MCQ-PG Series Practice Set I Microbiology
PG/MICRO/I Email:[email protected]
Time: 60 min Total Marks: 100 | Pass Mark: 60
Clinical Microbiology
MCQ Test Series based on Post Graduate Exam Preparation. Read the instructions
at the begining carefully. This is a Sample Practice Paper on Clinical Microbiology.
Please Note: There is no Negative Marking for incorrect responses.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Human cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a member of the family:
A Adenoviridae C Herpesviridae
B Coronaviridae D Picornaviridae
2. All of the following are RNA viruses except:
A Rhabdoviruses C Parvoviruses
B Orthomyxoviruses D Picornaviruses
3. Fish virus or, viruses of fish include:
A Coltivirus C Lymphocryptovirus
B Lymphocystivirus D Corticoviridae
4. The virus that causes Chickenpox belongs to the family:
A Orthomyxoviridae C Poxviridae
B Paramyxoviridae D Herpesviridae
5. Which of the following antiviral agents is a deoxycytidine analog?
A Foscarnet C Lamivudine
B Ganciclovir D Cidofovir
6. Indirect immunofluorescence is used to identify the presence of
A Treponema pallidum antibodies C enteropathogenic Escherichia coli
B Neisseria meningitidis D Listeria monocytogenes
7. Intranuclear inclusions are characteristics of all of the following viruses except:
A Cytomegalovirus C Mumps virus
B Measles virus D Varicella-zoster virus
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8. Humans are the only natural hosts of all of the following viruses except:
A Measles virus C Variola virus
B Flavivirus D Mumps virus
9. Peplomers are found on viral:
A Capsomere C Envelope
B Capsid D Nucleocapsid
10. Which of the following is not a characteristic property of Polyomaviruses (BK virus)?
A belongs to Parvoviridae family C late region codes for SV40 large
tumor (T) antigen
B circular double-stranded DNA
D nonenveloped, icosahedral, 45 nm in
diameter
11. Precipitation reaction:
A precipitin band formed at the zone of C monoclonal antibodies are used in
equivalence precipitin reactions
B precipitin band formed at the zone of D zone of antibody excess exhibits
antigen excess optimal ratio for precipitation
12. A virus etiologically linked to Burkitts lymphoma:
A Rous sarcoma virus C Human herpesvirus 8
B Epstein-Barr (EB) virus D Cytomegalovirus
13. Molluscum contagiosum belongs to which virus group?
A Adenovirus C Coronavirus
B Herpesvirus D Poxvirus
14. Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis:
A characterized by low serum C lumpy deposit of complement
complement levels component C5
B may follow group A -hemolytic D immune complex-mediated type IV
streptococcal infection hypersensitivity reaction
15. The major immunoglobulin of B cell receptor (BCR) for appropriate antigens is:
A IgE C IgD
B IgG D IgM
16. The test to determine Minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) employs what method/technique?
A Dilution technique C Western blot technique
B Disk-agar diffusion method D Subculturing technique
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17. Which of the following are good disinfectant agents?
