions.
 Common Challenges: Difficulty in distinguishing subtle color changes, subjective interpretation of
colors, rushing observations.

Recording Observations and Conclusions in Table (10 marks):

 Marking Guidance:
1 mark for each correct observation of color change with Solution X (5 marks for Test Solutions A-E).
1 mark for each correct conclusion (Acidic, Basic, or Neutral) based on their observed color change and
the known indicator reactions (5 marks for Test Solutions A-E).
The "Known" rows are for reference but not directly marked for observation/conclusion within
the 10 marks for A-E.
 Expected Outcome: A completed table showing consistent color changes and accurate classification of test
solutions.

Analysis of Results:

 (a) Natural Source of Solution X (1 mark):

Teacher's Role: Link the indicator to its origin.
Marking Guidance:
1 mark for naming a correct natural source (e.g., "Red cabbage," "Hibiscus flowers,"
"Turmeric").
Expected Answer: "Red cabbage" or "Hibiscus flowers."
 (b) Alternative Known Acidic Solution (1 mark):
Teacher's Role: Check understanding of common acids.
Marking Guidance:
1 mark for a correct alternative (e.g., "Dilute hydrochloric acid," "Orange juice," "Cola soft
drink").
Expected Answer: "Orange juice."
 (c) Three Basic Science Skills Applied (3 marks):
Teacher's Role: Prompt reflection on their actions.
Marking Guidance:
1 mark for each correct skill (max 3 marks).
Examples: Observing, Classifying, Inferring, Communicating, Predicting, Experimenting.
Expected Answer: "Observing, Classifying, Inferring."
 (d) Three Laboratory Apparatus Necessary (3 marks):
Teacher's Role: Identify essential lab equipment.
Marking Guidance:
1 mark for each correct apparatus (max 3 marks).
Examples: Test tubes/beakers, droppers/pipettes, test tube rack, stirring rod, measuring cylinder
(for initial solution X preparation).
Expected Answer: "Test tubes, Droppers, Beakers."
 (e) Two Safety Precautions (2 marks):
Teacher's Role: Emphasize handling chemicals safely.
Marking Guidance:
1 mark for each relevant safety precaution (max 2 marks).
Examples: "Do not taste the solutions," "Wear safety goggles," "Handle glassware carefully,"
"Wash hands after the experiment," "Dispose of chemicals properly."
Expected Answer: "Do not taste the solutions," "Handle glassware carefully."

Question Two (10 marks) Experiment: Determining Density of a Liquid

Preparation of Materials:

 Beaker or Small Container: Clean and dry.

 Measuring Cylinder: Appropriate size for measuring liquid (e.g., 50 cm³ or 100 cm³).
  Liquid Y (e.g., cooking oil): Sufficient quantity.
 Weighing Scale or Beam Balance: Calibrated and accurate.

Procedure Monitoring:

 Steps 1-3 (Measuring Mass and Volume):

Teacher's Role: Emphasize reading the balance accurately and zeroing it before measuring the empty
container. Ensure accurate volume reading from the measuring cylinder (meniscus).
Common Challenges: Inaccurate balance readings, parallax error when reading volume, spillage.

Recording Measurements:

 (a) Mass of Empty Beaker, Volume of Liquid Y, Mass of Beaker + Liquid Y (2 marks each, total 6
marks):
Marking Guidance:
2 marks for accurate reading of empty beaker mass (with 'g' unit).
2 marks for accurate reading of liquid volume (with cm3 unit).
2 marks for accurate reading of beaker + liquid mass (with 'g' unit).
Allow for slight variations due to instrument precision.
Expected Outcome: Accurate readings with correct units.

Calculations:

 (b) Calculate Mass of Liquid Y (2 marks):

Teacher's Role: Guide learners to use subtraction.
Marking Guidance:
 1 mark for correct formula (Mass of liquid = Mass of beaker + liquid - Mass of empty beaker).
 1 mark for correct substitution and accurate answer with units ('g').
Expected Working: Mliquid=(Massbeaker+liquid)−(Massempty beaker).
 (c) Calculate Density of Liquid Y (2 marks):
Teacher's Role: Guide learners to apply the density formula.
Marking Guidance:
 1 mark for correct formula (Density=Mass/Volume).
 1 mark for correct substitution and accurate answer with correct units (e.g., g/cm3 or g/mL).
Expected Working: Density=Mliquid/Vliquid. Ensure units are correctly derived.

General Notes for Exams:

 Teacher Supervision: Continuous supervision is crucial, especially for practical aspects involving tools, heat,
and chemicals.
 Differentiation: For group projects, encourage varied roles for learners with different strengths.
 Record Keeping: Ensure learners are diligently recording their observations and data as they go.
 Post-Practical Discussion: A follow-up discussion helps reinforce the concepts and correct any
misconceptions.
 Cleanliness: Emphasize keeping the workspace clean and tidy throughout and after the practical.
 Fairness: Ensure equal access to materials and tools for all groups/learners.

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES

Candidate’s Name Assessment Number

School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT
AGRICULTURE AND NUTRITION

806/1 AGRICULTURE AND NUTRITION (Theory)

PAPER 1 TERM 2 ENDTERM 2025
Time: 1 hour 40 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Sign and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
5. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions numbered 1 to 30.
6. Section B comprises short, structured questions number 31 to 42.
7. Answer ALL the questions in section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.
8. Answer ALL the questions in section B in the spaces provided in this QUESTION PAPER.
9. Do NOT remove any page from this question paper.
10. Answer ALL the questions in English.

For official use only

SECTION B
Task 1: Agriculture Task 2: Nutrition
Task Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Maximum Score 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 2 2 5 2 5
Candidate’s score

This paper consists of 8 printed pages.

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.
© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series
Turn over
 SECTION A (30 marks)
Answer ALL the questions in this section.

1. During a soil practical, learners observed that one 6. Before choosing where to plant tea bushes, which
soil type felt very sticky when wet and could be require specific growing conditions, a farmer
rolled into long ribbons. Which type of soil has this considers whether the land is flat, gently sloping, or
characteristic and the highest water retention steep. Which environmental factor influencing
capacity? agriculture is the farmer assessing?
A. Sandy soil B. Clay soil A. Climate B. Soil
C. Loam soil D. Silt soil C. Topography D. Vegetation

2. Mr. Koech has a farm on a steep slope. To 7. To plant small seeds like carrots, the soil bed
prevent soil erosion and collect rainwater, he built needs to be very fine and crumbly. Preparing the
structures that look like steps along the hillside. soil to a fine tilth is most suitable for planting crops
using which type of material?
A. Tubers B. Seeds
C. Cuttings D. Splits

8. Mr. Kamau wants to improve the genetic quality

of his dairy herd by carefully selecting which bull
mates with which cow. This practice is part of
which aspect of animal production?
Which method of conserving soil and water is he A. Feeding B. Housing
using? C. Breeding D. Healthcare
A. Constructing gabions
B. Constructing terraces 9. Learners observed that some of the young tomato
C. Planting cover crops seedlings in the nursery were falling over and
D. Practicing mulching rotting at the base. This condition is a common
seedling problem known as
3. Sarah is helping her mother remove small, A. pest infestation. B. damping off.
unwanted plants growing around the maize in their C. nutrient deficiency. D. weed infestation.
garden. Which tool is specifically designed for this
task? 10. In areas where irrigation is practiced, sometimes
A. Spade B. Fork jembe salts can build up in the soil, making it hard for
C. Hand trowel D. Garden slasher crops to grow. Which soil management practice
helps to remove excess water and salts from the
4. A farmer recorded the number of litres of milk soil?
each cow produced daily and the number of eggs A. Mulching B. Drainage
collected from the chicken coop. These entries are C. Terracing D. Strip cropping
examples of what type of simple farm records?
A. Marketing records B. Input records 11. A farmer noticed that a certain type of bean
C. Production records D. Financial records plant in their field was not affected by a common
bean disease that affected other varieties. Using
5. When handling chemicals like pesticides on the plant varieties that are naturally resistant to diseases
farm, learners are advised to wear protective gear, is an example of which pest and disease control
including gloves. Wearing gloves is a safety method?
measure primarily against what type of harm? A. Chemical
A. Cuts B. Burns B. Biological
C. Poisoning D. Animal bites C. Cultural
D. Integrated
12. Baba Caro has several ponds on her farm where Which method of soil conservation is this farmer
she raises fish for sale. using?
A. Terracing B. Cover cropping
C. Strip cropping D. Mulching

17. Adding well-rotted manure (compost) to the soil

before planting has multiple benefits. It improves
both the ability of the soil particles to stick together
(structure) and provides nutrients for plants. It
improves
A. only the soil structure.
B. only the soil fertility.
C. both soil structure and fertility.
This type of animal rearing is known as D. soil acidity.
A. apiculture. B. sericulture.
C. aquaculture. D. dairy farming. 18. Heavy rainfall can wash away the top layer of
soil if it's not protected. Which practice helps
13. After harvesting maize, a farmer needs to take it control soil erosion by covering the soil surface and
from the farm to the market where buyers are reducing the speed of water flowing over it?
located. Which marketing function involves moving A. Irrigation B. Drainage
the produce from one place to another? C. Vegetation cover D. Harvesting
A. Grading B. Storage
C. Transportation D. Packaging 19. A farmer noticed that the lower leaves of his
maize plants were turning yellow along the middle
14. Mrs. Akinyi views her poultry keeping and vein, while the edges remained green. This is a
vegetable farming not just as activities but as a way common symptom of deficiency of which essential
to earn a living and make a profit. This approach of plant nutrient?
treating farming as a business is called A. Phosphorus B. Nitrogen
A. hobby farming. B. agricultural science. C. Potassium D. Calcium
C. agribusiness. D. subsistence farming.
20. Which type of animal feed, like maize grain or
15. Mr. Otieno uses a mobile phone app that gives molasses, is primarily given to provide animals with
him information about the best time to plant crops energy?
based on expected rainfall patterns. This is an A. Legume hay B. Mineral supplements
example of using which modern tool in agriculture? C. Energy feeds D. Protein supplements
A. Agricultural economics
B. Agricultural law 21. John has decided to stop eating meat and fish,
C. Agricultural communication and information and only eats foods like fruits, vegetables, grains,
technology and legumes. What is a person who follows this diet
D. Farm structures called?
A. Carnivore
16. On a gently sloping field, a farmer planted B. Omnivore
alternating strips of maize and beans following the C. Herbivore
curve of the land. D. Vegetarian
22. Your mother is cooking beef stew. 27. When your family decides what meals to cook
for the week, they consider factors like who is
eating (e.g., young children, older people), their
activities, and the available ingredients. A well-
planned meal should always consider the
A. cost only.
B. time available only.
She lets it cook slowly for a long time in liquid. C. nutritional needs of the people eating.
Which cooking method is suitable for making tough D. colour of the food only.
cuts of meat tender through slow, moist cooking?
A. Roasting 28. After cooking and eating, you need to clean the
B. Grilling kitchen and dishes. Before washing dishes with soap
C. Stewing and water, what is the first step you should take to
D. Frying make cleaning easier?
A. Rinsing with clean water.
23. To prevent tomatoes from spoiling quickly, B. Scraping off food remains into a bin.
Mama Mboga dries them in the sun. Which food C. Soaking the dishes in water.
preservation method involves removing most of the D. Arranging dishes by size.
water from food?
A. Canning 29. In a Home Science class, learners are using a
B. Freezing sewing machine to stitch fabric. Which part of the
C. Drying sewing machine is directly responsible for creating
D. Salting the stitches in the fabric by piercing it and carrying
the thread?
24. When setting the table for a formal dinner, the A. Bobbin
knives and spoons are placed on the right side of the B. Presser foot
plate. On which side of the plate should the fork be C. Needle
placed? D. Tension disc
A. To the right of the plate
B. To the left of the plate 30. Mary wants to make a warm scarf using yarn
C. Above the plate and two long needles, creating loops that interlock.
D. On the plate Which textile craft is she planning to do?
A. Sewing
25. While playing, Kevin stained his shirt with B. Embroidery
blood. To remove this type of stain effectively, C. Knitting
which temperature of water should be used first? D. Crocheting
A. Hot water
B. Warm water
C. Cold water
D. Boiling water

