UGC-NET-FIRST PAPER

Compiled by

VISHWANATH PRATAP SINGH

LIBRARY ASSISTANT

Guru Ghasidas Vishwavidyalaya

Bilaspur, Chhatisgarh
 UGC Information Technology II

INTERNET
The term Internet stands for Internet work Systems. It is a global network of
networks. It consists of thousands of interconnected computer networks. TIle
growth of the Internet is phenomenal. The Internet is being viewed as a
phenomenon unparalleled since the invention of the printing press that
ushered in a revolution in the production, circulation and exchange of
information. The technical foundation of the Internet allows it to keep
expanding almost indefinitely. The Internet has been compared with a tidal
wave that will wash over the computer industry snd many others and
drowning those who don't learn to swim in its waves. As the computer has
become a part and parcel of modern offices the Internet will force itself into
the very texture of our life by the turn of the century. For millions of users
the world over, Internet has become a means of cross-border
transfer of information. It facilitates direct contact between researchers from
different countries. It is an exceptional means of communication. It offers an
opportunity to every individual to exercise power in a way that no
information structure has ever provided. Information put on the Internet
becomes instantaneously available and which can be accessible to millions
of individuals. No single individual or organisation owns the
Internet. Its management is completely decentralised. It is entirely managed
by individual and organisational volunteers. Each network meets the
expenditure for the installation and operating costs as well as those of
connecting up with the other networks_

USES OF THE INTERNET: The list of services available on the Internet is

expanding everyday. It has come to be the single unparalleled dt!vice for
rmding solutions to all sorts of problems. Image, sound and text travel easily
on the Internet. Users from all over the world can discuss back and forth.
The Internet can arrange a round table conference at much lower cost. It has
already become a new medium of business. Some important applications of
the Internet are: E-mail: E-mail is the most widely used Internet service and
it has abolished the notion of distance. To send a message through E-mail
one has to type a message and it would travel instantly over the network to
whomever one wishes. An electronic mailbox that is an address, which
specifies the source or destination of an electronic mail message, is the
essence of electronic mail. This mailbox,. A storage area that keeps the
message until the user reads it. An e-mail message can include text,
graphics, voice and video.

FTP: File Transfer Protocol (FTP), a client· server protocol allows a user on
one computer system to t.ransfer files to and from another computer system
over a TeptIP network regardless of the platforms the users or the host.
(remote) site are using provided the user knows the address of the host
computer and has some kind of idea of the information stored there. Usenet:
Usenet originally implemented in 1979-80 has grown to develop as the
largest decentralised information utility in existence. It encompasses
government agencies, universities, high schools, business houses of all
denominations and individuals. Usenet has emerged 8S one of the important
segments of the Internet. There are innumerable topics. A typical Use net
message may contain plain text andlor encoded binary information. Each
message has a series of headlines which defme the source bfthe messagc, its
destination, time and location of posting, what route it has taken over the
network and 80 on. Chatting interactively in real time: It is possible to speak
(VOICE) in real time on the Internet provided one uses the right kind of
software. The quality of the audio depends on the application, the speed of
the computer and the compression method used. Standard compression
protocols are: CSM, CVSD AND RTP. In a full duplex conversation, one
can speak and hear the other person at the same time. In half duplex, only
one person can speak at a time.

TelNet: One can access other computers via the Internet by using TeLNet·
one of the most important protocols of the Internet. TelNet provides the user
an opportunity to be on one computer system and do work on another· which
may be very near or thousands of kilometers away. Acquiring .software ;
The Internet is the world's biggest software library and it is possible to
acquire software from the Internet. The software which are available free
from the Internet are known as freeware a nd another kind is known as
shareware software which is available for nominal charge. World Wide Web
(WWW): There is an incredible amount of inform.ation on the Internet and it
is growing exponentially. As any individual or organisation does not control
the Internet there is no master record of its information resources.
WWW,aproductofthe continuous search for innovative ways of searching
information, is a mecha nism that links together information stored on many
computers throughout the world. One of the important characteri stics of the
WWW documents is their hypertext structure created by Hyper Text Markup
Language (HTML) a simple data format. HTML lets one easily link words
or pictures in one document to other documents and the resulting bypertext
documents are portable from one platform to another. HTML works on
matter where the documents are stored - whether in the same computer or
elsewhere on the Net. One will just have to click on a phrase or icon in t he
first document with one's mouse for the Internet to fetch the related
documents on the computer's screen. The system requirements for running a
WWW server are minimal. WWW provides a way to interconnect computers
running different operating systems. The simplicity of the HTML used for
interactive documents allows a user to contribute to the expanding database
of documents. The possibilities for hypertext in the WWW environment are
endless.

ISSUES OF CONCERN * As the Internet is growing 80 are host ofethical

concerns abo ut it. Certainly researchers and scholars - the early users of the
Internet - would like to protect the Internet from censorsh ip. But law· enfol'
cingage ncies particularly in those countries where the Internet is widely
used are considering means to curb impersonators, pirates and other
improper users. At present censorship is mainly intended to protect children
against indecent material. * Advertisement on the Net is another thorny
issue. By its interactive nature it is more persuasive. * In the beginning,
everything that was available on the Net was free. It was intended to provide
help to researchers around the world. But as the popularity of the Internet is
growing a number of pay - service networks are appearing. * Problems of
copyright and security have already surfaced. * The continuation of the
Internet as a democratic information infrastructure seems to be threatenerl
by the notorious web-based terrorists who attempt to spread disinformation
and the software giants who are trying to define the Webonomics. * Some
people think that Internet may eventually end up in being a medium of
ideological propaganda. However, such concerns do not seem to he well
founded unlike other technologies of the past it is diversifying rather than a
centralizing force. * The rising popularity of the Internet is creating traffic
jams and at certain times of the day the networks are so crowded that it is
practically impossible to connect with certain server. The In~rnet is still
evolving. The real Internet of the future may bear very little resemblance to
today's Internet. The growth of the Internet has not followed any planned
path in the past. But one thing about its future can be said with certainty that
it is poised to be much bigger and exponentially faster.
SPACE SCIENCE AND COMMUNICATION MILESTONES
1962 : Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR) formed
by the Department of Atomic Energy and work on establishing Thumba
Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) started.
1963 : First sounding rocket laUIlched from TERLS (November 21, ] 963).
1965 : Space Science & Technology Centre (SSTC) established in Thumba.
1967 : Satellite Telecommunication Earth Station set up at Ahmedabad.
1968: TERLS dedicated to the United Nations (February 2, 1968).
1969: Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) formed under
Department of Atomic Energy (August 15, 1969).
1972 : Space Commission and Department of Space set up. ISRO brought
UIlder DOS (June I, 1972). 1972-76 : Air-borne remote sensing
experiments.
1975 : ISRO becomes Government Organisation (Ap,il1, 1975).
First Indian Satellite, Aryabhata, launched (Ap,il19, 1975).
1975-76 SateUite Instructional Television Experiment (SITE) conducted.
1977 Satellite Telecommunication Experiments Project (STEP) carried out.
1979: Bhaskara-I, an experimental satellite for earth observations, launched
(JUIle 7, 1979). First Expel'imental launch of SLV-3 with Rahini
Technology Payload on board (August 10, 1979). Satellite could not be
placed in orbit.
1980: Second Experimental launch ofSLV·3. Rohinisatellite successfully
placed in ol'bit. (July 18,1980).
1981 : First developmental launch of SLV-3. RS-Dl placed in orbit (May
31,1981) APPLE, an experimental geo-stationary communication satellite
successfully launched (June 19, 1981). Bhaskara·II launched (November 20,
1981).
1982: INSAT·lA laUIlch~d (April 10, 1982). Deactivated on September
6,1982.
1983 : Second developmental launch ofSLV·3. RS-D2 placed in orbit (April
17 , 1983). INSAT·IB, launched (August 30, 1983). 139
1984 : Indo-Soviet manned space mission (April 1984).
1987 : First developmental launch of ASLV with SROSS-] satellite on board
(March 24, 1987). Satellite could not be placed in orbit.
1988 : Launch of first operational Indian Remote Sensing Satellite, lRS-lA
(March 17, 1988). INSAT-IC launched (July 21, 1988). Abandoned in
November 1989. Second developmental launch· of ASLV with SROSS·2 on
board (July 13, 1988). Satellite could not be placed in orbit.
1990: INSAT·I0 launched (June 12, 1990).
1991 : Launch of second operational Remote Sensing satellite, IRS·LB
(August 29, 1991).
1992 : Third developmental launch of ASLV with SROSS-C on board (May
20, 1992). Satellite placed in orbit.. INSAT-2A, the ft.rst satellite of the
indigenously built. second· generat.ion INSAT series. launched (July 10,
1992).
1993 : INSAT·2B, the second sateUite in the I NSAT·2 series, launched
(July 23,1993). First developmental launch ofPSLV with IRS·IE on
board (September 20, L993). Satellite could not. be placed in orbit.
1994 : Fourth developmentallaunc.b of ASLV with SROSS-C2 on board
(May 4, 199--1). Satellite placed in orbit. Second developmental launch of
PSLV with IRS·P2 on board (October 15, 1994). Satellite successfully
placed in polar sun synchronous orbit.
1995 : I NSAT·2C, the third satellite m the INSAT·2 series, launched
(December 7,1995). Launch of third operational Indian Remote Sensing
Satellite, IRS·IC (December 28, 1995).
1996: Third developmental launch of PSLV with IRS·P3 on board (March
21. 1996). Satellite placed in polar sun synchronous orbit.
1997: INSAT·20, fourth sateUite in the INSAT series. launched (June 4.
1997). Becomes inoperable on October 4. 1997. (An in-orbit
satellite,ARABSAT·IC, since renamed INSAT. 2DT, was acquired in
November 1997 to partly augment the INSAT system). First operational
launch otPSLV with IRS·] D on board (September 29, 1997). Satellite
placed in orbit.
1998: INSAT system capacity augmented With the readiness of INSAT-2DT
acquired from ARABSAT(January 1998).
1999 : INSAT·2E, the last satel lite In the multipurpose INSAT-2 series,
launched by Ariane from I{Ourali French Guyana (April 3. 1999). fndian
Remote Sensing Satellite, IRS·P4 (OCEANSAT), launched by_ Polar
Satellite Launch Vehicle (pSLV·C2) along with Korean KITSAT-3 and
German OLR·TUBSAT from Sriharikotn (May 26, 1999).
2000: I NSAT-3B, the first satellite in the third generation INSAT·3 series.
launched by Artane from KQurou French Guyana (March 22, 2000).
2001: Successfulllight test ofGeosynch..ronolis Satelhte Launch Vehicle
(OSLV). (April 18, 2001) with an experimental satellite GSAT·} on
board. Successful launch of PSLV·C3 (October 22, 2001) placing three
satellites India's TES, Belgian PROBA and German BI RD. in to Polar
sunsynchronous orbit.
2002 : Successful launch of INSAT-3C by Ariane from Kourou. French
Guyana (January 24,2002). ISRO's Polar Satell.tte Launch Vehicle, PSLV·
C4, s uccessfully launched KALPANA·l satellite from Sriharikota
(September 12, 2002). Succcssfullaunch ofINSAT-3A by Arlane from
Kourou French Guyana, (April 10, 2003). The Second developmental launch
ofGSLV-02 with GSAT-2 on board from Sriharikota (May 8, 2003).
Successful launch of INSAT -3E by Ariane from Kourou French Guyana,
(September 28, 2003). ISRO's Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, PSLV.
C5, successfully launched RESOURCESAT·! (lRS-P6) satellite from
Srihankota (October 17, 2003).
India launchesEOUSAT. exclusive satellite for educatitma1services.
(September 2004) India recognised the potential of space science and
technology for the socio-economic developmentofthe society soon after the
launch of Sputnik by erstwhile USSR in 1957. The
Indian space efforts started in the sixties with the establishment of Thumba
Equatorial Rocket Launching Station near Thiruvananthapuram for the
investigation of ionosphere using sounding rockets. The Indian
Space Research Organisation (ISRO), was established in 1969 under the
Department of Atomic Energy. The Government of India gave
fillip to the space activities by formally setting up t.'le Space Commission
and the Department of Space (DOS) in June 1972 and ISRO was also
brought under Department of Space. Over the last three decades, India has
achieved an enviable progress in the design, development and operation of
space systems, as well as using the systems for vital seryices like
telecommunication, television broadcasting, meteorology, disaster warning
and natural resources survey and management. The space programme has
become largely self-reliant with capability to design and build its own
satellites for providing space services and to launch them
using indigenously designed and developed launch vehicles. The successful
first test flight of Geosrynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) from
Sriharikota on April 18, 2001 was the most significant milestone of the
Indian space programme. The launch unequivocally
demonstrated India's capability to place satellites into geo-synchronous
transfer orbits. India is among the si" nations in the world to achieve such a
capability. The launch of OS LV is the culmination of efforts of several
DOS centres and other institutions that involved complex interfaces between
scientific and technological disciplines, industries and research institutions.
Another important milestone during the year was the succeasfulflight of
PSLV-C3 on October 22, 2001 from Sriharikota. In this fifth consecutively
successful flight, PSLV placed three satellites - India's Technology
Experiment Satellite, TES, Belgian PROBA and German BIRD into their
intended polar sun· synchronous orbit. The requircment of a higher orbit for
the Belgian PROBA compared to other two satellites was successfully met
by a flight. manoeuvre. Both German and Belgian satellites were launched
under commcrcial agreements. The flight has clearly established the
reliabil\ty of PSLV for launching not onJy the Indian remote sensing
satellites, but also, multiple satellites thus making it an attractive vehicle for
the international space community to launch their satellites. PSLV is also
used for a geo-synchronous transfer orbit mission for launching India's
l\1ETSAT in 2002·03. The INSAT system for telecommunication, television
broadcasting and meteorology has received further boost during the year
with t.he successful launch ofINSAT·3C on January 24, 2002. INSAT·3C
will not only augment the present INSAT system but also continue the
services of some of the satellites that need to be phased out at the end of
their mission life. INSAT is one of the largest domestic
communication satellite systems in the world with five satellites, INSAT·2C,
INSAT·2DT, INSAT·2E, INSAT·3B and INSAT·3C. The INSAT system
also includes a few transponders leased Crom other agencies for meeting the
current demands. Planning of IN SAT -4 series of satellites has
been initiated based on detailed discussions with the various users. Seven
satellites are proposed in the INSAT-4 series. Experimental communication
satellites, OSATa, are built, which are launched during the developmental
test flights of GSLV. Besides the use of INSAT for telecommunication,
broadcasting and meteorological s~rvices, emphasis is being given for using
the system for grassroots level applications like developmental
communication and satellite·based training. New initiatives' have been taken
for using INSAT fOI" introduction of tele·medicine to make speciality
treatment accessible to the population an remote areas. The Indian remote
sensing satellite system, IRS, which has the biggest constellation of
satellites, continues to provide space-based remote sensing data for 8
number of applications in India and abroad. IRS system, at present, has five
satellites, namely, LRS-lC, IRS·1D, IRS·P3, fRS·P4 (OCEANSAT) and
Technology Experiment Satellite (TES). The TES has given further fillip to
advance the tecbnolo~ of remote sensing in India. It has enabled testing new
satellite hardware and demonstrating newer remote sensing techniques. It
incorporates a panchromatic camera providing a spatial resolution of up to 1
m. Remote sensing satellites like RESOURCESAT, CARTOSAT·I and
CARTOSAT·2, is progressing well. They will not only continue the services
of the present IRS satellites but 8.lso enhance the service capabilities.
CARTOSAT·l is already in service. The remote sensing applications
continue to expand to several new areas; the data has been used to assess
damage due to floods, earthquakes, etc. and for helping in relief operations.
Remote Sensing Data Policy (RSDP) was announced which helps in
streamline the availability of remote sensing data from Indian and-foreign
satellites to users in India. The launch of two satellites . one of Belgium and
another of Germany - on board PSLV marks an important event during the
year under commercial marketing of India's space capabilities. Data from
IRS satellites continue to be received by several ground stations worldwide.
The lease agreement of transponders on board INSAT·2E to INTELSAT has
continued.

SPACE TRANSPORTATION:

Space Transportation system includes the satellite launch vehicles to place

satellites like INSAT and IRS Band scie ntific satellites in the requisite
orbits as well as the sounding rockets for carrying out short duration
scientific experiments. India made a modest beginning in this area with the
launch of a 75 mm diameter sounding rocket in 1963 for investigation of
ionosphere over the gee-magnetic equator over Thumba, near
Thiruvananthapuram. Since then, India has established a s ubstantial
capability in the design, development and operationalisation of a series of
sounding rockets for scientific investigations, Polar Satellite Launch
Vehicle, PSLV, for launching Indian remote sensing satellites and
Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle, GSLV, for launching
geo.stationary communication satellites.

EARTH OBSERVATIONS SYSTEM:- Earth Observations System

(EOS) is an important space infrastructure that has been established by the
Department of Space (DOS). The system, which was commissioned in 1988
with the launch of Indian Remote Sensing SatelHte, IRS· lA, has the world's
largest constellation of five satellites (IRS·} C, fRS·l D. IRS-P3, IRS-P4 and
TES) presently in 'operation. It provides space-based remote sensing data in
a variety of spatial resolutions and spectral bands meeting the needs of
various applications. The EOS definition, development, operation and ita
application are co·ordinated by the National Natural Resources Management
System (NNRMS), for which DOS is the nodal agency. NNRMS is an
integrated resource management system a imed at optimal utilisation of
country's natllral resources by a proper and systematic inventory of resource
availability using EOS data in conjunction with conventional techniques.
NNRMS is supported at the national leve l by the Planning Committee of
NNRMS (pC·NNRMS), which provides guidelines for implementation of
the system and also oversees the progress of remote sensing applications for
natural resources management in the country. The NNRMS activities are
guided by ten Standing Committees, namely, (i) Agriculture & Soils, (ii)
Bio-Resources (iii) Geology and Mineral Resources (iv) Water Resources
(v) Ocean Resources (vi) Cartography & Mapping (vii) Urban Management
(viii) Rural Development (ix) Technology & Training and (x) Meteorology.
Each of the Standing Committee is chaired by Secretaries of the re spective
Government departments and includes experts from major Modular Opto-
electronic Scanner (MOS) user departments. Ground reIOiullOl'l (m)
1S69x139fi 623,11.523 523lCfi44 SPACE SEGMENT No. of 8p«:tU.l
bliimls Satellites in Operation: There are 5 spectral (nm) 765-768 log·IOto
U;00-1700 Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites in Swath (km) operational
at.. present· IRS·lC, IRS-lD,IRS·P3, IRS-P4 and Technology Experiment
Satellite X-ray Payload (TES). IRS-IB, which was launched in August -
Three Pointed Proportional Counters (PPC) 1991. was decommissioned
during the year in Energy range of2-20 keY after it served for more than 10
years, even . X·ray Sky Monitor (XSM) 10 Energy though it was designed
for only three years life. range 2-8 ke V IRS-1C and IRS-1D: IRS-IC and
IRS-ID. IRS-P4 (OCEANSAT).· IRS·P4 spacecraft was which .r. identical,
were launched in launched on board PSLV-C2 10 May 1999. It December
1995 .nd September L997 carries the following payloads: respectively. They
carry three cameras. Ocean Colour Monitor (OCM) Panchromatic Camera
(PAN), Linear Imaging Sensor Parameters Specifications Self Scanner
(LISS-III) and Wide Field Sensor Spatial Resolution (m) 360 (WiFS) with
foUowing specifications: Swath {km) 1'120 PAN ~ WLl~S Repetitivity
(days) 2 VNIR " SWIR Local time of equator 12 nool1 1 ~lIa ,. 23,1) 70.5 ".
Crossing (bra) ReaoIuUon {mJ SV0'8lh (\on) 7. '" , .. 81. Spectral Bands
(nm) 402-422; 433·453; Speroal Band 0.6·0.76 0.62·0.159 1.~1.7 0.62·0.68
480-500; 500-520; (MlCI'OMJ 0.62·0.68 0.77-0.86 545-565: 660-680;
0,77·0.86 745-785: 845-885 IRS-PS IRS·P3 w8s1aunched Multi-frequency
Scanning Microwave 10 March L996 on board India's PSLV. It carries n
Wide Field Sensor Radiometer (MSMR) (Wi.FS), Modular Opto-electronics
Scanner Frequency (Gflr.) 6.G 10.6 '8 21 (MOS) developed by the German
Space Agency. SIl8tJ.a1 Re80lubon (kro) '20 80 40 40 DLR, and an X·ray
astronomy instrument. The Swath (km) 1360 details of the payload are as
follows: Temp. Resolution 1,0 dCR K IRS-P3 is operated in earth pointing
mode for the operation ofWiFS and MOS and Dynamic Temp. Range 330
dog J.: In the sky· pointmg mode for the operation of the X-ray Technology
Experiment Satellite (TES) instrument. TES was launched on board PSLV -
C3 on October Wide Field Sensors (WiFS) 22, 2001. The satellite, weighing
lL08 kg, is an llond ·3 0.62·0.68 micron~ experimental satellite to
demonstrate and Bond-'I 0.77·0.86 microns validate, in orbit, technologies
that could be Band·~ I.M-1.70 microns used in the future satellites of ISRO.
Some of Ground nllJOlution 182xl66 (red .. d the technologies that are being
demonstrated m m near TES are attitude and orbit control system, high mfn-
red); 246xl86 m (shorlwo\'1! Infratorque reaction wheels, new reaction
control red) system with optimised thrusters and a single SWBth 810 km
propellant tank, light woi!ight spacecraft structure, solid state recorder, X-
band phased 143 array antenna, improved satellite positioning system,
miniaturised TIC and power system and, two·mirror·on·a:'cis camera optics.
TES also carries a panchromatic camera with a spatial resolution of 1 m.
FOLLOW-ON SATELLITES FOR EARTH OBSERVATION IRS-P6
(RESOURCESAT-l), IRS·P6 (RESOURCESAT·l) is launched by PSLV in
2002·03. It will carry the following payloads: (i) a multi·spectral camera
USS·3 providing 23.5 m spatial resolution in four spectral bands with a
swath of 140 km, (ii) a high resolution multi·spectral camera LISS·4
providing 5.8 m spatial resolution operating in three spectral bands and (iii)
an Advanced Wide Field Sensor (A WiFS) with a spatial resolution better
than 70 m in three spectral bands and providing a swath of 740 km. IRS·P6
will not.only provide service continuity to IRS·1C and IRS·IO but also
enhance the service capa,bilities in the areas of agriculture, disaster
management, land and water resources, with better resolution imageries.
mS-P5 (CARTOSAT -1), lRS·P5 is launched by PSLV in 2003·04. The
satellite is primarily intended for advanced cartographic applications.
IRS·P5 will have two panchromatic cameras on board with 2.5 m resolution
with a swath of 30 km each. These cameras are mounted with a tilt of +26
deg and -5 deg along the track with respect to nadir to provide stereo pairs of
images needed for the generation of Digital Terrain Model (OTM)/ Digital
Elevation Models (OEM) of the required regions. The data products will be
used for cartographic applications, cadastral mapping and updating, land use
and other GIS applications. The satellite has a revisit capability of 5 days,
which can be realised by steering the spacecraft about roll axis by 26
degrees. During tbe year tbe equipment panel design bas been finalised.
Various components are under development and testing. Ground Segment:
The ISRO Telemetry, Tracking and Command Network (lSTRAC) monitors
and controls aU the IRS satellites besides other low earth orbit satellites.
ISTRAC has a ni!twork of ground stations located at Bangalore, Sriharikota,
Port Blair. Thiruvanantbapuram, Mauritius and Bearslake witb
multi·mission Spacecraft Control Centre at Bangalore. TIC stations at
Brunei and Biak have a]so been added recently. ISTRAC. at present tra.cks,
monitors and
controls IRS·IC,IRS·ID, IRS·P3, JRS·P4 and TES. ISTRAC was
extensively used for conducting various demonstrations on TES. The
payload operations on IRS·IC and IRS·ID are carried out over the Inman
stations at Shadnagar in India as wp.ll as foreign data reception stations at
Fairbank (USA), Seoul, Korea, Cotopaxy (Ecuador), Dubai, NeustraJitz
(Germar.y), Norman (USA), Tokai (Japan) and Riyad (Saudi Arabia). On an
average abou~ 350 to 400 payload operations a.re being carried out per
month. IRS·P3 payload operations are being carried out for about 250 times
per month over Shadnagar in India, Neustralitz and Wallops (Germany) and
Maspolamas (Spain). SATELLITE DATA ACQUISiTION, PROCESSING
AND DISSEMINATION The Nap.onal Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA),
Hyderabad, oontinues to receive remote sensing data from the Indian
satellites, IRS·IC, IRS·lO, IRS·PS, IRS·P4 and the TES as well as the US
NOAA·14, Landsat·5 and European ERS·2. The Data Reception Station
(ORS) of NRSA at Shadnagar, has been further augmented to receive data
from TRS·P5 (CARTOSAT) and IRS·P6 (RESOURCESAT). Aerial
Remote Sensing: NR5A operates two aircraft that have been modified for
multi· sensor operation with high performance work station and digital
photogrammetry system to generate data products. Aerial remote sensing
services provided by NRSA is availed by several agencies for aerial
photography, mapping, infrastructure planning, aeromagnetic surveys,large
scale base maps and topographic and cadastral mapping. Some of the aerial
surveys carried out include aerial photography of nine towns of Gujarat that
were affected by the earthquake in January 2001, twenty seven towns in
Andhra Pradesh, seven districts in Madhya Pradesh, three towns of
Rajasthan, Bangalore peripheral areas and flood affected areas of Orissa.
Low altitude flightR for airborne geophysical survey for Atomic Mineral
Division and nights carrying Synthetic Aperture Radar have also been
carried out. Re mote Sensing Data Policy: The Govcrnmen~ has announced,
a Remote Sensing Data Policy (RSDP) in order to streamline the availability
of remote sensing data from Indian and foreign satellites to users in India.
As per the RSDP. Government's permission will be required for operating
remote sensing satellites in India and for distribution of satellite images in
India. The NRSA, Hyderabad, will be the national acquisition and
distribution aeeney for all satellite data within India. NRSA can enter into
agreements for distribution of data from foreign satellite in India. Antrix
Corporation, the commercial agency under the Department of Space, will
license the use of IRS capacities outside India. The announcement of RSDP
is an important step towards making transparent. the procedures of satellite
data distribution, including those from high·resolution imaging systems. I t
would help to regulate the process of image distribution so that Indian users
are not denied access to valuable satellite based imageries, which can be
used in the development of natural resources. Remote Sensing Applications:
Space-based remote sensing, because of its synoptic and repetitive coverage
of large areas as well as providing data in a quantifiable manner has enabled
monitoring and assessment of various natural resources. Today space· based
remote sensing is used for several areas of resources, survey and
management. Projects of national relevance in different application themes
are being carried out with the involvement of user agencies at central and
state levels. Some of the major applications to which remote sensing is being
used in the country are highlighted in the following paragraphs. Crop
Acreage llnd Production Estimation (CAPE): CAPE was initiated in 1995
with the sponsorship of the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation.
Under this project, multi·date lRS satellite data are used for pre-harvest
acreage and production estimation for major food crops as well as cotton.
The estimates are provided far kharif rice in Bihar. rabi dee in
Orissa, mustard in Assam, Gujarat, Haryana, Rajasthan and West Bengal,
wheat in Bihar, Himachal Pradesh, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and
Uttar Pradesh and sorghum in Maharashtra. FASAL: Based on the success
of CAPE. An enlarged and comprehensive scheme known as Forecasting
Agricultural output using Space, Agrometeorology and Land based
observations (FASAL) bas been taken up. FASAL now covers
kharif rice in Orissa as a pilot project as well as forecasting kharif rice
production at the national level. It is proposed to set up a FASALNCCF
(National Centre for Crop Forecasting) under the aegis of the Ministry of
Agriculture. DroughtAssessmentand Monitoring: Based on the data
collected by the satellites on the vegetation indices and ground based
information, fortnightly bulletins on crop conditions depicting ag,ricultural
drought are being issued for eleven slates, and at sub·
district level for sb: stales during kharifseason. Flood Mapping: The Flood
Mapping. Using satellite imageries are being undertaken since 1987 to help
Department of Agriculture and Cooperation and State Relief Agencies and
Central Water Commission. Under this, flood prone river basins of
Brahmaputra, Kosi, Ganga, Indus, Godavari and Mahanadi are covered and
near real time inundation and damage estimation maps are generated. Forest
Monitoring: The Forest Survey of India carries out the forest cover mapping
on 1:250,000 scale on a biennial basis. Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and
Mo.harashtra have used satellite based dala for preparation of forest working
plans. A biodiversity characterization at landscape level has also been taken
up in four regions of the country, namely, North·Eastern Himalaya, Western
Himabya, Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The activities
related to preparation ofbiome level ecological zone maps and topographical
details are nearing completion. The project is being undertaken with the
sponsorship of the Department of Biotechnology. A few medicinal plant
colonies in the Himalayas like Hyppophae rhamnoides, Ephedra gerardiana
and Taxus baccata have been mapped. Irrigatron Command Areas: Under
the sponsorship of the Central Water Commission, 14 large irrigated
commands covering five states (Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Maharashtra,
Rajasthan and West Bengal) extending to an area of 3.12 Mha (million
hectare) have been taken up for monitoring using satellite data. So far
evaluation of seven command areas has been complete·d. Snow-melt Run
otl'Prediction: Forecasting and monitoring of Snow-melt Run-off for the
Satellite River Basin is being carried out since 1994 with the sponsorship of
Bhakra-Beas Management Board. The forecast is made every year by the
first week of April, which is further updated subsequently. Integrated Land
and Water Resources Development: Generation of data for Integrated
Mission for Sustainable Development (IMSD) for 84 Mha area covering 175
districts located in 28 States have been completed and similar work has been
extended to Koraput- Bolangir-Kalahandi (KBK) region of Orissa. The
Department of Land Resources under the Ministry of Rural Development is
now working towards institutionalising IMSD for implementation.
Wasteland Mapping: The Wasteland Mapping has been carried out in five
phases during 1986-2000 on a 1:50,000 scale under the sponsorship of the
Department of Land Resources under the Ministry of Rural Development. 13
categories of wastelands in three broad categories have been identified - (A)
Barren rockylsheet rock.; (B) Gullied areal ravines; and (C)
Minmglindustrial wastelands. A wasteland atlas of India has been generated
and the information is used for planning several developmental programmes.
A digital data base is also now being created . National Drinking Watel'
Mission: Under the sponsorship of the Department of Drinking Water of the
Ministry of Rural Development, maps showing prospective zones of ground
water occurrence and recharge are being prepared on 1:50,000 scale ill six
states (Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Kerala
and Rajasthan). So far 930 maps have been prepared out of the 1800 maps
required. The maps are integrated with GIS data base and identify areas and
sites for locating borewells. Coastal Studies: Information on Coastal wet
lands, land forms, land use, shore line changes, etc, have been mapped on
1:250,00011 :50,000 scales for the Ministry of Environment and
Forests. Coral reef maps on 1:50,000 scale for Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of
Mannar, Palk's Bay, Lakshadweep and Andaman & Nicobar islands have
been generated. Mapping of features between High Tide Line (HTL) nnd
Low Tide Line (LTL) and land use feaLures for a strip of 500 m from HTL,
on 1:25,000 scale, under Coastal Regulation Zone has also been carried out.
The maps are used for preparing coastal zone management plans and for
formulating regulations on construction along HTL. Use ofIRS-P4
(OCEANSAT) Data: An endto- end task of using IRS·P4 data for
oceanographic, marine-atmospheric and coastal environmental applications
has been taken up. Several agencies like Department of Ocean Development,
Indian Meteorological Department, National Institute of Oceanography,
Central Ma.rine Fisheries Research Institute, etc., besides several State
Departments are participating in this task. The Ocean Colour Monitor
(OCM) of IRS-P4 provides data on Chlorophyll distribution and primary
productivity for locating potential fish zones, sea surface
velocities,suspended sediment movement, coastal landforms, coral reefs, etc.
The Multi-frequency Scanning Microwave Radiometer (MSMR) on board
the satellite provides data on humidity over oceans, water vapour content,
winds, rain rate, fluxes, sea ice, etc. Disaster Management: Landslide Hazard
Zonation (LHZ) Mapping: Landslide Hazard Zonation (LHZ) mapping on
1:25,000 scale is being carried out for all major pilgrim and tourist routes in
the Himalayan region in Uttaranchal and Himachal Pradesh. Database has
been created for the entire 2000 km long corridor and LHZ maps have been
prepared. The routes covered include: RishikeshRudraprayag- Chamoli-
Badrinath, RishikeshGaumukh, Rudraprayag-OkhimathKe darnath
,Chamoli-Okhimath and Pithoragarh-Malpa, all in Uttarancha1;
ShimlaManali, Shimla-Sumdo and Dalhousie Brahmaur in Himachal
Pradesh. The maps are used by State Public Works Departments (PWD),
Border Roads Organisation and some NOOs. Gujarat Earthquake: The space
based imagery along with aerial remote sensing provided inputs to the
Gujarat State Administration during the Earthquake in January 2001 in terms
of locating the worst affected towns, to assess the changes in the terrain
features and damage assessment. The satellite news gathering terminal was
also moved from the Space Applications Centre and
set up at Bhuj which was the only link till February 2, 2001 to co-ordinate
rescue and relief operation. National (Natural) kesources Information
System: A spatial information infrastructure organised around GIS for
facilitating developmental planning and decision making at
DistrictJStatelNational level is being implemented for the Planning
Authorities. Already NRIS has been implemented for 30 districts and four
state nodes. The NRrs comprises 22 spatial layers and 8 non-spatial layers
pertaining to natural resources as well as socio-economics.
 Computer UGC Research Aptitude Part II