A Chlorine C Alcohols
B Hydrogen peroxide D Aldehydes
18. Regarding Poliovaccine correct is/are:
A Killed-virus vaccine produces C Live oral poliovaccine induces
secretory IgA antibodies humoral antibodies
B Oral polio vaccine contains D Oral polio vaccine contains live
Killed-virus attenuated virus
19. The virus that causes Molluscum Contagiosum belongs to which family?
A Papovaviridae C Parvoviridae
B Paramyxoviridae D Poxviridae
20. An agent that is a IL-1 receptor antagonist:
A Daclizumab C Anakinra
B Etanercept D Sirolimus
21. Which of the following viruses has Single-stranded DNA in its genome?
A Reoviridae C Poxviridae
B Parvoviridae D Adenoviridae
22. Which of the following immunosuppressant drugs is a Calcineurin inhibitor?
A Infliximab C Anakinra
B Tacrolimus D Sirolimus
23. Correct about T-helper TH1 cells:
A produce IL-4 C produce IL-2
B produce cytokines involved in humoral D produce cytokines involved in cellular
immunity immunity
24. Rabies virus belongs to which genera?
A Rubivirus C Lyssavirus
B Morbillivirus D Orbivirus
25. Which of the following is immunosuppressive agents is an anti-CD3 antibody?
A Anakinra C Etanercept
B Tacrolimus D Muromonab
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26. Drug of choice for chloroquine-resistant falciparum malaria:
A Artesunate C Quinidine gluconate
B Mefloquine D Primaquine
27. A virus responsible for causing nephropathy in renal transplant recipients:
A Phlebovirus C Polyomavirus
B Papillomavirus D Papovavirus
28. All of the following agents are useful to treat the donor tissue before transplant in order to
reduce Graft-versus-host (GVH) reaction except:
A Monoclonal antibodies C Interleukin (IL)-2
B Antithymocyte globulin D Cyclosporine
29. The most useful technique for examining outbreaks in a hospital
A Plasmid analysis C Ribotyping
B Multilocus enzyme electrophoresis D Nucleic acid sequence analysis
30. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?
A Neutrophils C Monocytes
B Eosinophils D Basophils
31. Which of the following is immunosuppressive agents is a IL-2 receptor antagonist?
A Adalimumab C Muromonab
B Infliximab D Daclizumab
32. When a mosquito takes a blood meal, it either
A injects gametocytes or ingests C ingests gametocytes or injects
sporozoites sporozoites
B ingests gametocytes or injects D injects gametocytes or ingests
trophozoites trophozoites
33. The mechanism of disk diffusion method is employed to:
A estimate the bactericidal effects of an C measure the ability of drugs to inhibit
antibiotic bacterial growth
B measure the concentration necessary D determine the susceptibility of an
to inhibit bacterial growth isolate
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34. Regarding antibodies, spot the incorrect statements:
A antibodies make up about 35% of C antibodies are formed by
plasma proteins B-lymphocytes and plasma cells
B antibodies do not penetrate into cells D immature B cells carry IgM on their
surface
35. Regarding Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis, correct statements is/are:
A allows the separation of DNA C allows hybridization of DNA to RNA
fragments upto 10 kbp
D allows the separation of DNA
B allows nucleic acid amplification fragments upto 100 kbp
36. What differentiates Sanitization from Sterilization?
A Sanitization reduces the number of C Sterilization keeps microbes under
pathogenic microbes control by reducing their numbers
B Sterilization involves procedures D Sanitization means absence of living
inhibiting microbial growth microbes, including spores and viruses
37. Regarding indirect solid-phase enzyme immunosorbent assay (SPIA):
A results in a fluorescent end product C enzyme substrate binds with the
second antibody
B enzyme is conjugated with the third
antibody D enzyme is conjugated with the first
antibody
38. Interleukin (IL) required for stem cell differentiation into T and B cells:
A IL-5 C IL-7
B IL-2 D IL-6
39. The second signal required for TH cell stimulation/proliferation involves:
A CD3 complex associated with T cell C antigen-MHC complexes
receptor
D CD28 protein receptor on TH1 cell
B protein called B5 (CD87)
40. A drug that causes radical cure by eliminating exoerythrocytic forms of malarial parasites in
the liver:
A Halofantrine C Chloroquine phosphate
B Quinine sulfate D Primaquine
41. A nucleotide analog:
A Acyclovir C Cidofovir
B Ribavirin D Lamivudine
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42. The number of capsomeres in the capsids of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
A 252 C 162
B 72 D 180
43. Which of the following organ transplants have the highest rate of success?
A Bone marrow C Heart
B Cornea D Kidney
44. What is not correct about minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)?
A Tube dilution assay is employed C lowest concentration that results in
bacterial death
B it is determined based on turbidity
D lowest concentration that prevents
growth of a bacterium
45. Rifampin binds strongly to which of the following bacterial enzymes?
A DNA-dependent DNA polymerase C RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
B RNA-dependent DNA polymerase D DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
46. Which of the following drugs is an example of Quinoline-methanol?
A Tafenoquine C Chloroquine
B Quinine D Mefloquine
47. The causative organism of Poliomyelitis, Polioviruses belongs to the family
A Togaviridae C Caliciviridae
B Adenoviridae D Picornaviridae
48. Which of the following is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
A Ritonavir C Cidofovir
B Didanosine D Vidarabine
49. What is not correct regarding bacterial endospores?
A resistant to autoclave C resistant to desiccation
B not visible with light microscope D resistant to heat, UV rays and gamma
radiation
50. Epstein-Barr virus belongs to:
A Papillomaviridae C Herpesviridae
B Picornaviridae D Flaviviridae
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51. Which of the following pathogens have no vectors?