26. Your school uniform is dirty and needs cleaning.

The process of washing clothes using water and
detergent is generally called
A. pressing.
B. ironing.
C. dry cleaning.
D. laundering.
 SECTION B (40 marks)

Answer ALL the questions in this section.

31. Your class visited a farm to observe advanced soil and water conservation methods.
(a) Name two types of structural conservation methods that involve building physical structures on the land
to control erosion and water flow, which you might have observed. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) The farmer also planted low-growing plants that cover the soil surface between main crops or during off-
season. Explain one advantage of using these cover crops for soil conservation. (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

32. You are learning about how plants get the nutrients they need to grow well.
(a) Name two essential plant nutrients that crops require in large quantities for healthy growth. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) If a maize plant's older leaves show a yellowing starting from the tip and moving along the middle vein,
while the edges remain green, this is a sign of deficiency of which specific nutrient? (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________

33. Pests and diseases are a major challenge for farmers. Your teacher discussed different ways to manage
them.
(a) Give two methods of controlling crop pests that involve using farming practices, rather than chemicals or
other organisms. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) While effective, using chemical pesticides has drawbacks. What is one major disadvantage of relying
heavily on chemical pesticides for pest control? (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
34. A farmer is planning the feeding schedule for their dairy cows. They need to provide a balanced diet using
different feeding systems.
(a) Name two common systems or methods used to feed dairy cattle. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) What is meant by providing animals with a "balanced ration"? (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

35. On a farm, various structures are needed for housing animals and storing materials.
(a) State two important factors a farmer should consider when choosing the best location on their farm to
build a house for chickens. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Give two purposes for having a general farm store building. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

36. Understanding basic agricultural economics helps farmers make smart decisions.
(a) Differentiate between the activities of "production" (growing/raising farm items) and "consumption"
(using farm items) in agriculture. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Outline two factors, other than price, that can influence how much of a particular agricultural product
(like tomatoes) consumers want to buy (demand). (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

37. After harvesting maize, a farmer needs to handle and sell it properly.
(a) Name two common traditional or modern methods used by farmers to store harvested maize on the farm
before selling it. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
 (b) Give two reasons why farmers should sort their maize to remove damaged grains and grade it according
to quality before taking it to the market. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
38. Before starting to prepare food for your family meal, ensuring personal cleanliness is vital.
Outline two hygienic practices you should always observe regarding your hands and appearance before you
begin handling food ingredients. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
39. To reduce food wastage, it is often necessary to preserve food.
State two advantages or benefits of preserving food items. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
40. Planning meals helps ensure everyone's nutritional needs are met.
(a) State two important reasons why planning meals in advance is a good practice for a household. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Outline three different factors, other than age, that should be considered when planning meals for a
family. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

41. You accidentally spilled some juice on your shirt, causing a stain. Different stains require specific
treatments.
Give two general steps you should follow immediately or soon after getting a stain on fabric before
attempting to wash it normally. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
42. Keeping the kitchen clean is essential for health and safety. You have just finished preparing and eating a
meal, and the kitchen surfaces need cleaning.
(a) Outline two reasons why regularly cleaning your kitchen, especially the work surfaces, is important. (2
marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Describe three steps you would follow to safely and effectively clean a kitchen work surface after
preparing food. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES
Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT
TERM 2 ENDTERM 2025

807: SOCIAL STUDIES

-SOCIAL STUDIES-

Time: 1 Hour 30 Minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and assessment number correctly.

2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces as indicated above.
3. Write the date of the assessment.
4. This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
5. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions.
6. Section B comprises structured questions and essay questions.
7. Answer ALL the questions in Section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.
8. Answer ALL the questions in Section B in the spaces provided on this question paper.
9. Do NOT remove any page from this question paper.
10. Answer the questions in English.

For official use only

SECTION Question Candidate’s Score per Maximum Candidate’s Score per

B Question Score Task
Task 1 21 10
22 5
23 6
24 5
25 2
26 3
Task 2 27 5
28 5
29 10
30 4
31 4
Task 3 32 10
33 3
Task 4 34 8
TOTAL 100 100
This paper consists of 17 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the
pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series
Turn over
 1. You have been given this question paper and a separate answer sheet. Answer all the questions in Section A
on the separate answer sheet provided.
2. When you have chosen your answer, mark it on the ANSWER SHEET, not on this question paper.

HOW TO USE THE ANSWER SHEET

3. Use an ordinary HB pencil.

4. Confirm that the answer sheet you have been provided with has the following:

YOUR ASSESSMENT NUMBER

YOUR NAME

NAME OF YOUR SCHOOL

NAME OF THE SUBJECT

5. Keep the answer sheet clean, and dry and DO NOT fold it.
6. For each of the questions 1 – 20, four answers are given. The answers are lettered A, B, C and D. In each
case, only ONE of the four answers is correct. Choose the correct answer.
7. On the answer sheet, the correct answer is to be shown by drawing a dark line inside the box in which the
letter you have chosen is written.

Example

In the Question Booklet:

17. Your class is planning to start an enterprise project in the school. The first activity the class should do is to: A.
agree on how to share the profits from the project B. agree on roles during the project C. discuss where to sell
the products D. discuss the type of project to start.

The correct answer is ‘D’.

On the answer sheet, in the set of boxes given for number 17, draw a dark line inside the box with the letter B printed
in it as indicated below.

17. [A] [B] [C] [D]

18. Your dark line MUST be inside the box.
19. For each question, ONLY ONE box is to be marked in each set of four boxes.
 SECTION A (20 marks)

Answer ALL the questions in this section.

1. Which of the following describes the process of exploring one's own character and personality?

A. Interdependence

B. Global citizenship

C. Self-exploration

D. Community service learning

2. Bartering was the earliest medium of trade before the introduction of money. Which of the following was a

major challenge associated with bartering?

A. Lack of portability

B. Difficulty in determining value

C. Storage issues for perishable goods

D. Need for a double coincidence of wants

3. According to many Kenyan religious stories, human origin is often attributed to a supreme being. Which of

the following is a common theme in these narratives?

A. Humans evolving from primates over millions of years.

B. Humans migrating from another planet.

C. Direct creation of man by a divine power.

D. Spontaneous generation from inanimate matter.

4. The ancient civilization of Egypt significantly influenced modern Africa. Which of the following is a direct

influence of Ancient Egypt on present-day African societies?

A. Introduction of multi-party democracy.

B. The development of advanced railway systems.

C. Architectural styles and irrigation techniques.

D. The establishment of modern banking systems.

5. The Indian Ocean Slave Trade was distinct from the Trans-Saharan Slave Trade in several ways. Which of the

following describes a key characteristic of the Indian Ocean Slave Trade?

A. It primarily involved the trade of slaves across the Sahara Desert.

B. It involved trade routes linking East Africa to the Middle East and Asia.

C. It focused on the exploitation of slaves in European plantations in the Americas.

D. It exclusively involved female slaves for domestic servitude.

6. Historical information is crucial for understanding our past. Which of the following is an example of a

primary source of information?

A. A history textbook written in 2020.

B. A documentary film about ancient civilizations.

C. An ancient spear head found at an archaeological site.

D. A biography of a historical figure.

7. The internal structure of the Earth consists of several layers. Which layer is characterized by molten rock and

is responsible for plate tectonics?

A. The Inner Core

B. The Crust

C. The Outer Core

D. The Mantle

8. Weather is the state of the atmosphere at a given time and place. Which of the following weather elements is

primarily measured using a rain gauge?

A. Temperature

B. Wind speed

C. Rainfall

D. Sunshine duration
9. Longitudes and latitudes are imaginary lines used to locate places on Earth. If it is 12:00 noon at Dakar,

Senegal, 170W what time would it be at a place located at Tbilisi, Georgia, 45°E?

A. 1:52 P.m.

B. 12:45 p.m.

C. 4:08 p.m.

D. 10:52 p.m.

10. Personal values guide an individual's choices and behavior. Which of the following best describes the

importance of knowing your personal values?

A. To impress others with your moral standing.

B. To always follow what others believe is right.

C. To make informed decisions that align with your beliefs.

D. To avoid any form of conflict or disagreement.

11. The Berlin Conference of 1884-1885 had significant terms for the scramble and partition of Africa. Which of

the following was a key term of this conference?

A. African leaders were consulted on their colonial preferences.

B. Effective occupation was required for a claim to be recognized.

C. European powers agreed to end all forms of slavery in Africa.

D. All African kingdoms were granted self-rule.

12. The Constitution of Kenya outlines various human rights. Which of the following is a characteristic of human

rights?

A. They are granted by the government and can be withdrawn.

B. They are only applicable to specific groups of people.

C. They are inherent, inalienable, and universal.

D. They are dependent on one's social status.

13. Population distribution in Kenya varies significantly. Which of the following factors would most likely lead to

a densely populated area in Kenya?

A. Arid and semi-arid conditions.

B. Mountainous terrain with steep slopes.

C. Fertile agricultural land with reliable rainfall.

D. Proximity to international borders.

14. Self-esteem is a crucial aspect of personal well-being. Which of the following actions demonstrates healthy

self-esteem?

A. Constantly seeking approval from others.

B. Avoiding new challenges due to fear of failure.

C. Accepting personal strengths and weaknesses.

D. Blaming others for personal mistakes.

15. Different types of maps serve various purposes. Which type of map is specifically designed to show small

areas in great detail, including physical features like hills and valleys?