QUESTIONS
1. Central Processing Unit (CPU) -
A. The computer's primary QUESTIONS I
processing hardware wh,ich 1. Who said that members of the
interprets and execute program same species are not alike?
instructions and manages the (a) Darwin (b) Herbert Spencer
function of input, output and storage (c) Best (d) Good
devices. 2. A st;:ttistical measure based upon
the entire population is called
B. is considered to be heart of the parameter while measure based upon
computer. a sample is known as
C. may reside on a single chip on the (a) sample parameter (b) inference
computer's motherboard, or on a (c) statistic (d) none of these
larger card inserted into a special slot 3. Generalized conclusion on the
on the motherboard basis of a sample is technically
D. All the above known as.
2. The Arithmetic and Logic Unit (a) Statistical inference of external
(ALU)- validity of the research
A. is the component of CPU. (b) data analysis and interpretation
B. performs arithmetic and logical (c) parameter inference
operations. (d) · all of the above
C. Both A and B 4. A researcher selects a probability
D. None of the above sample of 100 out of the total
3. Data population. It is
A. A a collection of unorganized- (a) a cluster sample
items that can include letters, (b) a random sample ..
numbers, symbols, images and (c) a stratified sample
sounds that computer process and (d) a systematic sample
organize it into meaningful 5. Aresearcher divides the
information. populations into PG, graduates and
B. is a set or-standards for 10 + 2 students and using the random
controlling the transfer of business digit table he selects some of them
dOCUID€nte, such as purchase from. Each. This is technically called
orders and invoices, between (a) stratified sarp.pling
computers. (b) stratified random sampling '
C. Both A and B (c) representative sampling
D. None of the above (d) none ofthese
4. E-MAIL 6. The final result of a study will be
A. stands for electronic mail more accurate if the sample drawn is
B. stores purchase orders and (a) taken randomly
invoices, between computers. (b) fixed by quota
C. Both A and B (c) representative to the population
D. None ofthe above (d) purpOSIVe
5. ED! 7. A researcher selects only 10
A stands for Electronic Data members as a sample from the total
Interchange (ED!) population of 5000 and considers it
B. is a set of standards for good because
controlling the transfer of business (a) he was a good researcher
documents, such as purchase orders (b) he was guided by his supervisor
and invoices, between computers. (c) the populations was
C. Both A and B homogeneous (d) all ofthese
D. None of the above 8. Area (cluster) sampling t echnique
6. Hardware is used when
A. The physical components ofa (a) popul~tion is scattered and large
computer size of the sample is to be drawn
B. includes-processors, memory (b) population is heterogeneous
chips, input/output devices, tapes, (c) long survey is needed
disks, cables, modems. (d) (a) and (c)
C. Both A and B 9. A researcher divides his
D. None of the above population into certain groups and
7. Input fixes the size of the sample from
A. A data or iJlljtruction ~hat you each group. It is called
enter into tne memory of a (a) stratified sample (b) quota sample
l.UDJPU(,t;L (c) cluster sample (d) all of the above
B. hardware components that result 10. Which ofthe following is a non-
in the transfer of data. 147 probability sample ?
C. Both A and B (a) Quota sample
D. None of the above (b) Simple random sample
8. Four types ofInput are (c) Purposive sample
A. data, programs, commands and (d) (a) and (c) both
user responses. 11. Which t echnique is generally
B. hardware components that result followed when the population is
in the transfer of data. finite ?
C. Both A and B (a) Area sampling technique
D. None ofthe above (b) Purposive sllmpling technique
9. The input devices are the (c) Systematic sampling technique
A. computer hardware that accepts (d) None ofthe above
data and instructions from user. 12. Validity of a research can be
B. communication between hardware improved by
components that result in the transfer (a) eliminating extraneous factors
of data. (b) taking the true representative
C. Both A and B sample ofthe population
D. None of the above (c) both of the above measures
10. Input/Output devices(llO) (d) none ofthese
A. Communications between the user 13. Field study is related to
and the computer that results in (a) real life situations
transfer of data (b) experimental situations
B. Communication between (c) laboratory situations
hardware components that result in (d) none of the above
the transfer of data. 14. Independent variables are not
C. Both A and B marupulated in
D. None of the above (a) normative researches
11. Microsoft office (b) ex-post facto researches
A. is .8 suite of Microsoft primary (c) both ofthe above
application for window and (d) none ofthe above
Macintosh. 15. The research antagonistic to ex-
B. includes some combination of post facto research is
word, Excel, Powerpoint, Access and (a) experimental studies
schedule along with a host ofinternel (b) normati~e researches
and other utilities. (c) library researches
C. Both A and B (d) all ofthe above
D. None of the above 16. Who is regarded the father of
12. Modem: scientific social surveys?
A. Abbreviation for (a) Darwin (b) Booth
modulator/demodulator. (c) Best (d) None oft.hese
B. It is an InputJOutput device that 17. Attributes of objects, events or
allows computer to communicate things which can be measured are
through telephone lines. called
C. converts outgoing digital data into (a) qualitative measure
analog signals that can be transmitted (b) data
over phone lines and converts (c) variables
incoming audio signals into digital (d) none ofthe above
data that can be processed by the 18. The process not nE;ededin
computer. D. All the above experimental researches is
13. Multimedia (a) observation
A. refers to the integration of (b) controlling
multiple media such a8 visual (c) manipulation and replication
imagery, text, vide.o, sound, and (d) . reference collection
animation. 19. The experimental study is based
B. often associated with the on the law of
information superhighway, or with (d) single variable
interactive T.V-that can prODuce (b) replication
videos (informaion on demand) or (c) occupation
with hypermedia. (d) interest ofthe subject
C. is a combinatlOn of software and 20. All are example of qualitative
hardware, both. variables except
D. All the above (a) religion and castes
14. Multimedia (b) sex
A. is a very powerful form of (c) observation
communicating ideas, searching for (d) interest of the subject
information and experiencing new 21. An example of scientific
concepts of common media. knowledge is
B. enhance business presentations (a) authority ofthe Prophet or great
C. Both A and B men
D. None of the above (b) social traditions and customs
15. Motherboard (c) religious scriptures
A. is the main circuit board, also (d) laboratory and field experiments
called system board, in an 22. A teacher encounters various
electrOniC device which consists of problems during his professional
sockets that accepts additional experiences. He should
boards. (a) resign from his post ' in . such
B. is a very powerful form of situations
communicating ideas (b) do research onthat problem and
C. The interactive feature of network find a solution
D. None of the above (c) avoid the problematic situations ,
16. Printers (d) take the help of head ofthe
A. is an output device that produce institution
text and graphics on a physical 23. A research problem is feasible
medium such as paper or only when
transparency film. (a) it is researchable
B. are classifieds into the following (b) it is new and adds something to
categories-Impact printers and knowledge
Nonlmpact printers. (c) it has utility and relevance
C. Both A and B (d) all of these
O. None of the above 24. Formulation of hypothesis may
17. A program not be necessary
A. is a sequence of instructions or (a) survey studies
actions (b) fact finding (historical) studies
B. must have mechanisms for (c) normative studies
carrying out processing operations (d) experimental studies
(like arithmetical operations or 25. Studying the social status of a
moving information around) and for population a researcher concluded
handling input and output. that Mr. X is socially backward. His
C. Both A and B conclusion is
D. None of the above (aJ wrong (b) right
18. Output (c) inaccurate (d) biased
A. The data that has been processed Note: Such studies are conducted m
into a useful form and can be scen on relative terms.
VDU 01' can be taken on paper by 26. A good hypothesis should be
using printer or listen to it through (a) precise, specific and conslstent
speakers or a headset. with most known facts
B. can be saved on a floppy disk or (b) formulated in such a way that it
CD for future use. can be tested by the data
C. can be generated in the form of- (c) of limited scope and should not
text. graphics, audio, video. have global significance
D. All the above '(d) all of these
19. Office Automation System 27. Hypothesis can not be stated in
A. Autou ;ate routine office tasks. (a) null and question form terms
148 (b) declarative terms
B. are classifieds into the following (c) general terms
categories- Impact and Non-Impact (d) directional terms
C. Both A and B 28. Logic of induction is very close
D. None of the above to
20. The Information System (IS) (a) the logic of sampling
department- (b) the logic of observation
A. Supports organization's (c) the logic of the controlled
information systems and also support variable (d) none of the above
organization's overall mission. 29. In order to augment the acc~acy
B. The IS department provide of the study a researcher
technical support for hardware and (a) should increase the size of the
software, but may be involved in the sample
design and implementation of an (b) should be honest and unbiased
organization's entire information (c) should keep the variance high
system. (d) all of these
C. IS professionals also ensure that 30. All causes n?n ,sampling errors
systems generate all the appropriate except 19
types of information and reports (a) faulty tools of measurement
required by the organization's (b) inadequate sample
manager and workers. (c) non response
D. All the above (d) defect in data collection
21. Programming language 31. Total error in a research is equal
A. is a higher level language than to
machine code for writing programs. (a) sampling error + non-sampling
B. use a variety of basic English. error
C. Both A and B (b) [(sampling error) + (non -
D. None of the above sampling error)t
22. Low level languages (c) only samp'ling error
A. are machine dependent, i.e they (d) sampling error x 100
are designed to run on a particular 32. The probability of a head and a
computer and in the form of D's and tail of tossing four coins
1's. simultaneously is
B. are also easier to learn and are not (a) 118 (b) 116
dependent on a particular type of (c) 114 (d) 1164
computer. 33. Which of the fQl10wing is a
C. need interpreter or compiler to primary source of data? '
convert into low level language so (a) Personal records, letters, diaries,
that computer can understand. autobio-graphies, wills, etc.
D. All the above (b) Official records-governments'
23. High level languages documents, information preserved by
A. are English type languages where social-religious organizations etc.
a single statement may correspond to (c) Oral testimony of traditions and
several instructions in machine customs
language and human being can (d) Allofthe ahove
understand easily. 34. For doing external criticism (for
B. are also easier to learn and are not establishing the authenticity of data)
dependent on a particular type of a researcher must verify:
computer. (a) the signature and handwriting of
C. need interpreter or compiler to the author
convert into low level language so (b) the paper and ink used in that
that computer can understand. period whicltis under study
D. All the above (c) style of prose writing of that
24. Pipelining period
A. is a technique that enable a (d) all of the above
processor to execute more 35. The validity and reliability of a
instructions in a given time. research will be at stake when-
B. the control unit begins executing a (a) The author wh,o is the source of
new instruction before the current information is biased, . incompetent
instruction is completed. or dishonest
C. Both A and B (b) The incident was reported after a
D. None of the above long period of time from that of its
25. Ports: occurrence
A External devices such as a (c) T4e researcher himself is not
keyboard, monitor, printer, mouse competent enough to draw logical
and microphone often are attached conclusions
by a cable to the system unit the (d) All ofthe above
interface 36. While writing research report a
B. point of attachment to the system researcher
unit is called a port. Most of the time (a) must riot use the numerical
ports are located on the back of the figures in numbers in the beginning
system unit, but they also can be of sentences
placed on the front. (b) must arrange it in lpgical, topical
C. AorB and chronological order
D. None of the above (c) must compare his results with
26. Application software those of the other studies
A. any computer program used to (d) all of the above
create or process data such as text 37. A researcher wants to study the
documents, spreadsheets, graphic future of the Congress I in India ..
etc. For the study which tool is most
B. programs to operate only mouse appropriate for him?
functions (a) Questionnaire (b) SchedUle
C. a type of program designed to (c) Interview (d) Rating scale
handle very small instruction sets. 38. Survey study aims at:
D. None of the above (i) knowing facts about the l!Xisting
27. Desktop Publishing programs situation
A. belongs to Application software (ii) comparing the present status with
B. used to literate individuals 10 the standard norms
computing (iii) criticising the existing situation
C. a type of program designed to (iv) identifying the means of
handle very small instruction sets. improving the existing situation
D. None ofthe above (a) (i) and (ii) only
28. ABell (b) (i), (ii), and (iii)
A. is 7 bit binary code (c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
B. developed by American National (d) (ii) and (iii) only
Standards Institute (ANSI) 39. Seeing a very big rally it was
C. represent symbolic, numeric and reported that JD will win the
alphanumeric characters election, the conclusion was based
D. All the above on :
29. Assembler (a) random sampling
A is a computer program that (b) cluster sampling '
converts assembly language (c) systematic sampling
instructions into machine language. (d) purposive sampling
B. developed by American National 40. The per capita income of India
Standards Institute (ANSn from 1950 to 1990 is four times. This
C. represent symbolic, numeric and study is
alphanumeric characters, voice (a) social (b) horizontal
D. All the above (c) longitudinal (d) factorial
30. ATM 41. It is an example of negative
A stands for Asynchronous Transfer correlation:
Mode (a) an increase iiI population will
B. is a network protocol designed to lead to a shortage of food grains
send voice, video and data (b) poor intelligence means poor
transmission over a single network achievement in school
C. provides differtent kinds of (c) corruption in India is increasin·g
connections and bandwidth on (d) poor working condition retards
demand. Depending on the type of output
data being transmitted 45.If you are doing experiment on a
D. All the above large group of sample which method
31. Backup means of controlling will you adopt?
A. To create a duplicate set of progra (a) matching
m or data files in case the originals (b) randomization
become damaged. (c) elimination and matching both
B. Provides difi'ertent kinds of (d) elimination .
connections and bandwidth in The other name of independent
computers variable for an experimental research
C. the type of data transmission is/are
O. None 'ofthe above (a) treatment variable
32. Computers are now used in (b) experimental variable
A. restaurants, automobile (c) manipulated variable
companies (d) all of the above
B. offices and homes 46.The historical research is different
C. research areas from experimental research in the
D. All the above process of
33. Information (a) replication
A is the summarization of data (b) the formulation of the hypothesis
B. implies data that is organized and (c) the hypothesis testing
is meaningful to the person who is (d) all of the above
receiving it 47.The reVIew of the related study .
C. should be meaningful, brief, is important while undertaking a
accurate and help us to our research because
knowledge and decision making (a) it avoids repetition or duplication
D. All the above (b) it helps in understanding the gaps
34. Data. (c) it helps the researcher not to draw
A. can be defined 8S fact, illogical conclusions
observation, assumption or (d) all of the above
occurrence and is 8 plural of "datum" 48. Which of the following is not the
B. in general refers to raw facts characteristic of a researcher?
gathered from different sources. (a) He is a specialist rather than a
C. denotes any or all facts, num bers, generalist
letters. symbols etc that can be (b) He is industrious and persistent
processed or manipulated by a on the trial of discovery
computer (c) He is not inspirational to his
D. All the above chosen field but accepts the reality
35. Data and Information is (d) He is not versatile in his interest
A. often used interchangeably and even in his native abilities
B. not .used interchangt:ably (e) He is versatile in his interest,
C. not used by people to make even in his native abilities
decisions (f) he is objective
D. None of the above 49. Collective psychology of the
36. Logical data refers whole period is a theory which
A. to the way in which the data are (a) can explain all phase of historical
recorded on the storage medium 21 development
B. in general refers to processed facts (b) means the psychology of the
gathered from different80urces whole society
C. can be defined as fact. (e) means psychological approach of
observation, assumption or data collection
occurrence and is a plural of "datum" (d) all oftl1.e above
D. None ofthe above 50. Bibliography given in a research
37. Data item report
A is a basic or indjvidual element of (a) helps those interested in further
data research and studying the problem
B. is identified by 8 name and is from another angle
assigned a value (b) makes the report authentic
C. is something referred to a8 a field (e) shows the vastknowledge of the
D. All the above researcher
38. Smallest addressable unit in (d) none ofthe above
computer 51. If the sample drawn does not
A. Byte-an arbitrary set of eight bits specify any condition about the
that represents a character parameter of the population, it is
B.FM called
C.TPM (a) selected statistics
D. None of the above (b) distribution free statistics
39. File (c) census
A is a collection of related records (d) none of the above
B. is a automated proccS8ing system
C.TDM ANSWERSI
D. None of the above 1 · 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
40. In electronic form, data refers to (a) (e) (a) (b) (b) (e) (e) (d) (b) (d)
A. data fields. records, files and 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
databases le) (e) (a) (e) (a) (b) (e) (d) (a) (d)
B. word processing documentB, 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
graphics, images (d) (b) (d) (b) (e) (d) (e) (a) (d) (b)
C. digitally coded voice and video 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D. All the above (b) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d) (a) (b) (b) (e)
41. Data processing is the 41 42 · 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A process of converting data from (a) (b) (e) (b) (d) (d) (d) (d) (a) (a)
physical format to logical format 51
B. digitally coded voice and video (b)
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above EXPLANATORY ANSWERS I
42. Electronic mail is the 12. (c): When we study about an
A transmission of letters, messages event by 5. (b): Division of
and memos over a communications population on the basis of
network taking a sample from the population
B. Distribution of all information it class, income, education level etc
functions in the office is is cal.led · statistic and a group . of
C. Both A. and B. called stratification and every
D. None of the above member statistical measures is called
43. The back bone of an E·mail statistics. of ea~h stratum has equal
system is a communication network chance of
that connects remote terminals to a 4. (b): In random sampling technique
A. central system or local area every being selected by the
network that interconnect personal researcher. In number of the
computers population has equal this way
B. digitally coded voice and video characteristics of various chance of
C. Both A and B being selected. strata are identified
D. None of the above
44. FAX or Facsimile and studied.
A. is the communication of a printed
page between remote locations . 6. (c): The more the sample
B. terminals scan a paper form and represents the
converts its image into analog code population the more accurate are the
[or transmission over private results of the study. Sample can be
lines/public dial·up telephone system made more representative either by
C. receiving terminal reconverts the increasing the size of the sample or
codes150 into images and prints a by following more rellable method of
"facsimile" of the original page sampling.
D. All the above 7. (c): If characteristics of the
46. Data processing cycle consists of population is homogeneous a small
A. three basic steps-Input cycle, sample may be enough for study
Processing cycle, Output cycle because it may represent the whole
B. terrqinals which scan a paper form population easily.
and converts its image into analog 8. (d): When long survey is being
code for transmission done and population is scattered over
C. receiving terminal reconverts the a large area then researcher selects
codes into images and prints a various groups from the whole area.
"facsimile" of the original page The selection of these groups is
D. All the above bailed on the discretion
46. An Input operation performs two ofthe researcher.
functions, they are 14. (c): In normative researches only
A. It causes an mput device to data are collected from the survey
physically read data, and transmits and after analysing them results are
the data from the Input device to an declared. Thus there is no need of
Input area of CPU manipulating independent variables.
B. It causes an input device to In ex-post facto research effects are
transmits the data, convert into already known and researcher studies
image form the. causes lying behind these '
C. It causes an input device to effects. Here too independent
physical read data, transmits the data variable are not manipulated.
to printer 15. (a): Studies opposite to ex-post
D. None ofthe above facto are experi-mental ones where
47. During processing cycle, a various causes are first presented and
computer performs operations of their effects due to manipulation of
A. data transfer, ALU operations that the single variable are seen. .
operate on Input data 16. (b): Reference collection is not
B. sends data to an output area lies needed in experimental studies
within the CPU (which is setup by because a researcher relies only on
each program) his own results which may be
C. Both A and B different from the previous studies.
D. None of the above 22. (b): It is but natural to face
48. An output operation causes various problems in life and seeking
A. information to be transmitted solutions to these problems is a must.
from the output area lies within the A true teacher always tries to get
CPU to an output device such as solution of his problem by doing
printer formal or informal researches.
B. CPU to record/display 25. (c): Such type of studies are
information on some medium always comparative in nature. He
C. Both A and B should say that Mr. X is socially or
D. None ofthe above economically backward as compared
49. Computers to Mr Y.
A. help you with your banking by 32. (b): If there is only one coin the
using automatic teller machines probability of its being head and tail
(ATM) used to deposit or withdraw is 50% - 50%. If coins are two then
money each will have 25% chance of getting
B. are present in every aspect of down head and tail. Now if coins are
daily living· in workplace, home and four this chance will be 12Y2% each
in the class room and so on.
C. an electrOnIC machine operating 37. (a): Questionnaire is most
under the control of instructions appropriate technique for studying
stored in its own memory that can such problems because a large
accept data (Input), manipulate the sample of the population can be
data according to specified rules covered in a short period by mailing
(process), produce results(output) it to the respondants.
and store this rcsu.ll for future use 41. (a): When one variable is
D. All the above increasing and the other one is
50. A person that commUnIcates decreasing then correlation will be
wIth a computer or uses the negative, zero correlation means
mformation It generates is called variables are independent of each
A. user other and in positive correlations
B. processor direct relationship is seen in both the
C. commentator variables
D. None of these 42. (b): In cross-sectional studies
51. Primary memory of computer population of various ages, sex or
A. stores the necessary programs of religions is taken and their attributes
system software are collected. Then which attribute is
B. determines the size and the common to a particular group is
number of programs that can be held
with in the computer at same time identified by averaging the attributes.
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above UGC Environment VI
52. As technology advances and
computer extend into every facet of QUESTIONS
daily living, it 1. Sericulture is:
A. is essential for everybody to gain A. science of the various kinds of
some level of computer literacy serum
B. is not essential for everybody to B. a r tificia l rearing offish
gain some level of computer literacy C. art of silkworm breeding
C. can create problems D. study of various cultu res of a
D. None of the above community
6S. The main memory of computer 2. Tides in the oceans are caused by:
A. can be divided in two parts-RAM A Gravitational pull of the moon on
and ROM the earth's suCrace including sea
B. is not essential for computer water
C. can be loaded from storage media B. Gravitational pull of the sun on
D. None of the Ilbove the earth's surface only and not on
54. RAM the sea water
A. stands for RANDOM ACCESS C. Gravitational pull of the moon and
MEMORY the sun on the earth's surface
B. is volatile, which means item including the sea water
stored in RAM are lost when the O. None of these
power to computer is turned off 3. Nagarjunasagar Project is situated
C. Both A and B on the rIver:
D. None of the above A Tungabhadra B. Cauvery
65. Computers C. Krishna 0 ', Godavari
A. USdS :;ache memory to improve 4. The diffe r e nce between t he
t.heir processing times Indian Standard Time and the
B. uses main memory for temporary Greenwich mean Time is:
storage A - 3~ hours B. + 3Yz hours
C. uses secondary memory, which is C. - 3~ hours D. + 5~ hours
non volatile to store bulk data 6. Which of the foUowing dams is
D. All tho above not. On Narmada river?
56. Videoconferencing is a meeting A. Indira·Sagar Project
between two or more geographically B. Maheshwar Hydel Power P roject
separated individuals who C. J obat. Project
A. use a network or the Internet to D. Koyna Power Project
transmit audio and video data 6. Which of the following statements
B. use a sattelite to transmit audio is no true about the availability of
and video data water on the earth, the crisis for
C. Both A and B which is going to increase in the
O. None of the above years to come?
57. CD·ROM A About 97.5 per cent of the total
A. stands for Compact Disk Read volume of water av8.ilable on the
Only Memory earth is salty
B. is a silver coloured compact disk B. 80 per cent of the water available
that uses the laser technology to us for use comes in bursts as
C. Both A and B monsoons
O. None of the above C. About 2.5 per cent of t.he total
58. UNIX water available on the earth is
A. is a inultiuser, multitasking polluted water and cannot he used
operating system for human activities
B. was developed in early 1970s by D. Possibility is that some big
scientists at Bell Laboratories glaciers will melt in the coming
C. Both A and B ten·ftfteen years and sealevel will
D. None of the above rise by 3--4 meters all over the earth
59. Virus 7. Through which States does
A. is a computer program that copies Cauvery River Dow?
itself into other programs and A. Gujarat. M.P. Tamil Nadu
spreads through multiple computers B. Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
B. are often designed to damage a C. Karnataka, Kerala, Andhra
computer intentionally by destroying Pradesh
or corrupting its data D. M.P., Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu
C. Both A and B 8. The biggest reserves of thorium
D. None of the above are in:
60. A template A. India B.China
A. is a document that formatting C. The Soviet Union D. U.S.A.
necessary document type 9. Photosphere is described as the:
contains the for a specific A. Lower layer of atmosphere
B. usually exists for documents such B. Visible surface of the sun from
as memos, fax cover sheets and which radiation emanates
letters C. Wavelength of solar spectrum
C. Both A and B D. None of the above
O. None of the above 10. Different seasons are formed
61. The drawing tools available in becau~
MS WORD A. Sun is moving around the earth
A. line, rectangle, ellipse, text box, B. of revolution of the earth around
fill color the Sun on its orbit
B. line style and select drawing C. of rotation of the earth around its
objects axis
C. Both A and B D. All of the above
D. None ofthe above 11. The world is divided into:
62. In MS WORD a title bar A 12 time zones B. 20 lime zones
A. is a bar displayed at the top of the C. 24 time zones O. 36 time zones
document that displays the name of 12. The term 'Hegur' refers to:
the current document A. Laterite soils
B. locate below the menu bar 8. Black Cotton soils
C. Both A and B C. Redsoils
O. None of the above D. Deltaic Alluvial soils
63. Themail merge in MS word 13. Location of sugar industry in
A. automatically creates unique, India is shifting from north to south
multiple versions of a customized because of:
form letter, when sending out a A. cheap labour
specific letter to a different person B. expanding regional market
B. merges two cell contents in one C. cheap and abundant supply of
cell power
C. Both A and B D. high yield and high sugar content
D. None of the above in sugarcane
64. MS Excel 14. Consider the following
A. is a replacement for the statements:
accountants columnar pad, sharp 1. Ozone is found mostly in the
pencil and calculator Stratosphere.
B. allows users to create colorful 2. Ozone layer lies 55·75 km above
charts. print transparancies or bard the surface of the earth.
copy reports, add clip arts and 3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet
company logo etc. radiation from the Sun.
C. Both A and B 4. Ozone layer has no significance
D. None of the above for life on the earth. Which of the
65. The difference between SORT correct? above statements ar.E;'"
and INDEX command A. 1 and 3
A. Sort after sorting generates output C. 2and3
file whereas Index does not B. 2 and 4
B. Sort cannot sort on expressions D. 1 and 4
whereas Index can 15. Atmosphere exists because:
C. Both A and B A. The Gravitational force of the
D. None of the above Earth
B. Revolution of the Earth
66. Operating System is a C. Rotation of the Earth
D. Weight of the gases of
A. collection of hardware atmosphere
components 16. Where are most of the earth's
B. A collection of input-output active volcanoes concentrated?
devices A. Europe B. Pacific Ocean
C. A collection of software routines C. Africa D. South America
D. All of the above 17. The area covered by forest in
E. None of the above India is about:
67. Backups should be done A. 46% B. 33%
A daily for most installations C. 23% D. 19'%
B. weekly for most installations 18. The natural vegetation of Sa van
C. as several image copies. followed a consists of:
by an incremental O. ~ several A. Tall grass B. Scrub jungle
incrementals, followed by an C. Short grass D. Trees
unagecopy 19. The zone of excessively dry
E. None of the above climate with very cold temperature
68. DOS etc. are called disk throughout the year correspond to:
operating systems because A. Arctic deserts B. Tundra
A. they are memory resident C. Alpine meadouss D. Antarctica
B. they are initially stored on disk 20. The fertility of the soil can be
C. they are available on magnetic increased by growmg:
tapes A. Cereals B. Fibre Crops
D. they are partly in primary memory C. Legumes D. Root Crops
and partly on disk 21. India's Oil bearing areas are
E. None of the above mostly associated with the:
69. Whicq of the following is not an A. Plutonic rocks
oper&ting system B. Volcanic rocks
A. UNIX B. MS·DOS C. Sedimentary rocks
C. PASCAL D. CPIM D. Metamorphic rocks
E. None of the above 22. The much discussed Tehri Dam
70. User-Friendly Systems are: Project is located in which of the
A. required for object.oriented following states?
programming A. Madhya Pradesh B. Rajasthan
B. easy to develop C. Haryana D. Uttaranchal
C. common among traditional main- 23. Laterite soil develop as a result
frame operating system of:
D. becoming more common A. deposits of alluvial
E. None ofthe above B. deposition of loess
71. Address Bus is C. leaching
A A set of wires connecting the D. continued vegetation cover
computer's CPU and RAM, across ~4. The coldest place on the earth is:
wbich memory addresses are A. Halifax B. Chicago
transmitted. The amount of memory C. Siachen D. Verkhoyansk
that can be addressed at one time 25. Which one of the following pairs
depends on the number of wires used is not correctly matched?
in the bus. A. Kota - Chambal
B. A set of nooes connecting the B. Bhubaneshwar - Mahanadi
computer network C. Jabalpur - Narmada
C. A or B D. Surat - Tapti
O. None of the above 26. Which of the following is the
72. Algorithm is biggest fresh water lake in India?
A A set of ordprcd steps or A. Dal Lake B. Sukhna Lake
procedures needed to solve a specific C. LoktakLake D. None of these
problem. 152 27. Which of the following rivers is
B. A set of circuit helps in not a tributory of the Indus?
connecting the A. Sutlej B. Jhelum
computer network C. Bhagirathi D. Chenab
C. A or B 28. Which of the following pairs of
D. None of the above the river dam project and the State in
73. Coprocessors which it is
A. is a special processor chip or located, is not correct?
circuit board designed to assist the A Gandhi Sagar-Madhya Pradesh
processor in performing specific B. Tungabhadra - Tamilnadu
tasks. C. Bhakra Nangal- Punjab
B. can be used to increase the D. Hirakud - Orissa
performance of the computer. 29. Match List I and List II and
C. Both A and B select the
D. None of the above correct answer using the codes given
74. Control Unit (CU)- below
A. The component of the CPU that the Lists:
contains the instruction set. List I
S. gives the computer its ability to (Rivers)
decode and then execute a stored (a) Cauvery
program. (b) Krishna
C. directs the flow of data throughout (c) Narmada
the computer system. (d) Chambal
D. All the above Codes:
76. Transaction Processing systems - (a) (h) (e) (d)
A. Store information about A.I 4 2 3
individual events B. 2 I 4 3
B. pro~ide information that is useful C.2 I 3 4
in running an organization, such as D. I 3 4 2
inventory status, billing etc List II
C. Both A and B (D ams)
D. None of the above 1. Alamatti
76. Management Information 2. Mettur
Systems 3. Gandhi Sagar
A. Produce reports for different types 4. Sardar Sarovar
of managers. 30. What is approximately the
B. Automate routine office tasks. percentage of
C. Both A and B forest cover in India?
D. None of the above A. 10 per cent B. 8.5 per cent
77. Decision Support systems- C. 25 per cent D. 19.5 per cent
A. Produce highly detruled, 31. When does the moon come
customized reports based on the between the
information in an organization's sun and the earth?
transaction processing A Lunareclipse B. Solar eclipse
system and based on information C. Sidereal day D. Full moon day
from other sources. 32. The latitude of a place is
B. These systems are used to assist expressed by its
managers in making mission critical angular distance in relation to:
decisions. A. Equator
C. Both A and B B. South Pole
O. None of the above C. Axis of the Earth
78. Expert systems D. North Pole
A. include the knowledge of human 33. The southern tip of India is:
experts in a specific subject area in a A. Cape Comorin
knowledge base. B. Point Cali mere
B. They analyze requests from users C. Indira Point in Nicobar Islands
and assist. the users in developing a D. Kovalam in Trivandrum
course of action. 34. During winter, the northern half
C. Both A and B of India
D. None of the above is warmer than areas of similar
79. A large 1S department include latitudinal location by 30 to 80
A lS managers, computer scientists, because:
system analysts , programmers, A. India is essentially a tropical
database specialists country
B. user assistance architects, B. The surface wind blows in a
purchasing ageots, technical writers, particular
system or network managers direction in one season
C. trainers, hardware maintenance C. The Great Himalayas check the
technicians. penetration of cold polar air into
D. All the above India
80. Automated machine tools effectively.
A. operate from instructions in a D. Dfwinte'r rains
program through numerical control 35. Turpentine oil used III medicine'
B. digitally coded voice and video IS
C. Both A and B obtained from:
D. None of the above A Acacia B. Chir pin
81. E-mail programs often C. Myrobalans O. Kusum
A. come with local area network 36. Which country IS known for the
software most
Qr add-on options or they are frequent earthquakes?
independent programs designed to A. Italy B. Japan
work with a specific network C. China. D. Iran
B. operate as dependent programs 37. In determining the Indian
designed to work with a specific climate, major
network role played by Himalayas is/are:
C. Both A. and B A. The east· west extension of the
D. None ofthe above GreatHimalayas
82. Public Data Service cPOS) is a does not permit the
service bureau, is an organization summer monsoon to cross it and thus
that keeps its sojourn restricted to India
A. provides data processing snd time B. The direct the summer monsoon
sharing services to its customers and towards the north·west
customers pay for their processing C. During the winter they stop the
B. offers wide variety of software southward penetration of the cold
packages, 88 well as customized and
programming dry polar air
C. charge a monthly rental for each D. All of the above
byte of online disk storage reserved 38. Which river is flowing near
for 153 customer's programs and Ayodhya?
databases A. Ganga B. Yamuna
D. All the above C. Saryu D. Krishna
83. Two basic types of RAM exists: 39. Which of the following is cold
A. dynamic RAM, static RAM stream?
B. natl!Ial RAM, static RAM A. Curasia B. Labrador,
C. dynamic RAM, virtual RAM C. Gulf of Stream D. Hakuna Hatata
D. None ofthe above 40. High velds are the temperate
84. The SORT command in grasslands
FOXPRO of:
A. is used to sort the records of a A. Africa B. South Australia
database file in ascending or C. EuropeandAsia D. SouthAmerica
descending order 41. The rock material carried by a
B. takes records foreorting from glacier is
currently opened database rue and called
the sorted records are written in A alluvium B. meanders
another fileoutput file C. nodules D. moraines
C. physically rearranges the records 42. Match List I and List IT and find
in the database in a new file and new out the
file occupies the same amount of correct answer from the codes given
space as unsorted file occupies below
D. All the above the Lists:
85. The INDEX command in List I List II
DBASE III plus (Thermal (wcations)
A. is used to index the records of a Power Plants)
database file and contains only the (a) Kahalgaon 1. West Bengal
key values and record numbers (b) Farakka 2. Bihar
B. takes records for indexing from (c) Ramagundam 3. Gujarat
currenLly opened database file but (d) Gandhar 4. Andhra Pradesh
no output file is generated Codes:
C. Both A and B (a) (b) (e) (d)
D. None of the above A1234
86. Presentation graphi.cslsoftwares 8.4 3 1 2
A. allow you to create presentations C.2 1 4 3
to communicate ideas, messages and D.3 2 1 4
other information to a group 43. Solar eclipse takes place when:
B. incorporates some of the features A. The moon comes between the sun
of word processing software and
C. can incorporate slides with text, the earth
graphics, movie, sound etc B. The earth comes between the sun
D. All the above and
87. Powerpoint the moon
A. has tools with which you can use C. The sun comes between the moon
drawing tools to add these objects on and
a slide the earth
B. allows you to insert sound, music, D. None of the above
video clips on a slide 44. The Suez Canal connects:
C. allows you to give animation A Baltic Sea and the Caspian Sea
effect to each object introduced in B. Mediterranean Sea and the Red
the slide Sea
D. All the above C. Red Sea and the Caspian Sea
88. To maXimize a Window D. Mediterranean Sea and North Sea
A. click on the Maximize button in 45. Krishna Raja Sagar Dam is built
the window you want to maximize across
B. double click on the Maximize the river:
button in the window you want to A. Cauvery B. Tungabhadra
maximize C. Krishna D. Godavari
C. A or B 46. Which of the following States
D. None of the above has rich
UGC-JRF (Paper 1}-20 forests of sandalwood?
89. You can lise scroll bar A. Andhra Pradesh B. Karnataka
A to browse through the information C. Kerala D. Madhya Pradesh
in the window 47. Which of the following is the
B. when window is not large enough smallest
to display all information it-contains ocean of the world?
c. Both A and B A. Pacific
D. None oBbe above C. Atlantic
90. When you have finished working B. lndian
with a window, you can D. Arctic
A. close the window to remove it 48. Light Year is a unit of:
from your screen. '1'0 do so click on A Intensity of light
(x) in the window you want to close B. Distance
B. scan the window. To do so click C. Time
on (x) in the window you want to D. Planetary motion
close 205
C. Both A and B 49. Match List t and List 11 and
D. None ofthe above select. t.he
91. Frame correct answer using the codes given
A. is the part of an on-screen below
window (title t.he Lists :
bar and other e lements) that is List I
controlled by operating system rather (a) Troposphere
than by the application running in (b) Stratosphere
t.he window (e) Ionosphere
B. is used when window is not large (d) Exosphere
enough to display all information it Codes.'
contains (a) (b) (e) (d)
C. Both A and B AI243
D. None of the above 6. I 2 3
92. Start button C.2 4
A. provides quick access to 0.2 3
programs, files and help with 4
Windows 3
B. provides slow access to programs, 4
files and help with Windows List IT
C. is not used now-a-days 1. Dust particles
D. None of the above 2. Ozone layer
93. Recycle bin 3. Meteors
A. stores deleted files and allows you 4. Aurora
to recover them later 50. The Nagarjunsagar project is on
B. provides slow access to programs, the river:
files and help with Windows A. Sutlej S. Narmada
C. is not used now-a·days C. Krishna D. Kaveri
D. None of the above 51. The planets are kept is motion in
94. Memory protection is normally their
done by respective orbits by the:
A. the processor and the associa ted A. Rotation of the sun on its axis
hardware S. Gravitation and centrifugal forces
B. the operating system C. Great size and spherical shape
C. the compiler D. Rotation and the density of the
D. the user program planets
95. The size of the virtual memory 52. AU vitalalmospheric processes
depends on leading to
A. the size of the data bus various Cli018tic and weather
B. the size of the main memory conditions
C. the size of the address bus take place in the:
D. none of the above A. Troposphere S. Ionosphere
96. Which of the following types of C. Exosphere D. Stratosphere
software should you use if you often 53. The greatest diversit.y of animal
need to create, edit, and print and
documents? plants species occurs in:
A. Word processing B. Spreadsheet A. temperate deciduous forests
C. UNIX' D. Desktoppublishing S. tropical moist forests
E. None of the above C. heavily poUuted rivers
97. Which are t.he most important O. desert lands
features of Microsoft Windows 54. The cold oceanic current passing
program? through
the coast. of North America is known
A Windows B. Pull·down menus as:
C. Irons D. All of the above A. Kuroshio Current
E. None of the above S. Gulf Stream
98. Whlch of the following requires a C. Labrador Current
device driver?' O. Falkland Current
A. Register B. Cache 55. Which of the following soil is
C. Main memory D. Disk very hard to
E. None of the above cultivate?
99. What is the name of the A Alluvial B. Red
operating system that read and reacts C. Black o. Sandy
ih terms of actual time. 56. The Hirakud Project is on which
A Batch system of the
B. Quick response system foUowing rivers?
C. Real time system A. Godavari B. Mahanadi
O. Time sharing system C. Damodar D. Kosi
E. None of the above 57. What is meant by the term
100. The term "operating system" "cirrusH?
means A. A low cloud
A. a set of programs which controls B. A rain·bearing cloud
romputer working C. A high-cloud
B. the way a computer operator D. A hail-hearing cloud
works 58. Most of the w~athel' phenomena
C. conversIOn of high level language take place
into machine code in the:
D. the way a floppy disk drive A. stratosphere S. troposphere
operates C. tropopause D. ionosphere
E. None of the above 59. Atmospheric pressure exerted on
101. Data encryption earth is
A. is m.ostly used by public due to:
networks A. rotation of earth
B. is mostly used by fmanciaI B. revolution of earth
networks C. gravitational pull
C. cannot be used by private D. uneven heating of earth
installations GO. The circulation of ocean water
D. is not necessary, since data can occurs:
not be intercepted A. only laterally
E. None of the above B. only vertically
102. A communication network C. both laterally and vertically
which is used by large organlsstion D. neither laterally nor vertically
over regional, national or global area 61. Match List I and List U and
is called select the
A. LAN B. WAN correct answer using the codes given
C. MAN D. VAN below the Lists:
103. If you want to execute more List I
than one program at a time, the (Storm)
systems software you are using must (a) Cyclone
be capable of: (b) Hurricane
A. word processing B. virtual (e) Typhoon
memory C.compiling D. multitasking (d) Willy· Willy
E. None of the above Codes:
104. UNIX operating system (a) (b) (e) (d)
A. is multiuser B. is multitasking A.3 4 2 1
C. can r un on PCs and larger 6.4 3 2 1
systems D. All of above C.3 4 2 1
105. Can you name of the major 0.4 3 I 2
Operating System used incomputers? List II
A. MS DOS B. OS/2 1. China
C. UNIX D. All the above 2. Australia
E. None of the above 3. India
106. Which of the follow 109 is 4. U.S.A.
always reSIdent? In machinery? 62. Which is called the "Tiger State--
A. Batch System ?
B. Time Sharing System A Rajasthan
C. Operating system B. Madhya Pradesh
D. Controlling system C. Uttar Pradesh
E. None oftbe above D. Jammu & Kashmir
107. Paging 206
A. is a method of memory allocation 63. Which one of the following
by which the program 18 subdivided rivers is known
into equal portions or page and core as "Sorow of Bihar"?
IS subdivided into equal portions or A. Damodar B. Gandak
blocks C. Kosi O. Sone
B. consists of those addresses that 64. Given below are two statements.
may be generated by a processor one
during execution (If a computation labelled as Assertion (A) and the
C. is a-method of allocating other
processor time lebelled as Reason (R):
D. al lows multiple programs to Assertion (A) : One of the
reside in p parate areas of core at the movements of
time the su rface water of ocea n is known
E. one oftbe above as
108. Which of the following is ocean current.
necessary to work on a computer Reason (R) : Ocean cu rrents are
A. compiler caused
B. Operating system mainly due to planetary winds ancl
C. assembly the
D. interpreter of the above difference in temperature and density
E. None of the above of
109. Advantage(s) of using assembly water.
language rather than machine In the context of the above two
language is (are): statements,
A It is mnemonic and p,asy to read which one the following is correct?
B Addresses any symbolic, not A. Both A and R are true and R is the
absolute correct explanation of A.
C. Introduction of data to program is B. Both A and R are true but. R is
easier not a
D. All of the above correct explanation of A.
E. None oftbe above C. A is true but R is false.
110. With round-robin CPU O. A is false but R is t rue
scheduling in a time-shared system: 65. Tsunamis are huge sea waves
A. Using very large t.ime slices caused by:
(quantas) degenerates into FCFS A. Earthquakes B. Volcanoes
(First· Come First·Served) algorithm C. Winds D. Icebergs
B. Using very small time slices 66. Through which of the following
(quantas) degenerates into LIFO) countries
Last-Tn First· Out) algorithm does the river Tigris flow?
C. Using extremely small time s lices A. Egypt B. ira n
improves performance C. Italy D. Iraq
D. Using medium sized time slices 67. Imaginary lines drawn on a
leads to SRTF (Shortest Remaining global map
Time First) scbeduling poHcy from pole to pole and from the
E. None of the abo'le 155 perpendicular to the equator are
111. A sequence of InsLructJ.o ns ~ called
in 8 computer language, to get the A. Contours B. Isobars
desired result. Is known as C. Meridians D. Steppes
A. Algorithm B. Decision Table 68. The 23South latitude is known as
C. Program D. All the above A. The Tropic of Cancer
E. None of the above B. The Tropic of Capricorn
112. A characteristic of an on- line C. The Equator
real-time system is D. The Prime Meridian
A. More than one CPU 69. 'Equinox' means
B. No delay in processing A. Days are longer than nights
C. Off line batch processing B. Days and nights are equal
D. All of the above C. Days a re shorter than nights
E. None of the above O. None of these
113. DOS is 70. Summer solstice occu rs on
A. a software A. March 21 B. April 21
B. a hardware C. May 21 D. June 21
C. a data organisation system 71. A lunar eclipse occurs when
D. None of the above A. Sun, Moon and Earth are not in
114. Which' of the following perform the
s modulation and demodulation? same line
A. fiber optic B. satellite B. Earth comes between the Sun and
C. coaxial cable D. modern t he
E. none of the above Moon
115. A local area network C. Moon comes between the Sun and
A. that connects thirty pe r sonal the
computers can provide more Earth
computing power than a D. Sun comes between the Earth and
minicomputer the
B. cannot become bogged down like Moon
mainframe would if the load is too 72. The sky appears blue because
high A. It is actually blue
C. both A and B B. The atmosphere scatters blue light
D. all of the above more than the others
E. none of the above C. All colours interfere to produce
116. Which class of the software blue
packages allow D. In white light. blue colour
people to send electronic mail along dominates
a network of computer and 73. International Date Line passes
workstations? through
A. Memory resident package A. 0° Greenwich B. 1BOoGreenwich
B. Project management package C. 90° Greenwich O. 270"
C. Data communication package Greenwich
D. Electronic mail package 74. Port Blair is situated in
117. We can receive data either A. North Anclaman B. South
through our television aerial or down Andaman
our telephone lines and display this C. MlddleAndaman D. Little
data on our television screen. What is Andaman
the general name given to this 75. Which of the following passes
purpose? through
A. View data B. Tele text Lnrna?
C. Tele software D, Video text A. Tropic of Capricorn
118. The economics of computing B. Tropic of Cancer
data is C. Equator
A. sharing peripherals and O. 0° Longitude
B. giving processorS"lo processing 76. At the Equator, the duration of a
time C. both A and B day is
O. all of the above A. 10 hrs B. 12 bes
E. none of the above C. 14 hrs D. 16 hrs
119. The word telematics is a 77. Suez navigati on ca nal links up
combination of Mediterranean Sea with the
A. computer B. telecommunication A. Atlantic Ocean B. Pacific Ocean
C. informatics D. Band C C. North Sea D. Red Sea
E. none of the above 78. Teak and Sal are the principal
120. The application layer of a trees in the
network forests known as
A. establishes, maintains. and A. Tropical moist evergreen
terminates virtual circuits B. Dry deciduous
B. defines the uaer's port into the C. Tropical moist deciduous
network D. Dry evergreen
C. consists of software bcmg run on 79. When a ship crosses the
the computer connected to the International
network D. all of the above Date Line from west to East
E. none of the above A. ltlosesone day B. It gains one day
121. What was the ftrst Network that C. It.loseshalf·a-day D. ltgainshalf·a-
was made available day
A. DEeNe' 1980 B. Novell Netwarc SO. Siachen is
C. IBMm Token Ring 1985 A. Limiting glacier zone between
D.IBM PC Network 198·1 India
122. What does the acronym (ISDN) and Pakistan
stand for? B. Limiting desert zone between
A. Indian Standard Digital Network India and
B. Integrated Services Digital Pakistan
Network C. Limiting zone between China lind
C. Intelligent Services Digital Pakistan
Network 207
D. Integrated Se rvices Data D. Limiting zone between India and
Network Myanmar
128. Internet is 81. Which oft.he following people
A. network run by the US are related
Government to T.E. Lawrence?
B. a network run by the United A. The people of China
Nations Organisation B.lnhabitantsofMangole
C. a loose network not owned by C. The people of Afghanistan
anybody but used by all unive rs ities D. The people of Arab
and governments around the globe 82. For which of the following
D. a commercial information service reasons, clouds
run by Ziff Davis Co., in US do not min in desert.?
124. What is the name of the device A. Maximum air velocity
that connects two computers by B. Minimum temperature
means of a telephone line? C. Minimum air velocity
A. tape B. modem D. Minimum humidity
C. bus D. cable 83. Which countries are joined by the
125. Working of the WAN generally Palk
involves Strait?
A. telephone lines B. microwaves A. India & Sri Lanka
C. satellites D. all of the above B. North & South Korea
E. noneof tbeabove C. Pakistan & China
126. Video is a combination of D. Britain & France
A. television B. communication 84. The smallest Continent is
C. axllPuter~ D. all of the above A. Europe B. Australia
E. none of the above C. Antarctica D. South America
127. Communication between 85. The longest dam in India is
computers is almost always A. Bhakra Dam
A. serial B. parallel B. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
C. series parallel D. direct C. Hirakud Dam
128. Error detection at a data link D. Kosi Dam
level is achieved by? 86. Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in
A. Bit stuffing India, is
B. Hamming codes located in the state of
C. Cyclic redundancy code A. Himachal Pradesh
D. Equali7.8tion B. Rajasthan
E. none of the above C. West Bengal
129. The hnking of computers with a D.J&K
communication system is called 87. 'Jog' the highest waterfall In
A. networking B. pairing India IS
C. interfacing D. assembling located in the state of
130. Which of the foUowing items is A. Uttar Pradesh B. West Bengal
not used in Local Area Networks C. Karnataka D. Maharashtra
(LANs)? 156 88. Where is the Siachin Glacier
A. Computer B. Mcxlem situated in
C. Printer D. Cable India?
131. During networking, the A. Uttar Pradesh
processor of the CPU asking each B. Himachal Pr~desh
terminal whether it wants to send a C. Jammu & Kashmir
message is caUed D. Sikkim
A. querying B. sharing 89. The standard time of India is the
C. communicating D. polling local
132. Who invented the modem? time of
A Wang Laboratories Ltd A. 81 a East longitude
B. At & T Information System, USA B. East longitude
C. Apple Computers Inc C. 84" East longitude
D. Digital Equipment Corpn. D. 86" East longitude
133. All the parts in a computer talk 90. In which South American
to each other by sending country does
A. digital signal B. analog signals one find the Atacama desert?
C. smoothly varying signal waves A. Chile B. Peru
D. both Band C E. none of the above C. Brazil D. Columbia
134. What is going 'on·line'? 91. Which of the following ports has
A. Buying a MODEM and a free
connecting it to your computer trade zone?
B. Getting 8 PTI or REUTERS news A. Kandla B. Cochin
wire connectton C. Madras D. 1'uticorin
C. Connecting your computer to a 92. Which one of the following
LAN mountain
D. Getting access to the various peaks of the Himalayas is not in
commercial and other information India
services over the dial-up lines or I- A. Annapurna B. Nanda Devi
Net connection C. Mt. Kamel D. Kanchenjunga
135. Which of the following is an 93. Match List I (Types of Natur':l.l
important characteristic of LAN? Regions)
A. application independent interfaces with List II ( Areas Associated with
B. unlimited expansion the
C. low cost access for bandwidth Regions) and select the correct
channels answer
D. none of the above using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Typ es of Natural (Areas Associated
Regions) with the Natru'(Jl
ANSWERS Regions)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 (I) Dry continental 1. Brazil
DCAAACAAAC (11) Humid Subtropics 2. British
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 Isles
CDDCACCDAD (III) Marine West Coast 3. Canada
21 22 28 2. 25 26 27 28 29 30 (IV) Subarctics 4. China
CADCCAADAD Codes: 5. Mangolia
81 32 33 3. 35 36 37 38 39 40 A. I - 5, fl - 4, IfI - 2. IV - 3
ADDDAADAAD B. 1- 2, III - 3. 11 - I, IV - 5
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 c. 1- 2, II - 4, 111- I, IV-:-J'o,
AAADAAAADA D. I - 5, II - 3, 1II - 2, IV - 4
51 52 53 5. 55 56 57 58 59 60 94. Winter rains in north and
CAADDACCCC north·west
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 india are generally associated with
CAACCDABCD the
71 72 73 74 7. 76 77 78 79 80 phenomenon of
AACDCACCDA A. Retreating monsoon
81 82 88 8. 85 86 87 88 89 90 B. Temperate cyclones
ADADCDDACA C. Local thunderstorms
91 92 93 9. 95 96 97 98 99 100 D. Shift in Jet stream movement
AAAACADDCA 95. When the moon is near the
101 102 103 10. 105 10. 107 108 109 horizon, then
110 it appears bigger because of
BBDDDCABDA A. Atmospheric refraction
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 B. Scattering of light
119 120 C. Diffraction
CBADACDCDC D. Total internal reflection
121 122 123 l24 125 126 127 128 96. Savanna grasslands are found in
129 130 A. Australia B. Africa
ABCBDDACAB C. East Asia D. SmIth America
131 132 133 134 135 208
DBADA 97. Life expectancy is highest in the
world in
A. Canada B. Germany
C. J apan D. Norway
9S. Israe l has common borders with
A. Lebanon. Syria. J ordan and
Egypt
B. Lebanon. Syria. Turkey and J
ordan
C. Cyprus, Turkey. Jordan a nd
Egypt
 D. Turkey, Syria. iraq and Yemen
99. What is the correct sequence of
UGC Teaching Aptitude Part 11 the
rivers-Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada
and Tapi in the descending order of
their
QUESTIONS lengths?
1. If majority of students in your A. Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Ta
class are weak you should pi
(a) not care about the intelligent B. Godavo.ri-Narmada-Mahanadi-
students Tapi
(b) keep your speed of teaching fast C. Narmada-Godavari·Tapi-
so that students comprehension level Mahanadi
may increase D. Narmada-Tapi·Godavari-
(c) keep your teaching slow Mahanadi
(d) keep your teaching slow along 100. Among t he following cities,
with some extra guidance to bright which one is
pupils nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
2. If some ,o f your pupils misbehave A. Delhi B. Kolkata
with you in the college campus you C. Jodhpur D. Nagpur
must 101. Among the following which
(a) report to the principal planet takes
(b) report to their parents maximum time for one revolution
(c) improve their behaviour by your around
own character and scholarship the Sun?
(d) mobilize other teachers against A. Earth B. Jupiter
these guys C. Mars D. Venus
3. A teacher in the class should keep 102. Which one among the following
the pitch of his voice languages
(a) high enough (b) low has largest number of speakers in t
(c) moderate he
(d) sometime low and somtime high world?
4. If some students fail in the A. Bengali B. French
examination it is the fault of C. Japanese D. Portuguese
(a) the teacher (b) the principal 103. Which one of the fo llowing is
(c) pupils themselves (d) text books the longest
5. A teacher who is not able to draw glacier of India?
the attention of his students should A. Pinda ri B. Gangotri
(a) evaluate hIS teaching method and C. Siachen D. Zem\1
improve it 104. In wha t regions can the sun be
(b) resign from the post seen at
(c) find fault in his pupils midnight?
(d) start dictating A. The tropical zone
6. Itback-benchers are always talking B. Warm temperate regions
in the classroom a teacher should C. The Arctic and Antarctic regions
(a) let them do what they are doing D. Anywhere at the time of lunar
(b) punish them eclipse
(c) ask them to sit on the front 105. Match the rivers flowing
benches through the
(d) none of the above cities below:
7. A teacher Cities
(a) should introduce the lesson A Baghdad
before he starts teaching B. Cairo
(b) should have command over his C. New York
language D. Rotterdam
(c) should have command over his Rivers
subject (I) Rhine
(d) all of the above (II) Hudson
8. If a teacher is not able to answer (llI) Nile
the question of a pupil he should (IV) Tigris
(a) say that he will answer after ABCD
consultation A IV 1U II I
(b) rebuke the pupil B. I II ill IV
(c) say that the question is wrong C. n I IV ill
(d) feel shy of his ignorance D. ill IV I II
9. Arrange the following teaching 106. Where was electricity supply
process in order . first
(i) relating the present knowledge introduced in India?
with the preVious knowledge A Kolkata B. Darjeeling
(ii) evaluation C. Mumhai D. Chennai
(iii) reteaching . 107. Which of the following is the
(iv) . formulating objectives highest
(v) preseritation of materials waterfa ll in the world?
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) A Angel B. Ribbin
(b) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v) C. Hungela D. Quecanag
(c) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii) lOS. Which among the following
(d) (iv), (i),(v), (ii), (iii) planets
10. Use oftelecast materials intersects the orbit of Neptune?
(a) enhances concentration and A. Mercury B. Pluto
learning C. Earth D. Uranus
(b) reduces the burden ofthe teacher 109. Nubian desen is in
(c) increases retention power A. Ethiopia
(d) all of the above C. Sudan
11. If students are not able to follow, 110. The capital of Laos is
you should B. Egypl
(a) give them prompt D. Somalia
(b) make the matter easy A. Vientiane B. Ankara
(c) illustrate with examples C. Abu Dhabi D. Hanoi
(d) All ofthe above 111. Peso is the currency of
12. Micro teaching is useful to A. Cuba B. Bermuda
students of C. Grenada D. Jamaica
(a) . primary classes only 112. Which oflhe following countries
(b) junior classe~ only is called
(c) 10 + 2 classes only the "Country of white elephants"?
(d) higher classes and primary A. Thailand B. Kuwait
classes both C. South Africa D. India
13. If remarks are passed by students 113. The longest highway in India
on you, runs from
as a teacher, you will A. Kolkata toJammu
(a) punish them B. Jammu to Kanya Kumari
(b) expel them from the college C. Ambala La Nagercoii
(c) take revenge while evaluating D. Varanasi to Kanys Kumari
internal test copies 114. Which strait separates India
(d) be impartial at the time of from Sri
evaluation Lanka?
14. Ma.ximum participation of . A. Malldeb B. Magellan
students IS C. Malacca I). Palk
possible in teaching through 115. Which city was known as the
(a) lecture method 'Manchester
(b) discussion method of India'?
(c) textbook method A. Mumbai B. Surat
(d) audio-visual aids C. Ahmeda,bad D. Ludhiana
15. Which of the following IS the 116. Where is the fa m Olls shore
most important single factor in temple located?
underlying-the A. Puri B. Visakhapalnalll
success of beginning a teacher? C. Mamallapuram D. Chennai
(a) scholarship 117. The new alluvial del.osits found
(b) communicative ability i'n Lhi
(c) personality and its abi~ity to Gangetic plain are known as I
relate to 209 UGC-JRF (Paper 1)-27
the class and to the pupils A. Bhabar
(d) organisational ability C. Khadar
16. The greatest important cause of B. Bhangar
failure in O. Terai
beginning for a teacher lies in the 118. Which of the
area·of island?
(a) inter-personal relationship following is the largest
(b) verbal ability A. Sumatra
(c) know ledge oJ the teacher B. Madagascar
(d) tight handling of the students C, Honshu
17. All ofthe following are the D. Cuba
characteristic 119. Kodaikanal, the famous hill-
features of an effective teacher station of
except South India is situated on:
(a) emphasis upon standard A. Palni Hills
(b) emphasizing group discussion for B. Anaimalai Mountain
the C. Nilgiri Mount-ain
purpose of clarifying the objectives D. Cardamon Hills
(c) emphasis upon the quick control 120. The largest continent in the
of world is:
the problematic situation A. North America B. Africa
(d) differential treatment meted out C. Asia O. Europe
to 121. Which water body separates
students of his class Aust.ralia
18. An effective-teachirig means all from New Zealand?
of the following A. Cook Straits
except B. Tasman Sea
(a) a teacher teaches with enthusiasm C. McMunro Sound
(b) a teacher finds fault in his D. Great Barrier Reef
students 122. 'Radcliff Line' is a boundary
(c) a teacher puts emphasis more on line between
teachi.ng than on class control A. India and Bangladesh
(d) a teacher is interested in making B. India and Bhutan
the C. India and China
subject . matter understood rather D. India and Pakistan
than on completing the course 123. The samallest continent of the
19. The field of education is world isA.
permeated by Europe B. Antarctica
conflicts and misconception because C, South America D. Australia
(a) problems In education call for 124. J og waterfall, the highest
subjectivity of interpretation waterfaU in
(b) problems encountered in teaching India, is located in-
are A. Kerala B. Karnataka
not amenable to rigorous scientific C. Maharashtra D. Madhya Pradesh
investi -gation 125. Which of the following district
(c) there are not good teaching is on the
methods international border of India
and procedures A. Gor-akhpur B. West Khasi Hills
(d) teachers are not worthy of dOIng C. Kinnaur D. Kullu
rigorous scientific investigation 126. Which of the following pairs is
20. The introduction of career not
courses in correctly matched?
schools and colleges aims at A. Panna: Diamond
(a) developing the ability to make the B. Neyveli: Lignite
intelligent C. Mysore: Marb!e
choice of jobs D. Sambhar: Salt
(b) providing professional 127. The earthquake waves which
knowledge to have
students transverse movements are known as
(c) increasing G.K. in students A. Primary waves
(d) All ofthe above B. Secondary waves
21. The main role of education C. Surface waves
according to D. None of the above
Plato was' 128. The first man to reach the South
(a) to develop the power of Pole on
contemplation December 14. 1911 was
(b) to develop the personality of each A. Commander Robert, E. Peary of
individual U.S.
(e) to strengthen the state Navy
(d) All of the above B. Racald Amundsen from Norway
22. Teachers should study C. The Navigator Ferdinand
educational Magellan
philosophy because D. Sir Francis Drake of England
(a) they do not know it 129. Which one of the following is
(b) they do not have their own not t.he
philosophy ' vegetalion in Selva forests?
(c) philosophy' is the backbone of all A. Epiphytes
disciplines B. Xerophytes
(d) they may improve their work by C. Llanas
clarifying D. Hydrophyr.es
their own philosophy 130. Where does the primitive
23. Kindergarten (KG.) system cOl)'lmunity of
o(education Bushman live?
means garden of small kids ;which A. Sahara desert B. Thar desert
IS C. Kalahari desert D. Attacama
indebted to desert
(a) Dewey (b) Froebel 131. Which region of India receives
(c) Plato (d) Spencer rainfall due
24. John Locke's phrase oftabula rl:!- to western disturbance in wint.er?
sa means A. Western region
(a) Tal and Ras B. Central region
(b) free education C. Eastern region
(c) mind its eli is a result ofthe D. North·Western region
process of 132. Freely suspended magnetic
evolution needle stands
(d) All of the above in which direction?
25. A democratic society is one A. North-West direction
which B. North-South direction
(a) follows the principles of equality, C. North-Eastdirection
free dom, D. South·Westdirection
fraternity and justice . 133. How far the axis of earth is
(b) respects the enlightened inclined of its
individuals orbital surface?
(c) believes Ill ' equal educational A. 23
opportunity B.66
(d) All of the above C. 1800
26. An effective teacher adopts the D. It is not inclined
norms of 134. Difference of longitudinal of
the two places on
(a) democratic society the earth is 15°. What will be the
(b) leizes faire society difference in its local time?
(c) autocratic society A. No difference
(d) all of the above according to the B. 1 hour
situation C. 2 hours
27. While dealing with juvenile D. 15 hours
delinquents a 135. Which of the roHowing is only
teacher should star?
(a) play them with filthy sex jokes A. Moon 8. Venus
(b) talk with them frankly and guide C. Earth D. Sun
and
channelize their potentialities in ANSWERS
constructive 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
ways CCCDDDBABB
(e) complain to .the principal against 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
them . CBDAABDAAC
UGC-JRF (Paper 1)- 2 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(d) none ofthe above CDCDADCBBD
28. TV is superior-to radio as 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
teaching aid BACCBBDCBA
because it 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
(a) is costly DCABCBBBBC
(b) invites two senses-hearing and . 51 52 53 54 65 66 57 58 59 60
vision simultaneously leading to BABCBBCBCC
more 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
accurate form of learning CBCCADCBBD
(c) is generally liked by pupils 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 60
(d) all of the above BBBBBBDCAC
29. The major responsibility with 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
which the DAABCDCCBA
school personnels have been 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
entrusted is AAAAABCABB
that 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108
I (a) it harmonizes the needs of th~ 109 110
child BACCABADCA
and demands of the society for the III 112 113 114 115 116 117 ]]8 119
benefit of both 120
(b) it makes the child able to get job AADDDCCBAC
(e) ,it prepares the school programme 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128
according J29 130 .
to the need of the child BDDBCCBBBC
(d) all oftheabove . 131 132 133 134 135
30. The best educatiQnal programme CBABD
is one
which is according to the Memory Based Questions (2007)
(a) need of the child
(b) ability of the child Teaching Aptitude
(c) interest of child
(d) all of these along with the need
ofthe
society 1. Which of the following is the main
31. While delivering leeture if there objective of teaching?
is some (a) To give information related to the
disturbance in the class, then a syllabus.
teacher (b) To develop thinking power of
should students.
(a) keep quite for a while and then go (c) To dictate notes to students.
on (d) To prepare students to pass the
(b) . n0t bother of what is happening examination.
in the
class 2. Which one of the following is a
(e) punish those causing disturbance good method of teaching?
(d) all ofthe ~ove (a) Lecture and Dictation
32. On which of the following (b) Seminar and Project
statements (c) Seminar and Dictation
there is consensus among educators? (d) Dictation and Assignment
(a) Disciplinary cases should be sent
to 3. Which of the following is not
the principal only when other means characteristic of a good question
have failed paper?
(b) Disciplinary cases should never (a) Objectivity
be (b) Subjectivity
sent to the principal's office (c) No use of vague words
(e) Disciplinary cases should be (d) Reliable
totally
neglected in the class 4. Teacher uses teaching aids for
(d) None of the above (a) Making teaching interesting.
33. Classroom discipline can be (b) Making teaching within
maintained understanding level of students.
effectively by . (c) Making students attentive.
(a) knowing the cause of indiscipline (d) The sake of its use.
and
handling it with stern hand 5. Effectiveness of teaching depends
(b). providing a programme which on
isaccording (a) Qualification of teacher.
to the need and interest of the (b) Personality of teacher.
pupils (c) Handwriting of teacher.
(e) by putting on fancy clothes in the (d) Subject understanding of teacher.
classroom Memory Based Questions (2007)
(d) none of the above
34. The most appropriate meaning Research Aptitude
oflearning
is 1. A researcher is generally expected
(a) inculcation of knowledge '. to:
(b) modification of behaviour (a) Study the existing literature in a
(c) personal adjustment field
(d) acquisition of skills (b) Generate new principles and
35. In the final analysis, teaching theories
must be (c) Synthesize the ideas given by
thought of mainly as a process of . others
(a) asking questions and evaluating (d) Evaluate the findings of a study
the
learning 2. The Government of India conducts
(b) directing the activities ofthe Census after every 10 years. The
pupils medthod of research used in this
le) hearing the lrecitation of pupils process is:
(d) all ofthe above (a) Case study
36. The functions of a teacher is in (b) Developmental
the order (c) Survey
of (d) Experimental
(a) guiding the child, helping him
towards progress and evaluation 3. An academic association
(b) checking homework, guiding him assembled at one place to discuss the
and progress of its work and future plans.
assigning further task Such an assembly is known as
(c) Both of these (a) Conference
(d) None of the above (b) Seminar
37. A teacher in the class is (c) Workshop
(a) the president ofthe group (d) Symposium
(b) a director of the group
(c) a leader and guide of the group 4. One of the essential characteristic
(d) all of the above of research is:
38. Teachers primary responsibilIty (a) Replicability
lies in (b) Generalizability
(a) planning educational experiences (c) Usability
(b) implementing policies (d) Objectivity
(e) keeping students records
(d) all of the above 5. An investigator studied the census
39. A teacher is expected to d0,all data for a given area and prepared a
except write-up based on them. Such a
(a) participation in community write-up is called:
activities (a) Research paper
(b) help pupils to solve their (b) Article
problems (c) Thesis
(c) taking interest in politics (d) Research report
(d) sponsor clubs and other school Memory Based Questions (2007)
affairs
(e) keeping students'records Communication
40. In order ' to develop rapport with
your 1. Informal communication network
pupils you should within the organization is known as
(a) guide them (a) Interpersonal communication
(b) behave them in a democratic ray (b) Intrapersonal communication
(c) have communicative ability , (c) Mass communication
(d) all ofthe above I (d) Grapevine communication
41.Verbal guidance is least effective
m' 2. In which state the maximum
teaching number of periodicals are brought
(a) attitude (b) concept and facts out for public information:
(c) relationship (d) skills (a) Uttar Pradesh
42.A teacher meeting his students for (b) Tamil Nadu
the (c) Kerala
first time should (d) Punjab
(a) start teaching without caring the
students likes and dislikes. 3. TV Channel launched for covering
(b) develop rapport with the class only Engineering and Technology
(e) give a broad outline of the whole subjects is known as
subject (a) Gyan Darshan
(d) (b) and (c) both (b) Vyas
43: Before starting instruction a (c) Eklavya
teacher (d) Kisan
should
(a) know the existing knowledge of 4. The main objective of public
his broadcasting system i.e. Prasar
students and their background Bharti is
knowledge (a) Inform, Entertainment &
(b) be aware of the environmental Education
variables acting on the mind of the (b) Entertain, Information &
pupils Interaction
(c) be competent enough to arouse (c) Educate, Interact & Entertain
the (d) Entertainment only
curiosity of his pupils
(d) all of the above 5. The competency of an effective
44. Observable behaviours which a communicator can be judged on the
teacher basis of:
can use in the class to bring home to (a) Personality of communicator
the (b) Experience in the field
pupil an idea or point is technically (c) Interactivity with target audience
called (d) Meeting the needs of target
(a) teaching skills . audience
(b) communication facilities
(c) demonstration Memory Based Questions (2007)
(d) none of these
45. Quality of education in a
school/college
can be measured through Reasoning (Including
(a) infra structural facilities available Mathematics)
(b) manpower, teachers arid principal
available
(c) students'achievement 1. which one of the following
(d) all of the above belongs to the category of
46. Which of the following homogeneous data:
statement~ (a) Multi-storeyed houses in a
regarding motivation is correct? colony.
(a) Freewill, intellect and reason are (b) Trees in a garden
the (c) Vehicular traffic on a highway
motivating factors ac,cording to (d) Student population in a class
Plato
(b) Inborn, unlearned tendencies, 2. In which of the following ways a
called theory is not different from a belief?
instincts are the motivating forces (a) Antecedent – consequent
according to James Burt (b) Acceptability
(c) Curiosity and level of aspiration (c) Verifiability
are (d) Demonstratability
the motivating factors according to
Berlyne 3. The state – ―Honesty is the best
(d) All ofthe above policy‖ is
47. An effective teacher is expected (a) A fact
to (b) A value
(a) encourage the students to make (c) An opinion
initiative
(b) reduce the anxiety level of (d) A value judgement
students to
moderate leyel 4. Of the following statements, there
(c) to make students feel that are two statements both of which
education cannot be true but both can be false.
is their need Which are these two statements?
(d) all ofthe above , (i) All machines make noise
48. The professional requirements of (ii) Some machines are noisy
a (iii) No machine makes noise
teacher as explained in the UNESCO (iv) Some machines are not noisy
publication is/are
(a) mastery over the subject and (a) (i) and (ii)
competency for teaching (b) (iii) and (iv)
(b) Innovativeness ill approach and (c) (i) and (iii)
teaching strategies (d) (ii) and (iv)
(c) justice to the profession
(d) All of the above 5. In the following question a
49. Effective teaching means statement is followed by two
(a) Love, cooperation, sympathy, assumptions (i) and (ii). An
affection and encouragement given assumption is something supposed or
to taken for granted. Consider the
students . statement andthe following
(b) Corporal punishment given to assumptions and decide which of the
students at the time of moral following assumptions is implicit in
offences the statement.
(c) Individualized instruction and
open Statement: We need not worry about
classroom discussion errors but must try to learn from our
(d) both (a) and (c) errors.
50. All ofthe following statements Assumptions:
regarding a i) Errors may take place when we are
teacher are correct except):hat he carrying out certain work.
islhe ii) We are capable of benefiting from
(a) a friend, guide and philosopher the past and improve our chances of
51. error-free work.
(b) teaches what the students do not
know (a) Only assumption (i) is implicit
(c) the leader of the Class (b) Only assumption (ii) is implicit
(d) changes his attitudes and (c) Either assumption (i) or (ii) is
behaviour implicit
ac~ordi~g to the need of the society (d) Both the assumptions are implicit
Drop outs are more likely to be
(a) unemployed 6. The question below is followed by
(b) vulnerable to the. requirement of two arguments numbered (i) and (ii).
public assistance Decide which of the arguments is
(c) engaged in antisocial behaviour ‗strong‘ and which is ‗weak‘. Choose
(d) all ofthese the correct answer from the given
52. Teacher's professionalism means below:
(a) the extent to which a teacher
subscribes to a professional code (a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) a teacher has to teach for the
sakI;! of Should the press exercise some self-
getting salaries restraint?
(c) a teacher must have completed i) Yes, they should not publish news
professional item which may incite the readers to
teachers training course before indulge in wrong practices.
his appointment ii) No, it is the responsibility of the
(d) all of the above press to present the truth irrespective
53. Teachers' professionalism may be of the consequences.
assessed in terms of all of the
following (a) Only the argument (i) is strong.
commitments except .. (b) Only the argument (ii) is strong.
(a) commitment to the profession and (c) Neither argument (i) nor
students argument (ii) is strong.
(b) commitment to the colleagues (d) Both the arguments (i) and (ii)
and are strong.
employer
(c) commitment to the religion and 7. Study the argument and the
castes inference drawn from that argument,
(d) commitment to the parents and given below carefully.
community
54. The first important step in Argument: Anything that goes up
teaching is definitely falls down. Helicopter
(a) planning before }land . goes up.
(b) organizing material to be taught Inference: So the helicopter will
(c) knowing the background of definitely fall down.
students
(d) non~ ofthe above What in your opinion is the inference
55. Suppose .you are an ambitious drawn from the argument?
teacher. (a) Valid
You have high ideals for class room (b) Invaid
teaching but your hard labour goes In (c) Doubtful
vain. The reason underlying this (d) Long drawn one
problem
maybe 8. Which one is like pillar, pole and
(a) Your teaching level is above the standard
ability level of students (a) Beam
(b) Individual differences among (b) Plank
students (c) Shaft
make your efforts futile (d) Timber
(c) both ofthese
(d) none ofthc above 9. Following incomplete series is
56. If a student becomes unconscious presented. Find out the number
in the which should come at
class what will you do first? the place of question mark which
(a) Rushing to theprincipal's office will complete the series: 4, 16, 36, 64
and ?
con vas sing for help impatiently (a) 300
(b) Telephoning student's parents and (b) 200
waiting for them (c) 100
(c) Giving first aid to him and trying (d) 150
to
contact any nearby doctor Memory Based Questions (2007)
(d) making arrangement to send him
to
his home Data Interpretation
57.If you come across to teach a
blind student Four students W, X, Y, Z appeared
along with the normal students what in four papers, I, II, III and IV in a
type test. Their scores out of 1000 are
of behaviour you are expected·to given below:
exhibit? Papers
(a) Take care of him with sympathy
(b) Don't give any extra attention Students w x y z
because
majority of students may suffer I 60 59 74 72
(c) Arrange the seat in the front row II 81 43 A 76
and III 45 51 71 A
try to keep your teaching pace IV 55 A 65 68
according to him without making the
other students suffer Where ‗A‘ stands for Absent
(d) none of the above , , Read the above table and answer
58. A new comer teacher w:ho is below mentioned questions 1-5.
maltreated in
his class will deal with the students 1. Which candidate has secured
by between 60-65% marks in
(a) applying punitive measures aggregate?
(b) improving his qualities and (a) W
expressing it before them in a good (b) X
way (c) Y
(c) changing his class after (d) Z
consultation
with the principal 2. Who has obtained the lowest
(d) giving them a threat of expulsion average in aggregate
59. If a child is a back bencher and is (a) W
unable (b) X
to watch the black board cleariy, As (c) Y
a (d) Z
result he stands, sees and sits
repeatedly. 3. Who has obtained the highest
What inference will you draw average
regarding (a) W
the case? ' (b) X
(a) The child is of short height as (c) Y
compared to his class mates (d) Z
(b) The blackboard is under shining
effect 4. In which paper the lowest marks
oflight were obtained by the candidates
(c) The child has defective-vision (a) I
(d) both (a) and (c) " (b) II
60.A child may have hearing (c) III
impairment if (d) IV
(a) he speaks loudly unusually
(b) he comes nearer to the speaker 5. Which candidate has secured the
during highest percentage in the papers
conversation ' appeared
(c) he generally says, "Please repeat" (a) W
to (b) X
the teacher (c) Y
(d) all of the above - (d) Z
If a girl student requests you to
collect her UGC Paper Information
posts at your address what would Communication
you like
to do in this case ?
( a) You would not gIve permission
as it is 1. Informal communication network
against your own principles within the organization is known as
(b) You will never give her your own (a) Interpersonal communication
address suspecting a foul game (b) Intrapersonal communication
(c) You will permit the girl to collect (c) Mass communication
the (d) Grapevine communication
12
posts at your address because as a
teacher you should do it 2. TV Channel launched for covering
(d) You will permit her bec'ause you only Engineering and Technology
have subjects is known as
some attachment with her (a) Gyan Darshan
62: Suppose you are teaching in a (b) Vyas
minority - (c) Eklavya
college where casteism and narrow (d) Kisan
mindedness victimize you, for better
adjustment there you should
(a) uplift the humanistic values
beyond 3. In which state the maximum
these narrow wall and develop number of periodicals are brought
scientific temper in your students out for public information:
(b) be submissive there and save (a) Uttar Pradesh
your job (b) Tamil Nadu
at all costs (c) Kerala
(c) rebel against such attitudes as it is (d) Punjab
against the norms of the Indian
society 4. The main objective of public
(d) none ofthe above broadcasting system i.e. Prasar
63.' If a high 'caste teacher adopts a Bharti is
discriminatory attitude toward a low (a) Inform, Entertainment &
caste Education
students his behaviour is (b) Entertain, Information &
(a) correct according to his religion Interaction
(bj against the national spirit, and (c) Educate, Interact & Entertain
need (d) Entertainment only
of the hour
(c) not against the constitutiOnal
provisions
(d) not against the code of teacher's 5. The competency of an effective
professionalism communicator can be judged on the
of UNESCO basis of:
64. If a student is-constantly rubbing (a) Personality of communicator
his eyes (b) Experience in the field
and is 'unattentive during blackboard (c) Interactivity with target audience
work he is having (d) Meeting the needs of target
(a) adjustment problem audience
(b) ' hearing problem
(c) visual problem Memory Based Questions (2007)
(d) all of the above
65. If you are irritated and show
rashness People and Environment
because of the inadequate behaviours
shown by others what'do you think
about
your own behaviour 1. Sunderban in Hooghly dalta is
(a) it is justified because behaviours known for
are (a) Grasslands
echo lime (b) Conifers
(b) your behaviour is not good (c) Mangroves
because (d) Arid forests
elders have the right to qehave you in
this way
(c) your behaviour is also the sign of
maladjustment and so try to control 2. It is believed that our globe is
youselfwhen you are maltreated warming progressively. This global
(d) none' ofthese warming will eventually result in.
66. Suppose the teachers are busy in (a) increase in availability of usable
cracking (b) live in isolation or land.
change the group (b) uniformity of climate at equator
filthy jokes and you are also there and poles
but you (c) instruct them to mind (c) fall in the sea level
their language (d) melting of polar ice.
are unable to stop them you should
while passing leisure time
(a) persuade them decently not to 3. In which parts of India ground
waste (d) be critical and remind them water is affected with arsenic
"for the contamination?
their time-in-fifthy jokes nobility of (a) Haryana
their jobs (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Sikkim
ANSWERS (d) West Bengal
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(d) (c) (a) . (c) (a) (c) (d) (a) (d) (a) 4. Sardar Sarover dam is located on
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 the river
(c) (d) (d) (b) (c) (a) (c) (b) (b) (a) (a) Ganga
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 , (b) Godavari
(a) (d) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (b) (a) (d) (c) Mahanadi
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 (d) Narmada
(a) (a) (b) (b) (b) (a) (c) (a) (c) (d)
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 5. Which one of the following trees
(d) (d) (d) (a) (d) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b) has medicinal value?
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 (a) Pine
(d) (a) (e) (c) (c) (c) (c) (b) (d) (d) (b) Teak
61 62 63 64 65 66 (c) Neem
(a) (a) (b) (c) (c) (a) (d) Oak
Note: Steps in teaching
1. Planning before hand 5. Analysis Memory Based Questions (2007)
and Synthesis
2. Knowing the background 6.
Evaluation
3. Organizing the material to be Higher Education System:
taught 7. Recapitulation Governance, Polity And
4. Presentation of material Administration