A B henselae C S moniliformis
B B pertussis D B bacilliformis
52. Measles virus of humans belongs to
A Rubulavirus genus C Henipavirus genus
B Morbillivirus genus D Orthobunyavirus genus
53. Drug useful for the treatment of Hepatitis C virus infection:
A Famciclovir C Tenofovir
B Didanosine D Ribavirin
54. The environment at the bottom of a deep river or lake:
A Photic zone C Benthic zone
B Abyssal zone D Littoral zone
55. UV energy most destructive to bacterial cells:
A 360 nm C 460 nm
B 265 nm D 232 nm
56. Correct about Minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC):
A quantitative testing that uses a C qualitative testing that uses a
microdilution technique microdilution technique
B quantitative testing that uses D qualitative testing to monitor
disk-diffusion method resistance to an antibiotic
57. Which of the following techniques is best suited for genotyping and genetic fingerprinting?
A Northern blot densitometry C Electroporation
B Southern blot analysis D Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis
58. Anti-malarial drug(s) that does not prevent relapse and has no gametocidal activity:
A Artemisinin C Chloroquine
B Mefloquine D Primaquine
59. Type of glass container suitable for non-aqueous preparations for parental use:
A Type II glass containers C Type I glass containers
B Type IV glass containers D Type III glass containers
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60. All of the following viruses have Single-stranded RNA as their genome material except:
A Togaviridae C Picornaviridae
B Herpesviridae D Flaviviridae
61. A biological immunosuppressant agent which is a TNFa inhibitor:
A Anakinra C Muromonab
B Tacrolimus D Etanercept
62. Linear, single stranded, positive strand RNA viruses include:
A Epstein-Barr virus C Togaviruses
B Polyomaviruses D Reoviruses
63. T-helper TH2 cells produces all of the following cytokines except:
A IL-2 C IL-4
B TNF- D IL-5
64. Which of the following obligate intracellular parasites are not cells and do not have a nucleus?
A Viruses C Bacteria
B Protozoa D Fungi
65. The causative agent of Venezuelan hemorrhagic fever is:
A Machupo virus C Guanarito virus
B Sabia virus D Junin virus
66. The virus that causes Korean hemorrhagic fever belongs to which genus?
A Alphavirus C Hantavirus
B Orbivirus D Flavivirus
67. Lactoferrin is found in
A Basophil C Monocyte
B Neutrophil D Eosinophil
68. Incorrect about infectious mononucleosis caused by human cytomegalovirus (HCMV):
A site of latency is Trigeminal sensory C presence of heterophile antibodies
ganglia
D HCMV is the most common
B site of latency is monocytes and intrauterine infection
lymphocytes
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69. Regarding retroviruses, spot the incorrect statements:
A linear positive sense, single-stranded C contains reverse transcriptase enzyme
RNA
D spherical enveloped viruses
B circular negative sense,
single-stranded RNA
70. Mumps virus belongs to:
A Paramyxovirviridae C Parvoviridae
B Herpesvirviridae D Orthomyxoviridae
71. Which of the following sterilization processes readily inactivates (kills) Spores?
A Autoclave C Boiling
B Ultraviolet light D Desiccation
72. Component of plasma sterilization system:
A Gamma ray irradiation C UV irradiation
B Autoclave D Vapor-phase systems
73. Which of the following anti-malarial drugs is classified as 4-Aminoquinolines?
A Chloroquine C Primaquine
B Mefloquine D Pyrimethamine
74. In the USA, S aureus is resistant if the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) is:
A MIC is = 2 g/mL C MIC is =16 g/mL
B MIC is = 4 g/mL D MIC is =8 g/mL
75. Among the following agents responsible for congenital defects in fetus, which one is the lytic
virus that may cause fetal death?
A Cytomegalovirus C Varicella-zoster
B Herpes simplex D Rubella virus
76. 'Verruga peruana' is most commonly associated with
A Oroya fever C Pontiac fever
B Venezuelan hemorrhagic fever D Haverhill fever
77. Regarding Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis, which of the following statements is/are correct?
A uses a thermal cycler with an C uses a constant electrical field with an
illuminator to detect fluorescence uniform voltage gradient
B used for separation of large DNA D used for separation of small RNA
molecules molecules
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78. Which of the following species is alpha-hemolytic?