A. Atlas map

B. Political map

C. Topographical map

D. Sketch map

16. Weather and climate are distinct concepts in geography. Which of the following best describes climate?

A. The daily atmospheric conditions of a place.

B. The sudden changes in temperature and rainfall.

C. The average weather conditions of a region over a long period.

D. The wind patterns observed in a specific area.

17. Vegetation distribution in Africa is influenced by various factors. Which of the following is the most

significant factor influencing the distribution of different vegetation types across the continent?
 A. Soil type

B. Altitude

C. Rainfall and temperature

D. Human activities

18. Fort Jesus is a significant historical site in Kenya. What is its primary importance?

A. It was a major trading center for gold and ivory.

B. It served as a launching point for European explorers.

C. It is a UNESCO World Heritage site representing Portuguese military architecture and slave trade history.

D. It was the capital city of an ancient African kingdom.

19. Community Service Learning is an important aspect of CBC. Which of the following is a key benefit of

engaging in community service learning?

A. Earning high grades in Social Studies.

B. Avoiding homework assignments.

C. Developing civic responsibility and practical skills.

D. Gaining popularity among peers.

20. Early African communities had diverse political, social, and economic organizations. Which of the following

best describes the economic organization of many early African communities?

A. Primarily industrialised with factory production.

B. Dominated by large-scale commercial farming for export.

C. Based on subsistence agriculture, pastoralism, and limited trade.

D. Characterised by widespread use of currency and banking.

 SECTION B (80 marks)

Answer ALL questions in this section.

21. Use the map below to answer question 21.

 a. The highest point in Molu area is likely to be located at? ( 1 mark)

____________________________________________________________________________

b. Name three economic activities likely to be carried out in Molu area. (3 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

c. The climate of north eastern section of Molu area is likely to be? ( 1 mark)
__________________________________________________________________________________
22. The Earth and the Solar System are interconnected.

a) Identify two planets in our solar system, starting from the one closest to the Sun. (2 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

b) Differentiate between the Earth's rotation and revolution, stating one cause and one effect for each. (3 marks).
__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________
23. Early African civilizations developed unique methods of agriculture.

a) Name two early African communities known for their agricultural practices. (2 marks)

___________________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________________

b) Describe three Egyptian irrigation methods used in the Nile Valley. (3 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

24. Diversity and interpersonal relationships are crucial for peaceful coexistence.

a) Identify three benefits of promoting diversity in a school environment. (3 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________
 b) Outline three ways to promote healthy relationships among learners from diverse backgrounds. (3 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

25. The Scramble and Partition of Africa had profound effects on the continent.

a. State two reasons why European powers scrambled for Africa. (2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

b. Explain one negative social effect of the Scramble and Partition of Africa on African communities. (1
mark)

__________________________________________________________________________________
 c. State the European colony for the following African country. (2 marks)

X: __________________________________. Y: _____________________________________.

26. Personal awareness and managing peer pressure are vital for self-exploration. Outline two ways a Grade 8
learner can manage negative peer pressure. (2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

27. Historical sites and monuments are important for preserving our past.
a. State two ways of conserving historical monuments in Kenya. (2 marks)

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________
 b. Identify the historical monument below located in Mali. ( 1 mark)

____________________________________.

28. Social Studies entrepreneurial opportunities are numerous. Outline five entrepreneurial opportunities a Grade 8
learner could explore based on Social Studies knowledge. (5 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

29. Healthy relationships and personal awareness contribute to peace. Learners interacted with an audio-clip on
factors that hinder and promote peace in the community. Highlight five factors that promote peace. (5 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________
30. Human origin is explained by various theories and religious stories.

a) Identify four pieces of evidence that support the theory of human origin from Africa. (4 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

b) Explain three ways in which Kenya religious stories on the origin of man are similar to or differ from the
scientific theory of evolution. (2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

31. Identify the following early man stages. ( 2 marks)

A B

______________________________ _______________________________

32. State two characteristics of Homo Sapiens Sapiens. ( 2 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

33. Poverty is a persistent challenge in many societies. Members of the Social Studies club discussed the causes of
poverty in society. Outline four economic causes of poverty that they may have discussed. (4 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________
34. The African Diasporas have a rich history and influence. Discuss two contributions made by the African
Diasporas to the development of Africa. (4 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

35. Population distribution and structure are key demographic concepts.

a) Highlight four effects of population growth in Africa. (4 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________
 b) Explain the typical characteristics of population pyramids in:

(i) Kenya (2 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

c) Name two types of migration in Africa (2 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

36. Conflict resolution is a vital life skill. State three non-violent ways of solving conflicts in a school setting. (3
marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

37. Map reading and interpretation are essential geographical skills.

a. Outline two reasons why marginal information is important on a map. (2 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

b. Explain two methods used to represent physical features on topographical maps. (2 marks)

__________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________

c. Using the map below. Identify the climatic regions marked X and Y.

X:__________________________ ________.

Y: __________________________________.
 d. Identify the mountain vegetation Y and Z

Y_____________________________________________________________________

Z_____________________________________________________________________

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES

Candidate’s Name Assessment Number

School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT
-PRETECHNICAL STUDIES-

812/1 PRETECHNICAL STUDIES (theory)

PAPER 1 TERM 2 ENDTERM 2025

Time: 1 hour 40 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Sign and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
5. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions numbered 1 to 30.
6. Section B comprises Short Structured questions numbered 31 to 50.
7. Answer ALL the questions in section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.
8. Answer ALL the questions in section B in the spaces provided in this question paper.
9. Do not remove any page from this question paper.
10. Answer all questions in English.

For official use only: SECTION B

Task Task 1 Task 2 Task 3

Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Cand. Score
Max 25 12 13
Score/Task
Cand.
Score/Task

This paper consists of 10 printed pages.

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated and
that no questions are missing.
© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series
Turn over
 SECTION A (30 marks)

Answer All questions in this section on the answer sheets provided.

1. The Competency Based Curriculum in Pre- 5. During a fire safety drill, Mr.Mwangi asked Grade 8
Technical Studies aims to equip learners with: learners of Olalui Junior School to put out an electrical
fire. Which one of the following extinguishers was the
A. Theoretical knowledge only. most appropriate to use?

B. Practical skills and entrepreneurial competencies.

C. Historical facts about technology.

D. Advanced scientific research abilities.

2. Which of the following is an example of a good

workshop practice that promotes safety?

A. Leaving tools scattered on the workbench.

B. Wearing loose clothing while operating machinery.
C. Keeping the work area clean and organized.
D. Operating machinery without proper training.

3. When drawing a mechanical component, Wafula

drew the line shown below. 6. In a carpentry workshop, which safety precaution is
specific to preventing injuries from flying wood chips?

A. Wearing ear protection.

The line draw in called a? B. Using a dust mask.

A. Centre line B. Hidden line C. Wearing safety glasses or goggles.

C. Continuous line D. Dimension line D. Having a fire extinguisher nearby.

4. A Grade 8 learner is designing a simple metallic toy 7. Which of the following materials is known for its
car. Which mtool would be used to cutr the metal sheets excellent thermal insulation properties, making it suitable
? for constructing roofs and walls in hot climates?

A B A. Glass

B. Steel

C. Timber

C D D. Aluminium
8. When working with a hacksaw to cut metal, what is 13. Which tool is used to hold small components securely
the correct technique to ensure safety and efficiency? while they are being worked on, preventing them from
moving?
A. Apply pressure only on the return stroke.
B. Apply pressure only on the forward stroke. A. Claw hammer B. Screwdriver
C. Use short, quick strokes.
C. Bench vice D. Spanner
D. Cut without clamping the work-piece.
14. Mary bought a new blender, but after a week, it
9. Which of the following is not a method of putting stopped working. The seller refused to replace it or give a
out fire. refund, claiming she misused it, which she denies. Mary
wants to report this unfair practice.
A. Smothering method B. Starving method
Which government body in Kenya is primarily
C. Interrupting method. D. Hacking method. responsible for ensuring consumer rights are protected in
such a case?
10. Observe the item below keenly.
A. Kenya Revenue Authority (KRA)

B. Central Bank of Kenya (CBK)

C. Competition Authority of Kenya (CAK)

D. Kenya Bureau of Standards (KEBS)

The item above has been made using which type of
metal? 15. A new company is asking the public to buy shares,
promising very high and quick returns. Some potential
A. Gold B. Copper C. Alluminium D. Steel investors are wary about the risks and want to ensure
their money is safe from scams. The primary purpose of
11. What is the primary purpose of a fire drill in a school investor protection in this situation is to:
or workshop environment?
A. Guarantee profits for all investors.
A. To cause panic among learners.
B. Safeguard investors from fraudulent practices and
B. To practice emergency evacuation procedures. ensure fair trading.
C. To test the fire alarm system only.
C. Limit the amount of money an investor can put into a
D. To identify individuals who are slow. business.

12. Which of the following is a common cause of D. Force investors to invest in specific companies.
electrical fires in a workshop?

A. Overloading electrical sockets.

B. Properly maintained machinery.

C. Using the correct wire gauge.

D. Regular inspection of electrical cords.

16. The school principal wants to inform parents about 19. Ms. Akinyi started a successful tailoring business by
the upcoming sports day, including highlights of previous identifying a market gap for custom-made school
events and a visual representation of the schedule. uniforms, taking risks, and organizing resources.

Which of the following is the most effective channel for The reward Ms. Akinyi receives for her innovation, risk-
the principal to use to achieve this? taking, and organization in setting up the business
(entrepreneurship) is:
A. A radio advertisement on a local station.
A. Wages B. Rent C. Interest D. Profit
B. A face-to-face meeting with a few parents.
20. Prudence is a Grade 8 learner managing her pocket
C. A television commercial played on a community money. Which of the following actions demonstrates
channel. effective money management?

D. A phone call to each parent. A. Spending all her money as soon as she receives it.
B. Making a list of her needs and wants before
17. During a conflict resolution session between two spending.
learners, the mediator wants to observe their body
language, listen to their tone, and understand their C. Borrowing money from friends frequently.
feelings instantly to de-escalate the situation. D. Ignoring future financial goals.

Which form of communication is ideal for the mediator 21. Which of the following is an advantage of saving
to use to achieve this understanding? money in a financial institution like a bank?

A. Written communication via notes. A. No interest is earned on savings.

B. Oral communication (face-to-face discussion). B. The money is easily accessible for impulsive
spending.
C. Formal reports submitted by each learner.
C. Safety and potential for earning interest.
D. Email communication after the session.
D. High risk of losing money.