Communication:
1. Which one of the following is not
QUESTIONS I considered a part of technical
1. Following are the experimental education in India:
learning _. (a) Medical
activities adopted by a teacher. (b) Management
Arrange (c) Pharmaceutical
them in cyclic order. (d) Aeronautical
(f) Avoid teaching when pupils are
not in 2. Identify the main Principle on
proper mood which the Parliamentary System
(g) All of these operates
(i) Accommodation (a) Responsibility of Executive to
(ii) Converging Legislature
(iii) Assimilation (b) Supremacy of Parliament
(iv) Diverging (c) Supremacy of Judiciary
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (iv), (iii), (d) Theory of Separation of Power
(ii), (i)
(c) . (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (d) (iii), (i), 3. The reservation of seats for
(ii), (iv) women in the Panchayat Raj
2; Which of the following methods Institutions is:
ofcommunication (a) 30% of the total seats
is the most effective? (b) 33% of the total seats
(a) presenting written material (c) 33% of the total population
(b) presenting written material (d) In proportion to their population
(c)alongwith film projector
(d)multi-media method
(e)can not be determined
3. Better classroom management 4. Which of the following is a
means Central university
(a) per group work and better (a) Mumbai University
interaction (b) Calcutta University
among pupils . (c) Delhi University
(b) prior preparation of teacher in the (d) Madras University
making of suitable aids
(c) punctuality of ·the teachers in 5. Match list I with the list II and
comming in the class and finishing select the correct answer from the
the course in time . code given below:
(d) getting the attention and LIST I (Institutions) LIST II
cooperation (Locations)
of all the students befo:re starting the 1) Indian Veterinary Research
class/task Institute i) Pune
(e) moving around the room to 2) Institute of Armament Technology
identify ii) Izaat Nagar
pupils having 0.1' creating problems 3) Indian Institute of Science iii)
4. Arrange the following activities of Delhi
interaction in logical order 4) National Institute of Educational
(i) Analysis of the work done Pannesi iv) Banglore
(ii) Plarining and preparation And Administrators
(iii) Presentation of material
(iv) Modification and improvement Key:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (ii), (iii), (i), (a) 1(ii), 2(i), 3(iv), 4(iii)
(iv) (b) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(ii), 4(iv)
(c) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii) (d) (i), (iii), (iv), (c) 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(iv)
(ii) (d) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i)
5. Which of the following skills has
the UGC Governance V
largest share in communication time
in QUESTIONS
schoolS/college? 1. India is a:
(a) Listening (b) Reading A. Secular Slate B. Bilingual Slate
(c) Writing (d) Speaking C. CommuniBt State D.
6. All are the components of CapitalistState
listening except 2. What is the literal meaning of
(a) hearing secularism?
(b) attending-being attentive A. Freedom to worship any God
(c) answenng B. Death ofreligion
(d) understanding and remembering C. Separation of religion from the
Note: These four components are state
used in D. None of these
the order of hearing, atten~ing, S. The Tenth Schedule to the
understanding Constitution of
and remembering. India relates to:
7. Listening is badly affected by A. Panchayati Raj Institutions
(a) message overload-excess of B. Anti-defectionAct
listened C. List of languages recognised by
material the
(b) high speed of speaking Constitution
(c) a sizable hearing loss- D. Procedure for amendment to the
physiological Constitution
problem 4. The real powers in the Central
(d) all ofthe above Government are enjoyed, according
8. The most important aspect of to the
communication- Constitution of India by the:
listening, can be improved by A. President of India
(a) making the attention fully paid B. Vice-President of India
(b) making the communicated C. Prime Minister ofIndia
material D. CouncllofMinisters
novel-interes~ing and need based. 5. The Council of Ministers is
(c) making voice effective and responsible to
impressive the:
(d) all of these A. President B. Lok Sabha
9. Listening to a lecture is C. Vice-President D. Supreme Court
(a) informational listening 6. The Prime Minister is:
(b) evaluative listening A. nominated by the President
(c) emphatic listening B. elected by the Chief Ministers of
(d) none of these States
10. The main purpose of evaluative C. is the leader of the majority party
listening is of
(a) to accept or reject an idea given LokSabha
to the D. is not elected; it is a hereditary
listener post
(b) to evaluate the speaker's 7. The quorum of the Parliament is
credibility fixed at:
and personality A one-tenth of the membership of
(c) ' both of above the
(d) none of these House
11. A student helps a teacher to solve B. one-third of the membership of
the the
problem while the teacher was House
delivering C. one-half of the membership of the
the lecture. He was House
(a) an emphatic listener D. four-fifths of the membership' of
(b) an evaluative listener the
(c) a realistic listener House
(d) an informational listener 8. Why are the Fundamental Rights
12. The process of communication considered fundamental?
enhances A. Necessary for the successful
through: working of
(a) belongingness democratic institution
(b) security and freedom to make B. Basic to the welfare, dignity and
choices happiness of the individ ual
(c) informality of meeting and C. Constitution is based on these
avoidance D. All of these
of pressure E. Only A and B
(d) all ofthese 9. The judges of the Supreme Court
13. Software computer can not be are
used appointed by the:
(a) for demonstration A. Prime Minister ofIndia
(b) for reading and writing B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) as a systematic programmed C. President of India
learning D. Ministry of Law & Justice
techniques 10. The President's Rule is imposed
(d) as a machine for evaluating in a State
students or in a Union Territory when the:
progress A. Governor of a State or the Chief
14. Which of the following can not Commissioner or a Lt Governor
be a good advises
way of communication in promoting the President to do so because the
literacy among villagers? Government in that StatefI'erritory
(a) Demonstration cannot be carried on in accordance
(b) Reading and writing with
(c) providing material on TV and the provisions of the Constitution
film B. Chief Minister of a State requests
projector to
(d) Large group discussion this effect
15. All are the examples of the media C. Chief Justice of the State High
of two Court
way communication except recommends through the Governor
(a) public meeting D. President knows best
(b) padyatra E. Elections are being held there
(c) streetplays 11. The Directive Principles:
(d) procession and rallies A. aim at establishing welfare state
16. The latest development in the of
hardware Gandhian conception
technology is the introduction of B. aim at giving ideals to be
(a) FM channels (b) Z channels incorporated
(c) M channels (d) Star channel at a later stage
17. CHEER stand for C. aim at giving support to the
(a) Children Enrichment Education Fundamental Rights
Through Radio D. A and B only
(b) Child Health Education 12. Agriculture, including research
Electronic Recording and
(c) Children for Engineers and education, falls in:
Energy A. State List B. Union List
Requirement C. ConcurrentList D. None of the
(d) None of the above above
18. Educational TV was first 13. Which of the following are the
introduced in ideals set
India in forth in the Preamble?
(a) 1961 (b) 1959 A. Social, economic and political
(c) 1968 (d) 1961 Justice
19. SITE stands for B. Equality of status and of
(a) System for International opportunity
Technology C. Liberty of thought, expression,
and Engineering belief,
(b) Satellite Instructional Television faith and worship
Experiment D. All of these
(c) South Indian Trade Estate 14. Fundamental Rights of the
(d) None ofthese citizens are:
20. Visualization in the instructional A. non-justiciable
process B. justiciable
can not increase C. justiciable if the highest court fee
(a) interest and motivation ls it
(b) retention and adaptation should be
(c) stress and boredom D. Some rights are justiciable while
(d) curiosity and concentration others
21. Which of the following teachers are not
will you 15. In India the executive is
like most? responsible
(a) On~ who uses board occasionally directly to the:
(b) One who uses chart and maps A. Legislature B. President
(c) One who uses film projector C. Judiciary D. People
alongwith 16. Fundamental Rights of the Indian
the proper use of the board citizens
(d) One who uses motion picture as a are contained 10 .......... of the 'Indian
last Constitution'.
resort A. Part I
22. Overhead projector is superior to C. Part III
short B. Part II
circuit TV In a classroom teaching D. Part IV
because 17. Of which fundamental right is a
(a) it is cheap and self devised foreigner
(b) pictures in it may be shown in a in India deprived of?
desired sequence and with a A. To seek justice in court
minimum oflost motion (material) B. To seek security of life
(c) information presented though it is C. To criticise policies of
easily retained government
(d) it is easy to use . D. To. vote at the time
Which of the following groups of of'Parliamentary
students election
can be most benefited computer 18. Freedom of the Press as such:
based A. has been guaranteed by the
education programme? Constitution
(a) Small group of low IQ B. bas not been expressly guaranteed
(b) Large group of moderate by
intelligence the Constitution
(c) Heterogeneous groups in IQ C. has been given only to selected
(d) All of the above institutions
24. Closed circuit televisIon is useful D. None of the above
25. 19. The Rajya Sabha is:
26.(a) only for a restricted audience A. dissolved once in two years
residing B. dissolved after every four years
at a particular place C. adjourned every six months
(b) for large group communication D. not subject to dissolution
(c) only for poor students of the class 20. Administrative Law means:
(d) none of the above A. law passed by the Union
Televised educational programme is B. law or rules made by the
useful because executive
(a) it can present the natural C. laws relating to administration of
phenomenon nonGovernmental
of the world in natural form institutions
(b) it can magnify the microscopic D. all the above
forms 21. The Legislative Council of a
of life and can be presented on TV State is a:
(c) it affords the opportunity for A. temporary body
large audience B. permanent body
in the same auditorium or in C. semi-permanent body
different locations to view it clearly D. chamber of the nominatt:d
(d) all ofthese members
Teaching on TV is superior to class 22. The Lok Sabha and the Rajya
room Sabha sit ....
instruction because jointly when:
(a) very large classes are made A tl<ey like
possible B. there is a disagreement between
and thus it is economically the
advantageous two (Houses).
(b) experts for teaching a difficult C. the President. summons bot.h the
topic Houses
can be arranged and others can be D. they must meet when two years
benefIted from them have
(c) teaching materials can be fIlmed lapsed aft.er the last meeting
for E. they must meet every 5 years
39 23. Ministers in the Union Cabinet
27. are
(d) all of these appointed by the:
All of the following are the A. Prime Minister
limitations of B. President
televised instruction except C. President of India on the advice of
(a) televised lesson moves at a fIxed the
speed Prime Minister
and thus can not take the individual D. Prime Minister on the advice of
differences of students into account the
(b) it does not permit the exchange of Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
ideas between the teachers and of
taught India
(c) it does not properly help the 24. Who administers the Union
students Territories?
in making the materials clearly A. The President through the
understood. Administrators appointed by him
(d) experts consume much time in ' B. The Prime Minister of India
,planning and preparation of the C. The Law Minister, Government of
programme. Inelia
28. Which of the following is not a D. The Attorney-General of India
successful 25. Which of the following is not the
communicator? federal
(a) One who presents material in a feature of the Indian Constitution?
precise and clear way. A. There is distribution of Powers in
(b) One who is able to adapt himself accordance with 2 lists
according B. Written and rigid constitution
to the language of the C. Independent Judiciary
communicatee. D. All of these
(c) One who knows a lot but is 26. Directive Principles of State
somewhat Policy aim at:
reserve in his attitude. A. ensuring individual liberty
(d) One who sometimes becomes B. ensuring and strengt.hening the
informal country's independence
before the receiver and develops C. protecting the depressed classes
rappont D. providing social and economic
29. Which of the following teachers base for
will you gem:.ine democracy in the country
like most? 27. The Council of Ministers. headed
(a) a loving teacher by the
(b) a teacher of highly idealist Prime Minister is responsible to:
philosophy A. Prime Minister B. President
(c) a teacher who often am uses his C. Parliament D. Speaker
students 28_ Usually a Gram Panchayat is not
(d) a disciplined teacher responsible for:
30. As a chairmanofUPSC while A. construction of village roads and
selecting a tanks
teacher you should be B. sanitation, maternity and child
(a) fair and impartial welfare
(b) able to judge the personality of C. financing of aKPiculturists
candidates D. agricultural production
(c) encouraging to those appearing 249
for interview. 29. Which one of the following
reuse (d) All ofthese provides constitutional
Answers: guarantee of personal freedom?
A. Quo Warranto B. Mandamus
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C. Certiorari D. Habeas Corpus
(b) (c) (g) (b) (a) (c) (d) (d) (a) (c) 30. What does the Panchayati Raj
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 System
(a) (d) (a) (b) (c) (a) (a) (b) (b) (c) signify?
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 A single· tier structure of local
(c) (b) (d) (a) (d) (d) (c) (c) (a) (d) Government
B. Double-tier system of self
Government
C. Three-tier structure of local Govt.
Memory Based Questions June at
2009 UGC NET Paper I the village, block and district level
D. None of these
which day of the week was there on
31. Out of the following, in which
jan1, 2001
lesson, a
Monday
geneal rule is explained first and
wednesday
then,
saturday
knowledge is accumulated on the
tuesday
basis of
Answer: Monday that rule?
Which year did Tsunami hit? A. Deductive lesson
B. Inductive lesson
2004 C. Developing lesson
2005 D. Knowledge lesson
2006 32. For knowledge lessons
2007 A. Glover's Scheme is used
B. Herbart's five-stage systePl is
Answer 2005 ( i think) used
Chandrayan-1 was launched from? C. Garry's scheme is used
D. none of these
Bangalore 33. The project education method of
Chennai teaching
Sri hari kota is associated with
....... A. Rousseau B. Frobel
C. Dewey D. Armstrong
34. "This methodology trains the
Answer: Sri hari kota child to
matching question: search for facts, rules and principles
by his
Answer:
own efforts, organise the set of
headquarters of indian science
knowledge
congress : kolkata
gained and delineate general rules. n
central arid zone research : jodhpur
The
IIPA : New delhi
aforementioned statement is about
....... : .........
the
matchin q:
following metho,dology of teaching
pandit jasraj : indian vocalist A. Montessori B. Kindergarten
ravi shankar : sitar C. Heuristic D. Play·way
udai shankar ; dance 35. In the project education
......... : tabla technique, the
Which of the following is not a 24 work load on the teacher is
hrs news channel A. very high
NDTV 24*7 B. comparatively low
Zee news C. low
Aaj tak D. nil
Lok sabha 36. In Garry's Plan
A. work is important
Ans : lok sabha B. play is important
Four ppl. two ladies and 2 gents are C. learning is important
playin bridge. no lady is sitin facin D. all these three have equal
east. opposite sex ppl face each importance
37. Under the Wennetka Plan
other. one man is facin south A. t he diversity of inte rests of the
which direction ladies are facin? students is recognised
B. the diversities of abilities are
ans: north & west accepted
C. the diversities of needs are
two pretty easy venn diagram qs accepted
were : 3 overlappin circles D. all of these are recognised
representin hindi teachers, english 3B. The Dalton Scheme of education
taechers and teachers were drawn n is useful
very simple qs were asked. for which ones of the following?
A. For infants
3 qs on data interpretation were B. For little children
there. they were also simple. would C. For older children
try drawin later if i get time D. For all of these
catch u soon! 39. Why do you not support the five·
stage
method of Herbart?
A. In this, there is no scope for the
whats a blog; i dont remember all d
individual diversity of students
options
B. Under this, it is difficult to make
but d correct one was a sort of online coordination between various
journal which could be personal or subjects
corporate C. Under this, generalisa tion is not
what is an action research? required to be done while teaching
how bog is formed.......options are subjects like language, history,
melting geography etc.
sea D. all ofthese
close to water bodies 40. In the school, provisions must be
last option dnt remember made for
dnt know the answer free and natural expressions of a
tsunami hit in 2004 not 2005 child."
action research is an applied research Who give this sta tement?
can anyone tell me what is BOG A. T. Remont B. Ryeburn
Which of the following is not C. Montessori D. Lyndon
matrimonial site ? 41. According to Dewry. education is
(a) www.bharatmatrimony.com (b) a
www.jeevansathi.com A. Social need
(c) www.mymatrimony.com (c) B. Personal need
www. uk.edu C. Psychological need
D. theoretical need
52,51,48,43,34,27,16 which is wrong 42. In the context of education, some
no in this series ? views of
(a) 16 (b) 43 Gandhiji have been appended below.
(c) 34 (d) 27 Which one of them is incorrect?
Teaching aids are used for.... A. In education, experimentation,
(a) To make teaching funny work
(b) To teach student at their level and research must be given due
(c) ............. places
(d) ................. B. Education must be self·dependent
Factorial research means C. Literacy is education
(a) To search between two variables D. Education must be such as to
(b) To Search betwwen more develop
variables all the powers and inherent qualities
(c) To test hypothesis of children
Factorial Research means 43. Who is known as the father of
relationship among many variable educational
what is the answer of wrong numb psychology?
series A. Pestology
first indian mobile company? C. Herbart
ans- BPL B. Devy
what are interest rate swaps and D. Spencer
currency swaps?
44. "There should be no difference
Currency Swap between the
A currency swap is a form of swap. words and deeds of a teacher." who
It is most easily understood by gave
comparison with an interest rate this statement?
swap. An interest rate swap is a A. Mcckennan B. J ohn Locke
contract to exchange cash flow C. Rousseau D. Aristotle
streams that might be associated with 45. Who gave the principle of "pupil
some fixed income obligations—say activity?"
swapping the cash flows of a fixed A. Rousseau B. Handezrson
rate loan for those of a floating rate C. Comenius D. Binet
loan. A currency swap is exactly the 46. Personalised System of education
same thing except, with an interest A. does not inculcate a feeling of
rate swap, the cash flow streams are socialisation in students
in the same currency. With a B. does not inculcate a leeling of
currency swap, they are in different competition in students
currencies. C. leads to wastage of time and
energy
Q. Against which act of parliament - D. all of these are true
Naga Customary and their social 47. The educational system of today
practices... promotes
Options "educated unemployment". The
(1) Article 371A reason is
(2) Article 371B that
(3) Article 371C A. education gives theoretical
(4) Article 263 knowledge
only
Answeris : Option1 ( Article 371A ) B. professional education is not a
part of
Matching Q education
(1) Central Arid Zone Institution -- C. the objective of education is not
Ans Jodhpur vivid
(2) Space Application Center -- Ans D. all of these
Ahmedabad 48. The teacher ought to know about
(3) Indian Institute of Public the
Administration -- Ans New Delhi problems prevalent in the field of
(4) Headquarter of Indian Science -- education. The reason i~ that
Kolkata A only a teacher can do something
about
52,51,48,43,34,27,16 which is wrong solving them
no in this series ? B. he can tell about the same to
(a) 16 (b) 43 another
(c) 34 (d) 27 teacher
C. teachers can tell the government
Ans is C - 34
about it
What is meant by the phrase "Buyers D. with this knowledge, the teacher
......................." and "Sellers can
.........................." have information about education
I dont remember what was it actually 49. In the wake of serious shortages
; so ............................. of
resources and rising population of
What did it mean..?? our
I didn't knew.. nation, you have the following views
Went for HIT & RUN.. about
t he programmes for improving the
How can the objectivity of research standards of education (under the
be enhanced aegis of
(1) Through its Impartiality national policy of education).
(2) Through its reliability A They are impractical
(3) Through its Validity B. They are courageous and laudable
(4) All of the above efforts
C. They are new forms of traditional
Q High Risk Zone - programmes
(1) Central Indian Highland D. They increase the workload of
(2) Coastal region teachers
(3) Himalyan Region 50. In your view, arrangement for
(4) Indian Desert "education
on' environment" in the school
Q Chatting in Internat is ( don't A is : 'nportant for creating an
remember exact statement of the awareness among students about the
question) environment
(1) Verbal Commuication B. is likely to put more burden on
(2) Non Verbal Communication students
(3) Parallel communication C. is a mode of e nte rtainment for
(4) Grapevine Communication students
D. is like giving work to teachers
Bog 51. In the school. "education on
environment"
type of wetland ecosystem
can be imparted by
characterized by wet, spongy, poorly
A. lectures
drained peaty soil. Bogs can be
B. articles
divided into three types: (1) typical
C. sports
bogs of cool regions, dominated by
D. adopting it ourselves
the growth of bog mosses,
52. The major objective of education
Sphagnum, and heaths, particularly
is
Chamaedaphne (northern bogs with
A. reforming the society
trees growing on them are often
B. making ~~ude nts discipline
called muskegs); (2) fens, dominated
C. developinJ inherent
by grasslike plants, grasses, sedges,
abilitiesfpowers of
and reeds; and (3) tropical tree bogs,
students
in which the peat may be formed
D. making students followers of
almost entirely from tree remains.
teachers
Typical, or Sphagnum, bogs are
53. Adult education should be under
highly acid with a pH (index of
the
acidity–alkalinity) of less than five
authority of the following
(seven being neutral) and are
A. The gover~ment
associated with waters containing no
B. Non·governmentorganisations
more minerals than are contained in
C. Edur.:ated persons
rainwater, often the only source of D. All ofthese
water for a bog. Fens are watered 54. Education not only conserves the
with groundwater that has some culture
dissolved minerals and that has a pH of a nation, but also it
above five; that is, it is only A. makes the latter rich
moderately acid. Fens and bogs are B. defines the latter
often associated in one area that C. makes the latter spiritual
usually is called a bog. Tropical bogs D. makes the latter mass-oriented
occur only in areas where the water and
is very low in minerals. They are less popular
common than swamps but still cover 55. Indian Institute of Advanced
extensive areas in Malaya, Indonesia, studies is
tropical South America, and Africa. located in
A. Shimla B. Solan
Kothri Commission report was C. Dharmshala D. Chandigarh
entitled on -- System of Education... 56. All India Institute of Medical
Sciences
Who has given the Z theory??????? (AIIMS) is located in
A. Lucknow B. Delhi
Q. "No Man is Mortal" Contradicts C. Mumbai D. Chennai
to ( I m not sure about Mortal, it may 57. NASA is the name of space
be some other name, but the answer agency of __
is All man one's... ) A. Netherlands B. Britain
(1) Some man are mortal C. America D. India
(2) Some man are not mortal 58. National Defence Academy
(3) All Man are mortal (NDA) is
(4) None of the above situated at
251
Q. Good Evaluation of Written
A. Kharadwasla (Pune)
communications should not be based
B. Dehradun
on
C. Allahabad
(1) Linguistic Exp
D. Chennai
(2) Subject knowledge
59. Air Force Administrative College
(3) Paragrapgh Conclusion
15
(4) Logic of represtenation
situated in
Q Assumptions are based on A. Hyderabad B. Coimbatore
(1) Universities C. Bidar D. Agrn
(2) Indian Culture 60. How many Indian Institutes of
(3) .. Technology
(IIT) are there in India?
(4) All of the above A. Eight B. Four
C. Six D. Three
Which of the following is not dual 61. Indian Institute of Science (lISe)
mode university is located
(1) Delhi University m
(2) Madras University A. Chennai B. Kolkata
(3) Banagalore University C. Bangalore D. Mumbai
(4) Indira Gandhi National Open 62. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
University (BARe)
is situated at
There was one question on FM A. Hyderabad
Radio also. don't remember exact B. Bangalore
option. someone please put C. Delhi
(1) Information, Entertainment, D. Trombay (Mumbai)
Tourism 63. Indian School of Mines is
(2) Entertainment, Information, situated at
Education, A. Patna (Bihar) .
(3).. B. Dhanbad (Jharkhand)
(4)... C. Kolka ta CW. Bengal)
O. Guwahati (Assam)
If CLOCK is written as KCOLC, 64. How many Indian Institu tes of
how'd STEPS be written? Management (lIM) are there in
India?
which of the following are obtained
A. Six B. Seven
through learning?
C. Five D. Eight
a. attitude b. knowledge. c. skills d.
65. Indian Institute of Foreign Trade
maturation.
is
attitude, skills, knowledge are situated in
obtained through? A. Lucknow B. Dehradun
a. heredity b. learning .....don C. New Delhi D. Mumbai
remember the other two options 66. Birla Institute of Technology is
situated at
which of the following reserch A. Ranchi B. J aipur
contribute to knowledge C. Kota . D. Hardwar
a. descriptive research. b. action 67. What is the full form of MCA?
research ...... A. Ministry of Commerce &
Agriculture
Paper 1 UGC NET B. Master of Computer Application
1. ―Because you deserve to know‖ is C. Member Chartered Accountant
the punch-line of which newspaper? D. Master of Commerce & Arts
a. The Hindu. 68. Institute of Nuclear Medicine and
b. The Times of India. Allied
c. The Indian Express. Sciences is situated in
d. The Hindustan Times. A. Mumbai B. Chennai
C. Delhi D. Kolkata
(The answer, apparently is The 69. National Institute of Immunology
Hindustan Times. Source) is
2. Which Article of the Constitution situated in
of India protects the rights of A. Delhi B. Hyderabad
minorities to establish and administer C. Goa D. Koehi
educational institutions of their own 70. Central Forensic Science
choice? Laboratory IS
a. Article 29. situated in
b. Article 26. A. Chandigarh B. Patna
c. Article 30. C. Patiala D. Ludhiana
71. Immediate feedback is an
3. Which committee‘s essential
recommendation lead to the characteristic of:
establishment of the University A. team teaching
Grants Commission? B. teaching machines
a. S Radhakrishnan Committee. C. the Dalton Plan
b. Mudaliar Committee. D. the project method
72. The most accurate statement
4. Which of the following pair is about
incorrectly matched? teaching machines is that:
a. N. Ram : The Hindu. A. B F Skinner began the movement
b. Barkha Dutt : Zee News. for
c. Pranav Roy : NDTV 24×7. their use
d. Prabhu Chawla : Aaj Tak. B. they were designed as an
economy
5. Which is the following is a 24
measure to replace teachers
hours English business news
C. they are not as efficient as
channel?
teachers in
a. CNBC.
reinforcing responses
b. Zee News.
D. they can be used for all learning
c. India News.
programmes
d. NDTV 24×7.
73. A set of test papers from a class
6. Which number will come in the of 29
series 8, 24, 12, ? , 18, 54: students has been arranged in order
from
a. 26. the highest to the lowest scores. The
b. 32. mark
c. 36. on the ftfteenth paper is known as
the:
7. What is a modem? A. median B. mean
a. Operating System. C. mcxle O. norm
b. Digital to analog signal converter. 74. In a class 01 ten pupils the grades
in a
8. Gave a series of pH values 4, 5, 7 spelling test were: 97-97-97-92-92-
and 8 and asked each pH to be 85· 76-
correctly matched with the correct 73-65-60. The mode ofthose scores
comments - moderate acid, alkaline, is:
neutral, dangerous. A. 92
B. 97
9. Absorption of carbon dioxide in C. 97 minus 60 divided by 2
seawater leads to: D. the sum of the scores divided by
a. Salinity. 10
b. Raising sea level. 75. Of the following objectives of an
c. Increased plankton growth. elementary music programme, the
one of
10. What is largest contributor to
lowest priority is:
carbon dioxide emission in India?
A. to expose children to ' a variety of
a. Burning coal.
musical compositions
b. Firewood.
B. to prepare children for wise use of
11. In which year was the United leisure time
Nations established? C. to develop a group of performers
a.1944. for the
b.1945. holiday assemblies
c. 1946. D. to provide children with
emotional
12. The sides of triangle are in the outlets
ratio of 1/2 : 2/3 : 3/4 . The area of 76. A culturally disadvantaged child
this triangle is 54 cm. What is the is best
length of its shortest side? served by the school system that:
A. places himlher in a class with
[The following three question was other
based on a graph. The X axis carried culturally disadvantaged children
the name of companies A, B, C, D, E B. gives himlher an annual
and F. The Y axis represented their intelligence
profits; 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60 and so test
on. On this was plotted the lines of C. trains teachers to understand
profit, one each representing the year hislher
2001 and the year 2001. This was impoverished home background
followed by three questions. * Here‘s D. assesses his/her strengths and
a rough sketch.] needs
and provide for an individualized
13. Which company earned learning plan
maximum profit in the year 2001? 77. Recreational reading should be:
A reserved for the school library
14. Which company earned period
minimum profit in the year 2000? B. assigned as homework
C. a responsibility of the home, not
15.Which company earned the
maximum average profit over the school
years 2000 and 2001? D. an integral part of the language
arts
16. The question provided for five
curriculum
sections of a class, the number of
78. Of the following intelligence
students in each section and the
tests, the one
mean of marks for each section.
which is individually administered is
Section - No. of Students in the the:
Section - Mean marks of the Section A. WISe
# B. Pintner-Cunningham Primary
A - 10 - 30 C. Army Alpha
B - 40 - 20 D. Kuhlman-Anderson
C - 10 - 15 79. With regard to readiness to read,
D - 15 - 20 all of'
E - 20 - 10 these statements·are true except that:
A some psychologists believe that a
What is the overall mean marks of all child
the students? is not ready to begin reading until hel
she has achieved a mental age of
[Next three questions were from a about
passage on movies followed by three six years
straightforward question. Of course B. a strong desire to read is a
the questions won‘t make any sense determining factor
here, without the passage itself. C. a reading readiness programme
Suffice it to say that they were child's may
play. Remember that the answers begin for some children III
were from the passage itself, and not kindergarten
what the candidate thought correct or D. physical maturation is a crucial
latest information as a matter of factor
fact.] 80. All of the following tend to erode
17. What word could Yash Chopra local
not pronounce? control of education in favour of
a. Zeistgeist. national
control, except the:
18. What was the costume of the A National Seie_nee Foundation
heroine in Veer Zarra? B. National Institute of Menta!
Health
19 .Which is the latest Yash Chopra C. College Entrance Examination
movie? Board
D. National Defence Education Act
20. Who made the movie Lamhe? 81. When Jeewan receives his failing
test
21. With which movie is associated?
mark, he tells the teacher, "You don't
a. Desh Ki Dharti
like
22.What dooes LAN stand for? me." This is an example of:
a. Local Area Network A identification B. transference
C. egocentrism D. projection
23. What is the URL of an email? 82. With respect to the development
a. [email protected] of skills,
b. [email protected] all of the following are correct
c. www_mail.com except that:
d. www.mail.com A. pupils of the same mental age
should
24. Which of the following is not a learn at the same rate
research method? B. group instruction facilitates the
a. Philosophy learning process
b. Observation C. individual instruction is often
required
25. Research can be grouped as the D. workbooks can be an invaluable
following kinds, except (options learning aid
gave types of research) 83_ If you were reading a series of
a. Action method. articles
b. Philosophical & historical method. about the teaching of reading, you
would
26. What is necessary to become a expect to be reading an article by:
researcher? A Paul McKee B. Albert Harris
a. A post-graduation degree. C. Arthur Gates D. Frank Reissman
b. Analytical and reasoning mind. 84. A student fails a test for which he
did not
27. Which of the following is am not study. By a,scribing his failure to the
instructional tool? fact
a. Overhead projector. that the teacher does not like him he
b. Transparency. is
c. Cassette. utilizing:
d. Printed material. A convers.ion B. sympathism
C. rationalization D. compensation
28. Which of the following about 85. Of the following learning
lecture method is not correct? theories, the one
a. It is passive. that embodies the idea that learning
b. It can give knowledge. takes
c. It can develop reasoning. place through insight is known as:
d. It is a one way process. A. Gestalt
B. stimulus-response
29. What is the aim of higher C. connectionist
education; to enable students to? D. pragmatic
a. Take decisions. 86. The pair of terms incorrectly
b. Pass exams. associated is:
c. Ask questions in lecture. A. IQ-relationship between MA and
CA
30. Which of the following is
B. validity-measure of consistency In
incorrect?
testing
a. Sharmila Tagore is the
C. inkblot-projective testing
Chairperson of National Films
D. median-the middle score
Development Corporation.
87. Of the following, the author of a
b. Preity Zinta, Yash Chopra are
widely
recipients of Dada Sahib Phalke
used intelligence test is:
award.
A David Wechsler
c. Yash Chopra is a member of
B. B F Skinner
Certification Board.
C. William Cruikshank
d. Hema Malini is the Chairperson of
D. Bruno Bettelheim
Children‘s Film Society of India.
88. The project method of teaching is
31. Which of the following best
statements about computers is associated with the philosophy of:
correct: A. .lohn Dewey B. Max Rafferty
a. Fast and accurate processing of C. Robert Hutchins D. B F Skinner
qualitative and qualitative data. 89_ Overlea rning tend& to
strengthen an
b. Processing quantitative data only. individual's:
c. Processing qualitative data only. A. powers of retention
B. endurance
C. feeling of boredom
D. motivation
90. "School is life, not a preparation
for life."
This statement summarizes one
important aspect of the educational
philosopbyof:
A John Dewey B. RobertHutchins
C. Mortimer Adler D. SI Hayakawa
91. A frequency distribution is best
defined as
the:
A number of scores above the
median
score
B. number of pupils scoring above
the
median score
C. number of test items answered
correctly by a majority of the class
D. number of pupils who received
each
score on a test
92. Mai.nstreaming is a term
associated with:
A career education
B. education for the handicapped
C. interage class groupings
D. environmental education
93. Of great importance in
determining the
amount of transference that occurs in
learning is the:
A. IQ of the learner
B. knowledge of the teacher
C. use of appropriate materials
D. presence of identical elements
94. Of the following, the
educatortwho is not
an advocate of radical educational
reform
IS:
A Postman B. lllich
C. Bester D. Row!
95. With regard to standardized
testing,
which of the following statements is
correct?
A the testing of intelligence began in
Germany
B. the Wechsler Intelligence Scale
for
Children (WISe) is a group test
C. the Rorschach test uses inkblots
D. the Thematic Apperception Test
(TAT)
is easy to interpret.
96. Most students in medieval
universities
learned by:
A. laboratory experimentation
B. reading the Bible
C. listening to lectures
O. studying in libraries
97. The term least restrictive
environment
refers to the education of the:
A. handicapped
B. gifted
C. early childhood youngsters
O. retarded
98. All of the following are correctly
paired
except:
A. Froebel- progressivism
B. Dewey- pragmatism
C. Skinner-Gestalt
D. Herbart-apperception
99. Heterogeneous grouping best
serves the
aims of a democratic society
because:
A parents prefer it
B. pupils prefer it
C. it minimizes class distinctions
D. it is the best environment for
learning
100. All of the following are
advantages of
teaching machines except:
A. the control of cheating
B. the tracking of errors
C. the insura;'ce of attention
D. their universal use for different
kinds
of programmes
101. Which among the following is
not a
Fundamental Right now?
A Right to equality
B. Right to property
C. Right to Constitutional remedies
D. None of these
102. The most powerful Upper
Ohamber in the \
world is
A. American Senate
B. British House of Lords
C. Rajya Sabha of the Indian
Republic
D. None of the above
103. Who is legally competent under
the Indian
Constitution to declare war or
conclude
peace?
A. The President
B. The Prime Minister
C. The Council of Ministers
D. The Parliament
254
104. Holding of elections for the
village
Panchayat is decided by
A The Collector
B. The Election Commission
C. The Centr'a1 Government
D. The State Government
105. The time of gap between two
sessions of
Parliament is not more than
A. 9 months B. 1 month
C. 3 months D. 6 months
106. The President ofIndia is
A. The head of the State
B. The head of the Government
C. The head of the State as well as
Government
D. All of these
107. In the context of Panchayati
Raj, which
one of the following is true about
Gram
Sabha?
A This is the topmost tier of the
Panchayati Raj
B. It consists of all the voters
residing in
the jurisdiction of a Village
Panchayat
C. It is the excutive body consisting
of
selected representative from Village
Panchayat
O. It consists of aU the adult males
of the
Village Panchayat
108. The joint sittings of the Union
Parliament
may be summoned for
A. Special address of the President
B. Annual address of the President
C. President's occasional messages of
national significance
D. Resolution of the. dead lock
between
the two Houses on a non-money bill
109. Which one of the following
High Courts
has the Territorial Jurisdiction over
Andaman and Nicobar islands
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Calcutta
C. Madras D. Orissa
110. As per Indian Protocol, who
among the
following ranks highest in the order
of
precedence?
A. Deputy Prime Minister
B. Former President
C. Governor of a State within his
State
D. SpeakerofLokShaba
111. The Lok Sabha secretariat
comes under
the control of
A. Ministry of Home Affairs
B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C. Ministry ofParliament.ary-Affairs
D. Prime Minister
112. Who appoints the comptroller
and
Auditor-Generaloflnwa?
A The U.P.S.C.
B. The President
C. The Prime Minister
D. The Parliament
113. In case of absence of President
and VicePresident,
which of the follow ing acts as
the president of country.
A Prime Minister
B. SpeakerofLokSabha
C. Chief Justice of India
O. Leaderofopposition
114. A bill becomes a law when
A. Both Houses ofPal'liament
approve it
by requisite majority
B. The Council ofM.inisters
approves it
C. The President gives his assent
D. The Supreme Court upholds its
constitutional validity
115. Who examines the report of the
Comptroller and Auditor-General of
India
after it is laid before Parliament?
A. Lok Sabha Speaker
B. Estimates Committee
C. Public Accounts Committee
D. None of the above
116. Consider the following
statements
regarding the Governor of a state in
India:
(i) To be appointed as Governor, one
should have completed the age of 45
years
(u) The Governor holds the office
during
the pleasure of the President
(iii) After completing five years in
office.
the Governor cannot continue to hold
the office even when his successor
has
not entered upon his office
(iv) The executive power of the state
is
vested in the Governor
Which of the above statements are
correct?
117. Which of the following subjects
does not
belong to the Union List?
A. Atomic Energy
B. War and Peace
C. Post office Savings Bank
D. Public Health and Sanitation
US. The Chairman and the members
of State
Public Service Commission are
appointed
by the
A. President
B. Governor
C. Chairman of upse
D. Prime Minister
119. In which of the following states
was the
Panchayati Raj first introduced?
A. Rajasthan S. Gujarat
C. Uttar Pradesh D. Bihar
120. How many members of the
Anglo-Indian
community can be nominated to the
Lok
Sabha by the President?
A.2 B.5
C. 10 D. 12
121. President can be removed on
charges of
violating the Constitution by
A. No-confidence motion
B. Impeachment
C. Electoral College of Legislative
Assemblies
D. Prime Minister
122. The function of the Panchayat
Samiti is to
A. Deal with rural industrialisation
B. Deal with administration of
justice at
the Panchayat level
C. Implement community
development
project schemes
D. Deal with financial matters of the
Panchayat
123. Which Writ is issued by a High
Court or
the Supreme Court to compel an
authority
to perform a function that it was not
performing?
A. Writ of certiorari
B. Writ of Habeas Corpus
C. Writ of Mandamus
D. Writ of Quo Warranto
124. Which one of the following sets
of special
powers has been conferred on Rajya
Sabha
by the Constitution?
A. To change the existing territory of
a
state and to change the name of a
state
B. To pass a resolution empowering
the
parliament to make laws in the State
List and creation of one or more
AllIndia
services
C. To amend the election procedure
of the
President and to determine the
pension of the President after his
retirement
D. To determine the functions of the
Election Commission and to
determine
the number of Election
Commissioners
125. In the Rajya Sabha, the States
have been
provided
A. Equal representation
B. Representation on the basis of
poupulation
C. Representation on the basis of
population and si:te
D. Representation on the basis of
size
126. The salaries of the Judges of the
Supreme
Court are charged on the
consolidated
fund of rndia because
A. they may get salaries regularly
every
month
B. their salaries may be free from
legislative vote
C. there may not be any cut in their
salaries
D. their financial position may be
secure
to enable them to dispense impartial
justice
127. 'Judicial Review' is the power of
the higher
court to declare unconstitutional any
1. Law passed by legislature
2. Judgement of the lower court
3. Order of the executive
Choose the answer from the
following
choices
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
128. Which of the following standing
committees of Parliament has no MP
from
Rajya Sabha?
A. Public Accounts Committee
B. Estimates Committee 131. How
many types of emergency can be
C. Committee on Public
Undertakings declared by the
President of India?
D. Committee on Government A. 2
B. 3
AsSurances C. 4 D. 5
129. The Comptroller and Auditor-
General of 132. Who is the custodian
of fundamental
India acts as the chief accountant and
rights of people?
auditor for the A. Supreme Court B.
President
A. Union Government C. Prime
Minister D. State Assembly
B. State Governments 133.
Education is a subject in the:
C. Union and State Governments A.
Union list B. State list
D. Neither Union nor State
Governments 180. A member of the
Union Public Service C. Concurrent
list D. None of the lists
Commission holds office for a period
of 134. Who can amend the
Constitution?
A. Five Years A. President B.
Parliament
B. Seven years C. Prime Minister D.
Union Cabinet
C. Six years or sixty five years of age
135. The retirement age of a
Supreme Court
whichever is more Judge is:
D. Six years or until he attains the
age of A. 55 years B. 58 years
s ixty five whichever is earlier C. 62
years D. 65 years