A Streptococcus intermedius C Listeria monocytogenes
B Arcanobacterium pyogenes D Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
79. Which of the following is a DNA virus?
A Coronaviruses C Polyomaviruses
B Picornaviruses D Togaviruses
80. Drug useful in the treatment of Human cytomegalovirus (HCMV) infection:
A Ribavirin C Lamivudine
B Ganciclovir D Oseltamivir
81. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is a member of
A Togaviridae C Orthomyxoviridae
B Paramyxoviridae D Herpesviridae
82. Which of the following statements regarding Trivalent oral poliovaccine are correct?
A Trivalent oral poliovaccine is the Salk C Immune globulin is highly effective
vaccine following infection
B Should not be administered to an D Pregnancy is not a contraindication
immunosuppressed individual
83. What is the generality and common among interleukin (IL-1) and interleukin (IL-8)?
A Both IL-1 & IL-8 are derived from C Both IL-1 & IL-8 are chemoattractant
monocytes for eosinophils
B Both IL-1 & IL-8 are endogenous D Both IL-1 & IL-8 are derived from
pyrogens macrophages
84. Methyl-accepting chemotaxis proteins (MCPs) include all except:
A sucrose C serine
B galactose D maltose
85. Which of the following organisms is an Yeast?
A Listeria monocytogenes C Chlamydia trachomatis
B Candida albicans D Toxoplasma gondii
86. Which of the following drugs inhibits the virus DNA polymerase?
A Zidovudine C Didanosine
B Saquinvir D Acyclovir
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87. Rubella virus belongs to:
A Orthomyxovirus group C Togavirus group
B Paramyxovirus group D Coronavirus group
88. The causative organism of Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML):
A Papovavirus C Polyomavirus
B Papillomavirus D Parvovirus
89. All of the following are Spore-forming microorganisms except:
A Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae C Myxococcus fulvus
B Bacillus cereus D Thermoactinomyces vulgaris
90. A gram-positive bacterium whose normal habitat is cow dung:
A Caryophanon C Brevibacterium
B Myxobacteriales D Thermoactinomyces
91. Which of the following is a T-cell growth factor?
A IL-1 C IL-4
B IL-2 D IL-6
92. Which of the following viruses contains an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase?
A Smallpox virus (variola) C Rous sarcoma virus
B Hepatitis B virus D Poliovirus
93. Rift Valley fever is due to the virus that belongs to genus
A Phlebovirus C Flavivirus
B Hantavirus D Orthobunyavirus
94. Which of the following is the most effective tool for conducting Genotyping assays?
A RT-qPCR C Multiple-locus VNTR analysis
B Nucleotide sequence analysis D Restriction fragment length
polymorphism
95. Linear, double-stranded DNA virus includes all of the following except:
A Herpesviruses C Adenoviruses
B Picornaviruses D Cytomegalovirus
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96. All of the following viruses are associated with hemagglutinating activity except:
A Pneumovirus C Rubulavirus
B Respirovirus D Adenovirus
97. A method suitable for both qualitative and quantitative analysis
A Crossed immunoelectrophoresis C Electroimmunoassay
B Immunoelectrophoresis D Counter-immunoelectrophoresis
98. 'Woolsorters disease' is caused by:
A Rhodococcus equi C Clostridium botulinum
B Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae D Bacillus anthracis
99. Which of the following techniques was the first in nucleic acid isolation, amplification, and
sequencing?
A restriction endonuclease analysis C plasmid profile analysis
B ribotyping D nucleic acid sequence analysis
100. A form of cell wall growth characterized by cell wall synthesis at the septum and at the
equatorial rings is exhibited by:
A E coli C S pneumoniae
B B subtilis D S aureus
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Disclaimer: Every attempt has been made to validate each and every question/answer. All remaining
errors are deeply regretted. Author will not be held responsible for any errors. Please consult the
standard textbooks given in the reference section for any discrepancy. Questions with wrong answers
may better be left unanswered. This is a practice series available free to download, and designed for
the benefit of prospective PG candidates and UG medical students alike.
Reference Textbooks:
1. Medical Microbiology: Jawetz, Melnick & Adelberg's, 24th Edition, Lange McGraw-Hill
publications
2. Microbiology: Prescott M. Lansing (Ed): Prescott- Harley- Klein, 5th Edition McGraw-Hill
publications
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