22. Mwende is a small-scale farmer considering

18. Recent cases of expired food products being sold in diversifying her produce. Which of the following is the
local shops have raised concerns among consumers. most reliable source of a new business idea for her?
People want assurance that they are buying safe goods.
A. Listening to random rumours.
Consumer protection laws aim to:
B. Identifying a gap in the local market for specific
A. Benefit businesses by reducing competition. agricultural products.

B. Ensure fair prices for all goods and services. C. Copying a successful farmer from a different
region.
C. Protect consumers from unfair trade practices and
unsafe products. D. Waiting for government grants to appear.

D. Promote monopoly in the market.

23. Which component of a computer is responsible for 27. Which keyboard shortcut is commonly used to copy
executing instructions and performing calculations? selected text or objects in most computer applications?

A. Random Access Memory (RAM) A. Ctrl + X

B. Hard Disk Drive (HDD) B. Ctrl + V

C. Central Processing Unit (CPU) C. Ctrl + C

D. Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) D. Ctrl + Z

24. Which type of computer is designed for use by a 28. Antivirus software is an example of which category
single user at a time and is typically found in homes and of computer software?
offices?
A. Operating System
A. Supercomputer B. Mainframe computer
B. Utility Software
C. Personal computer D. Server
C. Application Software
25. When working in a computer lab, what is the best
practice for maintaining proper posture and preventing D. Programming Language
strain?
29. An algorithm is a set of instructions to solve a
A. Slouching in the chair to relax. problem. In visual programming, what is the most
common way to represent steps in an algorithm?
B. Sitting upright with feet flat on the floor and elbows
at a 90-degree angle. A. Writing long lines of text code.

C. Leaning very close to the screen. B. Using mathematical equations.

D. Resting wrists on the keyboard at all times. C. Connecting graphical blocks or symbols.
D. Drawing complex flowcharts with only text.
26. Phishing is a common online scam. Which of the
following is a characteristic of a phishing attempt? 30. Which of the following icons typically represents the
"Print" function in most computer applications?
A. An email from a known sender asking you to
update your software.

B. A message asking for your personal login details,

often with a sense of urgency.
A B
C. A notification about a new software update from a
reputable company.

D. An advertisement for a product you recently

searched for.
C D
 SECTION B (50 marks)

Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided.

31. State two ways in which Pre-Technical Studies promote critical thinking skills in learners. (4 marks)

i. ________________________________________________________________________________________
ii. _______________________________________________________________________________________

32. Technical drawing uses different types of projections to represent objects.

a) Name two types of pictorial projections. (2 marks)

i. ________________________________________________________________________________________
ii. ________________________________________________________________________________________

b) State one advantage of using isometric projection over oblique projection. (1 mark)

______________________________________________________________________________________________

33. The picture below shows a common marking tool used in carpentry.

a) Identify the tool shown above. (1 mark)

______________________________________________________________________________________________

b) State two uses of the tool. (2 marks)

______________________________________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________________________________
 34. Sustainable practices are encouraged in the use of materials.
a) Give two examples of composite materials. (2 marks)

i. ________________________________________________________________________________________
ii. ________________________________________________________________________________________

b) Name one application for each composite material in 34(a). (2 marks)

a) ________________________________________________________________________________________

35. Freehand sketching is an important skill in technical communication. Make a free hand sketch of a cone with a
circular base. (4 marks)

36. Metal joining is a crucial process in fabrication. State three factors to consider when choosing a method for
joining two pieces of metal. (3 marks)

a) ________________________________________________________________________________________
b) ________________________________________________________________________________________
c) ________________________________________________________________________________________

37. Geometrical constructions require precision. Construct a circle with a radius of 4cm using a pair of compasses
and a ruler. (3 marks)
 38. Businesses often interact with various stakeholders. State two ways in which businesses contribute to the
welfare of the community. (2 marks)

a) ________________________________________________________________________________________
b) ________________________________________________________________________________________

39. A business had the following balances for the month of April 2025:

Item Amount (Ksh)

Opening Inventory 15,000
Purchases 25,000
Sales 40,000
Closing Inventory 10,000

Calculate the Cost of Goods Sold for the month. (3 marks)

40. Consumer protection is important for a fair marketplace. State two responsibilities of consumers in ensuring
they are not exploited. (2 marks)

a) ________________________________________________________________________________________
b) ________________________________________________________________________________________

41. Mwangi is an aspiring entrepreneur and needs to conduct market research. Outline two reasons why market
research is important before starting a business. (2 marks)

a) ________________________________________________________________________________________
b) ________________________________________________________________________________________

42. Financial literacy is a key life skill.

a) Distinguish between needs and wants in the context of personal finance. (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________
b) Give one example of a need and one example of a want for a Grade 8 learner. (1 mark)

Need: ___________________________________________________________________________

Want: ___________________________________________________________________________

43. A teacher wants to store a large amount of educational videos and share them with learners. State one computer
hardware device that offers large storage capacity and portability for this purpose. (1 mark)

a) ________________________________________________________________________________________

44. Match each of the following computer accessories with their primary function. (2 marks)

Accessory Primary Function

Web Camera Provides temporary power backup during outages.
Printer Captures video and images for online communication.
Flash Drive Produces hard copies of digital documents.
Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) Portable storage device for files.

45. Digital citizenship involves responsible and ethical use of technology. Name two positive uses of social media
for learning purposes. (2 marks)

a) ________________________________________________________________________________________
b) ________________________________________________________________________________________
c) ________________________________________________________________________________________

46. The following are steps for sending an email. They are not arranged in the correct order.

(i) Click the "Send" button.

(ii) Compose your message in the body of the email.

(iii) Open your email client or webmail.

(iv) Enter the recipient's email address in the "To" field and a subject.

Arrange the instructions in the correct order. (2 marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________
 47. What is the main difference between hardware and software in a computer system? (1 mark)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

48. Cyberbullying is a serious online threat. State one action a learner should take if they experience
cyberbullying. (1 mark)

a) ________________________________________________________________________________________

49. A Grade 8 teacher wants to calculate the average score of learners in a spreadsheet. The scores are in cells B2,
B3, B4, and B5. Write the formula that the teacher would use to calculate the average score in cell B6. (2
marks)

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________________________

50. A Pre-Technical Studies teacher created the following simple program to determine if a learner has passed or
failed an exam based on a pass mark of 60.

Start

Input Score

If Score >= 60

Output "EXCEEDS EXPECTATION"

Else

Output "MEETS EXPECTATION"

End

What will be the output if a learner scores:

a) 75: ____________________ (1 mark)

b) 50: ____________________ (1 mark)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES

Candidate’s Name Assessment Number

School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT
-PRETECHNICAL STUDIES-

812/2 PRETECHNICAL STUDIES (project)

PAPER 2 TERM 2 ENDTERM 2025

Time: 1 hour 40 minutes

Duration: 1 month

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

 You are supposed to work in groups of 4 to 5 learners.

 Each member of the group is expected to be actively involved in the implementation of the

project.

 Use locally available materials in the implementation of the project as much as possible.

 In case of any clarification, seek help from your subject teacher.

 Your project will be assessed based on the criteria outlined in the tasks below.

For official use only

Task Question Numbers Maximum Score Learner’s Score

Task 1: Technical Skills 1, 2, 3, 4 14
Task 2: Business/Entrepreneurship 5, 6 3
Task 3: ICT/Computer Studies 7, 8 3
TOTAL SCORE 20
This paper consists of 3 printed pages.
Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.
© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series
Turn over
PROJECT SCENARIO:

Your group has decided to make a useful item for the school or home that involves joining different materials
and requires some planning. You will design, make, and present a Simple Tool Holder (e.g., for keeping
pens, rulers, or small hand tools organized).

TASK 1: Technical Skills (14 Marks)

1. Design and Planning:

a) As a group, brainstorm and agree on a design for your simple tool holder. Consider its shape,
size, and how it will hold different items.
b) Make a freehand pictorial sketch of your chosen design. The sketch should clearly show the
overall appearance of the tool holder and indicate approximate dimensions for the main parts. (4
marks) (Space for sketch)
c) List the main materials you will use to construct the tool holder (e.g., pieces of wood, plastic
containers, cardboard tubes, wire). (2 marks)

____________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

2. Material Preparation and Tool Selection:

a) Based on your chosen materials, list at least four appropriate hand tools you will need for
marking, cutting, shaping, and joining the parts of your tool holder. (4 marks)

___________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

b) Briefly describe one safety precaution you must observe when using one of the tools you listed
that has a sharp edge. (1 mark)

___________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

3. Construction:
a) Carefully measure, mark out, and cut the pieces according to your design sketch using the
selected tools.
b) Assemble the cut pieces using appropriate joining methods (e.g., glue, nails, screws, tape).
c) Apply a simple finish to your tool holder (e.g., sanding, painting, covering) to improve its
appearance and durability.
d) Submission: Present your completed Simple Tool Holder. (Marking will be based on accuracy
of construction, stability, and finish). (3 marks)
TASK 2: Business/Entrepreneurship (3 Marks)

5. Usefulness and Cost:

a) Explain one way your tool holder is useful for organizing items. (1 mark)

____________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

b) If you were to make more of these, suggest two factors that would determine the cost of making
one tool holder. (2 marks)

____________________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________________

TASK 3: ICT/Computer Studies (3 Marks)

7. Documentation and Presentation:

a) Take clear photos or short video clips during the different stages of your project (design,
cutting, joining, finishing). (1 mark)
b) Create a simple electronic document (e.g., using word processing software) or a digital poster
that includes the photos/videos taken, showing the steps you followed to make the tool holder.
(2 marks)

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

 CONFIDENTIAL GUIDE FOR TEACHERS

THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES

Teacher’s Name TSC NO.

School Name School Code
Teacher’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT
-PRETECHNICAL STUDIES

812/2
PAPER 2 (project)
TERM 2 ENDTERM 2025

PRETECHNICAL STUDIES (PROJECT) - 811/2

Project Scenario: Simple Tool Holder

Overall Guidance for Teachers:

a) The aim of this paper project is to give learners practical skills and competencies required at junior
school level.This is in lie with preparing learners for National Examinations and future carrers thereafter.
b) This is a group project. Emphasize collaboration and active participation from all members.
c) Encourage learners to be innovative and use locally available materials.
d) The duration of 1 month allows for iterative design, construction, and refinement.
e) Safety is paramount. Ensure learners are aware of and practice safety precautions, especially when
handling tools.
f) Assessment should be ongoing, observing group dynamics, individual contributions, and the final
product.
g) Focus on the concept of joining different materials and practical application.
h) Locally available materials are key.
i) Reinforce safety protocols, especially with cutting tools.

Task 1: Technical Skills (14 Marks)

1. Design and Planning:

a) Brainstorming and Design Agreement:

Teacher's Role: Guide groups to think about the types of tools the holder will organize (pens, rulers, small
hand tools) and how the design will accommodate them.