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
ACBCBCAECA
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
DADBACDBDB
21 22 23 24 25 26 'l:I 28 29 30
BBCADDCCDC
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 411
ABCCADDCDC
41 42 43 44 .., 46 47 48 49 50
ACCADDBABA
51 52 53 54 65 56 57 68 59 60
DCBAABCABA
61 62 63 54 65 66 In 68 69 70
CDBACABCAA
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
BAABCDDADB
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
DADCABAAAA
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
DBDCCCACCD
101 102 103 104 105 lOG 107 108
109 110
BAADDABDBC
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
119 120
CBCCCDDBAA
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128
 129 130
BCCBBDCBCD
131 . 132 133 134 135
BACBD

MODEL UGC -NET PAPER I

This sample paper in for Paper I of the UGC NET Exam which is common for all
streams.

1. Which one of the following is the main objective of teaching?

(A) To give information related to the syllabus. (B) To develop thinking power of
students. (C) To dictate notes to students. (D) To prepare students to pass the
examination.

2. Which one of the following is a good method of teaching?

(A) Lecture and Dictation (B) Seminar and Project (C) Seminar and Dictation

(D) Dictation and Assignment

3. Teacher uses teaching aids for

(A) Making teaching interesting (B) Making teaching within understanding level of
students

(C) Making students attentive. (D) The sake of its use.

4. Effectiveness of teaching depends on

(A) Qualification of teacher (B) Personality of teacher

(C) Handwriting of teacher (D) Subject understanding of teacher

5. Which of the following is not characteristic of a good question paper?

(A) Objectivity (B) Subjectivity (C) No use of vague words (D) Reliable.
6. A researcher is generally expected to:

(A) Study the existing literature in a field (B) Generate new principles and theories

(C) Synthesize the idea given by others (D) Evaluate the findings of a study

7. One of the essential characteristics of research is:

(A) Replicability (B) Generalizability (C) Usability (D) Objectivity

8. The Government of India conducts Census after every 10 years. The method of
research used in this process is:

(A) Case Study (B) Developmental (C) Survey (D) Experimental

9. An academic association assembled at one place to discuss the progress of its work and
future plans. Such an assembly is known as a

(A) Conference (B) Seminar (C) Workshop (D) Symposium

10. An investigator studied the census date for a given area and prepared a write-up based
on them. Such a write-up is called

(A) Research paper (B) Article (C) Thesis (D) Research report

Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 11 to 15

The constitution guarantees every citizen the fundamental right to equality. Yet after 50
years of independence, just one perusal of the female infant mortality figures, the literacy
rates and the employment opportunities for women is sufficient evidence that
discrimination exists. Almost predictably, this gender, bias is evident in our political
system as well. In the 13th Lok Sabha, there were only 43 women MPs out of total of
543; it is not a surprising figure, for never has women's representation in Parliament been
more than 10 per cent.

Historically, the manifestos of major political have always encouraged women's

participation. It has been merely a charade. So, women's organizations, denied a place on
merit, opted for the last resort; a reservation of seats for women in parliament and State
Assemblies. Parties, which look at everything with a vote bank in mind, seemed to
endorse this. Alas, this too was a mirage.

But there is another aspect also. At a time when caste is the trump card, some politicians
want the bill to include further quotas fro women from among minorities and backward
castes. There is more to it. A survey shows that there is a general antipathy towards the
bill. It is actually a classic case of doublespeak: in public, politicians were endorsing
women's reservation but in the backrooms of Parliament, they were busy sabotaging it.
The reasons are clear: Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power.

11. The problem raised in the passage reflects badly on our

(A) Political system (B) Social behaviour (C) Individual behaviour

(D) Behaviour of a group of people

12. According to the passage, political parties have mostly in mind

(A) Economic prosperity (B) Vote bank (C) People' welfare (D) Patriotism

13. "Trump Card" means

(A) Trying to move a dead horse (B) Playing the card cautiously

(C) Sabotaging all the moves by others (D) Making the final jolt for success

14. The sentence "Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power" implies

(A) Lust for power (B) Desire to serve the nation

(C) Conviction in one's own political abilities (D) Political corruption

15. What is the percentage of women in the Lok Sabha

(A) 10 (B) 7. 91 (C) 43 (D) 9. 1

16. Informal communication network within the organization is knows as

(A) Interpersonal communication (B) Intrapersonal Communication

(C) Mass Communication (D) Grapevine Communication

17. TV Channel launched fro covering only Engineering and Technology subject is
known as

(A) Gyan Darshan (B) Vyas (C) Eklavya (D) Kisan

18. In which state the maximum number of periodicals are brought out for public
information:

(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Kerala (D) Punjab

19. The main objective of public broadcasting system i. e Prasar Bharti is

(A) Inform, Entertainment & Education (B) Entertain, Information & Interaction

(C) Educate, Interact & entertain (D) Entertainment only

20. The competerrcy of an effective communicator can be judged on the basis of:

(A) Personality of communicator (B) Experience in the field

(C) Interactivity with target audience (D) Meeting the needs of target audience.

21. Which one of the following belongs to the category of homogeneous date:

(A) Multi-storeyed houses in a colony (B) Trees in a garden

(C) Vehicular traffic on a highway (D) Student population in a class

22. In which of the following ways a theory is not different from a belief?

(A) Antecedent – consequent (B) Acceptability

(C) Verifiability (D) Demonstratability

23. The state - "Honesty is the best policy" is

(A) A fact (B) An value (C) An opinion (D) A value judgement

24. Which one is like pillar, pole and standard?

(A) Beam (B) Plank (C) Shaft (D) Timber

25. Following incomplete series is presented. Find out the number which should come at
the place of question mark which will complete the series: 4, 16, 36, 64, ?

(A) 300 (B) 200 (C) 100 (D) 150

26. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two big circles
represent animals living on soil and those living in water, and the small circle stands for
the animals who both live on soil and in water, which figure represents the relationships
among them.

27. Of the following statement, there are two statements both of which cannot be true but
both can be false. Which are these two statements?

(i) All machines make noise (ii) Some machines are noisy

(iii) No machine makes noise (iv) Some machines are not noisy
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)

28. In the following question a statement is followed by two assumptions.

(i) and (ii) . An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the following
assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: We need not worry about errors but must try to learn from our errors.

Assumptions:

(i) Errors may take place when we are carrying out certain work.

(ii) We are capable of benefiting from the past and improve our chances of error-free
work.

(A) Only assumption (i) is implicit (B) Only assumption (ii) is implicit

(C) Either assumption (i) or (ii) is implicit (D) Both the assumptions are implicit

29. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered (i) and (ii) Decide which
of the arguments is 'strong' and which is 'weak'. Choose the correct answer from the given
below Should the press exercise some self-restraint?

(i) Yes, they should not publish new items which may incite the readers to indulge in
wrong practices.

(ii) No. it is the responsibility of the press to present the truth irrespective of the
consequences.

(A) Only the argument (i) is strong (B) Only the argument (ii) is strong

(C) Neither argument (i) nor (ii) is strong (D) Both the arguments (i) and (ii) are strong

30. Study the argument and the inference drawn from that argument. Given below
carefully.

Argument: Anything that goes up definitely falls down. Helicopter goes up. Inference: So
the helicopter will definitely fall down.

What in your opinion is the inference drawn from the argument?

(A) Valid (B) Invalid (C) Doubtful (D) Long drawn one
Four students W, X, Y, Z appeared in four papers, I, II, III and IV in a test. Their scores
out of 100 are given below.

Papers
Students
I II III IV
W 60 81 45 55
X 59 43 51 A
Y 74 A 71 65
Z 72 76 A 68
Where 'A' stands for absent

Where 'A' stands for absent

Read the above table and answer below mentioned Questions 31 to 35

31. Which candidate has secured between 60-65% marks in aggregate

(A) W (B) X (C) Y (D) Z

32. Who has obtained the lowest average in aggregate.

(A) W (B) X (C) Y (D) Z

33. Who has obtained the highest average

(A) W (B) X (C) Y (D) Z

34. In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by thecandiates

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

35. Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers appeared

(A) W (B) X (C) Y (D) Z

36. ICT stands for

(A) Information common technology (B) Information & communication technology

(C) Information and computer technology (D) Inter connected technology

37. Computer Can

(A) Process both quantitative and qualitative information (B) Store huge information
(C) Process information and fast accurately (D) All the above.

38. Satellite Communication works through

(A) Rader (B) Transponder (C) Receptor (D) Transmitter

39. A Computer is that machine which works more like a human brain. This definition of
computer is

(A) Correct (B) Incorrect (C) Partially correct (D) None of the above.

40. Information and communication technology includes

(A) E-mail (B) Internet (C) Education television (D) All the above.

41. It is believed that our globe is warming progressively. This global warming will
eventually result in.

(A) Increase in availability of usable land. (B) Uniformity of climate at equator and
poles. (C) Fall in the sea level (D) melting of polar ice.

42. In which parts of India ground water is affected with arsenic contamination?

(A) Haryana (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Sikkim (D) West Bengal

43. Sunderban in Hooghly delta is known for

(A) Grasslands (B) Conifers (C) Mangroves (D) Arid forests

44. Sardar Sarover dam is located on the river

(A) Ganga (B) Godavari (C) Mahanadi (D) Narmada

45. Which one of the following trees has medicinal value?

(A) Pine (B) Teak (C) Neem (D) Oak

46. Which one of the following is not considered a part of technical education in India:

(A) Medical (B) Management (C) Pharmaceutical (D) Aeronautical

47. Which of the following is a Central university

(A) Mumbai University (B) Calcutta University

(C) Delhi University (D) Madras University

48. Identify the main Principle on which the Parliamentary System Operates

(A) Responsibility of Executive to Legislature (B) Supremacy of Parliament

(C) Supremacy of Judiciary (D) Theory of Separation of Power

49. The reservation of seats for women in the Panchayat Raj Institutions is:

(A) 30 % of the total seats (B) 33 % of the total seate

(C) 33% of the total population (D) In Proportion to their population

50. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

LIST ( Institutions) LIST II( Locations)

1. Indian Veterinary Research Institute (i) Pune

2. Institute of Armament Technology (ii) Izat Nagar

3. Indian Institute of Science (iii) Delhi

4. National Institute for Educational Pannesi (iv) Bangalore and Administrators

(A) 1(ii), 2(i), 3(iv), 4(iii) (B) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(ii), 4(iii)

(C) 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(iv) (D) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i)

Source: Sample Paper based on questions provided by UGC Model Paper.

Answer Key:

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. B
11. B 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. A 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. D
31. A 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. B 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. D
41. D 42. D 43. C 44. D 45. C 46. A 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. A

UGC December 2002 (Memory Based Paper I)

Note. This paper contains fifty(50) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying two
(2) marks. Attempt all of them.

1.There are six villages A, B, C, D, E and F.

F is 1 km west of D, B is 1 km east of E , A is 2 km north of E , C is 1 km east of A
D is 1 km south of A Which of these villages are in a line?
a) A, C and B b) A, D and E c) C, Band F d) E, Band D

2.Consider the Table given. On the basis of this Table, one could conclude that 'X' is
proportional to
a) (Y + Z) b) YIZ c) (Y - Z) dY'YZ

3.Four persons. A, B, C and D had fruits from an open-air fruit stall. 'A' took grapes and
pineapple; 'B' ate grapes and oranges; 'C' took orange, pineapple and apple; 'D' ate grapes,
apple and pineapple. After taking fruits, B and C were taken ill. The most likely cause of
illness of B and C is the consumption of
a) apple bj pineapple c) grapes d) orange

4.The given histogram shows the frequency distribution of height (the number of students
in the given height range) of 30 students in a class. Which of the following statements
based on this histogram is/are correct?
X1YZ
20 10 5
30 25 3
45 15 15/2
120 125 130 -' 35 140 145 150 Height in cm 10 he height of most of the students is
between 135 cm and 140 cm.
2.There are only two students whose heights are between 120 cm and 125 CM
3.Fifty percent of the students have their heights between 130 cm and 140 cm.Select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 2 alone

5. Two one-rupee coins are placed flat on a table. One coin `A' is rotated around the
periphery of the other coin 'B' without slipping, till the original point of contact between
the coins returns to its initial position The number of rotations made by coin 'A' in a fixed
friction is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 3 d) 1

6.Five persons, a professor (A), an IAS Officer (B), an Engineer (C), a Politician (D) and
a Doctor (E) live in five flats. The flats are built in such a manner that one is on top of
another, as one would see in a five-storey building 'A' has to go up to meet his friend
'B'. 'E' is friendly with everyone and has to go up as frequently as to go down. 'C' above
whose flat lives 'A's friend. From the ground floor upwards, the correct sequence of the
location of the flats of these persons is
a) C, A, B, E, D b} A, C, E, B, D c) B,C, A, E, D d) A, D, E, C, B

7. Consider the following statements regarding cars parked at a parking lot:

1. All the Maruti cars parked here are white.
2. Some of these cars have radial tyres.
3. All Maruti cars manufactured after 1986 have radial tyres.
4. All cars are not Marutis.
Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the statements given above?
A) Only white Maruti cars with radial tyres are parked here
B) Some white Maruti cars with radial tyres are parked here
C) Cars other than Maruti do not have radial tyres
D) Most of the Maruti cars parked here were manufactured before 1986.

8. The graph shown in the figure relates to sales figures in thousands of TV sets of a
particular company for the period 1990-97. On the basis of this graph, which of the
following inferences would be valid?
1. TV sales increased constantly from '90 to'93.
2. Sales did not improve in `93-'95.
3. There was a sharp drop in sales in `95-96
4. Sales are not likely to improve from '97 onwards.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 B) 2 and 4 c)1,3 and 4 d) 1,2 and 3

9. The monthly income of a family is Rs. 3000. 20% of it is spent on children's education.
Out
of the balance, 15% is spent on house rent and from what is left, 50% is spEjnt on
provisions. Then which of the following statements would be true?
1. The amount spent on children's education is Rs. 600.
2. The amount spent on house rent is Rs. 450.
3. The amount spent on provisions is Rs. 1020
4. The family has Rs. 1020 per month for other expenses.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 1,3 and 4
c) 2 and 4 d) 1 and 3

10.Who is legally competent under the Indian Constitution to declare war or conclude
peace?
a} The President b) The Prime Minister The Council of Ministers d) The Parliament

11. The Road Ahead' is a book written by

a) Jyoti Basu b) L. K. Advani c) Bill Clinton d} Bill Gates
12. Which year shows the maximum percentage of export with respect of production?
a) 1992 b) 1993 c) 1996 d) 1995

13. The population of India in 1993 was

a) 800 million b) 1080 million c) 985 million d) 900 million

14. If the area under tea production was less by 10% in 1994 than 1993, then the
approximate rate of increase in productivity of tea in 1994 was
a) 97.22 b) 3 c) 35 d) Cannot be determined

15. The average proportion of tea exported to the tea produced over the period is
a) 0.87 b) 0.47 c) 0.48 d) 0.66

16. What is the first half decade's average per capita availability of tea?
a) 457 gms b) 535 gms c) 446 gms d) 430 gms

17.In which year was the per capita availability of tea minimum?
a) 1996 b) 1994 c) 1991 d) None of these

18. In which year was there minimum percentage explosion can make a rapid progress.
of export with respect to production?
a) 1991 b) 1992 c) 1993 d) 1994

19. In which year we had maximum quantity of tea for domestic consumption?
a) 1994 b) 1991 population explosion can make a rapid
c) 1993 d) 1996 proqress. Directions for questions 20 to
23: All India Monsoon Rainfall (1990 to 1999) June -September

20. The normal rainfall during the period 1990-1999 was experienced in the year(s)
a) 1994 b) 1993 & 1995 c) 1996-97 d) 1990

21. The year ..... witnessed the least rainfall.

a) 1991 b} 1999 c) 1992 d) 1993

22. Out of the 10 years studied, how many had above normal rainfall?
a} 3 b) 7 c) 5 d) 6
Directions for questions 23 to 27: Each of the following incomplete arguments is
followed by four sentences. One of the four completes the argument in order to justify
the conclusion. Pick that out.

23. India cannot make a rapid progress because India has a problem of population
explosion.
a) No country with population explosion can make a rapid progress.
b) Only a country without population
c) Some countries with population problem cannot make a rapid progress.
d) All countries which have a problem ofpopulation explosion can make a rapid proqress.

24. Man learns through experience as he has initiative by nature.

a) Some persons who take initiative by nature learn through experience.
b) All who have initiative by nature learn through experience.
c) None who has initiative by nature learns through experience.
d) Only few with initiative learn through experience.

25.We have now to fight for peace with some courage and determination as we fought
against aggression.
a) Many are fighting for peace who have fought against aggression.
b) All those who have fought against aggression should fight for peace
c) Some who are fighting for peace have fought against aggression.
d) None is fighting for peace who have fought for aggression.

26. Whom the gods love dies young.

a) Many die young who are gods.
b) Few die young who are gods
c) some who are loved by the gods die young
d) all those who love the gods die young

27. Education has produce a vast population able to read but unable to distinguish what is
worth readlng

28.If the ratio of boys to girls in a class is B and the ratio of girls to boys is G, then 3 (B +
G) is
a) equal to 3 b) less than 3 c) more than 3 d) less than 1/3

29. Tea worth Rs. 126 per kg and Rs. 135 per kg are mixed with a third variety in the
ratio 1 : 1 : 2. If the mixture is worth Rs. 153 per kg the price of the third variety per kg
will be
a) Rs. 169.50 b) Rs. 170 c) Rs. 175.50 d) Rs. 180

30. The average of 11 numbers is 10.9. If the average of the first six numbers is 10.5 and
that of the last six numbers is 11.4, then the middle (61") number is
a) 11.5 b) 11.4 c) 11.3 d) 11.0

31. there are 30 students in a class . the average are of the first 10 student is 12.5 years.
the average are of the next 20 student is 13.1 years. the average age of the whole class is.
a) 12.5 years b)12.7 c) 12.8 d) 12.9 years

32. the perimeter of one face of cube is 20 cm. its volume must be
a) 8000 cm3 b) 100 cm3 c) 125cm3 d) 400 cm3
33.the number of revolutions made by a wheel of diameter 56 cm in covering a distance
of 1.1 km is (use p=22/7)
a) 31.25 b) 56.25 c) 625 d) 62.5

Direction: Read the passages below and answer the question based on them :
Passage 1
the world of computer enthusiasts is in the grip of an ethical crisis. should copmuter
viruses be classified as a life form? will consensus-building agencies take up the case for
virus rights, protest the death penalty, demand that their clents be set apart in enclaves ?
None of this is beyond the bound of probabilty, considering the pitch of the debates that
rage on the internet, the global computer network set up 30 years ago by the U.S. defence
research establishment. A new society is coming to birth in virtual reality; one is easily
seduced into forgetting that these bizarre events are taking place inside a Xerox
corporation computer at Palo Alto, California. If the science fiction of the '30s gave the
world the concept of the Cyborg, a creature half human and half-computer, the Internet
today seems poised on the verge of the Cyborg. If a recent case is any indication, the
simple etiquette which has so far governed social behaviour among Internet users will no
longer suffice to administer this electronic Wild West. That solecisms in the world's latest
frontier of society have attained a real-world level of scandal is obvious from the manner
in which, earlier this year, an electronic intruder broke into a conversation among female
users and aimed obscene visuals at them. This raised a storm of outrage. Internet users
first bombarded his electronic mail box with rebukes and then had him expelled. The
issue leads into uncharted philosophical territory: in virtual space, can one deterenine
where the body ends and mind begins? At what point do word and image translate as act?
Human society seems to possess a reverse Midas touch, contaminating every system it
comes into contact with. The day is not distant when all the vicious impulses of the real
world will have colonised virtuality, and another Utopia will have gone down the chute.

34. The central idea being followed in the passage is:

(a) the danger posed by viruses to Internetusers
(b) the status of sanctity of computer information routes.
(c) the degrading moral standards of our Society
(d) the role of morality it-, !he formation of computer information high-ways,

35. The term chute' in the passage specifically refers to:

(a) the concept of the Cyborg
(b) the science fiction of the `30s.
(c) a creature half human and half computer of the science fiction of the 30s.
(d) none of the above.

36. The term "solecisms" is used to highlight:

(a) the basic codes of ethical conduct
(b) breach of protocol
(c) the role of virus affected information
(d) none of the above
Passage - 2
The difference between different kinds of writing lies not so much in the writing itself,
but in the way we look at it (and, of course, in the way the author wished us to look at it;
but we often know very little about that). Literary forms do not exist outside our own
minds. When we read anything, no matter what - a description of a scientific experiment,
a history book, a ballad, or a novel -- in so far as we pay attention only to what things are
happening one after another to something or somebody, it is a story; in so far as we read
it only to learn the way in which something or someone behaves in certain circumstances,
it is science; in so far as we read it only to find out what has actually happened in the
past, it is history People often ask what is the difference beaween poetry and prose. The
only difference is :-,l the way the writer looks at things. For instance, the novelist starts
with a general idea in his mind; say, that people are always trying to escape from their
responsibilities, and that escape only leaves them in a worse mess. Then he writes a story
about what happened to Mr. and Mrs. Smith. He may never say, in so many words, that
they tried to escape, never mention his idea, but this idea is the force that drives the story
along. The poet, on the other hand, hears people talking in his club about the sad story of
Mr. and Mrs Smith. He thinks, 'There is now, that's very interesting. They are just like
everybody else; trying to get around life. It's like those sailors who tried to get to India by
the Northwest Passage On they go, getting farther and farther into the ice, miles from
home. Why, that's a good idea `or a poem.' He writes a poem about explorers, he may
never mention Mr. and Mrs. Smith at ail. The novelist then goes from the general to the
particular, the poet from the particular to the general, and you can see this also in the way
they use words. The novelist uses words with their general meaning, and uses a whole lot
of them to build up a particular effect: his character. The poet uses words with their
particular meanings and puts them together to give a general effect: his ideas. Actually, of
course, nearly all novels and all poems except very short ones have both ways of looking
at things in them (e.g. Chaucer's Canterbury Tales is more like a novel in verse;
Mefville's Moby Dick is more like a poem in prose). All you can say is that one way is
typical of the novelist and the other of the poet.

37.An appropriate title of this passage be,

(a) Of Poets and Novelists (b) Of Poetry (c) Of Novels (d) Of Literature

38.According to the author,

a) Each person reads a particular piece readers'of writing with the same motive.
b) Every person has a different motive in reading a particular piece of writing.
c) Some pieces of writing are not read by people at all.
d) None of the above.

39. One piece of writing can be distinguished from the other by.
i) the difference in the author's style of writing.
ii) the difference in the reader view toward the writings.
III. the way the meaning has been used.
(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I & II
40.The essential difference in the approaches of a novelist and a poet is that,
(a) The novelist moves from particular general.
(b) The poet moves from general to particular.
(c) The poet general.difference. both
(d) There in no and the same.

41. The novelist builds up,

(a) characters (b) ideas (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

42. The poet builds up

(a) characters (b) ideas (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Directions Q. 43 to 47, Choose the pair of words which best expresses the relationship
similar to that expressed in the capitalised pairs.

43. ADJACENT: OBJECTS

(a) modern : times (b) gradual : degrees c) contemporary : events d) repetitive : steps

44. FACILITATE: HAMPER

(a) animate : feed (b) conventional : naive (c) urbane : remote (d) birth : demise

45. DENOUNCE : CONDONE

a) endure : imagine b) antithetical : supportive
c) unnatural : noncommittal d) natural : committal

46. SALUBRIOUS: BANEFUL

(a) contemplate : intimidate (b) alleviate : exacerbate
(c) probity : fallacy (d) susceptible : desultory

47. LANDSLIDE : PEBBLE

(a) deluge : droplet (b) beach : wave (c) desert : oasis (d) rain : puddle

Directions for Q. 48 to 50: Choose the ORDERED pair of statements, where the first
statement implies the second, and the two are logically consistent with the main
statement.

48. If our ancestors were monkeys, we would be anthropoids today.

A .We are not anthropoids B. Our ancestors were monkeys
C. We are anthropoids D. Our ancestors were not monkeys
(a) DA (b) CB (c) AB (d) AD

49. Task A, if ever accomplished; can transform our lives.

A Our lives have been transformed B. Our lives have not been transformed
C. Task A has not been accomplished D. Task A has been accomplished
(a) CB (b) BC (c) AC (d) AD

50. Press either of the buttons X and Y and the drink will come out.
A The drink has come out B. Either X or Y has been pressed
C. The drink has not come out D. Button Y has been pressed
(a) AB (b) AD (c) DA (d) DC

UGC JUNE 2003 (Memory Based Questions)

UGC JUNE 2003-Paper-I

Note. This paper contains fifty (50) multiple-choice questions; each question carrying
two (2) marks.
Attempt all of them.
1. Anand is related to Binod and Cinderella; Deepa is Cinderella's mother Also Deepa is
Binod's sister and Ela is Binod's sister. How is Cinderella related to Ela?
a) Niece b) Cousin (c) Sister d) Aunt

2. In a confidential code, 'GET AWAY. FIRE BACKWARDS, MOVE SLOW' is coded

as BEN CDCI, QHOE PCTLDCOXU, ZMWE UFMD'. In this code, which of the
following could be a possible code for the world METHOD?
(a) ZENTMX (b) ZENDMX (c) ZENKMX (d) ZENHMX

Directions Q 3-4: The letters of the English

alphabet are numbered 26 to 1. A is 26, B is 25, C is 24 and so on.
3. Which of the following sequences denotes a valid word?
(a) 6-12-17-23 (b) 5-11-18-22 (c) 5-12-18-23 (d) 5-12-17-23

4. The following sequence with some arithmetic operations has been used to denote the
letters in a word. What will be the next term to make it a valid word? 9, 22, 11, 12, 8, .....
a) 21 b) 22 C) 23 d) 24

5. In a military code, the data are communicated as per one of the following rules:
a) Multiply by 2 and divide by 3
b) Square and add one
c) Divide by 2 and add 3
d) Divide by 2 and multiply by 3
Which rule has been used to communicate data in the series?
33, 333, 393, 1266

6. Sanjay is Sarita's brother. "I have as many sisters as brothers", tells Sarita to one of her
friends. Sanjay says, "Each of us brothers has only half as many brothers as sisters". How
many brothers and sisters does the family have?
a) 4 sisters and 5 brothers b) 5 sisters and 3 brothers
c) 3 sisters and 4 brothers d) None of these

7. If DCF means BAD in a particular language code. then which of the following is a
valid word in this code.?
a) PCOR b) PYKC c; AY t'C d) None of these

8.A queen has five diamond rings, each weighing differently. Her jeweler gives her the
following information:
I. Ring D weighs twice as much as ring E
II. Ring E weighs four and a half times as much as ring F
III. Ring F weighs half as much as ring G
IV. Ring G weighs half as much as ring H
V Ring H weighs less than ring D but more than ring F
As per the above data, which of the following statements is correct?
a)Ali the information is needed to determine the order of weights of the rings
b) Ring G is the lightest in weight
c) Ring H is heavier than both D & F
d) Both rings D & E are heavier in weight than ring H

9. P + Q means P is wife of Q; P - Q means P is son of O: and P " Q means P is sister of

Q. Following this relationship, Prashant -
Rakesh ` Ronit will certainly mean all of these except
a) Rakesh is a lady b) Prashant is son of Rakesh
c) Ronit is father of Prashant d) None of these

10. As per the rule of coding, RYHKYFYJ is the code for TAJ MAHAL. According to
the same rule QUTAB MINAR will be coded as:
a) RVUVCNJOBS b) OSRSZKGLYP c) OSRSCKJLBP d) None of these

11. Which of the following will replace the '?' sign in the series below: 151, 150, 142, ?,
105
a) 125 b) 134 c) 132 d) 127

12. A hunter has just returned after a day's bird shooting. His wife asked, how many birds
he had in his bag. He says, "They are all sparrows but six, Gli pigeons but six and all
doves but six". How many minimum number of bir~is could he have in his bag?
a) 18 b) 6 c) Cannot be determined d) None of these

13. Perception, retention and rccall are:

a) source variables . b) message variables c) receiver variables d) channel variables

Directions Q 14-15: In each question below are given a statement followed by three
assumptions numbered l, ll and 111. An assumption is something supposed or taken for
granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide
which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement, then decide which of the answers is
the correct answer.
14. Statement: India's economic growth has come at a terrible price of increased
industrial and vehicular pollution. Assumptions:
I. Pollution is a part of industrial society.
II. Indian economic growth is based on only industrial growth.
III. A country desires economics growth with manageable side-effects.
a) Only I b) Only II c) Only I and III d) Only III

15. Statement: Efforts to develop technologies more appropriate to the needs of the
poorest sections of society need to be further
intensified. Assumptions:
I. Nothing is impossible it proper efforts are made.
II. Technology needs are different for different sections of society.
al Only I b) Only III C) Only II d) Both II and III

Directions (Qs 16 to 25): Read the following passage and answer the questions that
follow:
Awong the natural resources which can be called upon in nationai plans for development,
possibly the most important is human labour. Since the English language suffers from a
cerrtain weakness in its ability to describe as composed of both male and female
members, this is usually described as ‗manpower‘. Without a productive labour force,
including effective leadership and intelligent middle management, no amount of foreign
assistance or of natural wealth can ensure successful development and modernization.
The manpower for development during the next quarter-century will come from the
world's present population of infants, children and adolescents. But we are not sure that
they will be equal to the task. Will they have the health, the education. The skills the
socio-cultural attitudes essential for the responsibilities of development. For far too
many of them the answer is no. The reason is basic. A child's most critical years, with
regard to physicai, intellectual, social and emotional development, are before he reaches
five years of age. Curing those critical formative years he is cared for almost
exclusively by his mother, and in many parts of the world the mother may not have-the
capacity to raise a superior child. She is incapable of doing so by reason ;if her own poor
health, her ignorance and her lack of status and recognition of social and legal rights, of
economic; parity of independence. One essential factor has been overlooked or ignored.
The forgotten factor is the role of women. Development will be handicapped as long as
women remain second-class citizens, uneducated, without any voice in family or
community decisions, without legal or economic status, married when they are still
practically children, and henceforth producing one baby after another, often only to see
half of them die before they are school age.

Directions (Qs 22 to 25): Read the passage carefully and answer these questions:

Many of the underdeveloped countries will promote the growth of their economies in
One way or another no matter whether they receive substantial outside aid in the process
or not. The character of that development, however is likely to be strongly influenced by
the tied amounts of aid available. The outcome is much more likely to be favorable, from
the objectives for successful (level r) set up previously, if there is substantial'
international aid than if there is not. By substantial aid I mean not only large amounts of
technical assistance but also of capital. Initially, the capacity of an underdeveloped
country to use capital productively may be surprisingly small-limited by lack of
organization, trained personnel, and other social obstacles. At this stage technical
assistance is its main need from outside, with comparatively small amounts of capital,
much of which may have to be in the fonrin of grants for non-self-liquidating projects in
education, health, access roads to rural areas, and the like. if, at this stage, substantial
capital available from outside to supplement that can be formed internally (and to
stimulate internal capital formation, for it does that too) the rate of economic growth can
be considerably increased, and the strains and frustrations and political risks of the
development process are likely to be considerably less. It is possible for underdeveloped
economies to modernize themselves with very little capital from outside. Japan's imports
of capital were small. Though some of it came at crucial times. The contribution of
foreign direct investment to of technical know-how, also was greater than would be
indicated merely by the 71‘s of investment. The Soviet Union industrialize economy with
practically no aid from FDI capital except for the 'owned installations confiscated after
the revolution, though it imported machinery in the early days on short-term or
intermediate-term credits and hired services of foreign experts. Both Japan and Russia
achieved their development in an authoritarian political and social framework. The
outcome in both cases, from standpoint of the peace of the world and democratic ideals,
were highly unfavorable. In the absence of outside aid, the only way accumulate capital is
to increase production without taking much of the benefit in more consumption, or even
while pushing consumption standards down. Where the people are already near the
subsistence level this may mean extreme hardship. Somehow the people must be
motivated to change their accustomed ways quickly, to work hard, and to forego present
consumption so that capital investment can be made.

22. The passage says: Without foreign aid to under-developed country can grow;
(2) Underdeveloped countries must refrain from seeking foreign aid;The economies of
underdeveloped countries are more likely to grow faster with substantial foreign aid than
without;
(4) Underdeveloped countries are economically backward because their governments
have not got their priorities right.

23. Substantial aid in this context means:

(1) technical assistance in the form of trained personnel;
(2) capital, in the form of bank loans and overdrafts;
(3) large amount of technical assistance and capital
(4) a cheap and plentiful supply of labour.

24. The availability of substantial capital from outside:

(1) can help to stimulate internal capital formation;
(2) does encourage wasteful tendencies;
(3) seldom helps to accelerate the rate of internal growth;
(4) tends to discourage local capitalformation.
c) allow the mistakes to be committed and explains how to minimise those mistakes
d) is a perfectionist and never allows any mistakes to be committed.

25. The passage says that:

(1) Japan imported substantial capital before it became modernised;
(2) the Soviet Union industrialized its economy with plenty of foreign investment capital;
(3)Japan rejected offers of substantial foreign capital investment in the early
stages of its economic development;
(4) In the early days of the economic development the Soviet Union imported
machinery on short-term or intermediate-term credits and hired
foreign experts.