Expected Outcome: Group discussion leading to a consensus on the design.

b) Freehand Pictorial Sketch (4 marks):

Teacher's Role:

Look for clarity, representation of the tool holder, and inclusion of approximate dimensions.

Marking Guidance: 2 marks for a clear, recognizable pictorial sketch of a simple tool holder. 2 marks for indicating
approximate dimensions for main parts (e.g., height, width, depth of compartments).

Common Challenges: learners may struggle with accurate drawing or dimensioning.

c) List of Main Materials (2 marks):

Teacher's Role: Encourage creative use of diverse materials.

Marking Guidance:

1 mark for listing 2-3 appropriate materials. 2 marks for listing 4 or more appropriate and relevant materials (e.g.,
wood pieces, plastic bottles, cardboard tubes, wire, fabric, recycled plastic containers).

Expected Outcome: A list of at least four materials suitable for the tool holder.

2. Material Preparation and Tool Selection:

a) List of Appropriate Hand Tools (4 marks):

Teacher's Role: Ensure tools are appropriate for the materials chosen.

Marking Guidance:

1 mark for each correct and appropriate hand tool listed (max 4 marks).

Examples: Ruler, pencil, scissors, utility knife, saw, sandpaper, glue gun, hammer, staple gun, tape measure.

Expected Outcome:

A list of at least four hand tools for marking, cutting, shaping, and joining.

b) Safety Precaution for Sharp-edged Tools (1 mark):

Teacher's Role: Reinforce specific safety practices for sharp tools.

Marking Guidance: * 1 mark for a clear and relevant safety precaution (e.g., "Always cut on a stable surface," "Keep
fingers away from the cutting path," "Use sharp tools carefully," "Wear gloves if appropriate").

Expected Outcome: A concise and correct safety precaution.

3. Construction and Submission:

a), b), c) Construction Process:

Teacher's Role: Observe construction for accuracy, neatness, and appropriate joining methods. Guide on finishing
techniques.

d) Submission of Completed Tool Holder (3 marks):

Teacher's Role: Assess the final product.

Marking Guidance:

1 mark for accuracy of construction (Does it match the sketch? Are pieces cut reasonably well?).

1 mark for stability (Is it firm and does it hold items without tipping?).
1 mark for finish (Is it neatly completed, decorated, or covered? Is it visually appealing?).

Expected Outcome:

A functional, stable, and reasonably well-finished simple tool holder.

Task 2: Business/Entrepreneurship (3 Marks)

5. Usefulness and Cost:

a) Explanation of Usefulness (1 mark):

Teacher's Role:

Guide learners to articulate the primary function and benefit of their tool holder.

Marking Guidance:

1 mark for a clear explanation of how the tool holder organizes items (e.g., "Keeps pens and rulers tidy," "Prevents
small tools from getting lost," "Makes a desk look neater").

Expected Outcome: A concise explanation of the tool holder's utility.

b) Factors Determining Cost (2 marks):

Teacher's Role: Encourage learners to think beyond just materials and consider the production process.

Marking Guidance: 1 mark for each relevant factor (max 2 marks).

Examples: Cost of materials, time/labor involved in making, complexity of design, tools used, quantity produced (bulk
vs. individual).

Expected Outcome:

Two distinct factors influencing the cost of production.

Task 3: Computer Studies (3 Marks)

7. Documentation and Presentation:

a) Taking Photos/Video Clips (1 mark):

Teacher's Role: Emphasize capturing key stages of construction.

Marking Guidance: 1 mark for clear photos/videos showing at least 3 distinct stages of the project.

Expected Outcome: Digital visual evidence of the project's progress.

b) Creating Electronic Document/Digital Poster (2 marks):

Teacher's Role:

Guide learners to organize images and brief descriptions logically within a document or poster.
Marking Guidance:

1 mark for creating a simple electronic document/digital poster.

1 mark for including the photos/videos and showing the steps followed.

Expected Outcome:

A simple digital document or poster effectively documenting the project.

General Notes for Exams:

 Teacher Supervision: Continuous supervision is crucial, especially for practical aspects involving tools, heat,
and chemicals.
 Differentiation: For group projects, encourage varied roles for learners with different strengths.
 Record Keeping: Ensure learners are diligently recording their observations and data as they go.
 Post-Practical Discussion: A follow-up discussion helps reinforce the concepts and correct any
misconceptions.
 Cleanliness: Emphasize keeping the workspace clean and tidy throughout and after the practical.
 Fairness: Ensure equal access to materials and tools for all groups/learners.

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES

Candidate’s Name Assessment Number

School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION (Theory)

TERM 2 ENDTERM 2025

808: CRE
Time: 1 hour 40 minutes
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Sign and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
5. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions numbered 1 to 20.
6. Section B comprises short, structured questions number 21 to 28.
7. Answer ALL the questions in section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.
8. Answer ALL the questions in section B in the spaces provided in this QUESTION PAPER.
9. Do NOT remove any page from this question paper.
10. Answer ALL the questions in English. Standard Islamic terms may be used.
For official use only

SECTION B

Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 Total

Maximum Score 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 80

Candidate’s Score

This paper consists of 6 printed pages.

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.
© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series
Turn over
 SECTION A (20 marks)
Answer ALL the questions in this section.
1. According to Christian teaching, God is all- 11. Which fruit of the Holy Spirit relates to
powerful. This attribute of God is called showing kindness and empathy to others?
A. Omnipresence. B. Omniscience. A. Love B. Goodness
C. Omnipotence. D. Eternity. C. Gentleness D. Faithfulness
2. The first five books of the Old Testament are 12. African Traditional Religion believers often
collectively known as the communicate with the spirit world through
A. Prophets. B. Wisdom Literature. A. The Bible. B. Ancestors.
C. Pentateuch. D. Gospels. C. Prophets. D. Angels.
3. Who was the son of Abraham through whom 13. Which is the primary act of Christian worship
God's covenant promises were continued? often involving communion?
A. Ishmael B. Isaac C. Jacob D. Esau A. Bible study
4. Which prophet received the Ten Commandments B. Singing hymns
from God on Mount Sinai? C. Baptism
A. Elijah B. Moses D. The Lord's Supper (Holy Communion)
C. Samuel D. Isaiah 14. Being a good steward means taking care of
5. The story of Daniel in the den of lions teaches something entrusted to you. Christians believe they
Christians about are stewards of
A. pride. B. faithfulness in prayer. A. their money only.
C. seeking power. D. running away. B. God's creation and resources.
6. Jesus began His public ministry after being C. their talents only.
baptized by John the Baptist in the river D. their possessions only.
A. Nile. B. Jordan. 15. Humility is a Christian value that involves
C. Tigris. D. Euphrates. having a modest view of one's own importance.
7. The Beatitudes, which are blessings pronounced Jesus demonstrated humility by
by Jesus, are found in A. performing miracles.
A. The Lord's Prayer. B. washing His disciples' feet.
B. The Sermon on the Mount. C. teaching in synagogues.
C. The Great Commission. D. calling disciples.
D. The Golden Rule. 16. Which commandment teaches Christians about
8. Which miracle of Jesus involved raising a dead respect for family?
person back to life? A. Honor your father and mother.
A. Healing the leper B. You shall not murder.
B. Calming the storm C. You shall not steal.
C. Raising Lazarus D. You shall not covet.
D. Turning water into wine 17. Chastity is a Christian value related to
9. In the parable of the Prodigal Son, what does the A. telling the truth.
father's reaction to the son's return teach us about B. controlling sexual desires.
God? C. managing money wisely.
A. God is strict. D. being kind to others.
B. God is unforgiving. 18. The Christian virtue of perseverance means
C. God is loving and forgiving. A. being popular.
D. God is indifferent. B. giving up easily.
10. Jesus taught His disciples to pray using a C. continuing in faith despite challenges.
specific prayer pattern. This is known as D. being angry all the time.
A. The Prayer of Faith.
B. The Lord's Prayer.
C. The Disciple's Prayer.
D. The High Priestly Prayer.
19. Which Christian celebration marks the coming 20. Marriage in Christianity is generally understood
of the Holy Spirit upon the disciples? as a lifelong union between
A. Christmas A. two people of the same gender.
B. Easter B. a man and a woman.
C. Pentecost C. any two consenting adults.
D. Good Friday D. one person and multiple partners.
SECTION B (80 marks)
Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
21. God revealed himself to the Israelites through various figures and events in the Old Testament.
(a) Describe the covenant God made with Moses on Mount Sinai. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Outline the main purpose of the Ten Commandments for the Israelites. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) State two lessons Christians learn from the giving of the Ten Commandments. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
22. The prophets in the Old Testament played a crucial role in God's plan.
(a) Explain the main role of a prophet in ancient Israel. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Choose any one prophet from the Old Testament and briefly describe their ministry. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) State three lessons Christians learn from the lives of the prophets. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
23. Jesus' ministry was characterized by powerful teachings and actions.
(a) Narrate the miracle of Jesus healing the paralysed man who was lowered through the roof (Mark 2:1-12).
(5 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) State three lessons Christians learn from this miracle. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) Give two reasons why Jesus performed miracles. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
24. Jesus' parables often revealed truths about the Kingdom of God.
(a) Choose any one parable about the Kingdom of God (e.g., Mustard Seed, Yeast, Hidden Treasure, Pearl of
Great Price) and briefly explain its meaning. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Outline four characteristics of the Kingdom of God as described by Jesus in His teachings. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) State two ways Christians can participate in the Kingdom of God today. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
25. The family is a fundamental unit in Christian teaching and society.
(a) Outline four roles of parents in a Christian family. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) State four roles of children in a Christian family. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) Give two challenges facing Christian families today. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
26. Forgiveness is a central theme in the New Testament.
(a) Explain the importance of forgiveness in the Lord's Prayer. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) State four reasons why Christians should forgive those who wrong them. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) Give three ways a Christian can show forgiveness to someone who has hurt them. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
27. The Holy Spirit empowers Christians to live according to God's will.
(a) Name the nine fruits of the Holy Spirit as listed in Galatians 5:22-23. (5 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Explain the meaning of any two of the fruits you have named. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) State one way the Holy Spirit helps Christians in their daily lives. (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
28. Relationships between Christians and with non-Christians are important.
(a) Outline four qualities of a good friend according to Christian values. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) State four ways Christians should relate with people from other religions. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) Give two positive roles of the church in promoting good relationships in the community. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES

Candidate’s Name Assessment Number

School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
-ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION-
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT
ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION (Theory)
TERM 2 ENDTERM 2025
809: IRE
Time: 1 hour 40 minutes
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Sign and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
5. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions numbered 1 to 20.
6. Section B comprises short, structured questions number 21 to 28.
7. Answer ALL the questions in section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.
8. Answer ALL the questions in section B in the spaces provided in this QUESTION PAPER.
9. Do NOT remove any page from this question paper.
10. Answer ALL the questions in English. Standard Islamic terms may be used.
For official use only
SECTION B

Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 Total
Maximum Score 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 80
Candidate’s Score

This paper consists of 6 printed pages.