Directions: Questions are independent of each other

26. To find out whether learning has taken place, psychologists would consider the
criterion of:
a) social pressures b) habit formation c) motivation d) Speed of reaction

27. What should be the teacher's response towards mistakes?

a) take all precautions so that students never commit mistakes
b) should mildly punish students if they make mistakes
b) it was too difficult for him to remember
c) it was lost as a result of learning something else subsequently
d) one can hardly remember what is not used daily

28. When a student cannot recall something he had learnt some time back, we can assume
that:

29. How should a teacher introduce a new subject in class for the first time?
a) begin the first chapter without delay
b) give a broad outline of what is going to be done
c) divide the class into groups for discussing the topic
d) give a preface and start the lesson

30. The development of a person's desirable characteristics is largely because of:

a) learning b) Increased sensitivity to appropriate stimuli
c) Increased understanding d) Improved behavior

31. If each side of a square is increased by 50%, the ratio of the area of the new square to
the area of the old square is
a) 5:4 b) 9:4 c) 4:5 d) 4:9
32. The ratio of three numbers is 3 : 4 : 5 and the sum of their squares is 1250. The sum
of the numbers is
a) 60 b) 90 c) 30 d) 50

33. If two numbers are in the ratio (3 : 13 and their least common multiple is 312, then
the larger number is
a) 12 c) 24 b) 26 d) 52

34. A, B, C and D have Rs. 40, 50. 60 end 7C respectively when they go to visit a fair. A
spends Rs 18, B spends, P,.s. 21, C spends Rs. 24 and D spends Rs. 27. Who has done the
highest expenditure proportionate to his resources?
a) A b) B c) C d) D

35. A journey of 260 km. between two cities takes 3 hours less by train than the car. If the
average speed of the car is 6 km/hr less than the speed of the train, the average speed of
the train is
a) 26 km/hr b) 52 km/hr c) 10 km/hr d) 13 km/hr

36. What is the average of Rural Male Population in millions?

a) 36.1 b) 39.7 c) 37,9 d) 30.3

37. In which category of population, is there the lowest percentage of children in the
school?
Urban males 5 - 9
Rural males 5 - 9
Urban females 5 - 9
Rural females 10 - 14

38. What is the approximate percentage of children of all categories not in school?
a) 40.8 b) 31.5 c) 30.5 d) 31.13

39. What is the approximate number of children in millions who are working?
a) 17 b) 18 c) 19 d) 16

40. What percent is the ratio between urban males and rural males not in school?
a) 16 b) 18 c) 15.33 d) None of these

41.
Directions 36 to 40: The following table gives Population and Activities of Indian
Children (1993-94), Study the table carefully and answer these questions.
Total Population Not in school and Not in school and Child Population Age/Gender
Group (million) in School working not working not in school million
Rural males 5-9 39,7 67 2 1 3 31.5 13.02I
Rural females 5-9 35,7 56,2 3.0 40.8 15.63
Urban males 5-9 11.~ 84 1 0.3 15.2 1.79
Urban females 5-9 10.2 80.1 1.3 18.6 2.02
Rural males 10-14 36 1 76 6 12.8 10.6 8.44
Rural females i0-14 55.7 30.3 14.0 13.42
Urban males 10-14 11_7 87 2 7.0 5.8 1.50
Urban females 10-1 1 G .~i 81.6 13.1 5.3 1.93
Total er- r 57.75
Directions 41 to 46: The following table gives the enrolment in Higher Secondary
Schools in 1978.Study the table carefully and answer these
questions.
Enrolment No. of Schools
41. what is the approximate percentage of schools, where the enrolment was below 120?
a) 59.16 b) 59.27 c) 60 d) 61

42. What is the approximate percentage of schools, where the enrolment was above 79
but below 180?
a) 56 c)- 57 b) 56.39 d) 55

43. Under which class do the maximum of schools fall?

a) 100-119 b) 80-99 c) 60-79 d) None of these

44. What is the approximate percentage of the least number of schools for the classes of
enrolment?
a) 8 b) 9.5 c) 9 d) 10

45. What is the approximate percentage of the least number of schools for the classes of
enrolment?
a) 8 b) 9.5 c) 9 d) 10

46. What is the average enrolment per H.S.school 1833 School?

a) 107.87 b) 217.60 c) 109.5 d) 129.5

47 . Directions for questions 47 to 50: In these questions, two statements are given,
followed by two inferences A and B. Assume the
statements to be true, mark your answer as:
a) If only inference A follows,
b) If only inference B follows,
c) If both A and B fallow,
d) If neither A nor B follows

47. All mothers are aunts.

All aunts are ladies. So,
A: All mothers are ladies,
B: All aunts are mothers.

48. Some doctors are fools.

Some fools are rich. So,
A: Some doctors are rich.
B: Some rich are doctors.

49. All goats are cows.

Some goats are lambs. So,
A: All goats are lambs.
B: Some lambs are cows

50. All pedestrians are poor.

All poor are honest. So,
A: All honest are pedestrians.
B: All pedestrians are honest.

ANSWERS
1. a 2. c 3. c 4. b
5. d 6. d 7 d 8. d
9. c 10. d 11. d 12. d
13. c 14. c 15. d 16. 2
17. 4 18. 2 19. 3 20. 4
21. 1 22. 3 23. 3 24. 1
25. 4 26. a 27. c 28. c
29. b 30. c 31. b 32. a
33. d 34. a 35. a 36. c
37. d 38. d 39. c 40. b
41. a 42. b 43. b 44. b
45.c 46.a 47.a 48.d
49. b 50. b

UGC-DECEMBER 2003 Paper-I (Memory Based Questions)

Note. This paper contains fifty multiple-choice questions, each question carrying two
marks. Attempt all of them.

1. Cause celebre. It is only the latest term to circulate with alarming regularity. Have
cause, will espouse, happens to be the latest mantra of high society. The beautiful people
may not know much about housing problems, encroachment etc. but will oppose slum
demolitions. They may not know about the drought problems in Saurashtra, but will rant
against the Sardar Sarovar project. In my opinion they are…….
a) anti-poor
b) celebrities such as authors or movies stars
c) by and large unaware of ground realities and only involved in a ―cause‖ for the sake of
doing so.
d) by and large aware of the situation at ground zero but not of the ramifications of
supporting a particular cause.

2. The former soviet union built up the world‘s largest standing army. Its military
industrial complex fabricated a whopping 45,000 nuclear warheads at the height of the
cold war its sphere of influence extended from Vietnam to cuba. Yet the ―soviet
structure‖ was challenged from within……without considering history as we it, which of
the following statements would give credence to the above view.
a) the soviet union was too large to govern.
b) despite the soviet union‘s military might, it failed to raise the standard of living of its
citizens thereby fuelling economic and more dangerously political discontent of the
system.
c) The soviet union was not strong militarily with respect to the other major power of the
world.
d) The system of governance in the soviet union was non-sustainable.

3. The Hizb-ul-Mujahideen has just declared a three-month long cease fire. The news has
come as a pleasant surprise for pundits who have long been predicting that since it has
already been a decade of full-scale militancy, Kashmir, like Punjab would too turn the
corner. Which of the follwing examples follows a similar logic.
a) Lawyer- ―I have won a lot of cases, but of late certain hostile judges have sullied my
record.‖
b) Cop- ―I have arrested a lot of people, but none have ever had political connections.‖
c) Scientist- ―I have discovered 6 new plants in 6 months alone, so by the time I retire, I
probably would have discovered many more.‖
d) Aeronautical engineer- ―The prithvi missile was handed over to army after 3
successful test flights. Today we are about to test Agni-II for the third time and then we
will hand it over to the army.‖

4.The glory days of hindi cinema are long over. Remember the time when movies such as
Jagte Raho, Do Bigha Zameen, Mother India, Kaagaz ke Phool made animpact. Today,
all that bollywood has to offer are muscle men and bimbos, teamed up for lewd songs!
Which of the following if true would weaken the author‘s argument?
a) All hindi movies churned out by bollywood today cannot be categorized as bad movies
b) We get the movies we deserve.
c) The examples which the author cites to prove his point are not reflective of all the
movies of the putative ―glory days‖ and ―muscle men and bimbos in lewd songs‖ have
always been a part of bollywood since its inception.
d) The movies of today are more commercialized and have to cater to the lowest common
denominator.

5. Mr. Jacob works for coffee plantation in Coorg. He gets paid Rs. 30 per hour subject to
the fact that the beans are retrieved from at least 10 plants in the same time. Otherwise he
gets paid Rs.15 for the same duration. What does this say about Mr. Jacob or his
company?
a) Mr. Jacob is assured o a regular income till he retires.
b) The company in question nas not adapted to the new market scenario that dictates
that labour must be paid scle!y on the basis of productivity.
c) Mr. Jacob does not meet his targets oflen.
d) The company in question links a part of the wages it pays to the productivity of its
Employees

6. Richard Branson gets off a Virg in-Atlantic flight dressed in a Bhangra outfit. He reaks
into a Jig with the local dancers at New Delhi's international airport (India). He wan's to
promote his air service to London and hence the "bhangra naach (bhar?gra dance)"
Branson does all !his because.
a) he wants his airline to knock British Airways out of the picture,
b) because he knows that there if a large Sikh community which nnay want to use
the service.
c) to entice Indians into trying out his airline by "doing in Rome as the Romans do"
principle
d) by dancing his way into Indian hearts.

Read the passage given below and answer the question nos. 7 and 8 :

Everyone wants to go the United States, it's all very well to give the GRE and ail but it's
quite another to get adjusted to the "American Culture‖. For starters America is not the
land of promiscuity, at least as far as Asians students are concerned .Asian students score
amazing marks in examinations but probably never attend a fart part.

7. Asian American are………….

a) Prosperous but not social
b) prosperous but putatively social
c) sybarite
d) None of the above

8. Asian students are academically far superior vis-a-vis American students in the realm
of academia. Which of the following is also true ot the indian students.
a) the. Indian students are promiscuous.
b) the Indian students are not promiscuous.
c) the Indian students are not invited to frat party.
d) none et the above
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions based on them.
As a human enterprise, research involves ethical questions, not in terms of the questions
we address but in terms of how we address
these questions and report our results. Over the past two decades a number of studies
have brought into sharp focus some of the issues involved. For example, in one research
effort that won a prize from the American Association for the Advancement of Science,
subjects were told to teach other subjects ("learners") a list of paired associate words and
to punish then with an electric shock when an error was made. The issue in Vitiated was
obedience to authority. Although actual shocks were not used, the subjects believed that
it was being used and often "administered" high levels despite pleas from the "learners"
that it was painful. In another research effort in which a prison environment was
simulated, subjects took on the roles of guards and prisoners. Subject "guards' were found
to be verbally and physically aggressive to subject "prisoners," who allowed themselves
to be-treated in a dehumanized way. Finally, we are all probably aware of one behavior
modification program or another that has been used to shape the behavior children or
patients without their consent or voluntary participation. Such programs are dramatic in
the issues they raise, hut the underlying question concerning ethical principles of research
is fundamental, Do experimenters have the right to require participation? To deceive
subjects? That are the ethical responsibilities of researchers to subjects and to psychology
as a science? The former has been an issue of concern to the American Psychological
Association, and it has adopted a list ofrelevant ethical principles. The essence of these
principles is that "the psychologist carries out the investigation with respect and concern
for the dignity and welfare of the people who participate." This includes, evaluating the
ethical acceptability of the research, determining whether subjects in the study will be at
risk in any way, and establishing a clear and fair agreement with research participants
concerning the obligations and responsibilities of each. Although the use of concealment
or deception is recognised as necessary in some case, strict guidelines are presented. It is
recognized as the responsibility of the investigator to protect participants from physical
and mental discomfort, harm and danger. The ethical responsibility of psychologists
includes the interpretation and presentation of results as well as the conduct of the
research. Of late there has been serious concern in science generally with "the spreading
stain of fraud". Some concern with this issue began with charges that Sir Cyril Burt, a
once prominent British psychologist, intentionally misrepresented data in his research on
the inheritance of intelligence. In other fields of science there have been reports of
investigators intentionally manipulating data to enhance their chances of publication,
grant funding, promotion, and public recognition. Recently, there was an investigation
whether psychologists working in the area of alcoholism had intentionally misrepresented
their data. The issue of fraud is one that scientists do not like to recognise or talk about
because it goes against the very fabric of the scientific enterprise. Although fraudulent
data and falsified conclusions are very rare, the profession of psychologists is beginning
to face up to their existence and to take constructive steps in solving the problem.
Much more subtle than fraud, and undoubtedly of much broader significance, is the issue
of the effects of personal and social bias on the ways in which issues are developed and
the kinds of data that are accepted as evidence in support for one or
another kind of enterprise. In considering sex differences, for example, to what extent are
research projects developed in a way that is free from bias and to what extent is evidence
for or against the existence of sex differences equally likely to be accepted? To what
extent do our own social and political values influence not only what is studied but how it
is studied and the kinds of conclusions we are prepared to reach? As noted, although
scientists make every effort to be objective and remove all possible sources of error and
bias from their research, this remains a human enterprise with the potential for personal,
social, cultural, and political influence. Finally, we may note in a related way the role of
research in the formulation of public policy. Though still in an early stage of
development as a science, psychology does relate to fundamental human concerns and
psychologists are often called on to suggest the relevance of this research for public
policy. This has happened with intelligence tests and immigration policy, child
development and the effects of early enrichment programs; and the effects of television
violence on aggression in everyday life. Recently, Seligman's work has been related to
societal functioning, with the suggestion that some social programs may operate to
increase learned helplessness. For example, many Scandinavian countries have served as
a model for social reform and social welfare. While praising these accomplishments, one
Swedish psychologist has warned that a potential side effect of overly extensive programs
in this area may be the development of a broad earned helplessness phenomenon in the
population. !n sum, among the issues that concern us as researchers and as consumers of
research is that of how the results may be interpreted to direct, support, or refute various
social policies

9. The passage says that,

(A) Researchers need to be free from all kinds of bias and they always are.
(B) Researchers need to be free from all kinds of bias and they never are.
(C) Researchers need to be free from all kinds of bias and they sometimes are not.
(D) Researchers need not to be free from all kinds of bias and still they always are.

10. All the following are the reasons for scientists misrepresenting data except
(A) to receive acclaim
(B) to get research papers published
(C) to intentionally harm competitor colleagues
(D) to facilitate faster flow of funding.

11. It can be inferred from the passage that

(A) psychology is in its nascent stage of being evolved into a science.
(B) psychology has evolved fully as a science.
(C) psychology can never evolve into a complete science.
(D). psychology will have to struggle if it wants to evolve into a complete science.

12. The psychological research findings,

a). can never be used practically for the purposes of social policy support.
b) can and should be used for the purposes of social policy support.
c) can but should not be used for the purposes of social policy support.
d) the passage does not mention any connection between research and social policy.

13. One can assume that,

a) If people are told that a certain thing would happen they tend to believe that it has
happened even if it actually has not.
b)If people are told that a certain thing would happen they never tend to believe that it
has happened if it actually has not.
c) If people are told that a certain thing would happen they never tend to believe that it
has happened even if it actually has
d) None of the above.

14. The author is against:

a) all psychological research.
b) all research
c) all research in which the subject is treated badly
d) all of the above.

15. "Subjects" could be,

(a) the topics under discussion for psychological research.
(b) the people who volunteer for psychological experiments to be carried out on them.
(c) the animals which are used to carry out experiments.
(d) Both (b) and (c)

16. The American Psychological Association does all the following except;
a) give guidelines to carry out research using subjects.
b) evaluate if a research is ethically acceptable.
c) decide the responsibilities of all the research participants.
d) penalize the researcher if his experiment is in any way harmful.

Q. 17-18. A and B are mothers-in-law of C and D, not necessarily in that order. B is

daughter of A. C is the only male member in the group.
17. How is C related to D?
a) spouse b) siblings
c) father d) can't be determined

18. If B is the only daughter of A and B is the mother in law of D then C is ...... of D
a). Husband b) father in law
c) brother d) brother in law

19. In a software company where every person knows at least one language, 50% know
poha language 60% know kova language 70% know vada language. 20% know poha and
kova language, 30% know kova and vada language, 30% know vada and poha language.
How many people know all the
three language.
a) 30% b) 25%
c) 0% d) 10%

20. A toothpaste manufacturer is giving two different offers on its 100g tube. The first
one is giving 30% extra at the same price, and
the second one is giving 30% off on the marked price. By what percentage is the first
offer costlier than the second one?

a) 4.2% b) 2.4%
c) 9.88% d) 0%

21. Train A takes 4.5 hours to go form, Station X to Station Y. Train B takes 6 hours to
go from Station Y to Station X. If train A starts from X at 12:OOpm and train B starts
from Y at 1:304)m, when will they meet?
a) 3:12 b) 3:32
c) 1:52 d) 2:42

22. 5762 =?
a) 331776 b) 271774
c) 271786 d) 312566

Q 23-24 : Six persons Ana, Bana, Cana, Dana, Ena and Fana were playing a game of
cards. Ana's father, mother and uncle were in the group. There were two women. Bana,
the mother of Ana gets more points than her
husband. Dana got more point Ena but less than Fana. Niece of Ena got lowest points.
Father of Ana got more points than Fana but could not win the game?

23. Who won the game?

a) Bana b) Cana
c) Aria d) Fana

24. If Bana was me of the ladies, who was the

other lady?
a) Fana b) Ana
c) Dana d) Ena
Q. 25 to 30: Consider the first 135 multiples of 6

25. What is the sum of the numbers?

a) 55070 b) 55080
c) 54540 d) 56080

26. What will be the average of the numbers?

a) 357 b) 358
c) 408 d) 407

27. If in place of 6, a student takes 135 multiples

of 7, what will be the ratio of averages?
a) 6/7 b) 3/.
c) 4/7 d) 43/35

28. In a school 30% of students are boys and rest, girls. 60% of the students are tall and
the rest are short. If 10% of the students are short boys and 60 students are girls and are
tall. How many of the students are tall boys?
a) 40 b) 20 c) 45 d) 30

29. If Raja cannot count, he can spell. If Purnima does not pay, Taru.n goes on strike. If
Purnima pays, Raja can spell.Therefore if Tarun does not go on strike
a) Purnima does not pay
b) Raja can count
c) Raja cannot count
d) none of the above

30. Either Pakistan will test the Ghauri missileor India will conduct a nuclear test. Either
the United States will not lift sanctions on India or Clinton will visit India. Which of the
following is necessary to ensure that India conducts a nuclear test and Clinton will visit
India.
a) Pakistan will not test the Ghaurimissile and the United States will not lift sanctions.
b) Pakistan will test the Ghauri missile and the United States will lift sanctions.
c) Pakistan will not test the Ghauri missile.
d) Pakistan will not test the Ghauri missile and the United States will lift sanctions.

31 to 34: The following pie charts give the break-up of the expenditures and revenues for
an automobile manufacturing firm,
Jalopy Motors, for the first 8 months of the year '98.
Rs 1400 crore Rs 1600 crore
Code A B C D
Entity_ Wages Raw mat. _ Power bill
Sourced Ports
Code E F G
Entit Frei ht Taxes Misc.
Entity Scooterettes Scooters Bikes Cars SUVs

31. What is the power bill of the company for the given period? (in crore)
a) 40 b) 48 c) 58 d) 70

32. If the shares of the different expenditures don't change, and the expenditures are
proportional to time, what would be the difference between the wage bill and taxes for
the year'98? (in cr.)
a) 35 b) 56 c) 78 d) 84

33. What are the revenues from bikes as a percentage of that from cars for the given
period?
a) 75% b) 80°6 cy 120~~ d) 140;0

34. If the shares of the different sources of revenues remain constant and the revenues
keep coming at the same rate, what would be
the difference between the revenues from cars and SUVs for the year '98'? (in cr.)
a) 160 b) 180 c) 220 d) 240

Q. 35 to 39: Following are the results of the survey of five villages conducted by the
agricultural department. The table gives
details about the different crops grown and the irrigation facilities available. A village is
given standard aid if less than 35% of the
arable land is under irrigation. If the land under irrigation is between 35% and 50%, but
the village grows rice on more than 50% of
its arable land, then it is given partial aid. The village that has least area under irrigation
among the unaided (partial or
otherwise) ones would be eligible for special water grant.
Rice I wheat Others irrigated
Nagaon 120 40 100 25%
Hatigaon 230 80 90 38%
GaUripUr 160 140 100 45%
Basugaon 80 14G 100 66%
Bangaon 180 60 120 30%
35. How many villages are eligible for standard aid?
a) 1 b) 2 ci 3 d) 4

36. Which of the following viliuyes are eligible for partial aid?
a) Nagaon b) Hatigaon
c) Gauripur d) Eanyaon

37. Which village got the speoal v.,a±pr grant'?

a) Nagaon b) Hatigaon
c) Gauripur d) Bangaon

38. What percentage of the total arable land of the villages is eligible for standard aid is
under irrigation?
a) 28% b) 33% c) 24% d) 42%

39, if the average production of wheat per hectare is 150 tons, what is the production of
wheat by Nagoan and Hatigaon? (in '000 tons)
a) 18 b) 29 c) 34 d) 30

40. Which of the following statements is NOT correct

(a) Audio-visual media is the strongest form of effective teaching
(b) Cable TV, E-mail, Internet are not forms of mass media
(c) Radio is an effective medium of propaganda
(d) The earliest form of audio-visual was cinema.

41. `Television as a medium of visual communication offers immense

possibilities to overcome illiteracy barrier. This statement is
(a) true (b) partially true
(c) false (d) absurd

42. The radio is

(a) a source of enjoyment only
(b) a visual aid
(c) both an audio and a visual aid
(d) an audio media.

43. Which of the following measures could optimize effectiveness of the 'Visuals'?
(a) Preparing a colourful visual
(b) Preparing an attractive visual
(c) By explaining what is to be observed in the visual
(d) Asking students to prepare notes.

44. Which of these develop imagination among learners?

(a) Radio (b) Books (c) Educational films
(d) Pictures.
45. Communication can be
(a) Intra
(B) A personal
(C) Inter
(D) All of the above.

46. A teacher must have a character

(a) for the students try to imbibe the way of life of the teacher
(b) so that the parents of the school students are impressed
(c) so that the managing committee likes him
(d) so that he can lead his life well.

47. A man starting at a point walks 1 km east, then 2 km north, then 1 km east, then 1 km
north, then 1 km east and then 1 km north to arrive at his destination. What is the shortest
distance between the starting point and his destination?
a) 8 km b) 7 km c) 6 km d) 5 km

48. Of the three numbers the first is twice the second and half of the third. If the average
of the three numbers is 56, the three numbers in
order are:
a) 96, 24, 48
c) 48, 24, 96
c) 48, 96, 24
d) 96, 48, 24

49. A building contractor employs 20 males, 15 female and some child workers. He pays
Rs. 25 per day to a male worker, Rs. 20 per day to
a female worker and Rs. 8 per day to a child worker. If the average wage per day paid by
the contractor is Rs. 21, how many child
workers did the contractor employ?
a) 4 b) 5 c) 7 d) 8

50. What is the smallest number, which when divided by 3, 8 and 15 leaves the remainder
1,6 and 13 respectively?
a)121 b) 242 c)118 d) 239

ANSWERS
1. c 2. b 3. d 4. a 5. d
6. c 7. d 8. c 9. c 10.c
11. a 12.b 13.a 14. c 15.b
16.d 17.d 18. a 19. c 20.c
21.a 22.a 23.a 24.b 25. b
26. c 27. c 28. d 29. a 30. b
31.d 32.d 33.c 34.d 35. b
36.b 37.c 38.a 39. a 40.a
41.a 42.d 43. c 44. d 45. d
46. a 47. d 48. c 49. b 50. c

Memory Based Questions for UGC NET JRF Exam : Paper-I

1. Which of the following is not a research method?

a. Philosophy
b. Observation

c. Interview

d. Discussion

2. Research can be grouped as the following kinds, except (options gave types of
research)
a. Action method.
b. Philosophical & historical method.

c. Introspection

d. Analytical methods.

3. What is necessary to become a researcher?

a. A post-graduation degree.
b. Analytical and reasoning mind.

c. Discipline

D. Hard Work.

4. Which of the following is am not instructional tool?

a. Overhead projector.
b. Transparency.
c. Cassette.
d. Printed material.

5. Which of the following about lecture method is not correct?

a. It is passive.
b. It can give knowledge.
c. It can develop reasoning.
d. It is a one way process.

6. What is the aim of higher education; to enable students to?

a. Take decisions.
b. Pass exams.
c. Ask questions in lecture.

d. To make career.

7. Which of the following is incorrect?

a. Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Films Development Corporation.
b. Preity Zinta, Yash Chopra are recipients of Dada Sahib Phalke award.
c. Yash Chopra is a member of Certification Board.
d. Hema Malini is the Chairperson of Children‘s Film Society of India.

8. Which of the following statements about computers is correct:

a. Fast and accurate processing of qualitative and qualitative data.
b. Processing quantitative data only.
c. Processing qualitative data only.

d. Processing images.

9. ―Because you deserve to know‖ is the punch-line of which newspaper?

a. The Hindu.
b. The Times of India.
c. The Indian Express.
d. The Hindustan Times.

10. Which Article of the Constitution of India protects the rights of minorities to establish
and administer educational institutions of their own choice?
a. Article 29.
b. Article 26.
c. Article 30.

d. Article 46

11. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched?

a. N. Ram : The Hindu.
b. Barkha Dutt : Zee News.
c. Pranav Roy : NDTV 24×7.
d. Prabhu Chawla : Aaj Tak.

12. Which is the following is a 24 hours English business news channel?

a. CNBC.
b. Zee News.
c. India News.
d. NDTV 24×7.

13. Which number will come in the series 8, 24, 12, ? , 18, 54:
a. 26.
b. 32.
c. 36.

d. 40

14. What is a modem?

a. Operating System.
b. Digital to analog signal converter.

c. a TV accessory

d. Kitchen equipment

15. Gave a series of pH values 4, 5, 7 and 8 and asked each pH to be correctly matched
with the correct comments - moderate acid, alkaline, neutral, dangerous.

16. Absorption of carbon dioxide in seawater leads to:

a. Salinity.
b. Raising sea level.
c. Increased plankton growth.

d. pollution

17. What is largest contributor to carbon dioxide emission in India?

a. Burning coal.
b. Firewood.

c. coal
d. cooking gas

18. In which year was the United Nations established?

a.1944.
b.1945.
c. 1946.

d. 1947

19. What word could Yash Chopra not pronounce?

20. What was the costume of the heroine in Veer Zarra?

21 .Which is the latest Yash Chopra movie?

22. Who made the movie Lamhe?

23. With which movie is associated?: Desh Ki Dharti

24.What dooes LAN stand for?

Ans. Local Area Network

25. What is the URL of an email?

a. [email protected]
b. [email protected]
c. www_mail.com
d. www.mail.com

TEACHING AND RESEARCH POTENTIAL

• Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti was registered as a society on –15 August

1950
• Who was the Chairman of the first Indian Education Commission –Sir
John Hunter
• Who organizes the National Talent Search Competitive Test –N.C.E.R.T.
• When was Central Advisory Board of Education set up –1956
• Navodaya Vidyalayas have been set up –In Rural Areas
• The programme Gyan Vani is broadcasted by –AIR
• When was N.C.E.R.T. Established –2nd Oct. 1971
• In 1936-37 who submitted the report on technical Education –Abbot
• Who conducts the admission test for Novdaya Vidyalayas –N.C.E.R.T.
• Who was the chairperson of Wardha Scheme –Zakir Hussain
• National law school of India is situated at –Bangalor
• A.I.C.T.E. stands for –All India Council of Technical Education
• In which year University Grants Commission Act was passed –1956 A.D.
• The central Institude of Indian Languages is located at –Mysore
• Which Organization was established during Bengal Partition –National
Council of Education
• Which was the first University to be opened in Britishers time ? –Calcutta
University
• To whom did Lord Macaulay present the famous Macaulay‘s minute ? –
Lord Bentinck
• In which year C.B.S.E. set up open school ? –1985
• What was the other name for hunter commission –Indian Education
Commission
• What amount was sanctioned by Charter Act of 1813 to be spent on
education ? –One Lakh
• Reshtriya Sanskrit Sansthan has its head quarters at –New Delhi
• Which is the first open University of India ? –Indira Gandhi open
University New Delhi
• What is the Minimum qualification requird to appear in any examination of
the Open University ? –No Minimum qulification
• Regional College of Education for the Northern region is located at –Ajmer
• Where is situated the Regional College of Education for the eastem region
? –Bhuvaneshwar
• Where is Regional College of Education for Western region ? –Ujjain
• Regional College of Education for the Southern region is at –Mysore
• The Regional Colleges of Education were set up by the N.C.E.R.T. with
the co-operation of –Planning Commission of India
• Generally the medium of instruction in Public School is –English
• The famous Doon Public School is located at –Dehra Dun
• The famous Doon Public School Bishop Cotton is situated at –Shimla
• The famous Lawrence Public School is at –Sanawar
• The famous Shivaji Public School is at –Pune
• The famous Air Force Central School is situated at –Delhi Cantt
• Tamil Nadu has a Sainik School at –Amrauathinagar
• The Sainik School in Orissa is at –Bhuvaneshwar
• The Sainik School in Karnataka is at –Bijapur
• Gandhi had which Educational Degree ? –Law
• Gandhi got his law Degree from –England
• Where did Gandhi as a teacher ? –South Africa
• Who said ―A cowardly teacher cannot make his students valiant ? –M.K.
Gandhi
• Effective teaching is a function of -Teacher‘s methodology
• What should be the attitude of the teacher towards school authorities ? –
Cordial
• The attitude of teacher towards new idea should be –Receptive
• Teachers should be made accountable for –Teaching
• An excellent teacher must be –Good guide
• As a teacher, you are never supposed to be angry –I am a human and can
also be angry
• What is your Prime duty as a teacher ? –To help the student in
understanding Physical and Social Environment
• What is the best Quality of the teacher ? –good human subject being
• The enthusiastic teachers generally ? –involve the students in learning–
teaching process
• A teacher has better chances of succeeding if ? –he is properly trained for
the profession
• Does the teachers enjoy the freedom to make their syllabus flexible ? –
False
• A good teacher can overcome the defects of ? –System
• A quality teacher always reaches the school ? –Before the morning
assembly is over
• Why you want to make teaching as a career ? –it make you eligible for the
profession in ten months
• Generally a good number of students do not like to go to the class rooms
because- the curriculum is dull
• What is attitude –feeling
• A good teacher priority in school is his –students
• People‘s attitude towards teaching is becoming positive because –
perceiving teaching as a profession
• Who can be creative teacher- develop thinking ability among the students
• Among the students faith in the human values can be generated through –
Moral Education
• If as teacher you give too much liberty to students what will be result –
indiscipline in the class room
• If some one does not agree with you what will you do – polite explain your
view point to him
• As a teacher what means of recreation will you like to prefer – literary
magazines and news papers
• A teacher always learns and he learns from – Students
• What enhances the status and respect of a teacher – community service
• Why a teacher fails in maintaining discipline in the class – because he
lacks consistency in his approach to discipline
• What type behavior is expected from a teacher in the class room – calm,
dignified and composed
• Why a teacher should be lover of sports – it encourages the students to take
part in sports

Important Facts to Know: General Studies

1.The study of bones is called ostelogy

-Total no of bones 206
-Smallest bone-Stapes(ear boe)
-Longest bone-Femus(Thigh bone)
-Strongest bone-Tibia(leg bone)
-Total no of muscles-639
-Largest grand-liver
-Longest gland-thyroid
-Longest nerve-Sciatic
-Hardest bone-Tooth enamal
-Tolal amount of blood in the body is (1/15 of body weight)
-Normal body Temperature-98.6F(37C)

2.Govt.of India banned the student Islamic movement of India

(SIMI)because it had linked with Osama Bin Laden‘s a1-Qaeda Group
3.The Salary of member of parliament and higher perks is ehanced from
Rs.4000 to 12,000 per month and constituency allowance from Rs.8000 to
10,000 per month and daily allowance of Rs.400 to Rs. 500 for a period of
five year
4.Competition bill to replace MRTPC (Monopolies and Restrictive Trade
Practice Act.)
5.Supreme court ruled on August 2,2001 that a public servant convicted in
corruption case should not hold office till he was cleared of the charges by a
superior court
6.Number of amendments in constitution is 8 till now
7.The terrorist out fit that brought the WTC and destroyed part of Pantagon
in Washington is A1-Queda.the network association with Osama Bin Laden
8. ISI-Inter Service Intelligence
9.Durent line boundary between India and Afghanistan
11.Mc Mohan Line:-boundary between India and china
12.Redcliff Line:- boundary between India and Pakistan
13.Palk Strait:- boundary between India and Sri Lanka
14.Prithvi:-Surface to surface missile.It has a range 250km
15.Agni:- Is Surface to surface missile.it has a range1500-2000km
16.Akash:- Is Surface to surface missile.it has a range of 25km
17 Nag: It is an anti tank missile having range of 4km
18.Bank rate is the rate at which the reserve Bank of India gives credit to
commercial Banks
19.Amicus Curiae-Lawyer appointment by the court to represent a poor
person.it means friend of court
20.C.R.R- Cash Reserve Ratio
21.Medico Legal case-Accidental Case
22.The most important influence of the moon on the earth is the effect on
ocean tides
23.Ranthambore:- Ranthambore National park in Rajasthan(410 sq.km)was
ones the private tiger reserve of the Maharaja of Jaipur
24.Ghana Bird Sanctuary-Bharatpur Rajasthan
25.Standerd Deduction in income tax-30,000/-
26.Maximum income not liable to tax-50,000/-
27.American‘s Robinson Walton(Bill gates)is the richest person in the world
28.Bio terrorism:-It refer to the use of disease causing micro oganism as
terroist weapons to cause devastating ipack on the people.for
example.Anthrax
29.Public University founded in 1982 at Lahore.After partition in was re-
established in India on 1st of October 1947.the University moved to
Chandigarh in 1956,vice chancellor of Punjab university is –K.N.Pathak
30.Kapil Dev has been chosen the wisdom Indian cricketer of the century.
31.Akshardham Temple is in Gandhi Nagar (Gujrat
35 people were killed by terrorist )
32.Metro rail Delhi 24 Dec,2002(Shahdra to is Hagari –8.3km)
33.CAG- V.N.Kaul
34.Chairman of SBI-A.K.Purwar
35.Guru Nanak born in Talwandi now called ‗Nankana Sahib‘ in 1469 .He
died in 1539.Guru was founder of Sikhism
36. Guru Angad Dev- introduced langer system
37. Guru Amar Das- social reformer and discarded sati pratha
38. Guru Ram Das- founded city of Amritsar
40. Guru Arjun Deb- Built GoldenTemple and compiled Aadi Granph or
Guru Granth Sahib. Guru Arjun Deb compled Granth Sahib in 1604 with the
of bhai Gurdas Bhalla ji. Guru Arjun Dev was executed by Jahangir on the
advice of Chandu Singh. Guru Arjun Dev got the foundation of Harmandir
Sahib laid down by a Muslim Faqir main mir.
41.Guru hargobind singh – stared the system of
Akal takht and miri,piri
42.Guru Har Rai
43.Guru Harkishan
44.Guru Teg Bahadur-Guru Teg Bahadur executed by Aurangzeb
45. Guru Gobind Singh –Founder of Khalsa 13th April,1699,Baisakhi,
Khalsa means military
brotherhood Zafarnama :- This is Letter written by
Guru Gobind Singh to Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb.
This letter was written because Aurangzeb was committed many atrocities
on people.Guru Gobind Singh asked Aurangzeb to give up the policy at
Anandpur Sahib on the 1st Baisakh 13th April,1699 A..D
46.Dasam Granth was compiled by a devoted sikh mani singh after passing
away Of Guru Gobind Singh .
47.Guru Ki kashi-Takhat Damdma Sahib. It is famous Gurudwara, Which is
situated at Talwandi Sabo. It is called Guru Ki Kashi
48.Guru Ki Wadali – it is Birth place of Guru Hargobind Ji . it is famous
Gurudwara of Punjab
49.Banda Bahadur- Was born on 27th October, 1670. His real name was
Lachaman Das. Once,
during hunting an arrow of Banda Bahadur stuck a pregnant she deer; Banda
Bahadur was greatly pained to see the tragic death of the deer and its two
kids. He renounced the world and become a Bairagi. Banda Bahadur adopted
the name Madho Das after becoming a Bairagi. Madho Das (Banda
Bahadur) met Guru Sahib. He said ―I am your Banda (Servant)‖. Thus
Madho Das become Banda. Guru Gobind Sahib called him Banda the brave.
Thus acquired the name Banda Bahadur
50. Sharomani Gurdawara Prabandhak Committee was established on 15th
Nov. 1990, at Akal Takhat Amritsar.
51.Aklis launched a non-movement in 1921 with the aim of –Librating Sikh
Guru Gurudwara from Mahants.

Important Facts to Know: General Studies

Literature:

52.Creator of Asa-di-war,Japuji sahib-Guru Nanak Dev ji.

53.Creator of Bachittar Natak- Guru Gobind Singh
54.Creator of Jab Sahibh- Guru Gobind Singh
55.Creator of Anand Sahib- Guru Amar Das ji
56.Creator of Sukhmani Sahib –Guru Arjan Dev ji
57. Compiler of Guru Granth Sahib – Guru Arjan Dev ji
58.Writer of Adhi Granth at the time of its compilation of – Bahi Gurdas
Bhalla ji
59.Creator of Bani written in Dasam Granth-Guru Gobind singh ji
60.Most famous writer of Qisa Puran Bhagat –Fazal Shah.
Maharaja Ranjit Singh and his Administration:-
61.Date of Birth of Maharaja Ranjit Singh-Nov.2,1780.
62.Name of the parents of Maharaja Ranjit Singh- Father name:-Maha singh
,Mother name :-Raj Kaur
63.Time of treaty of Amritsar between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and British –
25th April,1809
64.Name of the Foreign minister of Maharaja Ranjit Singh-Faqir Azizudeen
65.Head of Finance minister at the the time of Maharaja Ranjit Singh-
Deewan Kaura Mal
66.Most famous prime minister of Maharaja Ranjit Singh- Dhian Singh
Dogra
67.Meaning of Kankut system started by Maharaja Ranjit Singh- Tax on
standing crop in the field
68.‘Nazim Adalat‘ at the time of Maharaja Ranjit Singh state level- Court
69.Capital city of maharaja Ranjit Singh- Lahore
70.First war between Sikh and British – 1845 A.D.
71.Second Anglo Sikh War-1848-1849 A.D.
72. Ranjit Singh (Thein) Dam has been constructed on the river- Ravi
73.Which Dam is built on Beas near Talwara- Pong Dam.
74. Dam built on the river Satluj- Bhakrha Dam
75.The Dusi dam has been constructed on the river Beas
76.The old name of the Amritser –Ramdas nagar
77.Which Guru got constructor Akal Takhat –GuruHargobind Sahib
78The real Granth Sahib has been placed at –Kartarpur
79.Guru Nanak Dav Ji was enlightenment at- Sultan Pur
80.Which Guru built Buraj Baba Atal- Guru Hargobind Sahib
81. The old name Punjab- Sapat Sindhu
82.The Gurudwara situated at present where foundation of Khalsa Panth was
laid –Gurudwara Kesgarh Sahib.
83.The other name of Harmandir Sahib is-Darbar Sahib.
84.The Guru;who founded Anandpur Sahib was –Guru Teg Bahadur
85.Bhagat Singh was hanged on-23rd March, 1931
86.Number of district in Punjab-17, Lok Sabha seats-13
87. Highest Gallantry Award-Param Vir Chakra
88.NOBLE PRIZES;-The Honors of Wining the Noble Prizes go to the
Following 7 Indians
(i)Rabinder Nath Tagore win the noble prizes from literature in 1913.
(ii)C.V. Raman win the noble prizes from physics in 1930.
(iii)Hargobind Khurana win the noble prizes from medicine in 1968.
(iv)Mother Teresa win the noble price from peace in 1979.
(vi) S. chandrashekher win the noble prize from physics in 1986.
(vii) Prof. Amaritya Sen win the noble prizes from Economics in 1998.
(viii) V.S.Naipal win the noble prizes from Literature in 2001.

90.Highest Gallantry Award- ParamVir Chakra

91.Highest Civilian Award- Bharat Ratana
92.First Olympic Game held at Athens in 1896
93.First Deputy Prime Minister of India-Sardar Patel
94.2nd deputy Prime Minister of India-Morarzi Desai
95. 3hd Deputy Prime Minister of India – Choudhari Charan Singh
96. 5th Deputy Prime Minister of India – Y.V.Chauan.
97.6th Deputy Prime Minister of India –Dev Lal
98. 7th Deputy Prime Minister of India- Lal Krishan Advani
99. AIDS:Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
100.HIV: Human Immunodeficiency Virus
101.AIDS:Is caused by Virus Aids is due to Human Immunodeficiency
Virus
102.Classical Dances of India
-Manipur of Manipur
-Oddisi of Orissa
-Katha-Kali of Kerala
-Kuchi-Pudi of Andhra Pradesh
-Bharat Natyam of Tamil Nadu
-Kathak of Utter Pradesh
-Bihu of Assam

103.Legal Service Clinic:-A Legal Service Clinic open 24 hours on all days,
has been established in Ahemdabad to provide free service of retired high
court judge and reputed lawyear.
105.The State of Haryana-:Came into begin on , Nov.1,1966 as result of the
re- organizations
of the old Punjab state into two separate seats.It consist of the Hind speaking
area of Punjab,secong language status has been given to Punjab(1996)
106.Book and Author:-
-Life Diving
-Ain-I-Akbari -Aourbinbo Ghosh
-Panchtantra -Abdul Fazal
-Mahabharta -Vishnu Sharma
-India wins Freedom -Ved Vyas
-Discovery of India -Maulana Abdul Kalam
-My Experiment with Truth -Gandhi
-Madhushala -Harivansh Rai Bachan
-Prisoner‘s Scorapbook -L.K.Advani

107.Sports:-
-Agha Khan Cup -Hockey
-Durant Cup -Football(India)
-Duleep/renjit Trophyre -Cricket
-Santosh Trophy -National Football
-Thomas Cup -World Bedminton(Men)
-Davis Cup -Lawn Tennis

108.Buddhism:Buddhism was founded by Gautam

Buddha. His Original name was Gautam Siddhartha , A Kashatriya, Boran in
563 B.C at Lumbini in Nepal . He attended enlightenment at Bodhgaya
under papal tree.Budha died at the age of 80 years in 483 B.C at Kushinagar
(District Utter Pradesh).He gave 8 fold paths to control the desire.1st sermon
was delivered by him at Srnarth at Banaras .The Language used by Buddhist
people was pali.

Important facts to Know for General Studies

109.Red cross was founded by-J.H. Durant , Established in 1864 World red
Cross day iscelebrated on May 8,The Birthday its founder J.H. Durant.
110.Sir Robert S.S Baden Powell is the founder of scouting
111.Who gave the call go back to Vedas-Dayanand
112.The construction of Qutab Minar was begun by Quatab-ud-din Aibak
but it was complateed by lltutumish.
113.Who built the Sanchi Stupa- Agratala.
114.Who founded slave dynasty in 1206 A.D.- Quatab-ud-din Aibak.
115.The Capital of Tripura is Agratala.
116. The Capital of Mizoram is aizawl.
117. The Capital of Australia is –Canberra.
118.Spring tides occurs on- Full moon day as well on new moon day.
119.Tides in the oceans are caused by-Attraction of the moon.
201.Buddhism place of worship is-Pongda.
121.Jews place of worship is-Synagogue.
122.Holish book of Jews-Talmud.
123.Malguddi days written by –R.K. Naraynan
124.Das capital-Karl Marx
125.The father of Economics- Adam smith.
126.The Chipko Movement was associated with-preventing felling of trees.
127.Pashmina is a breed of -Sheep.
128.What is the meaning of Buddha –An enlightened one.
129.Which is the holy book of Parsis- Jorah
130.Parliament of U.S.A is known as- Congress
131. Parliament of Afghanistan- Shoora
132. Parliament of Russia-Duma.
133. Parliament of Japan –Diet.
134.SARS:-It Stands for Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome. SARS is
caused by viruses from the corona and paramyxo virus family.
136.LCA(Light Combat Aircraft)is named as ―Tejas‖
137. Lakshva is Pilot Less target Aircraft
138.Kalpna Chawla: She was an Indian born American Astronaut. She died
with other six astronauts in the Columbia shuttle crash on feb.1,2003. She
embarked on her second Voyage in the United State space shuttle Columbia
on Jan 16,earlier.She was an Indian born American Astronaut.She died with
other six astronauts in the Columbia shuttle Columbia on jan 16,earlier.She
was one of the six astronaut crew that flew the Columbia Flight STS-87in
nov.1997 Chawla who had her schooling in Karnal (Haryana)and college
education in Punjab did her Masters in Aerospase Engineering from the
university of Taxes in in 1984 and Doctorate from Colorado University two
year later. An avid flier, she held certified flight instructor‘s license with
Airplane and Gladder ratings, commercial Pilot L icense for single and
multi-engine land and seaplanes
139.Jan. 9,the day Mahatma Gandhi return from South Agrica in 1915-was
chosen to celebrate the Pravasi Bharatiya Divas
140.The five day 90th session of the Lndian science congress conclude in
Bangalore on Jan.7,2003.The focal theme of the congress was Vision for the
global Space community.
141.Sriska and Ranthambore are the reserve for lion.
142.International Criminal court was launched formally in the mid march in
the Hauge . The first eighteen judges took Oath in the grand ceremony. The
court has been set up to handle genocide and the Worst case of war crime or
mass atrocities against civilians when no national court is able or willing to
do so.
143.Right to Education:-article 21A provides the free and compulsory
education to all children of the age of six to fourteen.
144.Freedom of information bill:- The parliament approved the ―Freedom of
information bill‖.Now it is statutory right of the citizen to access information
from the Government.
145.Right to Education :- article21A provides the free and compulsory
education to all children of the age of six to fourteen
146.Freedom of information bill:- The Parliament approved the ―freedom of
information bill‖. Now it is statutory right of the citizen to access
information from the Government.