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series
Turn over
 SECTION A (20 marks)
Answer ALL the questions in this section.
1. The Articles of Iman are the Pillars of Faith in 12. The Islamic month before Ramadan is
Islam. How many main articles of Iman are there? A. Shawwal. B. Shaban.
A. Four B. Five C. Six D. Seven C. Muharram. D. Rajab.
2. Belief in the unseen beings created by Allah who 13. Which Islamic battle was the first major
obey Him is belief in military engagement between the Muslims and the
A. Prophets. B. Jinns. C. Angels. D. Saints. Makkans?
3. Which Holy Book contains Psalms revealed to A. Battle of Uhud
Prophet Dawud (A.S)? B. Battle of Khandaq
A. Quran B. Injil C. Taurat D. Zabur C. Battle of Badr
4. The Farewell Pilgrimage (Hajjatul Wada') was D. Conquest of Makkah
performed by Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) in the 14. A short chapter in the Holy Quran is called a
A. 8th year after Hijrah. A. Ayat. B. Surah. C. Juz'. D. Ruku'.
B. 9th year after Hijrah. 15. Respecting parents and being dutiful to them is
C. 10th year after Hijrah. an Islamic obligation known as
D. 11th year after Hijrah. A. Sadaqah Jariyah. B. Birrul Walidayn.
5. The third Pillar of Islam is Zakat, which is C. Silatur-rahim. D. Adab.
A. Prayer. 16. Which quality of Allah means He is the Most
B. Fasting. Merciful?
C. Compulsory Charity. A. Al-Rahman B. Al-Quddus
D. Pilgrimage. C. Al-Salam D. Al-Ghaffar
6. The Sunnah of Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) is 17. The period after Prophet Muhammad's (PBUH)
primarily documented in migration to Madinah is generally known as the
A. The Holy Quran. B. The Seerah books. A. Makkan period.
C. The Hadith. D. Islamic history books. B. Madinan period.
7. The prayer performed in congregation on Friday C. Jahiliyyah period.
is called D. Prophetic period.
A. Eid prayer. B. Istikhara prayer. 18. Which angel is responsible for blowing the
C. Jumu'ah prayer. D. Tarawih prayer. trumpet on the Day of Judgment?
8. Which type of Zakat is paid on agricultural A. Angel Jibril (A.S)
produce? B. Angel Israfil (A.S)
A. Zakat al-Fitr B. Zakat al-Maal C. Angel Mikail (A.S)
C. Ushr D. Sadaqah D. Angel Azrail (A.S)
9. The performance of Hajj is obligatory for every 19. The Islamic term for consultation, often used in
Muslim who is decision making, is
A. healthy and elderly. A. Shura.
B. financially able and physically capable. B. Fatwa.
C. married and has children. C. Ijtihad.
D. a scholar of Islam. D. Qiyas.
10. Modesty in dress and behaviour for both men 20. A Muslim's intention (Niyyah) before
and women is an Islamic concept known as performing an act of worship is crucial because it
A. Tawakkul. B. Shukr. determines its
C. Taqwa. D. Haya'. A. length.
11. Who was the first Caliph after the death of B. reward.
Prophet Muhammad (PBUH)? C. difficulty.
A. Ali ibn Abi Talib (R.A) D. location.
B. Umar ibn Al-Khattab (R.A)
C. Uthman ibn Affan (R.A)
D. Abu Bakr Al-Siddiq (R.A)
 SECTION B (80 marks)
Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
21. The Articles of Iman are fundamental beliefs in Islam.
(a) Name the Six Articles of Iman (Pillars of Faith). (6 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Explain the meaning of belief in Allah's Angels. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
22. The Seerah (life of Prophet Muhammad PBUH) in Madinah is full of lessons.
(a) Describe the establishment of the first Islamic state in Madinah after the Hijrah. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Outline four lessons Muslims learn from the Battle of Badr. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) State two challenges faced by the Prophet (PBUH) in Madinah. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
23. Hadith is a secondary source of Islamic teachings after the Quran.
(a) Explain what is meant by Hadith. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) State four reasons why Hadith is important in Islam. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) Outline four examples of actions or sayings of Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) found in Hadith. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
24. Zakat is a Pillar of Islam with social and economic benefits.
(a) Explain the meaning of Zakat. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Outline four types of wealth or assets upon which Zakat is obligatory. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) State four categories of people who are eligible to receive Zakat. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
25. Salah has specific timings and forms of performance.
(a) Describe how to perform the Jumu'ah (Friday) prayer. (5 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) State three differences between Jumu'ah prayer and Dhuhr prayer. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) Give two benefits of praying in congregation in the Masjid. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
26. Hajj (Pilgrimage) is the fifth Pillar of Islam.
(a) Explain the meaning of Hajj. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) State four conditions that make Hajj obligatory upon a Muslim. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) Outline four significant places visited during Hajj. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
27. Islamic morals and manners (Akhlaq) govern a Muslim's interactions.
(a) State four Islamic manners that Muslims should observe when visiting someone's home. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Outline four ways Muslims should relate with their neighbours. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) Give two benefits of practicing good Islamic manners in society. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
28. The Holy Quran contains guidance for all aspects of life.
(a) Outline four ways Muslims show respect for the Holy Quran. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) State four benefits of reading and understanding the Holy Quran. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) Give two reasons why the Holy Quran was revealed in Arabic. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.

 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES

Candidate’s Name Assessment Number

School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT
-HINDU RELIGIOUS EDUCATION-

HINDU RELIGIOUS EDUCATION (Theory)

TERM 2 ENDTERM 2025

810: HINDU RELIGIOUS EDUCATION (Theory)

TERM 2 ENDTERM 2025

Time: 1 hour 40 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and assessment number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the name and code of your school in the spaces provided above.
3. Sign and write the date of the assessment in the spaces provided above.
4. This paper consists of two sections: A and B.
5. Section A comprises Multiple Choice Questions numbered 1 to 20.
6. Section B comprises short, structured questions number 21 to 28, each with a scenario.
7. Answer ALL the questions in section A on the separate ANSWER SHEET provided.
8. Answer ALL the questions in section B in the spaces provided in this QUESTION
PAPER.
9. Do NOT remove any page from this paper.
10. Answer ALL the questions in English. Standard Hindu terms may be used.

For official use only

SECTION B

For Official Use Only

SECTION B Q21 Q22 Q23 Q24 Q25 Q26 Q27 Q28
Maximum Score 10 10 10 10 10 10 10 10
Candidate’s Score
Total /80

This paper consists of 6 printed pages.

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series
Turn over
 SECTION A (20 marks)
Answer ALL the questions in this section.
1. The Upanishads are considered part of which 12. Which ethical principle means non-stealing?
category of Hindu scriptures? A. Satya B. Ahimsa
A. Smriti B. Shruti C. Asteya D. Brahmacharya
C. Epics D. Puranas 13. The Hindu value of contentment is called
2. The deity associated with knowledge, music, art, A. Tapas. B. Santosha.
and learning is C. Shaucha. D. Svadhyaya.
A. Lord Ganesha. B. Goddess Lakshmi. 14. The stage of life in the Varnasrama Dharma where
C. Goddess Saraswati. D. Lord Hanuman. one is a learner is called
3. Which epic contains the philosophical dialogue A. Brahmacharya. B. Grihastha.
between Lord Krishna and Arjuna? C. Vanaprastha. D. Sannyasa.
A. Ramayana B. Mahabharata 15. Tolerance and respect for other religions is a value
C. Bhagavad Gita D. Puranas rooted in the Hindu concept of
4. The path to spiritual liberation through devotion A. karma.
and love for God is called B. dharma.
A. Jnana Yoga. B. Karma Yoga. C. Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam (the world is one
C. Bhakti Yoga. D. Raja Yoga. family).
5. The concept that refers to one's predetermined duty D. moksha.
or righteous path in life is 16. The celebration of the birth of Lord Krishna is
A. Karma. B. Dharma. called
C. Moksha. D. Samsara. A. Holi.
6. The practice of meditation and physical postures to B. Diwali.
unite the self with the divine is known as C. Raksha Bandhan.
A. Puja. B. Aarti. D. Janmashtami.
C. Bhajan. D. Yoga. 17. Which Yoga path emphasizes selfless action as a
7. The offering of light during worship, often with a way to attain liberation?
lamp, is called A. Jnana Yoga
A. Prasad. B. Aarti. B. Karma Yoga
C. Mantra. D. Havan. C. Bhakti Yoga
8. The Hindu principle of self-control and discipline is D. Raja Yoga
related to 18. The practice of fasting (Vrat) is often observed
A. Ahimsa. B. Asteya. during Hindu festivals for
C. Tapasya. D. Dana. A. entertainment.
9. The worship of the divine in the form of the Mother B. purification and spiritual discipline.
Goddess is associated with which festival? C. saving money.
A. Holi B. Diwali D. showing off.
C. Navratri D. Janmashtami 19. The Hindu concept of worshipping God in
10. Who is considered the author of the Mahabharata different forms is related to the understanding of
epic? A. Shirk.
A. Valmiki B. Vyasa B. Idol worship only.
C. Tulsidas D. Shankaracharya C. God's omnipresence and various manifestations.
11. The concept of Saguna Brahman refers to God D. polytheism.
with 20. Keeping your mind focused during meditation is a
A. no attributes. practice from
B. form and attributes. A. Bhakti Yoga.
C. form but no attributes. B. Karma Yoga.
D. attributes but no form. C. Raja Yoga.
D. Jnana Yoga.
 SECTION B (80 marks)
Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
21. Your school organized a debate on "Duty vs. Desire." You decide to speak about the Hindu perspective.
(a) Explain the concept of Dharma in Hinduism. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) How does the Bhagavad Gita explain the importance of performing one's duty (Svadharma)?
(4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) State three lessons a learner can learn from the teachings on Dharma in the Bhagavad Gita regarding their
studies and responsibilities. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
22. Your friend is interested in Yoga but only thinks of the physical exercises. You want to explain that Yoga
is more than just postures.
(a) Explain the meaning of Yoga in Hindu philosophy. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Outline four different paths (types) of Yoga mentioned in Hindu scriptures (e.g., Jnana, Bhakti, Karma,
Raja). (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) Choose any one path of Yoga you named and briefly explain how a person practices it. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
23. Your family is preparing for a major festival dedicated to a particular deity, like Navratri for Goddess
Durga.
(a) Explain the significance of worshipping Goddess Durga during Navratri. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) State four ways Hindus celebrate Navratri. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) Give two lessons Hindus learn from the stories and symbolism associated with Goddess Durga. (2
marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
24. You are discussing with your classmates about the roles of different people in society. You want to share
the Hindu perspective on different roles.
(a) Explain the concept of Varnasrama Dharma. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Name the four Varnas and briefly describe their traditional roles in society. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) How can the underlying principles of Varnasrama Dharma be interpreted to promote harmony and
cooperation in modern society, focusing on skill and contribution rather than birth? (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
25. Your family is hosting a community gathering at the Mandir. You are helping to welcome people.
(a) Outline four courtesies and manners that Hindus should observe when entering and being inside a
Mandir. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) State four roles that a Mandir plays in the Hindu community. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) Give two differences between worship at home and worship at the Mandir. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
26. You see a classmate being treated unfairly because they come from a different background.
(a) Explain the Hindu teaching of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) How does this teaching promote tolerance and respect for people from different religions and cultures? (4
marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) State three ways you can apply this teaching to promote harmony in your school. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
27. Your parents advise you to always be humble and grateful.
(a) Explain the Hindu value of humility. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) State four reasons why cultivating humility is important for spiritual growth. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) Give three ways a person can practice humility in daily interactions. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
28. You are discussing the Hindu concept of God with a friend from another faith. They find the idea of God
having different forms confusing.
(a) Explain the difference between Nirguna Brahman and Saguna Brahman. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(b) Why do Hindus worship God in various forms (Saguna)? (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
(c) Give two benefits of contemplating God as Nirguna Brahman. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
THIS IS THE LAST PRINTED PAGE.
 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES
Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT
804/1 KENYAN SIGN LANGUAGE (Theory)
-KENYA SIGN LANGUAGE-