149. Sapan is not a member of G-8 group.

150. APSARA is the name of the India‘s first Nuclear Reactor.
151.The world environment day is celebrated on june 5.
152.Jainism:-Founded by (Rishabha)Varhamana Mahavira. He was a great
24th Triathankras (Pathfinder).Or prophet of Jainism .Mahavir was a greast
Kshtiya ,born at Kundagram (Vaishali) in bihar. He came to be known as
Mahavir of jina. The conqueror of passing; his following are known as Janis.
He passed away at age 72 in 462 B. C at Pavapuri, a place near modern
Rajgir . Mahavira Teaching are known as the ―Tri Ratna‖ or the three jewels
of Jainisn,which lead to the attainment of salvation . They are (I) Right
Knowledge and (II) Right Action .The Janis used and developed Prakrit,The
language of the common people .Their religious literature was written in
Ardhamagadhi.
153.Vasco da Gama landed in Calicut in 1498.
154.Ist Chinese traveler, Fahein came to India during the period of chandra
Gupta-II(Vikramaditya)
155.2nd Chinese traveler Hieun Tsang came to India during the region of
Harshvardhana
156.Who is the Napoleon of India –Samundra Gupta for his military
exploits.
157.Harshvardhana written three books-1.Priya Darshika 2.Rattanavali
3.Naga Nanda. The official poet of harshvardhana was bana bhatt .Bana
bhatta composed harsha chirtra and kadambari
158.First battle of panipat in 1526 and founded the Mugahal dynasty in India
159.Second battle of Panipat was fought between Akbar and Ibrahim Lodhi
at Panipat in 1556 Akbar Defeated Himu and became the ruled of Delhi and
Agra
160 Third battle of Panipat fought between Ahmed Shah Abdali of
Afghanistan and Marathas in 1761.In this third battle of Panipat Marathas
were completely routed by Ahmed Shah Abdali.
161.Indian National Army was founded by Subash Chander Bose in 1943 in
Singapore alongwith Rasbihari Bose. The main aim of Azad Hind Fauz was
to liberation of India.
162.The Brahmo Samaj was established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828
whose leadership was later taken by Debendernath tagore and Keshub
Chande Sen.
163.The Arya Samaj founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswati in 1875
attempted to reform the Hindu religion from its decadence.
164.The Ramakrishana Mission was founded by Swami Vevekananda in
1896 .
165.Annie besant:- Founded Theosophical society started home rule league
in 1916. She was the first woman president of Indian National
Congress.Indian National Congress Founded by A.O.Hume in 1885.
However first President of Indian national congress was W.C. Banerjee.
166.Swadeshi movement was started in 1905.
167.Gadder party was founded by lala Hardayal singh in 1913 at Francisco.
168.Home rule league founded by Annie Besant and Bal Ganga Dhar Tilak
in 1916.
169.Rowlatt Act. Passed in 1919.
170.Non-Co-Operation movement started in 1920 by Gandhi ji. This
movement ended in 1922 after Chauri Chaura incident.
171.Simons commission –1928
172.Civil Disobedience movement-1930
173. ―Do or die‖ –Mahatma Gandhi
174. ―Nightingale of India‖-Saorjini Naidu.
175. ―Father of Indian Unrest‖-Bal Ganga Dhar Tilak.
176. ―Architect of India‖- Pandit Nehru.
177. ―Man of Peace‖-Lal Bhadur Shastri.
178. ―Iron Man of India‖-Sardar.
179. ―jai hind‖ –subash chander bose
180. ―Grand old man of India‖ –Dada Bhai Naroji

Important Facts to Know for General Studies

181.Mughal Dynasty (1526-1540and 1555-1857)

1.Babur (1526-1530)
2.Humayum
3.Sher Shah Suri (1540-45)
4.Akber (1556-1605)
5.Jahangir (1605-1627)
6.Shah Jahan (1628-1658)
7.Aurangzeb (1658-1707)

182.BABUR:
-Founder of Mughal Empire
-1st battle of panipat between Babur and Ibrahim lodhi
183.HUMAYUN:
-Son of Babur
-Humayun Tomb at Delhi-1st Mughal Monument
184.SHER SHAH SURI:
-He was an Afghan
-Introduced a brilliant administration
-Issued a coin called ‗Rupia‘
-Build Grand Trunk Road Linking Peshawar to Calcatta
185.AKBAR:
a. Eldest son of Humayun
b. Real founded of Mughal empire
c. Good works done by him
d. Popular for his toleration
e. Foundation of Din-e-illahi(code of conduct)
f. Akbar Tomb –Sikandria
g. Largest building built called ‗Agra Forte‘
h. Abdul Fazal was a famous Poat who has written Aaine –Akbari ,Akbar –
Name
186.JAHANGIR:
a. Real name Salim
b. Son of Akbar
c. He is known for his strict administration of Justice
d. He married Mehr-un-nissa or Nurjahan in 1661.
e. Jahangir‘s Tomb built at Lohore
f. Exeecuted Guru Arjun Dev at the advice of Chand Singh
187.SHAH JAHAN:
a. Son of jahangir
b. His wife Mumtaz Mahal died in 1631
c. Built Taj Mahal in her memory in Agra
d. Known for promotion of Art
e. ‗Red Fort‘ and ‗Jama Masjid‘ got built by him
f. Shah Jahan was imprisoned by his third son Aurangzeb till he died in 1666
188.AURANGZEB:
a. Third son of shah jahan
b. Ruled for 50 years and he was a cruel king
c. Banned all religious festival and demolished Hindu Temples
d. Executed Guru Teg Bahadur Ji (9th Guru) when he refused to embrace
Islam
189. NADIR SHAH:
a. A Persian King during the region of Mohamd Shah took the ‗Kohinoor‘
diamond to Afghanistan
190.Who was the first Governor of free India –Lord Mountbatten
191. Who was the first Governor General of free India – C Rajagopalchari
192. Who was the first Governor of free British India –Warren
Hasting(1772-1793)
193. Who was the first father of Civil Service in India-Lord Cornwallis
(1786-1793)
194. Who abolished sati Pratha and other cruel rites –Lord W.Bentick (with
the help of Raja ram Mohan Rai in 1829
195.Who introduced Widow remarriage Act.In 1856 –Lord Dalhousie
196.TRAI -Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
197.VAS-Voluntary Retirement Scheme
198.VAT-Value Added Tex
199.STD-Subscriber‘s Trunk Dialing
200.ISD-Internationl Subscriber‘ s Dialing
201.PAN – Permanent Account Number
202.PIN –Postal Index Number
203. NATO-North Atlantic treaty Organization
204.SAARC –South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.
205.C.R.R.-Cash Reserve Ratio.
206. I.S.R.O. -Indian Space Research Organization.
207.NASA-National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
208.V.D.I.S. –Voluntary Disclosure Income Scheme
209. P.C.O. –Public Call Office
210. L.P.G. –Liquefied Petroleum gas
211.C.T.B.T. –Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
212. V.P.P. –Value Payable Post
213. L.C.A. – Light Combat Aircraft.
214. P.O.W. – Prisoner of War.
215. T.E.L.E.X – Teleprint Exchange.
216 L.C.C –Line of Actual Control.
217. CNG-Compressed Natural Gas.
218. SMS –Short Messaging Service.
219. OAPEC -Organization of Arab Peteoleum Exporting Copuriers.
220.OPEC -Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries
221.Interpol-International Crimunal Police Organisatiom it‘s headquarter is
in Lyons (Paris)
222.Who was the first man go to space- Yuri Gagran
223.Who was the first Indian go to in Space- Rakesh
224. Who was the first Indian woman go to in Space –Kalpna Chawla.
225. Who was the first man land on moon –Neil Armstrong on 21, July ,
1969.
226. Bangalore is the Silicon City of the India.
227. Hyderabad is the hil – Tec.City of India.
228. 2004 Olympics to be held in Athens.
229. Misslie man of the India –A.P.J.Abdul Kalam Azad.
230. Capital of Fiji – Suva.
231. World‘s largest river in South America‘s Amazon which flows into
South Atlantic. The source is Glacier –Fed- Lakes.
232. Which of the first Indian state to be recognized on the basis of language
– Andhra Pardesh.
233. When were the Indian states re-organized on linguist basis – 1956.
234. Which scheduled deals with matters relating to
anti defection – 10th
235. Which scientist laid the foundation of atomic energy research in India –
Homi J. Bhabha.
236. Which branch of science studies the relationship between matter and
energy – Physics.
237. Which planet have no atmosphere –Mercury
238. Convex lenses are used for correction of –Short Sightedness
239. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles –Conves
240. Filament of an electric bulb is maid of –Tungsten
241. The oil in the wick of an oil lamp rises up due to –Capillary action
242. The best conductor of heat –Silver
243. A radar which defects the presence of an enemy air craft uses –Radio
Waves
244. Velocity of round is maximum in –Steel
245. The terminal colure of Rainbow are –Rd & Blue
245. The gas extinguish fire is –Carbon Monoxide
246. The purest form of carbon is-Diamond.

Important Issues: Current Affairs

1. Which movie has won the best motion picture of the year award at Oscars,
2005-Million Dollar Baby
2 . Which political party has won the maximum number of seats in the
recently held assembly elections in Bihar - Janta Dal –United
3. Jamie fox has won the best actor award in the Oscars, 2005. For which
movie, He has been awarded – Ray
4. 77th Oscars, 2005 has awarded ―Best actress award in a leading Role‖ To
– Hilary swank
5. President of Afghanistan was on a visit to India during February – March,
2005. His name is -Mr. Hamid Karzai
6. Who is the richest Indian as per ‗Forbes‘ list – Lakshmi Niwas Mittal
7. Which film has won the 51st National Film Awards, 2005 in the category
of Best Feature film on National Integration also called ‗Nargis Dutt Award‘
– Pinjar (Hindi)
8. Who has won Dada Saheb Falke Award, 2003 declared in the National
Film Award ceremony, 2005 -Ashok Kumar (Posthumously)
9. Dr. A.P.J Abdul Kalam, the President of India is the author of the book –
The Wings of Fire and Ignited Minds
10. Nanavathi Commission relates to - Terrorists attack in Indian Parliament
11. A.D. stands for – Anno Domini
12. Tony Blair, Prime minister of Britain, belongs to – Labour Party
13. RSVP stands for - Respondez S‘il Vous Plait
14. The first Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to ……. in 1901 – J.H.Dunant
15.Which French Engineer designed the structure of the statute of liberty –
16.Which of the following is called the Mother of all Parliaments – The
British Parliaments .
17. As per Human Development Report of 2004, what is full form of HDI –
Human Development Index.
18. Alagh Committee relates to – Civil Services Examination.
19.. Treaty on ‗Ozone depletion‘ – Montreal Treaty.
20.. First Chief Election Commissioner of India was – Sukumar Sen.
21.. East Timor received independence in 2002 from – Indonesia
22. First woman Prime Minister in the world was of – Sri Lanka.
23. Gratuity is paid at the rate of 15 Days wages for each completed year of
service .
24. Postal service in India was opened to the public in 1837.
25. The person was facilitated with ‗Nishan-e-Pakistan‘ – Dilip Kumar
26. The author of the book ‗Harry Potter and the Half Blood Prince‘is –
J.K.Rowling.
27. ‗Fallujah‘ city, which was recently in news, is in -Iraq
28. The Government of India recently announced a special development
package of Rs. 250 crode for the development of –Manipur
29. M.S. Subbalakshmi who died recently was a famous –Classical Singer.
30. In Which country a non-resident Indian Mr. Bobby Jindal recently won
the Parliamentary elections? –US
31. Where is Halebid–a place Which is well Knon for its elaboratedly
sculptured temples of the Hoysala eriod?-Karnataka
32.Where is Meenakshi-a famous Hindu temple? –Madurai
33. Where is Sriharikota , India‘s satellite launching centre? Andhra Pradesh
34. The Tower of Victory‘ is Iocated in- Rajasthan.exander
35.Alexander Graham bell is credited with the invention of-Telephone.
36. ‗The Television‘ was invented by-J.L.Baird.
37.where is the longest railway playtform in the world - Kharagpur
38. which of the following countries is called the land of white elephant -
Thailand
39. The capital of Greece is – Athens
40.The Headquarters of United Nations Educational, scientific and cultural
organization (UNESCO) are located in-Paris.
41.Who is the first Indian recipient of the Olympic Gold Order-Indira
Gandhi…`
42.The Largest monument in the world Quetzalcoatl Pyramid is in-Cairo
43.Which planets of our solar system do not have moons-Mercury and
Venus.
44. Two of Ashoka‘ s lion pillars built in the 3rd century B.C. stand
perfectly preserved even today at their original location. One is at Lauriya
Nandangarh. Where is the other?- Sarnath
45.Which article of the constitution of India provides for the post of
Governor of state?-Article153
46.In which State is the Sun Temple Suryan Kovil located? –Tamil Nadu
47.At which of the following Olympic Games did the lndian Hockey team
win its first gold medal?-Amsterdam
48. First Chief Election Commissioner of India was – Sukumar Sen.
49. East Timor received independence in 2002 from – Indonesia.
50. First woman Prime Minister in the world was of – Sri Lanka.
51. Deficiency disease Vitamin A-Night Blindness, Vitamin B –beriberi,
Vitamin C – scurvy
Vitamin D –Rickets, Vitamin E-Skin and hair disease, Vitamin K – Clotting
of Blood.
52. Rich sources of Vitamin A- Carrots, PEM- Protein Energy Malnutrients.
53..Disease due to deficiency of Iron – Anemia, Life time of RBC – 120
Days

UGC Environment I

PEOPLE AND ENVIRONMENT

At present the most prominent problem in front of us is of environmental
degradation and depletion of natural reeources. The problem is basically due
to the fact that our society is fiercely intent on producing and consuming 8S
much as possible, and increasing the volume as fast 88 possible every year,
without any limit in sight. We are already far beyond sustainable per capita
levels of resource use and environmental impact, but our supreme goal is
economic growth; i.e., to increase production and consumption and the GDP
all the time and without limit! Most people and all governments refuse to
face up to the nlimits to growth analysis" of our situation. We can only have
an ecologically sustainable society if we move to The Simpler Way, i.e., to a
society in which we have materially simple lifestyles, in highly selfsufficient
local economies that are run mostly through cooperative arrangements, in a
quite new economy; one that is not driven by the profit motive and market
forces and has no economic growth.

THE BASIC CAUSE OF THE ENVIRONMENT PROBLEM

Our way of life in rich countries like Australia. involves consumption of

huge volumes of resources, and consequently it involves dumping vast
amounts of wastes into the environment. To provide a US lifestyle to one
person, about 80 tonnes of materials have to be processed every year, much
of it mining waste. Energy equal to 7 tonnes of oil has to be used. For each
kilo offood-eaten some 10 kgofsoil are lost. At least 4.5 ha of productive
land are needed just to provide one person living in a rich
world city with their food, water, living space and energy. If all the world's
people were to live as we do, productive land equal to 3.5 times all
the world's productive land would be needed, and world population is very
likely going to almost double before it stabilises around 9·10 billion. In other
words the way we live is not just somewhat unsustainable; it is far beyond a
sustainable level of re so urce use and" environmental impact. U all the
people we are to have on earth soon were to have the Australian average per
capita energy use then world energy production would have to be 9 -10
times what it is today. Yet tbe top priority in our society is to increase
production , consumption, living standards and tbe G DP, all
the time and without limit. We cannot reduce these demands for re80tll"CeS
from nature and the dumping of wastes into nature unless we change to a
very different society, one in which all can live 'Vell on very low material
living standards.

AIR POLLUTION
Air pollution refers to the degradation of air quality as measured by
biological, chemical, or physical criteria. Air pollution occurs when the
concentrations of certain substances become high enough to make our
atmospheric environment toxic. Air pollutants can be gaseous, liquid or solid
in form, and can come from natural as well as human sources. Examples of
natural sources of air pollution include forest flres, pollen, volcanic
emissions, and dust. Human sources of air pollutants include emissions from
industry, agriculture, forestry, transportation, power generation, aud space
beating_

TYPES OF AIR POLLUTION

In general, two types of air pollutants bave been recognized: Primary
Pollutants: Primary pollutants are oonsist of materials (dust, gases, liquids
and other solids) that enter the atmosphere through natural and human-made
events. The main primary pollutants influencing our atmosphere in order of
emission (by weight) are carbon monoxide, sulfur oxides, nitrogen oxides,
volatile organic compounds, and particulate matter. Volatile organic
compounds are organic molecules that 8.re mainly composed of carbon
and hydrogen atoms (hydrocarbons). The most common volatile organic
compound release into the atmosphere is methane. Methane poses no drrect
danger to human bealth; however, It does contribute to global warming
through the greenhouse effect. Other volatile organic compounds releases
Into the atmosphere include benzene. forrn.sldehyde, and
chlorofluorocarbons. Of these chemicals, benzene and formald ehyde are the
most dangerous to human health because they are carcmogeruc. Particulate
matter consists of liquid or solid particles that are small enough to remain
suspended in the atmosphere for extended periods of time . Ind ustrial
activity and transportation are the major source of this type
of air pollut.ion. Particulate matter includes common irritants like smoke,
pollen, and dust, which can affect the human re spiratory system. In cities,
particulate matter may also include particles composed of iron, copper,
nickel, and lead. These particles influence the respll'atory system
Immediately, and make breathing difficult for people with chronic
respiratory disorders. Airborne lead, formed by the burning of lead gasoline,
can accumulate in the tissues and boncs of humans and other
living organisms. At high levels lead can cause nervous system damage,
convulsions, and even death. It is especially dangerous to children and
the unborn. Secondary Pollutants: Secondary pollutanta are consist .of
primary pollutants that have reacted with each other or with the ba.sic
components of the atmosphere to form new toxic substa.nces. In cities, the
emissions from cars and industries combine with the help of light energy
from the sun to produce photochemical smog. Photochemica1smog is
extremely toxic to arumal and plant life. and damages paint, rubber, and
plastics. Finally, air pollution can also occur indoors. In buildings, about 150
different indoor pollutants have been identified. Some of the more common
indoor air polJutants include smoke from cigarettes and cooking, radon.
formaldehyde, and asbestos. At high concentrations, these pollutants can
cause dizziness. headaches, coughing. sneezing. nausea, burning eyes,
chronic fatigue, and Ou like symptoms. Some indoor pollutants, like
asbestos and smoke, can cause disease and premature death.

AIR POLLUTION CONTROL

Several different strategies have been used to reduce atmospheric pollution.
Some polluters have used a number of techniques to redistribute pollutanta
to areas not occupied by humans or other forms of life. Smelters and power
plants use tall smoke stacks to disperse pollutants at higher levels within t.he
atmosphere. Other atmospheric polluters have relocated their particular
industry to remote locations. However, it is very difficult to dilute
pollution in finite atmosphere. Sooner or later residual amounts of pollution
reach levels that. are hazardous to some form of life. Humans have
developed a number of technologica l soluti ons to atmospheric pollution.
Filters have been used to stop particles from reaching the atmosphere. Some
power plants use electrostatic precipitators to redure pollution output by as
much as 99%. 'I'he addition of limestone with coal in specialized
burners can reduce sulfur emissions from this fossil fuel by up to 90%.
CatalytiC converters in cars and other forms of transportation have
been used to reduce emIssions or mtrogen oxides. hydrocarbons. and carbon
monOXide by'At. Many automobile oompanies are now
working on t he development of hydrogen powered or electric vehicles to
reduce emissions of several pollutants. One of the quickest and
most common approachos car companies have used to reduce engine
emissions is to increase fuel efficiency. In different. countries, cars must
be inspected frequently to insure emissions controls are working properly. I
ndoor pollution can be reduced by the modIfication of building
codes. These modifications can be used to control materials used in
construction and to ensure proper ventilation is set up in the
building. Finally, the s urest way to control atmospheric pollution is to avoid
the creation of the pollutants. Fuel switching; and fuel cleaning
can reduce the emissions of sulfur and heavy metals from so ca lled 'diTty'
IOssil fuels like soft coal. The movement to conserving our fossil fuel
energy resources, which began in the 1970s, has been very effective in
reducing emissions per pereon. In conclusion, the following general
recommendations for developing a cleaner atmosphere should be adopted by
ali nations: * Preventing pollution emission rather than controlling it.
Improve the energy efficiencies. * Use cleaner fuels. * Den!iop nonpolluting
energy sources like solar energy, wind power. And hydropower. *
Encourage mass transit and less polluting forms of transportation (e.g.,
switch from air travel to rail travel). * Slow population growth. * Include
environmental costs in the pricing of energy resources and other activities
that prOduce atmospheric pollution.

KYOTO AND THE CLrMATE CHANGE CONVENTION

The problem of global climate change because of increasing greenhouse gas
concentrations can only be properly addressed by the united cooperation of
our planet's nations. Consequently, the United Nations has set up
the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC) to help mediate this process (see link below). One important
partner organization that provides scientific advice to the United Nations is
the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (lPCC). At a United
Nations sponsored meeting of industrialized countries in Kyoto, Japan, in
December 1997, Canada agreed to reduce its greenhouse gas emissions by 6
% below 1990 levels between the years 2008 and 2012. However, as of 2000
greenhouse emissions are still rising in Canada and the federal
government of this nation still has not formulated a plan to reach its
reduction targets. WATER POLLUTION Water pollution refers to the
degradation of water quality as measured by biological. chemical, or
physical criteria. Degradation of water is generally judged m terms of the
intended use, departure from the norm, effects on public health or ecological
impacts. There are many different matermls that may pollute surface water
or groundwater. The following list describes some of the major forms of
water pollution: (a) The addition of organic matter to water
usually initiates the process of decomposition. Most decompose;s require
oxygen to complete this process. As a result. oxygen levels in the water
decline with activity. Humans commonly use water bodies, like rivers, lakes
and ocean, as a means of disposing of organic wastes. However, adding too
much organic matter to a water body can cause it to becom" polluted
because of a reduction in oxygen content. Low levels of oxygen can kill off
fish , plants, and other organisms. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a
measure of the amount of oxygen consumed in water by bacteria activity.
BOD is measured as milligrams per Ilter ofo:x)'gen oonsumed over 5 days at
20 degrees Celsius. All water bodies have some capability to degrade
organic waste. Problems result when the water bpdy is overloaded with
BOD· demanding W3ste. (b) Fecal coliform bacteria and other disease
carrying microorganisms are important biological pollutants. Many of these
organisms increase in numbers when water is polluted with organic matter
and waste. Among the major waterborne human diseases are cholera and
typhoid, which are common in many poor developing countries.
(c) Nutrients (like nitrogen and phosphorus) released by human activity can
cause lake eutrophication and nitrite contammation of
drinking water. Excess nitrogen and phosphorous from farm animal waste
and agricultural fertilizers is causing a major pollution problem in streams,
lakes, and the coastal marine environment in many nations. 160
(d) Oil discharge into surface water, usually ocea n, haa cauaed major
pollution problems. (e) Heavy metals such as mercury, zinc, and
cadmium are dangerous pollutants and are often deposited with natural
sediment in the bottoms of streams. (f) The hot-water emission from
industrial and power plants causee thermal pollution. Many industries cool
machinery and products with water drawn from rivers, lakes, or the ocean.
After the heat is dissipated into the water, the water is returned to its source.
Heated water changes the nature of the aquatic system
by reducing its ability to hold dissolved oxygen and by favoring species
offauna and flora that are adapted to warmer conditions. (g) Radioactive
materials in water may be dangerous pollutants. Of particular
concern are possible effects to people, other animals and plants to long-term
exposure to low doses of radioactivity. (h) By volume, sediment is the
greatest water pollutant. In many areas, sediment is
choking streams and filling lakes, reservoirs, ponds, canals, drainage ditches,
and harbors. Human activity has increased the amount of sediment entering
the hydrologic system mainly through the
disturbance of natural habitats, agriculture, and forestry. All of these
activities enhance the process of erosion either through the removal of
vegetation or via processes that disturb the soil surface layer (soil
cultivation).

WATER CONSERVATION TECHNIQUES

A number of techniques and technologies can be used to make agricultural,
industrial and domestic water use more efficient. Reductions can easily
occur in the following areas: Reducing Agricultural Waste ~ lrrigation
accounts for about 70 % of the world's water use. Most irrigation systems
deliver water to crops by flooding the land surface, diverting water to fields
via open channels, or by sprinkler systems that apply water to the field
surface. In general, these methods are very inefficient as only 50 % of the
water applied is absorbed by the plants. The rest is lost to the
atmosphere by evaporation. Microirrigation techniques can reduce the
amount of water applied to crops by 40 to 60%. Other strategies
that can be used to reduce agricultural water waste include: * The cultivation
of food crops that require less water for growth. * The use of lined or
covered irrigation canals to reduce infiltration and evaporation losses. *
Irrigating crops at night or early morning when evaporation potentials are
low. * Reduce water subsidies and encourage the proper pricing of this
resource. Reducing Industrial Waste -Industry is the second largest user of
water supplies. ReduClng the amount of water used in industry not only
makes more water available for other purposes but it can also reduce the
volume ofpollution. Industry used water reductions can be achieved by: *
Designing industrial processes to recycle water. For example, water used for
industrial cooling purposes can be cooled down in a cooling tower and then
reused. * Increasing the cost of water to induet.ries to encourage water
recycling. * Recycling materials themselves can also greatly reduce water
demand. For example, manufacturing a ton of aluminum from scrap rather
than from virgin ore can reduce the volume of water used by 97%. Reducing
Domestic Waste -Some'strate,gies for reducing domesticconsunlption
include: * Replace lawns in semiarid and arid urban areas with xeriscsped
surfaces. * Encourage the use of efficient irrigation systems for home garden
and lawn use. * Manufacture and legislate the use of more efficient
dishwashers, washing machines, and bathroom showers and toilets. *
Encourage leak detection and repair for distribution systems. Distribution
systems in many of the world's urban areas are losing between 25 and 50%
of their water supplies due to leaks in pipes. * Properly price water for
domestic u se. This pnce must reflect the environmental cost of over
consumption and resource degradation. Many studies have shown that
higher prices for water provide motivation for people to conserve. The
introduction of water meters in Boulder, Colorado reiluced water use by
about 30%. In Canada, water is metered in approximately two-thirds of the
municipalities.

Apart from these educations can encourage people to reduce the amount of
personal consumption.

NOISE POLLUTION
Noise as a Pollutant ''AnY sound, that has the potential to call,se
disturbance, discomfort or psychological stress to a. subject e:xposed to it, or
any sound, that could cause actual physiological harm to a subject exposed
to it, or physical damage to any structure exposed to it, is known as noise. "
Hannfnl effects are defined as "negative effects on human health ".
Noise sensitive locations are defined as: . "Any dwelling house, hotel or
hostel, health building, educational establishment, place of worship or
entertainment, or any other facility or other area of high amenity which
affords proper enjoyment requires the absence of noise
at nuisance levels." Noise is almost ubiquitous. Many normal
everyday activities lead to the prodt:ction of sounds, some of which are
regarded as noise. Noise from traffic, lawnmowers, household
appliances, concerts, and industrial activities and so on, are considered
commonplace. In most cases the majority of people scarcely notice
these noises and are not bothered by them, but in some cases people can
perceive noise as a nuisance. Such people may be more sensitive
than others, or may find themselves in particularly nOISY situations, or may
be annoyed by noise because they want to sleep, or
relax in a quiet atmosphere. In some cases, noise may present such a
nuisance as to actually bring about a negative effect on the
health ofthose exposed to it. Noise Measuring
The EPA goes on to explain that in order to assess whether intervention is
needed to preve nt, control or minimise noise, it is
necessary to be able to quantify it. and ascribe a scale ofmeasul'ement to it.
It is not a8 simple a science as one might think. Noise is usually
measured on the decibel scale, which is a logarithmic scale of sound
intensity. For human noise response, the decibel scale is
adjusted slightly to compensate for slight aberrations in the way the human
ear "hears" sound along the scale. This edjusted scale is
known as the A weighted decibeJ scale, and the units of the scale are d BA.
The EPA has produced a table, which describes how various decibel levels
might sounds as follows: DBA Description o Absolute silence. 25 Very
quiet room. 35 Rural night-time setting. No wind. 55 Day-time, busy
roadway 0.5 km away. 70 Busy restaurant. 85 Very busy pub. Voice has to
be raised to be heard . 100 Disco or rock concert. 120 Uncomfortably loud.
Conversation impossible. 140 Noise causing pain in ears. LAND
POLLUTION Also known as soil pollution, land pollution
involves the following mechanism: * Deposition of solid waste *
Accumulation of... non· biodegradable materials * Toxification of chemicals
into poisons * Alteration of soil chemical composition (imbalance of
chemical equilib.riulll to soil medium) By as much, land pollution of this has
amass globally, everyday threatening the very foundation and mechanical
support of every matter on earth. Statistically, it has been shown that: * 108s
of 6 million hectares of land per year * loss of 24 billion tons of topsoil per
year * 108s of minimum 15 million acres prime agricultural land to overuse
and mismanagement * desertification ofland results in the lost of 16 million
per square miles of world's landsurface The causes for such devastation are
generally due to two forms of malpractices: Unhealthy soil management
methods; improper tillage of soil in which excessive tillage result in the
deterioration of soil structure * non-maintenance of a proper supply of
organic matter in the soil from the imbalance composition of the reserves of
organic matter especially nitrogen, phosphorus and sulfur unplenished
supply after cultivation of vegetation, living the soil prone to soil infertility,
unable to stabilize the soil physicality which ultimately let to desertification.
* irregular maintenance ofa proper nutrient supply of trace elements gives
rise to the use of excessive synthetic fertilizers, which are non biodegradable
and accumulate in t he soil system which eventually destroys useful
organisms such as bacteria, fungi and other organisms. * improper
maintenance' of the correct soil ocidity which ultimately disrupt the
adaptation of various crops and native vegetation of different soils as the
solubility of minerals present will be affected. [n a more acidic soil, minerals
tend to be more soluble and washed away during rainfall while alkaline soil,
minerals are more insoluble which form complex minerals unable to be
absorbed into the flora system physiological usage. Imprope r irrigation
practices;*poorly drained soil result in salt deposits leading to high soil
salinity that inhibit plant growth and may lead to crop failure. * unirrigated
land giving rise to stagnation of agriculture waste products which
accumulates and increases land toxicity. * irregular irrigation leads to
decreasing moisturization ofland for soil medium and replenishments of
solvents for minerals.

UGC Environment II

SOURCES AND METHODS Agriculture accumulation of animal

manures, excessive input of chemical fertilizers and illicit dumping
of tainted crops on land. . Mining and Quarrying using of explosives to blow
up mines and using of machineries which emits toxic byproducts and leaks
to the ground. Sewage sludge improper sanitation system causes sludge to
leak at surrounding soil. Dredged spoils improper method of dredging at
fertile land causes soil infertility, leaving the soil more prone to external
pollution. Household improper waste disposal system and improper
sanitation system. Demolition and construction non biodegradable rubbles or
debris which are not cleared settled in the soil undergo chemical reactions
and increase soil toxicity. Industrial poisonous/toxic emissions of gases
which are not filtered or neutrali zed. RADIOACTrvE POLLUTION
Nuclear energy is a form of energy that's released by the splitting of atoms.
Since scientists have found a way to make use of the energy, it has also been
used to generate electricity. Nuclear energy has been recognized as a clean
energy because it doesn't release pollutants such BS CO2 to the atmosphere
after its reaction that could damage our environment. It's also known that
nuclear energy has reduced the amount of greenhouse gas emission,
reducing emissions of CO2 for about 500 million metric tons of carbon.
Despite the advantage of nuclear as a clean energy, the big concern is the
waste resulted from nuclear reaction, which is a form of
pollution, called radioactivity. Radioactivity is a form of radiation (a form
o(energy that travels through space). Some elements in this world
are naturally radioactive while Bome Qthers are made to be. Radioactivity is
emitted when a radioactive element become WlStable and begin to decay in
the attempt to regain their molecular stability. When an element decays, it
emits energy and small particles. [f it's still radioactive, it will repeat the
proceas, until it finally regains its molecular stability and stop decaying. The
time that it takes for halfway of decaying process is called half-life, and this
differs for each radioactive element. It p0S8ibly takes up to 4.5 billion years
(Uranium 238) and as short as 8 days (Iodine 131). This process
constantly remains, not coABi~:t:ing e)(te.rnal factors such as pressure or
tempe..ratur.e. This process is expressed ill units calle..d.b:e:cque:r.e.ls.
One becquerel is equal to on.e di.s.in.t:4tgratio,n.oi nuclei per second.
There are commonly three types of :t:ad.i.a.tion. namely: . * Alpha particles,
can be blocked by a piece of paper and human skin. * Beta particles can
penetrate through skin, which can be blockedby some pieces
of glass and metal * Gamma rays can penetrate easily to human skin and
damage cells on its way through, reaching far, and can only beblocked
by a very thick, strong, massive piece of concrete.

Sources and Methods

We can classify major sources that lead to radioactive pollution to the
following categories * nuclear power plants * nuclear weapon transportation
*disposal of nuclear waste*uranium mining
THERMAL.POLLUTION
This has become an increasing and the most current pollution, owing to the
increasing call or globalization everywhere. Heat produced from industries
is a major contribution to the pollution, much to the operation of the heavy
industries which produces high amount of heat energy As we will show a
summary to the event of tms pollution happening: * Raw materials for
productivity (organic and inorganic products) * Undergo different chemical
reactions with several process * Excess heat energy is produced as a waste
PrOOuct * Heat is released into atmosphere (vapor) and riverine system
(liquid). * Increase of temperature of environmental system and view of the
pollution, global temperature had increased significa ntly. Measurements of
atmospheric temperature are done by met~rol ogical center of the weather
fo~t annually, and the gi'aph to detect the temperature trend from a pel'iod of
10 years will be CQDlpared with the previous batch of period. Thus we may
be able to know the rate of tempe.rature increa se overa ll and make
reference to the standard level of heat that shouldbe maintain in the
atmosphere to avoid large deviation of heat in the system. Sources and
Methods Wit can classify major sources that Jead to thermal pollution to the
following categories: * power plants creating electricity from fossil fuel *
water as a cooling agent in ind ustrial facilities * deforestation of the
shoreline * soil erosion

THE GREENHOUSE PROBLEM

A number of the gases we are putting into the atmosphere have the effect of
trapping energy that co.mes to the earth as sunlight but which
would otherwise be radiated back into space. The main contributor is carbon
dioxide, accounting for about half the greenhouse effect.
Humans generate about 24 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide each year,
mostly from the burning of fossil fuels (coal, oil and gas) in rich
countries. The carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere has inCI'eased by
about 25% since humans began to use fossil fuels in large
quantities 150 years ago. The concentration is now around 350 ppm and
increasing by abou t 1.5% p.a. The effects can't be predicted with
confidence but this increase could result in a 1-2 degree rise in average
global temperature by 2030. The expected rise at the poles is much
greater. If the greenhouse effect continues into the 22nd century then polar
ice would begin to melt eventually bring about a sea rise of perhaps a
hundred metres. Even a half metre rise would cause huge problems for the
many people who live on low lying islands and in coastal regions.
Probably the most undesirable effects will be hotter and drier climates in
many Third World regions such as the African Sahel, where millions of
people even now have difficulty growing enough food , and more frequent
occurrence of extreme climatic events such 98 storms, floods, droughts and
cyclones. These can devastate food production. It is possible that positive
feedback effects from several sources could suddenly produce a
catastrophic runaway greenhouse effect. For example, * As the warming
dries out the Arctic tundra it begins to rot, releasing greenhouse gases. * As
the tropical rainforest is destroyed we lose the cloud, t heir moisture
generates. That cloud presently reflects much solar energy back into space,
cooling the earth.*As the warming reduces the formation of polar ice each
year less salt is separated to fall to the bottom causing the huge currents that
take carbon-rich water down. * As these currents diminish less nutrients are
brought up to feed the plankton which take in much carbon. * As the oceans
warm and become more poliuted coral reefs dissolve, ceasing to take carbon
from the atmosphere and releasing their carbon to the ocean. It seems that
the global atmospheric system can flip from one state to another fairly
quiclly. Some ice ages have come and gone relatively suddenly. The worry
is that human activity could tip the system into a new state, for example,
bringing on a new ice age. Nature moves 100 times as much carbon into and
out of the atmosphere as humans do, so we might trigger or lever huge shifts
and runaway effec:ts in nature's processes. PLANT MANY TREES
It doesn't take long to realise that there is no realistic chance of solving the
greenhouse problem by planting trees to remove carbon dioxide from t he
atmosphere. Firstly we'd have to plant something like the a rea of Australia,
and secondly this would only take carbon from the atmosphere while the
trees were growing. Similarly, increasing the use of nuclear energy
in order to cut coal use would not make much difference. Burning coal to
prod uce electricity contributes only a small fraction of the carbon
input, carbon constitutes only ahout half of the greenhouse problem, ~nd to
build all the reactors needed would reqwre a great deal of
energy and would therefore help to make the greenhouse problem worse for
possibly 50 years. ... AND ENERGY GROWTH If the CO2 content of the
atmosphere continues to increase at the present rate then late next century it
will probably have risen to around 8 times the present level.
World energy consumption is growing at about 2% p.a. Remember that the
Third World is trying to catch up the developed world in energy
consumption and use. In fact half the wc:-Id's people average only 1117 the r
ich world average per capita usc. !fall the people likely on earth late next
century were to rise to the present per capita use levels in rich countries
world energy use would be about 8 times its present amount. If India and
China insist on pursuing the Western development model they will have to
burn their large r esources of dirty coal, causing a far worse greenhouse
problem than we have now. We should be trying to convince them that
it is a mistake to think of satisfactory development in terms of high levels of
industrialisation and oonsumption. But there is little chance of them listening
to UB unless they could see that we in rich oountries were making a big
effort to reduce OUl' use of fossil fuel s. The atmospheric scientists have
been telling us for years that if we are to stop the level of carbon in the
atmosphere from nsmg any higher.lt carbon inputs by 60-80%. If we were to
cut them by 60% and share the quantity of energy between all the
people we would have on earth by 2060 you and I would have to get by on
only 1/18 of the energy we use now. Most people have no idea of the
magnitude of the overshoot and therefore the magnitude of the reductions in
resource use and in consumption that will have to be made if the
problems are to be solved. The greenhouse problem provides strong support
for the "limits to growth" argument. There is no plausible way of solving the
problem without accepting drastic reduction in per capita levels of
production and consumption and thus shifting to The Simpler Way,
including a zero-growth economy.

THE OZONE PROBLEM

In the mid 1980s, it was realised that the ozone in the atmosphere is being
depleted. There is only a very small quantity ofthia gas. If all the molecules
of ozone were brought together at normal pressure they would make up a
layer around the earth less than 3 mm thick. Yet ozone performs the
extremely important function of blocking out much of the ultraviolet light
that comes from the sun and is hal'mful to life. Life on earth was only able to
emerge from the seas on to the land after plants had released enough oxygen
to create an ozone shield. In the late 1980s scientists observed a large hole
forming each year in the ozone over the antarctic. More recently another
hole has appeared over the Arctic. By the early 1990's there had been about
a 3-5% reduction in the amount of o~ne in the whole atmosphere. The
main destr uctive gases, CFC's, remain active in the atmosphere for 100
years. The ozone problem illustrates the most important aspect of the general
environment problem, i.e., the damage being done to the life support systems
of the planet. Increased ultraviolet light coming to earth will have
undesirable effects on various biological systems, including the productivity
of broad leaf plants (and therefore agriculture) and the micro-organisms in
the sea which account for a considerable proportion of the world's ,oxygen
and which take much carbon from the atmosphere. Processes such as these
are crucial in maintaining the conditions necessary for the health of the
entire planet, and the most worrying aspect of the environment problem is
that in many ways human activity is degrading these systems and processes
that. make life on earth possible.
ACID RAIN
In the heavily industrialised areas of North America and Europe the rainfall
has become acidic due t.o the amount. of nitrogen and sulphur entering the
atmosphere especially from cars and power stations. As a result forests and
lakes are dying. This is one more factor reducing the productivity of
agricult.ure and more importantly degrading the life support systems of the
planet. There will be strong pressure to increase use of foss il fuels and
fertilisers in coming decades, increasing the release of acid to the
atmosphere.

SOIL DAMAGE
All life on earth depends on the earth's fragile "life jacket" made up by the
thin layer of topsoil (average depth only 30 cm) from which all living things
derive their sllstenance. We are treating this vital resource in a way that
cannot continue for many more decades. Our agriculture is one of the most
unsustainable aspects of our society. Consider the main damaging effects.
For every 1 kg of food we eat, modern agriculture loses at least 5 kg of soil
to erosion. Water logging and salinity in irrigated areas are destroying much
land. Large areas of good farmland are continually being turned into urban
settlements. In America perhaps h alf million ha p.a. are lost this way.
Large scale use of pesticides reduces soil fertility. Much land is being lost to
the spread of deserts, at a global rate of 6 million ha p.a .. Another 20
million ha became unprofitable to farm each year. Rainfall is increasingly
acidic. Soil nutrients are not returned to the soil. We throwaway all our food
wastes, and animal and human wastes. These should all be
returned to the soil. Modern agricultlure is therefore well described as "soil
mining". Soils are becoming more acidic due to use of artificial fertilisers.
The Greenhouse and ozone problems will have undesirable effects on
agriculture in coming years. Another important reason why our
agriculture is unsustainable is that it depends on large quantities of energy.
especially oil. In addition to all the energy used in tractor fuel, fertilisers,
irrigation and pesticides there are huge transport and packaging energy costs.
We will not be able to farm as we do now when much less oil is available in
a few decades time. We could not do it now if world oil output were
shared equally among all the world's people. We in rich countries can use so
much in our agriculture only because we take most of the world's oil
production. To produce one glass of qiilk can take energy equal to half a
glass of diesel fuel. These trends cannot continue for many more decades.
We are destroying our capacity to meet our agricultural needs. Remember
that there will probably be twice as many people to feed late next century
and it is likely that there will then be much less land than there is now.
To solve these problems we must move to a very different form of
agriculture in which we mostly depend on small farms and gardens, tree
crops, "edible landscapes" throughout cities, local self-sufficiency in food
(hence little transport), recycling of nutrients and thus
negligible use of ploughing, artificial fertilizers or pesticides.
THE POLLUTION OF THE OCEANS Large quantities of wastes are
dumped into the world's oceans every year, including the run·off
of excess fertiliser from farmland, and 2 million tonnes of oil which affects
photosynthesis and the amount of sunlight reflected from the
planet. In the early 1980s the North Sea was receiving every year 49 tonnes
of cadmium, 20 tonnes of mercury, 12 tonnes of copper, 9 tonnes
of lead, 34 tonnes of arsenic, and 20 million cubic metres of sewage.
THE LOSS OF FORESTS Around 16·20 million hectares of rainforest are
being lost each year and most of the remaining foreetmighthave been
destroyed by early in the 21st century. In addition about -4 million ha of
other forest types are being lost every year. This destruction not only reduces
the rate at which carbon is taken out of the atmosphere, but the
rotting of cleared vegetation and exposed soil humus is also putting carbon
into the atmosphere, )1ossibly equal to 40% of the input
from fossil fuel burning. The loss of the rainforest could also reduce
the planet's cloud cover and therefore greatly increase its temperature.
Tropical forest loss is the main cause of the loss of species.

THE LOSS OF SPECIES

The expansion of human activity is destroying· habitats and causing the
extinction of plant and animal species at an accelerating rate. This is
probably the most serious of all ecological problems. There are probably 10
to 30 million species in existence, mostly undiscovered as yet. In the 300
years to 1970 humans probably caused the extinction of about 300 species.
Some biologists estimate that we are now losing 17500 species every year,
about 2 every hour.ln the next 20 years, one million plant and animal
species could be made extinct. At this rate, in the next 50 years half of all
species could be lost. We have entered a period of rapid extinction
unlike any since 60 million years ago when the dinosaurs suddenly died out.
The result will be the weakening of the life-support systems of the
planet, because it is the diversity and complexity of life forms which
maintains these systems, for example recycling nutrients and maintaining the
atmosphere. We are also losing many varieties of food plants because it suits
corporations to sell mostly the few types which maximise their profits.
Becauge the seeds they se ll are "hybrids" the resulting plants will not yield
a seed that produces a good crop, meaning that farmers can't save their own
seed and have to buy more seed from the big seed companies every year.
The seeds sold are the types that thrive only when given many energy-
intensive inputs such as fertiliser and water. Because of this trend, within
one generation, large numbers of plant varieties that used to be kept in
existence by farmers saving their own seed are being lost as farmers all
around the world are now mostly buying the same few varieties from the
seed corporations.

THE DIMINISHING BIOLOGICAL PRODUCTIVITY OF THE

EARTH
Tn the last decade evidence has increased that the productivity of the earth's
biological systems has begun to decline, despite the everincreasing effort
humans are making to raise production. Many agricultural production
indices which have been increasing in recent decades now seem to be
slowing, stable or falling. Consider the following indicators noted by the
Worldwatch Institute. * World cropland area increased to the early 1980s
but little increase is likely from here on. * World grain lan~ area has
decreased since 1970. * The growth rate for forests is declining. * Annual
increases in world grain production have been falling over the last three
decades, despite increased fertiliser use. * The rate of increase in world
irrigated land area is tapering. * The productivity of land did not rise
much in the' second half of the 19808, despite increased inputs. * World fish
catch is very likely to decline in the near future. The number of fishing
vessels doubled in the 1980s but the catch didn't mcrease. These tapering
curves are quite disturbing. The environmental impacts largely responsible
for t he declining productivity are accelerating. We are only feeding 1 billion
people well, but we will soon have 11 billion, and our capacity to
produce food is likely to diminish from here on. EFFECTS ON HUMAN
HEALTH Since World War 11 humans have had to live in a new chemical
environment, increasingly surrounded by and taking in many pollutants
created by our industries. Thousands of new chemicals are invented each
year and tonnes of these new substances are released into the
environment each year, entering our water, air and food. Only a few are ever
tested thoroughly for their long term health effects. Many of these
wastes are known to be poisonous. Chemicals leaching from dumps into
drinki ng water supplies is a major problem. This increase in the
contamination of our environment is probably a major factor responsible for
the increasing incidence of cancers. Some people argue that we a re
experiencing an epidemic. Two worrying factors here are biological
magnification, the way some harmful substances become more concentrated
as they move up food chains. and synergism, the way some substances in our
envu'ollment can interact with each other to have greater effects.
For example, the probabilit.y of an asbestos worker who is a smoker
contracting cancer is about 10 times as great as the probability for
smokers in general or that for asbestos workers in ge neral. These two
factors togethel' interact to produce a much greater risk. We have little idea
how t.he many new chem icals we are exposed to could be
interacting within us to cause illnesses, but the more we saturate ow'
environment with new chemicals the more likely such effects are.

THE ENVIRONMENT PROBLEM IN THE THIRD WORLD

Some of the most se r io us environmental damage is taking place in the
Third World, especially destruction of forests and the loss of species. The
resulting famines, floods, erosion and droughts are taking a rapidly
increasing number of lives each year. As the trees are lost rain runs off more
rapidly, eroding soils and causing more serious flooding, and more serious
droughts later on. When there is less wood people burn more dung, which
should be going back to the soil. There are now millions of
"environmental refugees"; people fleeing because their environments have
become unable to support them. To some extent these increasingly serious
environmental problems are due to population increase in the Third World
and to corrupt and inefficient governments. But the main causes are the
unjust way the global economy functions and the inappropriate approach to
development the rich countries have promoted. These have encouraged poor
countries to sell otT their forests to purchase goods from rich countries.
They have led poor countries into debt and thus obliged them La sell even
more logs and ooff'ee to pay their debts. They have led to the use of much
land for export cropping and have therefore forced many poor people to
clear forests and to overgraze poor lands in order to grow food for
themselves. [n other words poverty is a major cause of environmental
damage in the Third World. Above all, the "limits to growth" analysis
shows that t he Third World must be persuaded not to strive for the rich
world's industrialised, urbanised and affluent ways. That would require
10 times as much energy and resource oonsumption as'now occurs in the
world every year.
WE ARE DESTROYING THE LIFE SUPPORT SYSTEMS OF THE
PLANET
The most serious environmental concern of all is that we are damaging the
biological processes that provide and renew the oonditions all life on
earth needs, such as an appropriate climate and a constant supply of
nutrients. Every organism depends for its existence on a fairly stable
supply of nitrogen, phosphorus, oxygen, etc. Where did the oxygen we just
breathed in come from? It was produced by organisms such as
trees and phytoplankton on the surface of the sea. But we are clearing trees
and we a re allowing ultraviolet rays to damage those micro-organisms.
Every major indicator shows a deterioration in natural systems. We only
have about 40 years left in which to achieve sustainability . We must see all
species and environments as contributing to 8 gigantic system which
reproduces the oonditions and the chemicaJs that all need in order to live.
We all depend entirely on each other ; any organism on earth can only get
the things it must have in order to live because all the others are living
normally and making those elements and conditions available. Yet we are
damaging the system that provides these vital conditions.