PAPER 1 TERM 2 ENDTERM 2025

Time: 1 hour 40 minutes
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. QUESTION PAPER SAME ANSWER SHEET SEPARATE RECEIVE FINISH//
2. PAPER THIS QUESTION 70 HAVE ALL MULTIPLE CHOICE//
3. QUESTION ALL ANSWER SHEET THERE USE ANSWER// QUESTION PAPER ANSWER
THERE WRITE ZERO//
4. WORK ROUGH YOUR QUESTION PAPER THERE WRITE FREE FREE//.
5. PENCIL ORDINARY HB USE//
6. ANSWER SHEET CONFIRM INFORMATION BELOW HAVE//
ASSESSMENT NUMBER YOUR
NAME YOUR
NAME SCHOOL YOUR
NAME SUBJECT
7. ANSWER SHEET CLEAN SAME DRY KEEP MUST// ANSWER SHEET FOLD ZERO//
8. QUESTION 1-70 CHOICE FOUR THERE LETTER A/ B/ C SAME D// ANSWER ONE ONLY
CORRECT CHOOSE//
9. ANSWER SHEET USE HOW/ BOX INSIDE SHOW LINE DARK DRAW/ ANSWER
CORRECT SHOW// BOX OUTSIDE DRAW ZERO//
EXAMPLE
QUESTION PAPER: ?
40. WORD WHICH OPPOSITE WORD BETTER
A. WEAK//
B. WRONG//
C. WORSE//
D. WASTE// ANSWER CORRECT ‘C’//

ANSWER SHEET, BOX CHOICE A/B/C SAME D THERE QUESTION 40/ LINE DARK DRAW
BOX LETTER C INSIDE SAME BELOW//

40 [A] [B] [C] [D]

10. QUESTION EACH ANSWER ONE ONLY CHOOSE//

PAPER THIS PAGE 16 PRINT HAVE//CANDIDATE EACH QUESTION PAPER CONFIRM

PAGE ALL PRINT FINISH SAME QUESTION ALL 70 THERE//

© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series

PAGE TURN
SECTION A: OBSERVE AND SIGN [18 MARKS]

PART I: SIGN IDENTIFY [MARKS 6]

4.

1.
A. TEACH//

B. STUDY//

C. THINK//
A. GLOVES//
D. LEARN//
B. HAT//
2.
C. CLOTH//

D. SOCKS//

5.

A. FAMILY//

B. NEIGHBOUR//

C. FRIEND//

D. TEACHER//

A. COME//
3.
B. INTELLIGENT//
A. HELLO//
C. DIFFERENT//
B. GOODBYE//
D. PAY//
C. PLEASE//

D. SORRY//
 6. 8. SIGN BELOW VIEW CAREFUL/
REPETITION OF MOVEMENT SHOW
WHAT//

A. ACTION HAPPEN ONE TIME//

A. CORRECT// B. ACTION HAPPEN MANY TIME//
C. ACTION HAPPEN IN FUTURE//
B. KNOW// D. ACTION HAPPEN IN PAST//
C. HOUSE//
9. SIGN BELOW NON-MANUAL
D. SCIENCE// ELEMENT IMPORTANT WHICH//

PART II: ANSWER CORRECT// [MARKS 6]

7. SIGN BELOW VIEW CAREFUL/ /

A. HANDSHAPE//

B. LOCATION//
MOVEMENT SHOW WHAT//
C. HEAD TILT/BROW MOVEMENT//
A. ACTION RECEIVE//
D. MOVEMENT//
B. ACTION GIVE TO OTHER//

C. ACTION START//

D. ACTION FINISH//
 10. SIGN BELOW SHOW NUMBER B. FUTURE TIME//
WHAT//
C. PAST TIME//

D. REPEATED TIME//

12. SIGN BELOW VIEW CAREFUL/ /

A. ONE// B. TWO//

C. FEW// D. MANY/PLURAL//

11. SIGN BELOW VIEW CAREFUL//

FACIAL EXPRESSION ADD WHAT TO
SIGN//

A. MAKE SIGN SMALLER//

B. SHOW INTENSITY OF FEELING//

C. CHANGE MEANING
COMPLETELY//
TIME SIGN SHOW WHICH//
D. MAKE SIGN EASIER TO
A. PRESENT TIME// UNDERSTAND//

PART III: PICTURE INTERPRET [6 14. PICTURE SHOW WHAT//

MARKS]

13.

A. FIGHT//
PICTURE SHOW WHAT//
B. HELP FROM FRIEND CHANGE
A. MISTAKE MAKE// FEELING//

B. WORK HARD GET RESULT GOOD// C. ALONE BETTER//

C. PLAY TIME LONG// D. PROBLEM STAY//

D. SCHOOL HATE//
 15. SIGN SIGN BELOW DIFFERENT WHAT 17. PICTURE SHOW FEELING/ACTION
WHAT//

A. SLEEPING//
A.HANDSHAPE//
B.ARTICULATION// B. LOOKING UP HAPPY//
C.ORIENTATION//
DLOCATION// C. ANGRY AT SKY//

16. PICTURE SHOW WHAT// D. RAIN COME//

18. PICTURE SHOW FEELING WHAT//

A. CATCH BALL// A. GUILTY/REGRET//

B. RECEIVE GIFT// B. EXCITED//

C. THROW BALL// C. CONFIDENT//

D. HOLD SOMETHING// D. BORED//

SECTION B: VIEW AND INTERPRET [34 MARKS]

PART I: NOTICE BELOW READ/ QUESTION 19 – 29 ANSWER CORRECT// [MARKS 11]

NOTICE IMPORTANT WATER SHORTAGE AREA ALL//

WHY/ RIVER MAIN DRY FINISH//

RAIN FALL NOTHING// PEOPLE PLEASE WATER SAVE//

WASH CAR WATER RUNNING ZERO//

SHOWER TIME SHORT// TOILET FLUSH TIME SHORT//

WATER COLLECT TANK STORE// MAYBE RAIN COME SOON//

HOPE// COOPERATION YOUR APPRECIATE BIG//

FROM// MANAGEMENT WATER//

19. NOTICE THIS TALK ABOUT WHAT// 21. NOTICE ASK PEOPLE DO WHAT//

A. RIVER FLOOD// A. BUY MORE WATER//

B. WATER SHORTAGE// B. USE MORE WATER//

C. NEW WATER PIPE// C. WATER SAVE//

D. RAIN TOO MUCH// D. RIVER CLEAN//

20. WATER SHORTAGE WHY// 22. WASH CAR WATER RUNNING DO

WHAT//
A. PIPE BROKEN//
A. ALLOWED//
B. PEOPLE USE TOO MUCH//
B. ENCOURAGED//
C. RIVER DRY SAME RAIN NOTHING//
C. FORBIDDEN/ZERO//
D. WATER DIRTY//
D. SOMETIMES POSSIBLE//
23. SHOWER TIME DO WHAT// 27. WORD 'APPRECIATE' IN NOTICE
MEAN WHAT//
A. LONG//
A. UNDERSTAND//
B. SHORT//
B. THANK FOR SUPPORT//
C. NORMAL//
C. ANGRY WITH//
D. ANY TIME//
D. FORGET//
24. WATER COLLECT WHERE//
28. SENTENCE BELOW FALSE NOTICE
A. RIVER// THERE WHICH//

B. LAKE// A. RIVER MAIN HAVE WATER//

C. TANK STORE// B. RAIN FALL NOTHING//

D. GROUND// C. WATER SHORTAGE AREA ALL//

25. MANAGEMENT WATER HOPE D. PEOPLE WATER SAVE MUST//

WHAT//
29. NOTICE OBJECTIVE WHAT//
A. WATER SHORTAGE STAY//
A. PEOPLE INFORM RAIN COME//
B. RAIN COME SOON//
B. PEOPLE ASK HELP WATER
C. PEOPLE USE MORE WATER// SHORTAGE//

D. RIVER DRY COMPLETELY// C. PEOPLE INFORM RIVER DRY//

26. NOTICE SENT FROM WHO// D. PEOPLE ASK MONEY WATER//

A. GOVERNMENT//

B. SCHOOL//

C. MANAGEMENT WATER//

D. PEOPLE//
PART II: PASSAGE BELOW READ WELL/ QUESTION 30 – 38 ANSWER CORRECT// [MARKS 9]

YESTERDAY SELF GO MARKET// MARKET BUSY BIG// PEOPLE MANY THERE// SELLERS
SHOUT SHOUT// BUYERS WALK WALK// SELF WANT BUY VEGETABLE// GO TABLE ONE
SEE// KALES GOOD// TOMATOES GOOD// PRICE ASK// SELLERS TELL// NEGOTIATE TIME
LONG SHORT// PRICE AGREE// SELF PAY MONEY// SELLERS VEGETABLE GIVE// SELF BAG
THERE PUT// OTHER THINGS BUY AGAIN// MARKET EXPERIENCE SELF ENJOY BIG//