WHAT ABOUT TECHNlCAL ADVANCE IN POLLUTION

REDUCTION?
Many people just assume that all we need to do to solve the environmental
and resource problems is have tighter poUution control, buy products that
ate recyclable, and design more 168 energy efficient products, etc. This is
what advocates of "Environmentally Sustamable Development" usually
believe. They do' not see that we need to change our lifestyles or the
economy. The "limits to growth" argument is that there is no chance of
solving the major globa'l problems we face unless we go much
further and drastically reduce the amount of producing and consuming going
on, because the problems are essentially due to the very high levels of
resource use and waste involved in our way of Hre. Even if we achieve large
reductions in the pollution generation rate, but remain rommitted to
economic growth then in a short time we will be polluting 3S much 8S we
were or using as much energy as we were before the cuts. If at a point in
time we were to cut the rate of pollution per unit of output by 30%, but our
economy continued to grow at 3% p.a. then in only 14 years the annual
amount of pollution generated would be back up at the pre-cutlevel,
and i.n another 23 it would be twice as great. Obvi ously any plausible
reduction in envir onmenta l impact will soon be overwhelmed if we insist
on growth in output. lfthe Third World is to develop to the levels
of affluence of developed world that will mean burning 10 times as much
fuel as at present, every year -- pollution control would have to achieve
miracles to keep the consequences to anywhere near the present (intolerable)
levels.
Affluent-industrial-oonsumer society can't be saved by Factor 4 or Factor 10
reductions in the amount of resource use and environmental impact per unit
of output, while commitment to growth remains. Such reductions will soon
be overwhelmed if we continue to pursue growth in output.

UGC Environment III

"ENVIRONMENTALLY SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT"

There is much reference on the part of eCQnomists and governments to the
concept of "environmentally Austainable development". However, this is in
general only an attempt to take some steps to reduce the environmental
impact of economic activity, but there is never any Question of reducing the
volume of production and sales, or of eliminating grossly unnecessary or wa
steful or luxurious 169 UGC·JRF (Paper 1}-22 production. "Ecologically
Sustainable Development" is only about looking for ways of contlUulOg to
produce, but. in ways that will have reduce environmentru impact. The
crucial point IS that the volume of production and consumption current.ly
taking place is far beyond levels that can be kept up, extended to
all the world's people, or remedied by technical advances. The inescapable
conclusion from the limits to growth analysis of our situation is that.
t.here must be drastic reduction in the volume of economic activity taking
place in the world at. present.. This is the last thing that economists,
corporations. and governments want to year, 80 they opt to pretend that it is
sufficient to look for less environmentally damaging ways of conti· nuing to
produce and sell as much as possib le.

THE NEAR FUTURE

Most of the destruction of the environment has taken place since 1950; i.e.,
in the short period of rapid economic growth. The rate of impact on
the ecosystems of the planet will probably increase greatly in coming
decades. * World population will multiply by 1.5. * People in poor
countries, who will probably outnumber us by 6 or 8 to 1 late next
century, also want the high material living standards we have in rich
countries like Australia. * Resources are becoming more scarce,
meaning more effort., more . fuel , a nd pollution will be involved in gelling
them, and more pressure on untouched nat.ural areas such as Antarctica *
Even people in the richest countries insist on endlessly increasing the
amount they produce and consume every year. It is therefol'e virtually
certain that the present. quite disturbing levels of environment.al impact will
become several times as great in coming decades.

THE ECONOMY; BASIC CAUSE OF THE

PROBLEM
It is essent.ial to realise that it is our economic system that is mainly
responsible for the destructive effects we are baving on our environment.
The biggest contribution to saving ecosystems would come with t.be
elimlOation of our enormous volume of unnecessary proCluction, resource
use and the associated ecological disruption, but our economic system will
not allow uS to reduce production to levels that are merely sufficient
fora reasonable lifestyle. Unless production and consumption increase the
economy is in trouble, even though developed countries now produce far
more than is necessary. CONCLUSION Are you dark green or only light
green? Unfortunate ly most concern about t he environment at present is
only devoted to saving areas or species threatened by growth and affiuence
society, or to working for less polluting ways or for recycling schemes or
more energy efficient transport. etc .. without any thought of changing from
a society that is obsessed with growth and affiuence. Such "light
green" efforts are important. and admirahle but many people concerned
about the environment fail to see that there is no chance of solving the
environment problem unless we change to a rad ical conse rver society
involving very different lifesty les, pat erns of settlement, levels of cons
umption and eco nomic arrangements.

NATURAL HAZARDS AND MITIGATION EARTHQUAKES

The shnking of ground is known as earthquake. Earthquakes occur when
energy stored in elastically strained rocks is suddenly released. This release
of ene,rgy causes intense ground shaking in t.he area near the source of the
earthquake and sends waves of elast ic energy, called seismic waves,
throughout the Earth. Earthquakes can be generated by bomb blasts,
volcanic eruptions, anci sudden slippage along faults. Earthquakes are
definitely a geologic hazard for those living in earthquake prone areM, but
the seismic waves generated by earthquakes are invaluable for studying the
interior of the Earth.
ORIGIN OF EARTHQUAKES
Most natural earthquakes are caused by sudden slippage a long a fault zone.
The elastic reboWld theory suggests that if slippage along a fault is hindered
such that elastic strain energy builds up in the deforming rocks on either side
of the fault, when the slippage does occur, the energy released causes an
earthquake. This theory was discove red by making measurements at a
number of points across 8 fault. Prior to an earthquake it was noted that the
rocks adjacent to the fault were bending. These bends disappeared after an
earthquake suggesting that the energy stored in bending the rocks was
suddenly released during the earthquake.

SEISMOLOGY, THE STUDY OF EARTHQUAKES

When an earthquake occurs, the elastic energy is released sending out
vibrations that travel throughout the Earth. These vibrations are called
seismic waves. The study of how seismic waves behave in the Earth is called
~ismoiogy. Seismograms - Seismic waves travel through the Earth as
vibrations. A seismometer is an instrument used to record these vibrations,
and the resulting graph that shows the vibrations is called a seismogram. The
seismometer must be able to move with the vibrations, yet part of it
must remain nearly s tationary. This is accomplishe.d by isolating the
recording device (like a pen) from the rest of the Earth using the
principal of ine rtia . The source of an earthquake is called the focus, which
is an exact location within the Earth where seismic waves are generated by
sudden release of stored elastic energy. The epicenter is the point on the
surface of t he Earth directly above the focus. Seismic waves emanating
from the focus can travel in several ways, and thus there are several different
kinds of seismic waves. Body Waves - Emanate from the focus and
travel in all directions through the body of the Earth. There are two types of
body waves: P-waves and S-waves: P-Waves - Primary waves, travel with a
velocity that depends on the elastic properties of the rock through which
they travel. P-waves are the same thing as sound waves. They move through
the material by compressing it, but after it has been compressed it expands,
so that the wave moves by compressing and expanding the material as
it travels. Thus the velocity of the P·wave depends on how easily the
material can be compressed (the incompressibility), how rigid the material is
(the rigidity), and the density of the material P-waves have the highest
velocity of all seismic waves and thus will reach all seismographs first.
S-WaveB - Secondary waves, also called shear waves. Surface Waves -
Surface 'waves differ from body waves in that they do not travel through
the Earth, but instead travel along paths nearly parallel to the surface of the
Earth. Surface waves behave like S-waves in that they cause up and down
and side to side movement as they pass, but they travel slower than S-wavcs
and do not travel through the body of the Earth. Surface waves are often the
cause of the most intense ground motion during an earthquake. These are
known as L-waves (Longitudinal Waves). The record of an earthquake, a
seismogram, as recorded by a seismometer, will be a plot of vibrations
versus time. On the seismograph, time is marked at regular intervals, so that
we can determine the time of arrival of the first P-wave and the time of
arrival of the first S-wave. Since P-waves have a higher velocity than S-
waves, the P-waves arrive at the seismographic station before the S-waves. *
Magnitude of Earthquakes -The size of an earthquake is usually given in
terms of a scale called the Richter Magnitude. Richter Magnitude is a scale
of earthquake size developed by a seismologist named Charles Richter. The
Richter Magnitude involvcs measuring the amplitude (height) of the largest
recorded wave at 8 specific distance from the earthquake. While it is COl
reet to say that for each increase in I in the Richter Magnitude, there is a
tenfold increase in amplitude of the wave, it is incorrect to say that each
increase of 1 in Richter Magnitude representB a tenfold increase in the size
of the Earthquake. * The Richter scale is an open ended scale with no
maximum or minimum. The largest earthquakes are probably limited by
rock strength. although meteorite impacts could cause even larger
earthquakes. The largest earthquakes so ScaJe is shown in the table below.
Note that far recorded are the Chile earthquake in correspondence between
maximum intensity 1960 with a Richter Magnitude oC8.5, and and Richter
Scale magnitude only applies in the the Alaska (Good Friday) earthquake of
1964 with a Richter Magnitude of 8.6. area around the epicenter. * It usually
takes more than one * Thus, a given earthquake will have zones
seismographic station to calculate the of different intensity all surrounding a
zone of magnitude of an earthquake. Thus you maximum intensity.
will hear initial estimates of earthquake The Modified Mercalli Scale is
shown in the magnitude immediately after an table below. Note that
correspondence between earthquake and a final assigned maximum intensity
and Richter Scale magnitude for tJ:te same earthquake that magnitude only
applies in the area a round the may differ from initial estimates, but is
epicenter. assigned after seismologists have had time to evaluate the data
from numerous (nte- Characteristic Effects Richter Scale seismographic
stations. nsity Equivalent I People do not feel any <3.4 Frequency of
Earthquakes of Different Earth movement Magnitude Worldwide IT A few
people notice movement Magnitude Number of Description if at rest andlor
on upper floor Earthquakes of tall buildings per Year 111 People indoors
feel movement. 4.2 > 8.5 0.3 Great Hanging objcet:.<! swing back 8.0 . 8.4 1
and forth. People outdoors might not rnalize that an 7.5 - 7.9 3 Major
earthquake is occurring 7.0 - 7.4 15 IV People indoors feel mO"/cment. 4.3·
4.8 6.6 - 6.9 56 Hllnging objects awing. Dishea, 6.0 - 6.5 210 Destructive
windows, and doors rattle. Feels 5.0 - 5.9 800 Damaging like a heavy truck
hitting walls. 4.0 - 4.9 6,200 Minor Some people outdoors may 3.0 - 3.9
49,000 fool movement. Parked cars rock 2.0 - 2.9 300,000 V Almost
everyone feels 4.9· 5.4 o - 1.9 700,000 movement. Sleeping people are
awakened. Doors swing Modified Mercalli Intensity Scale open/close.
Dishes break. Small The Richter magnitude scale results in one objecta
move or are turned over. number fo' the SIze of the earthquake. Trees ahake.
Liquids spill from Maximum ground shaking will occur only in open
containers the area of the epicenter of the earthquake, but VI Everyone fee ls
movement. 5.5 . 6.1 the earthquake may be felt over a much larger People
have trouble walking. area. The Modified Merca1li Scale was developed
Obje1::ts fall from shelves. in the late 18005 to assess the intensity of
ground Picturea fall oII walls. Furniture shaking and building damage over
large areas. mo\'es. Plaster in walls may * The scale is applied after the
earthquake crack. Trees and bushes shake. Damage alight in poorly built by
conducting surveys of people's response to buildin!;.'!. the intensity of
ground shaking and destruction. vn People have difficulty in standing. 6.5 •
G.l * Thus, a given earthquake will have zones Drivers feel cars s haking.
of different intensity all surrounding a zone of Furniture breaks. Loose
bricks fall from buildings. maximum intensity.

* The MercalJi Scale is very useful on

exam ining the effects of an earthquake over a large area, because it is
responsive not only to the size of the earthquake as measured by the
Richter scale for areas near the epicenter, but will also show the effects of
the efficiency that seismic waves are transmitted through different
types of material near the Earth's surface. * The Merca\U Scale is also useful
fo, determining the size of earthquakes that occurred before t he modern
seismog rapruc network was available (before there were seismographic
stations, it was not possible to assign a Richter Magnitude).
EARTHQUAKE RISK * Many seismologists have said that "earthquakes
don't kill people, buildings do", This is because most deaths from
earthquakes are caused by buildings or other human construction falling
down during an earthquake, * Earthquakes located in isolated areas far
from human population rarely cause any deaths. * Thus, eart.hquake hazard
risk depends on 1, Population density 2. Construction standards (building
codes) EMERGENCY PREPAREDNESS * Worst earthquake in recorded
history occurred in 1556 in Shaaxi, China, killed 830,000 people, most
Hving in caves excavated in poorly consolidated loess (wind deposited silt
and clay). * Worst earthquake in the last century also occurred in China
(T'ang Shan Province), killed 240,000 in 1976. Occurred at 3:42
AM, magnitude 7.8 earthquake and magnitude 7.1 aftershock. Deaths were
due to collapse of masonry (brick) buildings. Contrast- In earthquake prone
areas like CaliforOla, in order to reduce earthquake risk, there &restrict
building codes requiring the design and construction of buildings and other
structures that will withstand a large earthquake. While this program is not
always completely successful, one fact stands out to prove its
effectiveness. In 1989 an earthquake near San Francisco, California (The
Lorna Prieta, or World Series Earthquake) w:th a Richter
Magnitude of 7, 1 killed about 62 people. Most were killed when a double
decked freeway in Oakland collapsed. About 10 months lat.cr, an
earthquake with magnitude 6.9 occurred in Armenia, where no earthquake-
proof building codes existed. The death toll in the l!mcr
earthquake was about 25,0001 HAzARDS ASSOCIATED WITH
EARTHQUAKFS Possible hazards from earthquakes can be
classified as follows: Ground Moti.on : Shaking of the ground
caused by the passage of seismic waves, especially surface waves, near the
epicenter of the earthquake are responaib!e for the most
damage during an earthquake. The intensity of ground shaking depends on:
* Local geologic conditioll.s ill. the area. In general, loose unconsolidated
sediment is subject to more intense shaking than solid
bedrock. * Size of the Earthquake. In general, the larger the earthquake, the
more intense is Lhe shaking and the duration of the shaking. * Distance from
the Epicenter. Shaking is most severe near the epicenter and drops off
away from the epicenter. The distance factor depends on the type of material
underlying the area. * Damage to structures from shaking depends on the
type of construction. o Concrete and masonry structures are brittle and thus
more susceptible to damage. o Wood and steel structures are more
flexible and thus less susceptible to damage.
Faulting and Ground Rupture – Ground rupture generally occurs only along
the faulty zone that moves during the earthquake. Thus, structures that are
built across faulty zones may collapse, whereas structures built adjacent to,
but not crossing the fault may survive. Aftershocks - These are usually
smaller earthquakes that occur after a main earthquake, and in most cases
there are many of these aftershocks occur because the main earthquake
changes the stress pattern in areas around the epicenter, and the crust must
adjust to these changes. Aftershocks are vel"y dangerous because they cause
further collapse of structures damaged by the main shock. Fire - Fire is a
secondary effect of earthquakes. Because pO'Yer lines may be knocked
down and because natural gas lines may rupture due to an earthquake, fJ.res
are often started closely following an earthquake. The problem is
compounded if water lines are also broken during the earthquake since there
will not be a supply of water to extinguish the fires once they have started.
Landslides - In mountainous regions subjected to earthquakes ground
shaking may trigger landslides, rock and debris falls, rock and debris slides,
slumps. and debris avalanches. Liquefaction - Liquefaction is a precess thaL
occurs in water-saturated unconsolidated sediment due to shaking. In areas
underlain by such matel"ial, the ground shaking causes the grains to lose
grain to grain contact, and thus the material tends to flow. Changes in
Ground Level- A secondary or tertiary effect that is caused by faulting.
Earthquakes may cause both uplift and subsidence of the land surface.
Tsunamis - Tsunamis are giant oCean waves that can rapidly travel across
oceans. Earthquakes that occur beneath sea level and along coastal areas can
generate tsunamis, which can cause damage Lhousands of
kilometers away on the other side of the ocean. Flooding - Flooding is a
secondary effect that may oeew' due to rupture of human made
dams, due to tsunamis, and as a result of ground subsidence after an
earthquake.

EARTHQUAKE PREDICTION AND CONTROL

Long-Term Forecasting: Long-term forecasting is based mainly on the

knowledge of when and where earthquakes have occurred in
the past. Thus, knowledge of present tectonic setting, historical records, and
geological records are studied to determine locations and recurrence
intervals of earthquakes. Two aspects of this are important. Paleoseismology
- The study of prehistoric earthquakes. Through study of the offsets in
sedimentary layers near fault zones, it is often possible to determine
recurrence intervals of major earthquakes prior to historical records.
If it is determined that earthquakes have recurrence intervals of say 1 every
100 years, and there are no records of earthquakes in the
last 100 years, then a long-term forecast can be made and efforts can be
undertaken to reduce seismic risk.
SHORT-TERM PREDICTION

Short-term prediction involves monitoring of processes that occur in the

vicinity of earthquake prone faults for activity that signify a coming
earthquake. Anomalous events or processes that may precede an earthquake
are called precursor events and might signal a coming earthquake.
Despite the array of possible precursor events that are possible to monitor,
successful short· term earthquake prediction has so far been difficult to
obtain. This is likely because: the process~s that cause earthquakes occur
deep beneath the surface and are difficult to monitor. Earthquakes in
different regions or along different faults all behave differently,
thus no consistent patterns have so far been recognized.
Among the precursor events that may be important are the following:
Ground Uplift and Tilting: Measurements taken in the vicinity of active
faults sometimes show that prior to an earthquake the ground is
uplifted or tilts due to the swelling of rocks caused by strain building on the
fault. This may lead to the formation of numerous small
cracks (called microcracks). This cracking in the rocks may lead to small
earthquakes called foreshocks. Foreshocks : Prior to a 1975 earthquake in
China, the observation ofnumerolls foreshocks led to successful prediction
of an earthquake and evacuation of the city of the Haicheng. The
magnitude 7.3 earthquake that occurred, destroyed half of the city of about
100 million inhabitants, but resulted in only a few hundred
deaths because of the successful evacuation. Water Level in Wells : As rocks
become strained in the vicinity of a fault, changes in
pressure of the groundwater (water existing in the pore spaces and
fractures.in rocks) occur. This may force the groundwater to move to
higher or lower elevations, causing changes in the water levels in welle.
Emission of Radon Gas: Radon is an inert gas that is produced by the
radioactive decay of uranium and other elements.in.rocks. Because
Radon is inert, it does not combine with other elements to form compounds,
and thus remains in a crystal structure until some event forces it out.
Deformation resulting from stram may force the Radon out and lead to
emissions of Radon that show up in well water. The newly
formed microcracks discussed above could serve as pathways for the Radon
to escape into groundwater. Increases in the amount of radon emissions have
been reported prior to some earthquakes. Cbanges in the Electrical
Resistivity of Rocks: Electrical resistivity is the resistance to the flow of
electric current. In general rocks are poor conductors of electricit.y, but
water is more efficient than conducting electricity. If microcracks develop
and groundwater is forced into the cracks, this may cause t.he electrical
resistivity to decrease (causing the electricaJ conductivity to increase). In
some cases a 5·10% drop in electrical resistivity has been observed prior to
an earthquake. Unusual Radio Waves: Just prior to the Lorna Prieta
earthq~lUke or 1989. ijome researchers reported observing lmu.suaJ radiO
waves. Where these were generated and why, is not yet known, but research
is continuing. Strange Animal Behavior : Prior to a magnitude 7.'1
earthquake in Tanjin. China, zookeepers reported unusual animal behavior.
Snakes refusing to go into their holes, swans refusing to go near water,
pandas screaming, etc. This was the first systematic study of this
phenomenon prior to an earthquake. Although other attempts have been
made to repeat a prediction based on amtUal behavior, there have
been no other successful predictions.

CONTROLLING EARTHQUMffiS

Although no attempts have yet been made to control earthquakes,

earthquakes have been known to be induced by human interaction with
the Earth. This suggests that in the future earthquake control may be
possible.

VOLCANOES, MAGMA, AND VOLCANIC ERUPTIONS

Volcanic eruptions are caused by magma (a I Types of Magma : Types of

magma are mixture of ~quid rock, crystals, and dissolved determined by
chemical composition of the gas) expelled onto the earth's surface. magma.
Three general types are recognized: 175 Summary Table Magma Solidified
Chemical Temperature Viscosity Gns Content Typ. Rock Composition
Basaltic Basalt 45·55 Si02 %. high in Fe, Mg, 1000 - 1200 ~C Low Low
Ca, low in K. No. Andcaitic Andesite 55·65 Si02 %, intermediate Mg, 800 -
1000 ·C Intermediate Intermediate Co., No., K in Fe, Rhyolitic Rhyolite
65·75 SiO2 %, low in Fe, Mg, Ca, high in K, No..

HOW MAGMAS FORM IN THE EARTH

In order for magmas to form, Borne part of the earth must get hot enough to
melt the rocks present. Under normal conditions, the geothermal gradient,
which is bow the temperature in the earth changes with depth or pressure, is
not high enough to melt rocks, and thus with the exception of the outer core,
most of the earth is solid. Thus, magmas form only under special
circumstances, and thus. volcanoes are only found on the earth's surface in
areas above where these special circumstances occur. As pressure increases
in the earth, the melting temperature changes as well. For pure
minerals, there are two general cases. If the mineral contains no water (H20)
or carbon dioxide (C02) and there is no water or carbon dioxide present in
the surroundings, then melting occurs at a single temperature at any given
pressure and increases with increasing pressure or depth in the earth. This
is called dry melting. If water or carbon dioxide are present within or
surrounding the mineral, then melting takes place at a single temperature at
any given pressure, but first decreases with increasing pressure. Since rocks
are mixtures of minerals, they behave somewhat differently. Unlike
minerals, rocks do not melt at a single temperatme, but instead melt over a
range of temperatures. Thus, it is possible to have partial melts, from
which the liquid portion might be extracted to form magma. The two general
cases are: 1. Melting of dry rocks is similar to melting of dry minerals,
melting temperatures increase with increasing pressure, except there is a
range of temperature over which there exists a partial melt. The degree of
GSO - 800 ·C High – High partial melting can range from 0 to 100%. 2.
Melting of wet rocks is similar to melting of wet mJnerais, except there is
range of temperature over which partial melting occurs. Again, the
temperature of beginning of melting ftrst decreases with increasing pressure
or depth, then at high pressure or depth the melting temperatures again begin
to rise.

VOLCANIC ERUPTIONS *

In general, magmas that are generated deep within the Earth begin to rise
because they are less dense than the surrounding solid rocks. * As they rise
they may encounter a depth or pressure where the dissolved gas no longer
can be held in solution in the magma, and the gas begins to form a separate
phase. * When a gas bubble forms, it will also continue to grow in size as
pressure is reduced and more of the gas comes alit of solution. In
other words, the gas bubbles begin to expand. * If the liquid pal'tofthe
magma has a low viscosity, then the gas can expand relatively
easily. When the magma reaches the earth's surface, the gas bubble will
simply burat, the gas will easily expand to atmospheric pressure,
and a non-explosive eruption will occur, usually as a lava flow (Lava is the
name we give to a magma when it is on the surface ofthe earth). * If the
liquid part of the magma has a high viscosity, then the gas will not be able to
expand very easily, and thus, pressure will build up inside of the gas
bubble(s). When this magma reaches the surface, the gas bubbles
will have a high pressme inside, which will cause them to burst explosively
on reaching atmospheric pressure. This will cause an explosive volcanic
eruption. NON-EXPLOSIVE ERUPTIONS, Nonexplosive eruptions are
favored by low gas content and low viscosity magmas (basaltic to andesitic
magmas). * If the viscosity is low, non-explosive eruptions usually begin
with fire fountains due to release of dissolved gases. * Lava flows are
produced on the surface, and these run like liquids down slope, along the
lowest areas they can find. * Lava flows produced by eruptions under
water are called pillow lavas. * If the viscosity is high, but the gas content is
low, then the lava will pile up over the vent to produce a lava dome or
volcanic dome.

EXPLOSIVE ERUPTIONS:

Explosive eruptions are favored by high gas content and high viscosity
(andesilic to rhyolitic magmas), Explosive bursting of bubbles will fragment
the magma into.clots of liquid that will cool as they
fall through the air. These solid particles become pyroclasts (meaning - hot
fragments) and tephra or volcanic ash, which refer to sandsized
or smaller fragments. * Blocks are angular fragments that were solid when
ejected. * Bombs have an ae rodynamic shape indicating they were liquid
when ejected. * Bombs and lapilli that consist mostly of gas bubbles
(vesicles) result in a low density highly vesicular rock fragment called
pumice. TEPHRA AND PYROCLASTIC ROCKS Average Pa.rtieie
Unconsolidated Pyroclastic Rock Size (nun) lI1a.teriai(Tephra) >64 Bombs
or Blocks f\!;"g\omerate 2 - 64 Lapilli Lapilli Tuff <2 Ash Ash Tuff Clouds
of gas and tephra that rise above a volcano produce an eruption column that
can rise up to 45 km into the atmosphere. Eventually the tephra in the
eruption column will be picked up by the wind, carried for some distance,
and then fall back to the surface as a tephra fall or ash fall. lf the eruption
column collapses a pyroclastic flow will occur, wherein gas and tephra rush
down the flanks of the volcano at high speed. This is the most dangerous
type of volcanic eruption. The deposits that are produced are called
ignimbrites if they contain pumice or pyroclastic flow deposits if they
contain non-vesicular blocks. If the gas pressure inside the magma is
directed outward instead of upward, a lateral blast can occur. When this
occurs on the fla:1ks of a lava dome, a pyroclastic flows called a glowing
avalanche or lLUie ardenles (in French) can also result. Directed blasts often
result from sudden exposure of the magma by a landslide or collapse of a
lava dome.

VOLCANIC HAZARDS

* Ash Falls (tephra falls) * Hot Ash Flows (pyroclastic flows) * Mud.f1ows
Qahars) * Volcanic Landslides (debris flows and debris avalanches) * Lava
Flows * Volcanic Gases
PRIMARY EFFECTS OF VOLCANISM

* Lava Flows Control of lava flows has been attempted with limited success
by bombing flow fronts to attempt to divert the flow ,·and by spraying with
water to cool the flow. The latter is credited with saving the fishing harbor
during a 1973 eruption of Heimaey in Iceland. * Violent Eruptions and
Pyroclastic Activity * Poisonous Gas Emissions

SECONDARY AND TERTIARY EFFECTS OF VOLCANISM

* Mudflows (Lahars) * Debris Avalanches and Debris Flows . * Flooding *

Tsunamis * Volcanic Earthquakes and Tremors * Atmospheric Effects *
Famine and Disease

BENEFICIAL ASPECTS OF VOLCANISM

Volcanism throu ghout Earth history is responsible for outgasing of the

Earth to help produce both the atmosphere and hydrosphere. Volcanism
helps renew the soil, and soils around active volcanoes are some of the
richest on Earth. Hydrothermal processes associated with volcanism produce
rich ore deposits, and the heat rising around magma bodies can sometimes
be tapped to produce geothermal energy. Predicting Volcanic Eruptions:
Before discussing how we can predict volcanic e r uptions, it is important to
get some term inology strai ght by defining some commonly used terms.
Active Volcano -An active volcano is a volcano that has shown eruptive
activity within recorded history. Thus an active volcano need
not be in eruption to be considered active. * Currently there are about 600
volcanoes on Earth considered to be active volcanoes. * Each year 50 to GO
of volcanoes actually erupt. Extinct Volcano - An extinct volcano is a
volca no that has not s hown any historic activity, is usually deeply eroded,
and shows no signs of recent activity. How old must a volcano
be to be considered extinct depends to a large degree on past activity. *
Yellowstone Caldera is about 600,000 years old and is deeply eroded. But
fumorolic activity. hot springs, and geysers all point to the fact that magma
still exists beneath the surface. Thus, Yellowstone Caldera is not
considered extinct. * Other. volcanoes that are deeply eroded. smaller, and
much younger than Yellowstone, that show no hydrothermal activity may be
considered extinct. Dormant Volcano - A dormant volcano
(sleeping volcano) is somewhere between active and extinct. A dormant
volcano is one that has not shown eruptive activity within recorded
history, but shows geologic evidence of activity within the geologic re~nt
past. * Because the lifetime of a volcano may be on the order of a million
years, dormant volcanoes ca n become active volcanoes all of
sudden. These are perhaps the most dangerous volcanoes because people
living in the vicinity of a dormant volcano may not understand the
concept of geologic time. and there is no written record of activity. These
people are sometimes difficult to convince when a dormant volcano
shows signs ofrenewed activity. * Yellowstone Caldera would be considered
a dormant volcano. * Mount St. Helens was considered as a dormant
volcano, baving not erupted for 123 years, before its reawakening in 1980.
* Mount Pinatubo in the Philippines had been dormant for over 400 years
before its eruption in 1991. * Mount Vesuvius, near Naples, Italy was
considered an extinct volcano prior to its devastatUlg eruption of 79 A.D.
LONG : Term Forecas ting and Volcanic Hazards Studies * Studies of the
geologic history of a volcano are generally necessary to make an assessment
of the types of hazards posed by the volcano and the frequency at which
these types of hazards have occurred in the past. * Once this information is
avai lable. geologists can then make forecasts concerning what areas
surrounding a volcano would be subject to the various kinds of activity
should they occur in a future eruption. and also make forecasts about the
long·term likelihood or probability of a volcanic eruption in the area. *
During such studies, geologists examine sequences of layered deposits and
lava flows. Armed with knowledge about the characteristics of deposits left
by various types of eruption a, the past behavior of a volcano can
be determined. * Using radiometric age dating of the deposits the past
frequency of eve nts can be determined. * This information is then combined
with knowledge about the present surface aspects of the volcano to make
volcanic hazards maps which can aid other scientists, public officials,
and the public at large to plan for evacuations. rescue and recovery in the
event that. short· term prediction suggests another eruption. ., * Such
hazards maps delineate zones of danger expected from the hazards discussed
above: lava flow s, pyroclastic flow s, tephra falls, mudflows, flood s, etc.

SHORT-TERM PREDICTION BASED ONVOLCANIC MONITORING

Short-term prediction of volcanic eruptions involves monitoring the volcano

to determine when magma is approaching the surface and monitoring for
precursor events that. Often signal a forthcoming eruption. * Seismic
Exploration and MonitorillgSince seismic waves are generated by both
earthquakes and explosions, and since S-waves cannot pass through liquids,
a rrays of seismographs can be placed around a volcano
and small explosions can be set off to generate seismic waves. If a magma
body exists beneath the vclcano, then there will l:.e zone were no
S-waves arrive (an S-wave shadow zone) that can be detected. Monitoring
the movement of the S-wave shadow zone can delineate the
position and movement of the magma body. * Changes in Magnetic Field –
Rocks contain minerals such as magnetite that are
magnetic. Such magnetic minerals generate a magnetic field. However,
above a temperature called the Curie Temperature, these magnetic
minerals show no magnetism. Thus, if a magma body enters a volcano, the
body itself will show no magnetism, and if it heats the surrounding rocks to
temperatures greater than the Curie Temperature (about 500°C for
magnetite) the magnetic field over the volcano · will be reduced. Thus, by
measuring changes in the magnetic field, the movement of magma
can sometimes be tracked. * Changes in Electrical Resistivity - Rocks have
resistance to the flow of electrical current which is highly dependent on
temperature and water content. As magma moves into a volcano this
electrical resistivity will decrease. Making measurements of the
electrical resistivity by placing electrodes into the ground, may allow
tracking of the movement of magma. * Ground Deformation - As magma
moves into a volcano, the structure may inflate. This will cause deformation
of the ground, which can be monitored. Instruments like tilt meters measure
changes in the angle of the Earth 's surface which are measured in
microradians track changes in distance between several points on the ground
to monitor deformation. * Changes in Groundwater System –As magma
enters a volcano it may cause changes in the groundwater system, causing
the water table to rise or fall and causing the temperature of the water to
increase. By monitoring the depth to the water table in wells and the
temperature of welJ water, spring water, or fum aroles, changes can be
detected that many signify a change in the behaVior of the volcaOlc syste m.
. Changes in Heat Flow - Heat IS everywhere flowing out of the surface of
the Earth. As magma approaches the surface or as the temperature of
groundwater increases, the amount of surface heat flow will increase.
Although these changes may be smalJ they can be measured using infrared
remote sensing. * Changes in Gas Compositions – The composition of gases
emitted from volcanic vents and fumaroles often changes just prior to
an eruption. In general, increases in the proportions of hydrogen chloride
(Hel) and sulfur dioxide (SO2) are seen to increase relative to the proportion
of water vapor.

UGC Environment IV

TSUNAMI
A tsunami is a very long-wavelength wave of water that is generated by
sudden displacement of the seafloor or disruption of any body of standing
water. Tsunami are sometimes called "seismic sea waves", although, as we
will see, they can be generated by mechanisms other than earthquakes.
Tsunami have also been called "tidal waves", but this term should not be
used because they are not in any way related to the tides of the Earth.
Because tsunami occur suddenly, often without warning, they are extremely
dangerous to coastal communities. PHYSICAL CHARACTERISTICS OF
TSUNAMI All types of waves, including tsunami, have a wavelength, a
wave height, an amplitude, a frequency or period, and a velocity. *
Wavelength is defined as the distance between two identical points on a
wave (i.e. between wave crests or wave troughs). Normal ocean waves have
wavelE"ngths of about 100 meters. Tsunami have much longer wavelengths,
usualJy measured in kilometers and up to 500 kilometers. * Wave height
refers to the distance between the trough of the wave and the crest or
peak of the wave, * Wave amplitude refers to the height of the wave above
the still water line, usually this is equal to 112 the wave height. Tsunami can
have variable wave heieht and amDlitude tha~ depends on water depth as
well as moment. Wave frequency 0'" period Is the amount of time it takes
for one full wavelength to pass a stationary point. * Wave velocity is the
speed of the wave. Velocities of normal ocean waves are about 90 kmlhr
while tsunami have velocities up to 950 kmIhr (about as fastasjetairplanes),
and thus ' move much more rapidly across ocean basins. Tsunami are
characterized as shallowwater waves. These are different from the waves
most of us have observed on the beach, which are caused by the wind
blowing across the ocean's surface. Wind-generated waves
usually have period (time between two successive waves) of five to twenty
seconds and a wavelength of 100 to 200 meters. A tsun.ami
can have a period in the range often minutes .to two hours and wavelengths
greater than 500 km. A wave is characterized as a shallowwater
wave when the ratio of the water depth and waveleQ.gth is very small.
The rate at which a wave loses its energy is inversely related to its
wavelength. Since a tsunami has a very large wavelength, it will
lose little energy as it propagates. Thus, in very deep water, a tsunami will
travel at high speeds with little loss or energy. For example, when the
ocean is 6100 m deep, a tsunami will travel about 890 kmlhr, and thus can
travel across the Pacific Ocean in less than one day.
As a tsunami leaves the deep water of the open sea and arrives at the shallow
waters near the coast, it undergoes a transformation. Since the velocity cf the
tsunami is also related to the water depth, as the depth of the water
decreases, the velocity of the tsunami decreases. The change of total energy
of the tsunami, however, remains constant. Furthermore, the period of the
wave remains the same, and thus more water is forced between the wave
crests causing the height of the wave to increase. Because of this
"shoaling" effect, a tsunami that was imperceptible in deep water may grow
to have wave heights of several meters or more. If the trough of the tsunami
wave reaches the coast first, this catiSes a phenomenon called
drawdown, where it appears that sea level has dropped considerably.
Drawdown is followed immediately by the crest of the wave which can
catch people observing the drawdown off guard. When the crestofthe wave
hits, sea level rises (called run-uf». Run-up is usually expressed in
meters above normal high tide. Run-ups frOOl the same tsunami can be
variable because of the influence of the shapes of coastlines. One
coastal area may see no damaging wave activity while in another area
destructive waves can be large and violent. The flooding of an area can
extend inland by 300 m or more, covering large areas of land with water and
debris. Flooding tsunami waves tend to carry loose objects and
people out to sea when they retreat. Tsunami may reach a maximum vertical
height on shore above sea level, called a run-up height, of 30
meters. A notable exception is the landslide generated tsunami in Lituya
Bay, Alaska in 1958 which produced a 60 meter high wave.
HOW TSUNAMl ARE GENERATED? Most of the tsunami are generated
by earthquakes that cause displacement of the seafloor, but, as we shall see,
tsunami can be generated by volcanic eruptions, landslides, underwater
explosions, and meteorite impacts.

EARTHQUAKES
Earthquakes cause tsunami by causing a disturbance of the seafloor. Thus,
earthquakes that occur along coastlines or anywhere beneath the oceans can
generate tsunami. The size of the tsunami is usually related to the size
of the earthquake, with larger tsunami generated by larger earthquakes. But
the sense of displacement is also important. Tsunami is generally only
formed when an earthquake causes vertical displacement of the seafloor.
Because of this, most tsunami are generated by earthquakes that occur a long
the subduction boundaries of plates, along the oceanic trenches . Since the
Pacific Ocean is surrounded by plate boundaries of this type, earthquakes
arOlmd the margins of the Pacific Ocean frequently generate tsunamis.

VOLCANIC ERUPTIONS

Volcanoes that occur along coastal wnes, like in Japan and island arcs
throughout the world, can cause several effects that might generate a
tsunami. Explosive eruptions can rapidly emplace pyroclastic flows into t he
water; landslides and debris avalanches produced by eruptions can rapidly
move into water, and collapse of volcanoes to form calderas can
suddenly diElplace the water.

LANDSLIDES
Landslides moving into oceans, bays, or lakes can also generate tsunami.
Earthquakes or volcanic eruptions generate most such landslides.

UNDERWATER EXPLOSIONS

Nuclear testing by the United States in the Marshall Islands in the 1940s and
1950s generated tsWlami.
METEORITE IMPACTS

While no historic examples of meteorite impacts are known to have

produced a tsunami, the apparent impact of a meteorite at the end of the
Cretaceous Period, about 65 million years ago near the tip of what is now t
he Yucatan Peninsula of Mexico, produced tsunami that left deposits all
along the Gulf coast of Mexico and the United States.

MITIGATION OF RISKS AND HAZARDS

The main damage from tsunami comes from the destructive nature of the
waves themselves. Secondary effects include the debris acting as projectiles
which then run into other objects, erosion that can undermine the
foundations of structures built along coastlines, and fires that result from
disruption of gas and electrical lines. Tertiary effects include loss of crops
and water and electrical systems, which can lead to famine and disease.

PREDICTION AND EARLY WARNING

For areas located at great distances from earthquakes that could potentially
generate a tsunami there is usually plenty of time for warnings to be sent and
coastal areas evacuated, even though tsunami travel at high velocities across
the oceans. Hawaii is a good example of an area located far from most of the
sources of tsunami, where early warning is possible and has saved lives. For
earthquakes occurring anywhere on the subduction margins of the Pacific
Ocean there is a minimum of 4 hours of warning before a tsunami would
strike any of the Hawaiian Islands. The National Oceanic and Atmospheric
Administration (NOAA) has set up a Pacific warning system for areas in the
Pacific Ocean, called the Pacific Tsunami Warning Center. MASS-
WASTING AND MASSWASTING PROCESSES MASS-WASTING AND
ITS HUMAN IMPACTS Mass-Wasting is defined as the down slope
movement ofrock and regolith near the Earth's surface mainly due to the
force of gravity. Mass-wasting is an important part of the erosional process,
as it moves material from higher elevations to lower elevations where
transporting agents like streams and glaciers can then pick up the material
and move it to even lower elevations. Mass-wasting processes are occurring
continuously on all slopes; some mass-wasting processes act very slowly,
others occur very suddenly, often with disastrous results. Any perceptible
down slope movement ofrock or regolith is often referred to in general
terms as a landslide. However, as we will see, landslides can be classified in
a much more detailed way that reflects the mechanisms responsible for the
movement and the velocity at which the movement occurs. As human
populations expand and occupy more and more of the land surface,
masswasting processes become more likely to affect humans. Knowledge
about the t'elationships between local geology and mass-wasting processes
can lead to better planning that can reduce vulnerability to such hazards.
Thus, we will look at the various types of mass-wasting processes, their
underlying causes, factors that affect slope stability, and what humans can
do to reduce vulnerability and risk due to masswasting hazards.

TYPES OF MASS-WASTING PROCESSES

The down-slope movement of material, whether it be bedrock, regolith, or a

mixture of these, is commonly referred to as a landslide. All ofthese
processes generally grade into one another, so classification of such
processes is somewhat difficult. We will use a classification that
divides mass-wasting processes into two broad categories. * Slope Failures -
a sudden failure of the slope resulting in transport of debris down hill
by sliding, rolling, falling, or slumping. * Sediment Flows - debris flows
down hill m.ixed with water or air. SLOPE FAILURES * Slumps - types of
slides wherein downward rotation of rock or regolith occurs
along a concave-upward curved surface (rotational slides). The upper
surface of each slump block remains relatively undisturbed, as
do the individual blocks. Slumps leave arcuate scars or depressions on the
hill slope. Slumps can be isolated or may occur in large complexes
covering thousands of square meters. They often form as a result ofhurnan
activities, and thus are common along roads where slopes have
been oversteepened during construction. They are also common along river
banks and sea coasts, where erosion has under-cut the slopes.
Heavy rains and earthquakes can also trigger slumps. * Falls - Rock faUs
occur when a piece of rock on a steep slope becomes dislodged and fallg
down the slope. Debris falls are similar. Except they involve a mixture of
soil, regolith, vegetation, .and rocks. A rock fall may be a single rock or a
mass of rocks, and the falling rocks can dislodge other rocks as they collide
with the cliff. Because this process involves the free fall of material, falls
commonly occur where there are steep cliffs_ At the base of most cliffs is an
accumulation of fallen material termed talus. * Slides - Rock slides and
debris slides result when rocks or debri::; slide down a preexisting surface,
such as a bedding plane, foliation surface, or joint surface GointB are
regularly spaced fractures in rock that result from expansion during cooling
or uplift of the rock maBB). Piles of talus are common at the
base of a rock slide or debris slide. Slides differ from slumps in that there is
no rotation of the sliding rock mass along a curved surface. * Sediment
Flows- Sediment flows occur when sufficient force is applied to rocks and
regolith that they begin to flow down slope. A sediment flow is a mixture of
rock, and/or regolith with some water or air. They can be broken into two
types depending on the amount of water present. 1. Slurry Flows- are
sediment flows that contain between abou~ 20 llnd 40% water. As the water
content increases above about 40% slurry flows grade inlo streams. Slurry
flows are considered as water-saturated flows. 2. Granular 'Flows - are
sediment flows that contain between 0 and 20% water. Note that granular
flows are possible with little or no water. Fluid-like behavior is given these
flows by mixing with air. Granular flows are not. saturated with
water. Each of these classes of sediment flows can be further subdivided on
the basis of the velocity at which flowage occurs * Slurry Flows o
Solifluction - flowage at rates measured on the order of centimeters per year
of regolith containing water. Solifluction produces distinctive lobes on hill
slopes. These occur in areas where the soil remains saturated with water for
long periods of time. o Debris Flows - these occur at higher
velocities than solifluction, with velocities between 1 meterlhr and 100
meters/hr and often result from heavy rains causing saturation of the soil and
regolith with water. They sometimes start with slumps and then flow down
hill forming lobes with an irregular surface consisting of ridges and furrows.
o Mudflows - these are a highly fluid, high velocity mixture of sediment and
water that has a consistency ranging between soup-like and wet concrete.
They move at. velocities greater than 1 kmlhr and tend to travel along valley
floor s. These usually result from heavy rains in areas where ther~ is an
abundance of unconsolidated sediment that can be picked up by
streams. Thus after a heavy rain, streams can turn into mudflows as they
pick up more and more loose sediment. Mudflows can travel for long
distances over gently sloping stream beds. Because of their high
velocity and long distance of travel they are potentially very dangerous. As
we have seen, mudflows can also result from volcanic eruptions t hat cause
melting of snow or ice on the slopes of volcanoes, or draining of crater lakes
on volcanoes. Volcanic mudflows are often referred to as lahars. Some
lahars can be quite hot, if they are generated as a result of eruptions of hot
tephra. * Granular Flows o Creep - the very slow, usually continuous
movement of regolith down slope. Creep occurs on almost all slopes, hut the
rates vary. Evidence for creep is often seen in bent trees, offsets in roads and
fences, and inclined utility poles. o Em·thflows - are usually associated with
heavy rains and move at velocities between several cmlyr and 100s ofm/day.
They usually r emain active for long periods of time. They generally tend to
be narrow tongue· like features that begin at a scarp or sOl all cliff.
o Grain Flows - usually form in relatively dry material, such as a sand dune,
on a steep slope. A small disturbance sends the dry unconsolidated grains
moving rapidly down slope. o Debris Avalanches - These are very
high velocity flows of la rge volume mixtures of rock and regolith that result
from complete collapse of a mountainous slope. They move down slope and
then can travel for considerable distances along relatively ge ntle slopes.
They are often triggered by earthquakes and volcanic eruptions.

MASS-WASTING IN COLD CLIMATES

Mass·wasting in GOld climates is governed by the fact that water is frozen

as ice duri.ng long periods of the year. Ice, although it is solid, does
have the ability to flow, and freezing and thawing cycles can also contribute
to movement. * Frost Heaving - this process is large contributor to creep in
cold clim ates. When water saturated soils freeze, they expand, pushing
rocks and boulders on the surface upward perpendicular to the slope. When
the soil thaws, the boulders move down vertically resulting in a net down
slope movement. * Geliflu.ction - Similar to solifluction, this process occurs
when the upper layers of soil thaw during the warmer months resulting in
water saturated soil that moves down slope. * Roell Glaciers - a lobe of
ice·cemented rock debris (mostly rocks with ice between the blocks) that
slowly moves downhill. SUBAQUEOUS MASS-WASTING Mass wasting
processes also occur on steep slopes in the ocean basins. A slope failure can
occur due to over·accumulation of sediment on slope or in a submarine
canyon. 01' could occur as a result of a shock like an earthquake.
Slumps, debris flows, and landslides are common.