30. SELF GO MARKET WHEN// C. TABLE// D. HAND//

A. TODAY// B. TOMORROW// 36. SELF BUY OTHER THINGS AGAIN

WHY//
C. YESTERDAY// D. SOON//
A. VEGETABLE ENOUGH NOTHING//
31. MARKET HOW//
B. MARKET VISIT ENJOY//
A. QUIET// B. EMPTY//
C. MONEY HAVE ALOT//
C. BUSY BIG// D. BORING//
D. SELLERS ASK//
32. SELF WANT BUY WHAT FIRST//
37. PASSAGE ABOUT WHAT//
A. FRUIT// B. CLOTHES//
A. PROBLEM AT MARKET//
C. VEGETABLE// D. FISH//
B. BUYING VEGETABLE ONLY//
33. SELF DO WHAT PRICE VEGETABLE//
C. EXPERIENCE AT MARKET//
A. TAKE ONLY// B. NEGOTIATE//
D. SELLING THINGS//
C. REFUSE PAY// D. COMPLAIN//
38. SENTENCE BELOW TRUE PASSAGE
34. SELF PAY MONEY DO WHAT// THERE WHICH//

A. SELLERS GIVE VEGETABLE// A. MARKET HAVE FEW PEOPLE//

B. SELLERS KEEP VEGETABLE// B. SELF PAY PRICE FIRST ASK ZERO//

C. SELF GO AWAY// C. SELF NEGOTIATE PRICE BEFORE

PAY//
D. SELF ASK FOR MORE//
D. SELF HATE MARKET
35. SELF PUT VEGETABLE WHERE EXPERIENCE//
AFTER BUY//

A. POCKET// B. BAG//
PART III: MAP BELOW STUDY QUESTION 39 - 46 ANSWER CORRECT//
[MARKS 8]

39. MAP SHOW LOCATION HOW MANY //

A. THREE// B. FOUR// C. FIVE// D. SIX//

39. RIVER LOCATION WHERE RELATED BRIDGE//

A. ON// B. UNDER// C. NEAR// D. FAR//

40. SHOP LOCATION WHERE RELATED ROAD//

A. RIGHT SIDE// B. LEFT SIDE// C. ACROSS// D. END OF//

41. HOSPITAL LOCATION WHERE RELATED BRIDGE//

A. BEFORE// B. AFTER// C. UNDER// D. NEXT TO RIVER//

42. IF YOU AT SCHOOL WANT GO SHOP// YOU GO HOW//

A. GO DOWN ROAD PASS SHOP//

B. GO UP ROAD PASS SHOP//

C. GO DOWN ROAD TURN//

D. GO STRAIGHT//

43. WHICH PLACE FIRST YOU SEE AFTER STARTING FROM 'YOU ARE
HERE'//

A. SCHOOL// B. SHOP// C. RIVER// D. HOSPITAL//

44. BRIDGE LOCATION WHERE RELATED SCHOOL SAME HOSPITAL//

A. NEAR SCHOOL ONLY//

B. NEAR HOSPITAL ONLY//

C. BETWEEN SCHOOL SAME HOSPITAL//

D. FAR FROM BOTH//

45. IF YOU AT HOSPITAL WANT GO BACK TO STARTING POINT// YOU GO

HOW//

A. GO STRAIGHT PASS BRIDGE//

B. GO BACK PASS BRIDGE//

C. GO LEFT TURN//

D. GO RIGHT TURN//
PART IV: VIEWING AND INTERPRETING [MARKS 6]

PERSON i
OBJECT iii PERSON ii

41. PERSON (ii) WEARING WHAT?

A. UNIFORM SCHOOL// B. SHIRT PLAIN//

C. T-SHIRT BRIGHT// D. DRESS TRADITIONAL//

42. OBJECT ( iii) MAIN ON TABLE WHAT?

A. FOOD// B. LAPTOP// C. BOOKS// D.FLOWERS//

43. PERSON (i) DOING WHAT?

A. EATING// B. READING//

C. TALKING PHONE// D. WRITING//

44. ROOM ATMOSPHERE HOW?

A. DARK //

B. BRIGHT//

C. BUSY//

D. EMPTY//

45. WALL BEHIND PERSON COLOR WHAT?

A. WHITE//

B. BLUE//

C. GREEN//

D. GREY//

SECTION C: GRAMMAR [18 MARKS]

PART I : PARTS OF SPEECH [MARKS 6]

53. SENTENCE BELOW ADVERB WHICH//

SELF WORK SLOWLY //

A. SELF//

B. WORK//

C. SLOWLY//

D. //

54. SENTENCE BELOW VERB WHICH//

CHILDREN PLAY OUTSIDE//

A. CHILDREN// B. PLAY//

C. OUTSIDE// D. //
55. SENTENCE BELOW NOUN WHICH//

TEACHER SMART HELP STUDENT//

A. TEACHER// B. SMART// C. HELP// D. STUDENT//

56. SENTENCE BELOW ADJECTIVE WHICH//

CAR NEW BLUE//

A. CAR// B. NEW// C. BLUE// D. NONE//

57. SENTENCE SIGN BELOW USE PREPOSITION IDENTIFY//

A B C D

58. SENTENCE BELOW CONJUNCTION WHICH//

SELF GO MARKET BUT MONEY HAVE NOTHING//

A. SELF// B. MARKET// C. BUT// D. NOTHING//

PART II : SENTENCE KSL [12 MARKS]

59. SIGN SIGN BELOW USE SENTENCE KSL CORRECT MAKE//

(i) HOME

(ii) GO

(iii) I

(iv) TOMORROW

A. iii, ii, i, iv//

B. iv, iii, ii, i//

C. i, ii, iii, iv//

D. ii, i, iii, iv//

60. SIGN SIGN BELOW USE SENTENCE KSL CORRECT MAKE//

(i) HUNGRY

(ii) I

(iii) FEEL

(iv) VERY

A. ii, iii, i, iv//

B. ii, iii, iv, i//

C. iv, ii, iii, i//

D. i, ii, iii, iv//

61. SENTENCE BELOW GRAMMAR KSL CORRECT WHICH//

A. BOOK MINE NEW BLUE// B. MINE BOOK NEW BLUE//

C. NEW BLUE BOOK MINE// D. BOOK NEW BLUE MINE//

62. SENTENCE BELOW PLURAL SHOW WHICH//

A. TREE BIG GARDEN IN//

B. TREE BIG GARDEN IN//

C. TREES BIG GARDEN IN//

D. TREE GARDEN IN MANY//

63. SENTENCE BELOW NEGATE CORRECT WHICH// THEY HELP US//

A. THEY HELP US POSSIBLE//

B. THEY HELP US NOTHING//

C. THEY HELP US ALWAYS//

D. THEY HELP US MUST//

64. SENTENCE BELOW ACTION PAST WHICH//

A. TEACHER CLASS COME NOW//

B. TEACHER CLASS COME SOON//

C. TEACHER CLASS COME YESTERDAY//

D. TEACHER CLASS COME TOMORROW//

65. SENTENCE BELOW SHOW QUESTION WHICH//

A. YOU SICK?// B. YOU SICK// C. SICK YOU// D. YOU SICK//

66. SENTENCE BELOW SINGULAR CORRECT WHICH//

A. CHICKEN CHICKEN FARM HAVE MANY//

B. CHICKEN FARM HAVE ONE//

C. CHICKENS FARM HAVE//

D. CHICKEN FARM HAVE FEW//

67. SENTENCE BELOW KSL CORRECT WHICH//

A. YESTERDAY WE VISIT GRANDMOTHER//

B. WE VISIT GRANDMOTHER YESTERDAY//

C. VISIT WE GRANDMOTHER YESTERDAY//

D. GRANDMOTHER YESTERDAY WE VISIT//

68. SENTENCE SHOW ACTION HAPPEN TIME FUTURE WHICH//

A. THEY TRAVEL COUNTRY OTHER FINISH//

B. THEY TRAVEL COUNTRY OTHER NOW//

C. THEY TRAVEL COUNTRY OTHER SOON//

D. THEY TRAVEL COUNTRY OTHER YESTERDAY//

69. SENTENCE BELOW ADVERB OF FREQUENCY WHICH// SELF VISIT

FAMILY MONTH EACH//

A. SELF//

B. VISIT//

C. FAMILY//

D. MONTH EACH//

70. SENTENCE BELOW SHOW QUESTION WHICH//

A. YOU GO WHERE?//

B. YOU GO WHERE//

C. WHERE YOU GO//

D. GO WHERE YOU//

PAGE THIS LAST

 THE KENYA NATIONAL EXAMINATION AND ASSESSMENT PREDICTION SERIES
Candidate’s Name Assessment Number
School Name School Code
Candidate’s Signature Date
KENYA JUNIOR SCHOOL EDUCATION ASSESSMENT

KENYA JUNIOR SECONDARY EDUCATIONAL ASSESSMENT (KJSEA)

804/2
KENYAN SIGN LANGUAGE PRACTICAL
GRADE 8:
ENDTERM 2 ASSESSMENT 2025
KENYA SIGN LANGUAGE

HOUR 1 MINUTE 40

INSTRUCTION BELOW READ CAREFUL CAREFUL:

1. NAME YOUR SAME ASSESSMENT NUMBER SPACE ABOVE WRITE//

2. NAME SAME CODE SCHOOL YOUR SPACE ABOVE WRITE//
3. SIGNATURE YOUR SAME DATE ASSESSMENT SPACE ABOVE WRITE//
4. PAPER THIS TASK FOUR HAVE//
5. PAPER THIS SECTION TWO A SAME B HAVE//
6. SECTION A TASK 1 ONLY// QUESTION THIS PICTURE 4 USE STORY KSL SPACE
THERE PERFORM//
7. SECTION B TASK 2, TASK 3, TASK 4 HAVE// EACH TASK PROMPT ONE
CAREFUL LOOK ANSWER SPACE THERE PERFORM//
8. TASK ALL SPACE QUESTION PAPER USE PERFORM//

FOR OFFICIAL USE

SECTION A B TOTAL
TASK 1 2 3 4
WRITING Narrative Description Explanation Analysis
based on a based on a based on a based on a
series of given given theme given theme
pictures authentic
activity
SCORE 20 10 5 5 40
CANDIDATE’S
SCORE

PAPER THIS PAGE 6 PRINT HAVE//

CANDIDATE EACH QUESTION PAPER CONFIRM PAGE ALL PRINT FINISH SAME
QUESTION ALL 4 THERE// QUESTION MISS ZERO//
© 2025 The Kenya National Examination and Assessment Prediction Series
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 SECTION A (MARK 20) TASK 1.
PICTURE BELOW CAREFUL LOOK STORY KSL WRITE//
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SECTION B (MARK 20)
TASK 1: PICTURE MEAL BELOW EXPLAIN PREPARE HOW ? (MARK 10 )

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TASK 2: PERSON PICTURE BELOW WORK EXPLAIN. (MARK 5)

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TASK 3: TIME USE THING BELOW ADVANTAGE WHAT (MARK 5)

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