FACTORS THAT INFLUENCE SLOPE STABILITY GRAVITY

The main force responsible for mass wasting is gr avity. Gravity is the force
that acts everywhere on the Earth's surface, pulling everything in a direction
toward the center of the Earth. On a flat surface the force of gravity
acts downward. So long as the material remains on the flat surface it will not
move
under the force of gravity. On a slope, the force of gravity can be resolved
into two components: a component acting perpendicular to the slope and
component acting tangential to the slope. THE ROLE OF WATER Although
water is not always directly involved as the transporting medium in
mass·wasting processes, it does play an important role. Dry unconsolidated
grains will form a pile with a slope angle determ ined by the angle of repose.
The angle of repose is the steepest angle at which a pile of unconsolidated
grains remains stable, and is controlled by the frictional contact between the
gr ains. In general. for dry mater ials the angle of repose increases with
increasing grain size, but usually lies between about 30° and 37°. Slightly
wet unconsolidated materials exhibit a very high angle of repose because
surface tension between the water and the solid grains tends to hold the
grains in place. When the material becomes saturated with water, the angle
of repose is reduced to very small values and the material tends to flow like
a fluid. This.is because the water gets between the grains and eliminates
~rain - to-grain frictional contact. Another aspect of water that affects slope
stability is fluid pressure. In some cases fluid pressure can build in such a
way that water can support the weight of the overlying rock mass.
When this occurs, friction is reduced, and thus the shear strength holding the
material on the slope is also reduced, resulting in slope failure.
TROUBLESOME EARTH MATERIALS * Liquefaction - Liquefaction
occurs when loose sediment becomes oversaturated with water and
individual grains loose grain to grain contact with one another as water gets
between them. * Expansive and Hydrocompacting Soils - These are soils
that contain a high proportion of a type of clay mineral called
smectites or montmorillinites. Such clay minerals expand when they become
wet as water enters the crystal structure and increases the volume of the
mineral. When such clays dry out, the loss of water causes the volume to
decrease and the clays to shrink or compact (This process is referred to as
hydrocompaction). * Sensitive Soils - In some soils the clay
minerals are arranged in random fashion, with much pore space between the
individual grains. This is often referred to as a "house of cards" structure.
Often the grains are held in this position by salts precipitated in the pore
space that "glue" the particles together. But this may cause a loss in shear
strength of the soil and result in slippage down slope or liquefaction. This is
referred to as remolding. Clays that are subject to r.emolding are called
quick clays. Some clays, called thixotropic clays, when left undisturbed can
strengthen. but wben disturbed they loose their shear strength.

TRIGGERING EVENTS

A mass-wasting event can occur any time a slope becomes unstable.

Sometimes, 8S in the case of creep or solifluction. the slope is unstable
all of the time and the process is continuous. But other times, triggering
events can occur that cause 8 sudden instability to occur. * Shoclls - A
sudden shock, such as an earthquake may trigger slope instability. Minor
shocks like heavy trucks rambling down the road, trees blowing in the wind,
or human made explosions can also trigger mass-wasting events. * Slope
Modification - Modification of a slope either by humans or by natural causes
can result in changing the slope angle so that it is no longer at the angle of
repose. A masswasting event can tben restore the slope to its angle of repose.
* Undercutting - Streams eroding their banks or surf action along a coast can
undercut a slope making it unstable. * Changes in. Hydrologic Characteristic
& Heavy rains can saturate regolith reducing grain to grain contact and
reducing the angle of repose, thus triggering a mass-wasting event. Heavy
rains can also saturate rock and increase its weight. Changes in the
groundwater system can increase or decrease fluid pressure in rock and also
trigger masswasting events. * Volcanic Eruptions - Produce shocks like
explosions and earthquakes. They can also cause snow to melt or empty
crater lakes, rapidly releasing large amounts of water that can be mixed with
regolith to reduce grain to grain contact and result in debris flows.
mudflows. and landslides.

ASSESSING AND MITIGATING MASSWASTING HAZARDS

As we have seen mass-wasting events can be extremely hazardous and result

in extensive loss of life and property. But, in most cases. areas that are prone
to such hazards can be recognized with some geologic knowledge. slopes
can be stabilized or avoided, and warning systems can be put in place tbat
can minimize such hazards. * Because there is usually evidence in the form
of distinctive deposits and geologic structures left by recent mass wasting
events, it is possible, if resources are available, to construct maps of all areas
prone to possible mass-wasting hazards. Planners can use such hazards maps
to make decisions about land use policies in such areas or, as will be
discussed below, steps can be taken to stabilize slopes to sttempt to prevent a
disaster. Short-term prediction of mass-wasting events is somewhat more
problematical. For earthquake triggered events, t he same problems that are
inherent in earthquake prediction are present. Slope destabilization and
undercutting triggered events require the constant attention of those
undertaking or observing the slopes, many of whom are not
educated in the problems inherent in such processes. Mass-wasting hazards
from volcanic eruptions can be predicted with the same degree
of certainty that volcanic eruptions can be predicted, but again, the threat has
to be realized and warnings need to be heeded. Hydrologic conditions such
as heavy precipitation can be forecast with some certainty, and warnings can
be issued to areas that might be susceptible to mass-wasting processes
caused by such conditions. Still, it is difficult to know exactly which hill
slope of the millions that exist will be vulnerable to an event triggered by
heavy rainfall. * Prevention and l\Ilitigation All slopes are susceptible to
mass-wasting hazards if a triggering event occurs. Thus, all slopes should be
asscssed for potential masswasting hazards. Mass-wasting eve nts can
sometimes be avoided by employing engineering techniques to make the s
lope more stable. Among them are: o Steep slopes can be covered or sprayed
with concrete to prevent rock falls. o Retaining walls could be built to
stabilize a slope. o Drainage pipes could be inserted into the slope to more
easily allow water to get out and avoid increases in fluid pressure, the
po88ibility of liquefaction, or increased weight'due to the addition of water.
o Oversteepened slopes could be graded to reduce the slope to the natural
angle of repose. o In mountain valleys subject to mudflows, plans could be
made to rapidly lower levels of water in human-made reservoirs to catch and
trap the mudflows. Some slopes, however, cannot be stabilized.
In t hese cases, huml).ns should avoid these areas or use them for purposes
that will not increase susceptibility of lives or property to mass-wasting
hazards.

FLOODING HAZARDS, PREDICTION & HUMAN INTERVENTION

HAZARDS ASSOCIATED WITH FLOODING

Hazards associated with flooding can be divided into primary hazards that
occur due to contact with water, secondary effects that occur because of the
flooding , such as disruption of services, health impacts such as famine and
disease, and tertiary effects such as changes in the position of river
chaDllels. Throughout the last century flooding has been one of the most.
costly disasters in terms of both property damage and human casualties.
Primary Effects: Again, the primary effecta of floods are those due to direct
contact with the flood waters. Water velocities tend to be high in
floods. As discharge increases velocity increases. * With higher velocities,
streams are able to transport larger particles as suspended load. Such large
particles include not only rocks and sediment, but, during a flood , could
include
such large objlO'cts as automobiles, houses and bridges. * Massive amounts
of erosion can be accomplished by flood waters. Such erosion can
undermine bridge structures, levees. And buildings causing their collapse. *
Water entering human built structures cause water damage. Even with minor
flooding of homes, furniture is ruined, floors and walls are damaged, and
anything that comes in 185 UGC~JRF (Paper 1}-24 contact with the water is
likely to be damaged or lost. Flooding of automobiles usually resul ts
in damage that cannot easily be repaired. * The high velocity of flood waters
allows the water to carry more sediment as suspended load. When the flood
waters retreat, velocity is generally much lower and sediment is deposited.
After retreat of the floodwaters, everything is usually covered with a thick
layer of stream deposited mud, including the interior ofbutldings. * Flooding
of farmland usually results in crop 10s8. Livestock, pets, and other animals
are often carried away and drown. * Humans that get caught in the high
velocity flood waters a re often drowned by the water. * Floodwaters can
concentrate garbage, debris, and toxic pollutants tbat can cause the
secondary effects of health hazal'ds. Secondary and Tertiary Effects:
Secondary effects are those that occur because of the primary effects and
tertiary effects are the longterm changes that take place. Among the
secondary effects or a flood are: * Disruption of serviceso Drinking water
supplies may become polluted, especially if sewerage treatment plants are
flooded. This delay result in disease and other health effects, especially in
under developed countries. o Gas and electrical service may be diarupted. o
Transportation systems may be disrupted, resulting in shortages of food and
clean-up supplies. In under developed countries food shortages often lead to
starvation. * Long - term effects (tertiary effects)- o Location of river
channels may change as the result of flooding, new channels develop,
leaving the old channels dry. a Sediment deposited by flooding may destroy
farm land (although silt deposited by floodwaters could also help to increase
agricultural productivity). o Jobs may be lost due to the disruption of
services, destruction of business, etc. (although jobs may be gained in
the construction industry to help rebuild or repair flood damage). o
Insurance rates may increase. o Corruption may result from misuse of relief
funds. o Destruction of wildlife habitat. PREDICTING RIVER FLOODING
Floods can be such devastating disasters that anyone can be affected at
allllost anytime. As we have seen, when water falls on the s\ITface ofthe
Earth, it has to go somewhere. In order to reduce the risk due to flood s,
three main approaches are taken to flood prediction. Statistical studies can
be undertaken to attempt to determine the probability and frequency of high
discharges of streams that cause flooding. Floods can be lllodeled and
maps can be made to determine the extent of possible flooding when it
occurs in the future. And, since the main causes of flooding are abnormal,
amounts of rainfall and sudden thawing of snow or ice, storms and snow
levels can be monitored to provide short-term flood prediction. Monitoring
the Progress of Storms: If factors such as amount of rainfall, degree of
ground saturation, degree of permeable soil, and amount of vegetation can
be determined, then these can be correlated to give short-term
prediction. in this case called a forecast. Of possible flood s. If a forecast is
issued, then a flood warning can be communicated to warn the public about
the possible extent of the flood, and to give people time to move out of the
area. Such forecasts are very useful for flooding that has a long lag time
between the storm and the peak disch &...-ge. Flash floods, wpich
characteristically have s hort. lag times, are more problematical. Thus, in
some areas known to be susceptible to flash floods, a flash flood warning is
often issued any time heavy rainfall is expected because there is always the
chance of a nash nood accompanying heavy rainfall.

HUMAN INTERVENTION

Humans can modify Lhe landscape in many ways. Sometimes humans

attempt to modify drainage systems to prevent flooding, but sometimes these
efforts have adverse effects and at:tually help to cause nooding in ether
areas. Any modification of the landscape has the potential to cause changes
in the drainage system. and such changes can have severe consequences.

CHANNEL MODlFICATIONS

Humans onen decide lhata stream should now along a specified path for
such reasons as nood control. enhancement of drainage. control of erosion.
increasing access to the floodplain for development, or improvement of the
appearance of the channel. uch channel modifications involve measures such
as the straightening the channel, deepening or widening the channel,
clea ring vegetation from the banks, or lining the channel with concrete.
These modifications are referred to as channelization. * Channelization can
also interfere with t.he natural habitat of the stream system and
decrease the 8csthetic value of the stream. * Channeliz.ntion. or any other
modification of a stream system. changes the validity of all historic data
collected over the years on that. stream. Effects of Development on Flood
Hazard: Whenever humans modify the landscape in any way, changes are to
be expected in the way water drains from the land. Unless ca rerul
consideration is given to the possible drainage consequences, such landscape
modifications can result in higher incidence of flooding. Development on
floodplains should therefore be undertaken only with great ca re. Existing
developments that have enhanced nooding problems are often costly to
fix. Among the fa ctors that enhance the flood potential are:
* Channelization - Channelization is undertaken to reduce nood hazards.
But, channelization IS a.lso undertaken to allow development on the
floodplain. lf the channelization results in decreasing the cross-sectional area
of the stream. as in the example above, then the same discharge that may not
have produced flooding prior to channelization, may overnow the banks and
cause extensive flooding anE'rchannelization. * Subsidence - Subsidence
often results in developed areas due to compaction of the sediment. both due
to the increasing weight of structures and hydrocompaction associated with
the lowering of the water table. Any time the elevation of nn area is lowered.
it becomes subject to collection of more water, and in
severe cases, could drastically change the drainage pattern. * Storm Sewers-
In order to collect run off from streets, parking lots. and buildings. all of
which block the inftitration of water into the soi1, storm sewers are installed
to provide underground drainage of the surface. While this may prevent
local flooding of street.s, it moves water more rapidly to the major stream
systems and thus decreases the lag time anel increases the peak discharge of
the streams collecting the run off from the storm sewers. * Reduction of
infiltration - Any time the surface materials of the Earth are covered with
impermeable materials like concrete, asphalt, or buildings. the infiltration of
water into the soil is prevented. Urbanization tends to reduce inflitration. and
thus water mustoollect in storm sewers and eventually in the main droinage
systems. Thus. Extensive urbanization also decreases the lag time and
increases the peak dIscharge even further. Urbanization can therefore lead to
a higher incidence or flash floods. Organized Response to Flood Hazards:
Response to flood hazards can be attempted in two main ways: An
engineering approach. lO control nooding, and a regulatory approach
designed to decrease vulnerability to flooding. * Engineering Approaches •
Channel modifications – As discussed above, channelization can enlarge
cross-sectional area and thus create a situation where a higher stage is
necessary before flooding. In other words by enlarging the cross-sectional
area, higher discharge can be held within the channel. Channelization
also increases water velocity, and thus reduces drainage time. • Dams _
Dams can be used to bold water back 80 that discharge downstream can be
regulated at a desired rate. Human constructed dams have spillways that
can be opened to reduce the level of water in the reservoir behind the dam.
Thus, the water lp.vel can be lowered prior to a heavy rain, and more water
call·be trapped in the reservoir and released later at a controlled discharge.
• Retention ponds - Retention ponds serve a similar purpose to dams. Water
can be trapped in a retention pond and then released ata controlled discharge
to prevent flooding downstream. • Levees, DOles, and FloodwaUs - These
are structures built along side the channel to increase the stage at
which the stream floods. Some controversy has developed concerning
the use of such structures. • Floodways - Floodways are areas that
can be built to provide an outlet to a stream and allow its flood into an area
that has been designated as a floodway. Floodways are areas where no
construction is allowed, and where the land is used for agricultural or
recreational purposes when there is no threat of a nood, but which provide
an outlet for flood watera during periods of high discharge.

REDUCTION OF VULNERABILITY

With a better underatanding of the behavior of streams, the probability of

flooding, and areas likely to be flooded during high discharge, humans can
undertake measures to reduce vulnerability to flooding. Among the non·
structural measures a re: • Floodplain zoning • Floodplain building codes
• Floodplain buyout programs • Mortgage limitations METEORITES,
IMPACTS, AND MASS EXTINCTION METEORITES A Meteorite is a
piece of rack from outer space that strikes the surface of the Earth.
A Meteoroid is a meteorite before it hits the surface of the Earth. Meteors
are glowinglragments of rack matter from outside the Earth's atmosphere
that burn and glow upon ente ring the Earth's at.mosphere. They are more
commonly known as shooting stara. Some meteors, particularly larger ones,
may survive passage thrnugb the atmosphere to become meteorites, but most
are small objects that burn up completely in the atmosphere. They a re not,
in reality, shooting stars. Fireballs al'e very bright meteers .. Meteor Showers
- During certain times oft.he year, the Earth's orbit passcs through a belt of
high concentration of cosmic dust and other particles, and many meteors are
observed. The Perseid Shower, results from passage through one o(these
beltaevery year in mid·August, and Leonid shower occurs in mid-November.
Throughout history there have been reports of stones falling (rom the SKY,
but the scientific community did n ot recognize t he extraterrestrial origin of
meteorites until the 1700s. Within recent history meteorites have
even hit humans- * 1938 - a small meteorite crashed t.hrough the roof of a
garage in Illinois. * 1954 . a 5kg meteorite fell through the roof of a house in
Alabama. * 1992. a small meteorite demolished a car near New York city.
2003· a 20 kg meteorite crashed through a double story house in uptown
New Orleans. * 20Q3 . 8 shower of meteorites destroys several houses and
injures 20 people in India. Meteorite fragments have been found all over the
surface of the Earth. Although most have been found in Antarctica. In
Antarctica they are easily seen on the snow covered su rface or embedded in
ice. The fall of meteol'ites to the E,arth's surface is part of the continuing
process of accretion of the Earth from the dust and rock of space. When
these rock fragments come close enough to the Earth to be attracted by its
gravity they may fall to the Earth to become part of it. The evolution of life
on the Earth has likely been affected by collisions with these space objects,
and collisions could affect the Earth in the future as well.

UGC Environment V

COMPOSITION AND CLASSIFICATION OF METEORITES

Meteorites can be classified generally into three types: * Stones - Stony

meteorites resemble rocks found on and within the Earth. They are the
most common type of meteorite, although because they resemble Earth rocks
they are not commonly recognized as meteorites unless someone actually
witnesses their fall. Stony meteorites are composed mainly of the minerals
olivine, and pyroxene. Some have a composition that is roughly equivalent
to the Earth's mantle. Two types are recognized: o Chondrites - Chondrites
are the most common type of stony- meteorite. They are composed of small
round glassy looking spheres, ca lled chondrules, that likely formed from
condensation from the gaseous solar nebula early in the history
of the formation oft.he solar system. Most. chondrites have radiometric age
dates of about. 4.6 billion years. o Achondrites -Achondrites are composed
of the same minerals as chondrites, but lack the chondrules. They appear to
have been heated, melted. and recrystallized so that the chondrules are no
longer present. Most resemble volcanic rocks found on the
Earth's su rface. * Irons - Iron meteorit.es are composed of alloys of iron and
nickel. They are easily recognized because they hav(l a much higher
density than normal crustal rocks. Thus, most. meteorites found by the
general populace nrc iron meteorites. When cut and polished, iron
meteorites show a distinct texture called a Widmanstatten pat.tern. This
pattern results from slow cooling of a once hot solid material.
Most researchers suggest that such slow cooling occurred in the core of
much larger body that. has since been fragmented. Iron meteorites give us a
clue to the composition of the Earth's core. * Stony IrOI1S - Stony iron
meteorites consist of a mixture of stony silicate material and iron. Some
show the silicates embedded in a matri'( of iron· nickel alloy. Others occur
as a breecif', where fragments of stony and iron material have been
cemented together by either heat or chemical reactions. Origin of Meteorites:
MOSL meteorites appear to be fragments of larger bodies called parent
bodies. These t:ouJd have been small planets or' large asteroids that were
part of the original solar system. There are several possibilities as to where
t.hese parent bodies. Or their fragments. originated. The Aste roid Belt: The
asteroid belt is located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. It consists of
a swarm of aboul 100,000 objects eaBed asteroids. Asteroids are small rocky
bodies with irregular shapes t.hat have a cratered surface. About 4.000 of
these asteroids have been officially classified and their orbital paths are
known. Once they are so classified t.hey are given a name. The asteroids are
either remnants of a planet that. formed in the region between Mars and
Jupiter but was later broken up by a collision with another planetary body, or
are fragments that failed lO accrete into a planet. The latler possibiljty is
more likely because the total mass of the asteroids is not even equal to
our moon. It does appear that some of the asteroids are large enough to have
undergone internal differentiation. Di.!1'erentiation is a process that forms
layering in II planetary body (i.e. the Earth has differentiated into a core,
man tIe, and crust). If these larger asteroids did in fact undergo
djfferentiation, then this could explain the origin of the different types of
meteorites. Because of the shapes of the asteroids it also appears that some
of them have undergone fragmentation resulting from collisions with other
asteroids. Such collisions could have caused the larger bodies to be broken
up into the smaller objects we observe as meteorites. The Asteroids as Parent
Bodies of Meteorites: Much evidence suggests that the asteroids could be the
parent bodies of met.eorit.es. The larger ones could have differentiated into a
core, mantle. and crust. Fragmentation of these large bodies wou Id then
have done two things: First the fragments would explain the various types of
meteorites found on Earth· the st"nes representing the mantle and crust. of
the original parent body, the irons representing the cores. and the stony
irons the boundary between the core and mantIe of the parent bodies.
Second, the collisions thllt caused the fragmentation could send the
fragments into Earth·crossing orbits. Some of the asteroids have orbits that
bring them close to Earth. These are called Arnor objects. Some have orbital
paths that cross the orbital path of the Earth. These are called Earth·crossing
asteroids or Apollo objects. All objects that have a close approach to the
Earth are often referred to as Near Earth Objects or NEOs. About 150 NEOs
with diameters between 1 and 8 km are known, but this is only
a fraction of the lOtal number. Many NEOs will eventually collide with the
Earth. These objects h&ve unstable orbits because they are under the
gravitational influence of both t.he Earth a.nd Mars. The source of these
objects is likely the asteroid belt..

COMETS AS PARENT BODIES OF METEORITES

A Comet is a body t.hatorbits around the Sun with an eccentric orbit. These
orbits are not circular like those of the planets and are not necessarily within
the same plane as the planets. Most comets have elliptical orbits
which send them to the far outer reaches of the solar system and back toward
a closer approach to the sun. As a comet approaches the sun, solar radiation
generates gases from evaporation of the comet's surface. These gases are
pushed away "rom the comet and glow in the sun light, thus giving the
comet its tail. While the outer surface of comets appear to composed of icy
material like water and cal'oon dioxide solids, they likely contain a Illore
rocky nucleus. Because of their eccentric orbits, many comets eventually
cross the orbit of the Earth. Many meteor showers may be caused by the
Earth crossing an orbit of a fragmented comet. The collision of a cometary
fragment is thought to have occurred in the Tunguska region of Siberia in
1908. The blast was about the size of a 15 megaton nuclear bomb. It
knocked down trees in an area about 850 square miles, but did not leave a
crater. The consensus among scientists is that a cometary fragment about 20
to 60 meters in diameter exploded in the Earth's atmosphere just above the
Earth's surface. Only small amounts of material similar to meteorites were
found embedded in trees at the site. Other Sources: While the asteroid belt
seems like the most likely source of meteorites. some meteorites appear to
have come from other places. Some meteorites have chemical compositions
similar to samples brought back from the moon. Others are thought to have
originated on Mars. These types of meteol'ites could have been ejected from
the Moon or Mars by collisions with other asteroids. or from Mars by
volcanic eruptions.

IMPACT EVENTS

When a large object impacts the surface of the Earth. the rock at the site of
the impact. Is deformed and some of it is ejected into the atmosphe re to
eventually fall back to the surface. This results in a bowl s haped depression
with a raised rim, called an Impact Crater. The s ize of the impact crater de
pends on such factors as the size and ve locity of the impacting object and
the angle at which it strikes the surface of the Earth. Me te~rite Flux and
Size Meteorite flux is the total mass of extraterrestrial objects that strike the
Earth. This is currently about 107 to 109 kg/year. Much of this material is
dust-sized objects called micrometeorites. The frequency at which
meteorites of different sizes strike the Earth depends on the size of the
objects. Meteorites of larger sizes s trike the Earth less frequently. If they
have a size greater than about 2 or 3 cm, they only partially melt or vaporize
on passage through the atmosphere, and thus strike the surface of the Earth.
Objects with sizes greater than 1 km a re considered to produce effects that
would be catastrophic, because an impact of such an object would produce
global effects. Such meteorites strike the Earth relatively infrequently· a 1
km sized object strikes the Earth about once every million years, and 10
km sized objects about once every 100 million years Ve locity and Energy
Release of Incoming Objects: The velocities at which small meteorites bave
impacted the Earth range from 4 to 40 km/sec. Larger objects would not be
slowed down much by the friction associated with passage through the
atmosphere, and thus would impact the Earth with high veloci ty.
Calculations show that a meteorite with a diameter of 30 m, weighing
about 300,000 tons, traveling at a velocity of 15 km/sec (33,500 mileslhour)
would re lease energy equivalent to about 20 million tons of
TNT. Such a meteorite struck at Meteor Crater, Arizona (the Barringer
Crater) about 49,000 years ago leaving a crater 1200 m In
diameter and 200 m deep. Cr a tered Surfaces: Looking at the
surface of the Moon, one is impressed by the fact that most of the surface
features of the moon are shaped by impact craters. The Earth is
subject to more than twice the amount of impacting events than the moon
because of its larger size and higher gravitational attraction. Yet, the Earth
does not show a cratered surface li ke the moon. The reason for this is that
the surface of the Earth is continually changing due to processes like
erosion, weathering, tectonism, sedimentation. a nd volcanism. Thus, the
only craters that are evident on the Eart.h are either very young, very large,
or occurred on stable continental areas that have not been subject to intense
surface modification processes. Currently, approximately 200 terrestrial
impact structures have been ident ified, with the discovet'y rate of new
structures in the range of 3-5 per year. The Mechanics of lmpnct Cratering:
When a large extraterrestrial object enters the Ea rth's atmosphere the initial
impact with the atmosphere will compress the atmosphere, se nding a s hock
wave through the ai r. Frictional heating will cause the object to heat
and glow. Melting and even vaporization of the outer parts of the object will
begin, but if the object is large enough, solid material wil! remain when it
impacts the surface of the Earth.

METEORITE IMPACTS AND MASS EXTINCTIONS

The impact of a space object with a size greatet' than about 1 km would be
expected to be felt over the entire surface of the Earth. Smaller objects
would certainly destroy the ecosystem in the vicinity of the impact. similar
to the effects . of a volcanic eruption, but larger impacts could have a
worldwide effe<:t on life on the Earth. We will here first consider the
possible effects of an impact, and lhen discuss how impacts may have
resulted in mass extinction of species on the Earth in the past. Regional and
Global Effects: Again, we 8S humans have no firsthand knowledge of what
the effects of an impact of a large meteorite or comet would be. Still,
calculations can be made and scaled experiments can be conducted to
estimate the effects. The general consensus is summarized here.
1. Massive earthquake up to Richter Magnitude 13, and numerous large
magnitude, aftershocks would result from the impact of a large object with
the Earth. 2. The large quantities of dust put into the atmosphere would
block incoming solar radiation. The dust could take mont.hs to settle back to
the surface. Meanwhile. The Earth would be in a state of continual darkness.
and temperatures would drop throughout. the world, generating global
winter like conditions. A similar effect has been postulated for the aftermath
of a nuclear war (termed a nuclear winter). Blockage of solar radiation
would also diminish the ability of photosynthetic organisms, like plants, to
photosynt.hesize. Since photosynthetic organisms are the: base of the food
chain, this would seriol1sly disrupt. all ecosystems. 3. Widespread wildfires
ignited by radiation from the fireball as the object passed t;hrough the
atmosphere would be generated. Smoke from these fires would further block
solar radiation to enhance the cooling effect and further disrupt
photosynthesis. 4. If the impact occurred in the oceans, a large steam cloud
would be produced by the sudden evaporation of the seawater. This water
vapor and CO2 would remain in the atmosphere long after the dust settles.
Both of these gases are greenhouse gases which scatter solar radiation and
create ~ warming effect. Thus, ~fter the initial global cooling, the
atmosphere would undergo global warming for many years after the impact.
5. lfthe impact occurred in the oceans. Giant tsunamis would be generated.
For a 10 km·diameter object., the leading edge would hit the seafloor of the
deep ocean basins before the top of the object had reached sea level. The
tsunami from such an impact is estimated to produce waves
from 1 to S km high. These could easily flood the interior of continents.
6. Large amounts of n.itrogen oxides would result from combining Nitrogen
and Oxygen in the atmoRphere due to the shock produced by the impact.
These nitrogen oxides would combine with water in the atmosphere to
produce nitric acid which would fall back to the surface as acid rain,
resulting in the acidification of surface waters. The Geologic Record of
Mass Extinction: It hsslong been known that extinction of large
percentages families or species of organisms have occurred at specific times
in the history of our planet. Among the mechanisms that have been
suggested to have caused these mass extinctions, have been large
volcaniceruptions, changes in climatic conditions, changes in sea level, and,
more recently, meteorite i.mpacts. While the meteorite impact theory of
mass extinctions has become accepted by many scientists for particular
extinction events, there is sti ll considerable controversy among scientists.
An impact with a large object could have caused at least some of the mass
extinction events, as it would certainly seem possible given the effects that
an impact could have. Human Hazards: It should be clear that even if an
impactofa large space object did not cause the extinction of humans, the
effects would cause a natural disaster of proportions never witnessed by the
human race. Here we first look at the chances that such an impact
could occur, then look at how we can predictor provide warning of such an
event, BDd finally discuss ways that we might be able to protect
ourselves from such an event. Risk - It is estimated that in any given year the
odds that you will die from an impact of an asteroid or comet are about 1 in
20,000. Prediction a n d Warning - It i$ estimated that over 90% of NEOs
have not yet been discovered. Because of t.his. with our present knowledge.
there is a good chance that the only warning we would have is the flash of
light from the fireball as one of these objects ent.ered the Earth's
atmosphere. Scientists have proposed the "Spaceguard Survey" to find
and track a ll of t.he large NEOs. If such a survey is carried out, we could
predict the paths of all NEOs and have years to decades to prepare for an
NEO that could impact the Earth. Mitigation -Impacts are the only natural
hazard that we ca.n prevent from happening by either deflecting the
incoming object or destroying it. Of course, we must first know about such
objects and their paths in order to give us sufficient warning to prepare a
defense.

FORESTS OF INDIA

The 'jungles' oflnma are ancient in nature and composition. They are rich in
variety and shelter a wide range of avifauna and mammals and insects. The
fact that they have existed for very long time is proved from the ancient
text.s all of which have some mention of the forests. The people revered
forests and a large number of religious ceremonies centred on trees and
plants. Even today in parts ofIndia the sacred groves exist and are
worshipped. During the early part of the British rule, trees were used
for timber and forests were cut for paper. Large numbers of trees such as sal.
teak. And sandalwood were cut. for export also. The history of modern
Indian forestry was a process by which the British gradually appropriated
forest resources for revenue generation. Trees could not be felled without
prior permission and knowledge of the authority. This step was taken to
ensure that they were the sale users of the forest trees. But. after some time,
the British began to regulate and conserve. In 1800. a commissioner was
appointed to look into the availability of teak in thf' Malabariorests. In
1806, the Madras government appointed Capt. Watson as the commissioner
of forests for organizing the production of teak and other timber suitable for
the buiJding of ships. In 1855. Lord Dalhousie framed regulations for
conservation of forest in the entire country. Teak plantations were raised in
the Malabar hills and acacia and eucalyptus in the Niligiri Hills. In Bombay.
the conservator of forest, Gibson, tried to introduce rules prohibiting
shifting cultivation and plantation of teak forests. From 1865lo 1894. forest
reserves were established to secure material for imperial needs. From the
18th century, scientific forest management syst.ems were employed to
regenerate and harvest t.he forest to make it sustainable. Between 1926 and
1947 afforestation was carried out on a large scale in the Punjab and Uttar
Pradesh. In the early 1930s, people began showing interest in the
conservation of wild life. Around the same time the Indian rulers of the
States also started conservation of habitats to help conserve the
birds and mammals. Though all oft.hem were hunters and between them and
t.he British they cleaned at least 5000 tigers if not more. But st.ilI these areas
of conservation helped save the species from extinction and formed most of
the modern National Parks. The new Forest Policy of 1952 recognized the
protective functions of the forest and aimed at maintaining one·third
of India's land area under forest. Certain activities were banned and grazing
restricted. Much of the original British policy was kept in place, such as the
classification of forest land into two broad types. The next. 50 years saw
development and change in people's thinking regarding the forest. A
constructive attitude was brought about through a number of fiveyear
plans. Until 1976, the forest resource was seen as a source of earning money
for the state and therefore little was spent in protecting it or looking after it.
Today India'S forests are protected in National Parks like Corbett and
193 UGC-JRF (Paper 1}-25 Nagarhole or in Sanctuaries like Pakhui and
Little Rann of Katch. The modern way of thinking has resulted in Biosphere
Reserves and Biodiversity Hotspots and extensive research on them have
resulted in rediscovery of new species of mammals like the Leaf Deer in
Arunachal Pradesh or the Hook Nosed Frog in Western Ghats. Supporting
more than 14 percent of the wild fauna and a higher percentage of the wild
flora of the world the forests of India is an intricate web of life with
many surprises to explore. As we proceed to an era of advanced wildlife
management and as the pressure on the foreftjts. all over the world
increase the need of the hou~ is to Irealize the potentiall'esoul'ce that the
forests have both economically and from the natural point of view. A brief
description of the wildlife zones of India is given below: THE TRANS-
HIMALAYA Stretching from Ladakh to the Lahul-Spiti the Trans-Himalaya
covers an estimated land area of 186.200 sq. km. Trans-Himalaya, means
beyond the Himalaya. Outside the Indian region, the Trans·Himalaya is very
extensive, covering a total of nearly 2.6 million sq_ km. comprising the
Tibetan plateau. Nursery to the Indus, Brahmaputra and Sutlej; decorated by
the Zanskar, Ladakh and the Karakoram, the Trans-Himalaya is home
to some of best biological grandeur which survive this cold desert conditions
through their ability to economise resources. Some rare fauna like the Black
Necked Crane breed in the brackish lakes like Tso Morari, Hanle and
Chushul. Some parts of the Trans-Himalaya are above the snowline,
including the Siachen, a 1,180 sq. km. glacier said to be the largest
outside the polar regions! Though the landscape is characterised by a distinct
lack of natural forests, along the river banks and valleys, some greenery does
exist. with willows, poplars, wild roses and many herbaceous plants'
and shrubs which is home to at least eight distinc~' species and/or sub-
species of wild sheep includill5 the nayan or great Tibetan sheep (Ovis
ammon hodgsoni), the urial or shapu (Ovis orientaiis), the bharal OJ" blue
sheep (pseudois nayaur) and the ibex (Capra ibex). On the plateau of the
Trans-Himalaya, The Tibetan antelope (Pantholops hodgsoni) or the
chiru, and the Tibetan gazelle (Procapra picticaudata) are occasionally s
ighted. Smaller animals of the region include pikas. Marmots and Tibetan
hares. The mountains are shared by predat.ors like the snow·leopard or
ounce. The Pallas cat, Indian wolf and the lynx can also be seen with
extreme luck. THE HIMALAYA The world's youngest, loft.iest and most
breathtaking mountain chains are home to several tropical Jife forms.
Extending some 236,300 sq. km. in the Indian region, the
Himalaya accounts for nearly seven per cent of the country's total surface
area. The Himalaya has extreme habitat. types, ranging from arid
Mediterranean and temperate in the western parts, to warm, moist, evergreen
jungles in the east. Currently there are 56 protected areas in this zone and
this cover roughly five per cent of the total su rface area. 10 of these
protected areas are National Parks where one can qxpect to see the amazing
diversity of the flora and fauna that this region supports. In t.he luxuriant
eastern parts where the tree-line is higher, animals like the red panda,
binturong and several lesser cats can be seen with some effort. Of the
existing 56 protected areas in the Himalaya, at least 41 lie in the temperate
sector either completely, or partly (the higher reaches of some of these
protected areas merge into the third major habitat type, t.he highaltitude
sub-alpine). The sub-alpine habitat type, above the middle level temperate
sector (higher than 3,500 metres) consists of birch, rhododendrons. junipers,
dwarf bamboo and a mixture or open meadows and scrub·doLted
grasslands. As habitat types change. A noticeable transformation takes place
in the faunal community as weD. T~e higber reaches house several
threatened species such as the ibex, shapu, wolf and snow-leopard. Nearly
half the 56 protected areas in the Himalaya extend partially or extensively
into the high-altitude sub-alpine. This area is supported with protection
programmes like Project Hangul, the Himalayan Musk Deer Ecology and
Conservation Project, the Snow Leopard Project and several Pheasant
Projects. The Himalayas offers fantastic trekking and overIandjourney
options to enjoy the fascinating wealth that is nurtures in its icy foldB.
THE INDIAN DESERT Spread through the majestic states of Gujarat
and Rajasthan the Indian Desert is an amazing place to look for truly
fantastic wild flora and fauna. Animals that never drink and plant seeds that
can stay alive for years without water are typical of the miracles of this most
fragile zone. In the Indian subcontinent, deserts, with an area of about
225,000 sq. km. account for just under seven per cent of the total
land area. Divided into two distinct sub-divisions, Thar desert region
covering 180,000 sq. kms. In the state of Rajas than and the Rann ofKutchh,
covering some 45,000 sq. kms. of western Gujarat. It is a land of grand
mirage and miracles. The desert system is characterized not so much by the
variety and numbers of animal species but by the adaptations exhibited
to tackle the rigours of desert life. The Thar shows a good extent of
endemism in its faunal structure. The desert cat, desert fox, the winter·
visiting houbara bustard and several ssndgrouse species, as also a few
reptiles are found only in the Thar. Blackbuck, chinksra, the Indian wolf,
caracal, great Indian bustard can also be seen here. In contrast to the sandy
Thar, the Little and the Great Ranns, with very similar vegetation
communities, have a high variety of faunal and floral composition. Though
the Ranns are predominantly flatlands, they are interspersed with raised
mour.ds or islands, locally called bets. Both the Ranns have unique faunal
communities. The Great Rann is best known for its huge breeding colony of
lesser flamingoes. The Little Rann is the only home of the wild ass in the
Indian peninsula, besides playing host to a fair number of houbara
bustards, sandgrouse and bther avifauna. THE SEMI-ARID ZONE Between
the Indian desert and the Gangetic Plain, the Semi-arid Zone encompasses a
total area of 508,000 sq. km. Covering nearly 15 per cent of India's area,
with vast grasslands and some fascinating forests home to the Leopard,
Tiger and the Asiatic Lion this is a truly wild belt ofIndia. Most ofthis wne
houses the flat, alluvial deposits of the Indus river drainage system. The
region comprises predominantly cultivated flatlands, interspersed with a
network of wetlands-marshes and rivers. Consisting of the Punjab Plains in
the North home to the Keoladeo Ghana Bird Sanctuary, Harike and
Sultanpur and parts of Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat in the South the
Semi-arid Zone is a vast land-mass. The Aravalli and the Vindhya mou~tain
ranges dominate the central portions of this zone. An inY>resting feature of
the zone is the heavy rainfall region of Mount Abu in the southern
Aravallis. Here several plant and animal species bear close affinity to the
Western Ghats. Plants such as those of the genus Acacia, Anogeissus,
Balanites, Capparis, Grewia and several others clearly have Aftjcan
affinities. What is however, very interesting is the high density of wildlife
(mainly ungulates) in the protected areas here, where livestock grazing
and other adverse impacts have been controlled. The herbivores in this area
include nilgai, blackbuc.k, chowsingha or four horned antelope, chinkara or
Indian gazelle, sambar and spotted deer, the last two being more or less
restricted to the forested mountain ranges and valleys. The Semi-arid Zone
boasts of a good population and variety of predators including the wolf,
caracal and the jackal, all of which have close relatives in Africa. Two of the
finest tiger rescrvea- RanthaIllborc and Sariska-Bre located in the Aravallis.
Amongst the richest of Indian wildlife areas. these two wilderness areas are
true showpieces of lndian wildlife. On t.he whole. itcan be stated that while
the Semi· arid Zone does not exhibit any gteatendemism, it nevertheless
holds viable populations of several species of conservation criticality today.
Besides those mentioned above. others include the sloth bear. Lesser'
Florican, the Great Indian Bustard. mugger. gharial, several turtles and also
waterfowl. both resident and migratory. THE WESTERN GHATS
Along the west coast of lndia .. beginning from the Surat Dangs at the
western extremity of the Satpuras in south Gujarat, for over 1,500 km.
to the southern tip of India in Kerala – stretch the Western Ghats. a mountain
range second only to the Himalaya in magnificence. The Ghat.s are the
second largest tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forest belt of the sub·
continent. There is a high degree of biological endemism; species
desperately in need of preservation. The natural forests and protected areas
of Western Ghats still house a biological wealth matched only by the North-
east. The famous forests of Silent Valley form a part of this vital forested
swatch. A wide climatic (rainfaU and temperature) and geographical
(altitude and associated mountain spurs) gradient exists in this zone. This is
manifested in a tremendous diversity of vegetal communities and animal
associations. From the coastal plains along the western flanks, the zone rises
up to a maximum altitude of 2,735 metres in the south. While falling
gradually (sharply in a few places) along the eastern side, towards the dry
Deccan Peninsula. The Western Ghats Zone covers barely five per cent. of
India's area, but. Its biological rich ness can be best understood when one
realises t.hat 27 percent of all the species of higher plants recorded in the
Indian region are found here (about 4,000 of 15,000 species). Further. almost
1.800 species are endemic to the region. The Nilgiri·Travancore·Anamalai·
Palni·Cardamom hill areas in the southern parts of the zone exhibit t.he
highest degree of endemism. Further, several interesting plant associations
are observed in the evergreen forcsts of the Zonc. There are montane 'sholn'
forests, riverine or swamp forests and nearly half 8 dozen ot.her
evergreen·specles associations, mostly observed in the southern half of the
Zone, where numerous ancillary mountain ranges converge to produce 8
region of exceptional diversit.y. Becduse of the heavy rainfall and healthy
soil co nd it..ions that much of the Zone's southern half enjoys. cash crops
like coffee. cocoa, ca rdamom, Tubber. Lea and pepper are extens ively
grown. setting in their wake additional man·induced habitats. The
Western Ghats Zone is also characterised by a series offorestgaps or breaks.
that are actually valleys that break the continuity of the mountain ranges a nd
accordlOgly of the biological components as well. Some of the major ones
are the Palghat Gap, the Moyar Gorge or Gap and the Shencottah Gap.
These series of gaps have resulted in preventing the sp read of certain
species and have hence, fa cilitated local speciation and endemism. The
associated mountain ranges such as the Annamal~is, the Nilgiris and the
Agastyamalais are a ll separated by clear-cut barriers and besides the
interesting floral speciation, a distinct faunal endemism andlor local
speciation, is also found. Areas such as thi s are in urgent need of study and
documentation. Though this zone has healthy populations of much of the
animal species characteristic of peninsular India (tiger, elephant, gaur, dhole,
s loth bear, panther and several species of deer), it also exhibits a fairly good
degree of endemism among primates. ungulates. carnivores, rodents,
squirrels and several birds. Amongst flmphibia, most of the species and
nearly half t.he genera are endemic, while a good degree of endemism is
visible also amongst reptiles, fish and insects, most fau nal endemism and
restriction being only in the centraJ and and southern parta of the zone.
Several of the zone's faunal components are of 196 great interest (&nd
importance) in that they have helped provide justification for what is called
The Hora Hypothesis. This explains the spread of several species from the
Himalaya and North-east along a once continuous central Indian mountain
range into the Western Ghats. giving rise to several interesting biological
linkages between the Western Ghats. the Himalaya and North-East! More
natural history field research would reveal vital clues to the management of
sllch areas.

CONSERVATION STATUS
Presently, of all the Bio-geographic Zones, The Western Ghats with 44
Sanctuaries and National Parks, covering some 15,935 sq. km. has the
highest percentage of protected areas. However, the two sub divisions of this
Zone (viz., the coastal plains and the main Western Ghats) do not enjoy the
same extent of protection. The coastal plains, from north to south, cover
60,000 sq. km. (37.5 per cent) of the zone. This is one of t he most highly
developed and populated areas of the oountry. It is also the area with the
least number of protected areas. Only four sites (three Sanctuaries and one
National Park) totalling a mere than 240 sq. km. (less than 0.5 per cent)
exist in this section of the Western Ghats. Taking the tremendous pressures
on this region into consideration, even by the most conservative estimate the
total protected area percentage in this region can barely be extended
beyond one per cent. Bombay'S Sanjay Gandhi National Park is the only
National Park in this sub-division! In marked contrast to the coastal plains
region, the 100,000 sq. km. main Western Ghats region has the largest extent
of protected. areas in India. 41 sites (six national parks and 35 sanctuaries)
cover 15,695 sq. km. or 15.8 per cent of lhe total area. On paper this might
seem to be a considerable area, but taking the exception al biodiversity of
this Zone into consideration, not only is this inadequate, but it
is not uniformly distributed and some of the vital eco·zones, such as the
Coorg, Palnis and the Upper Nilgiris have either been totally overlooked or
are barely represented through tiny reserves. To successfully conserve the
rich biological wealth reveal vital clues to the managementof such areas of
evergreen tropical forest regions, it is imperative that there be large-sized,
unbroken protected areas that have a minimum disturbance. The forests in
the northern half of the Western Ghats are highly fragmented, as a result of
which considering areas for protection is not possible. Hence the emphasis
here is on smaller units, with a well spread network to incorporate as much
of the diversity as possible. Less than 25 per cent of the protected areas
network of the Western Ghats lies in the northern half -- Gujarat,
Maharashtra and Goa. Currently t.he largest, contiguous stretch of
wilderness exists in the Nagarahole-Bandipur··Mudumalai belt of Karnataka
and TamilNadu. and the adjoining W ynaad region of North Kerala. This
forms a more or less unbroken protected area conservation unit of over 2.000
sq. km. The significance can be gauged from the fact that the forests hold an
estimated 1,500 elephantsIndia's largest protected population of
pachyderms. Additionally, this area is home to several other threatened
species. The other well-protected portion of the Western Ghats extends over
1.500 sq. km. in the Anamalai Hills region of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. The
highest point in mainland India, south of the Himalaya, is to be found here
as can some of the finest examples oflowland Dipterocarp forests,
which rise up into tho sholas. The presence of extensive moist deciduous
forests adds up to the fact that this is undoubtedly peninsular lndia's
richest bio-zone. Unfortunately, extensive plantations and related human
disturbances threaten much of this region, which is fast losing most of its
viable evergreen forest units. The Periyar·Cardamom Hills belt in Kerala
and Tamil Nadu is a major elephant conservation area. The grizz led squirrel
too is found here. perhaps nowhere else in India. The total protected area
unit in this region extends some 1,227 sq. km., much of it under great
pressure frO"Q1 all sides. Located more or less at the southernmost end of
the Western Ghats Zone are the Agastyamalai Hills in Reraia and Tamil
Nadu. Separated from the northern Kerala forests by the Shencottah Gap, the
Agastyamalais have an interesting biological commonness with the
forests of Sri Lanka. There is great endemism observed here in the floral and
lesser faunal (amphibians, insects etc.) communities. Mundanthurai and
Kalakad Wildlife Sanctuaries form the southernmost range of
the tiger in the sub-continent. The entire protected area unit of this belt
works out to just over 1,000 sq. km. It is believed that under the existing
conservation programmes in this Zone, much of the end'emic flora l
community appears relatively secure. However, the habitat of some
of the faunal elements of principal concern, though well-protected in
pockets, is under threat from plantation encroachments. Rodgers and Panwar
recommend a substantial increase the size of the main conservation units in
this zone, particularly in the main Western Ghats region. Almost two dozen
more protected areas have been recommended, to offer adequate
protection to species in additional areas. However, inspite of this increase in
the number of protected areas, the actual network will be reduced by nearly
500 sq. km. This is because much ofthe over 5,000 sq. km. Dandeli Wildlife
Sanctuary in Karnataka, being a much disturbed and interfered area, is
proposed to be degazetted, for it is realised that it is far more
advantageous to have healthy, undisturbed reasonably good-sized areas than
a huge, highly d isturbed region where much of the conservation and
management programmes cannot even be implemented. Implementation,
in fact, is a key factor in the success of all wildlife plans which have
invariably sounded good on paper, yet failed in pr actice.

SOILS
The soils of India can he classified on the basis of several criteria. Indian
Agricultural Research Institute (1ARl) Delhi divides soils into eight groups.
(i) Alluvial Soil: The largest and the most important group is alluvial soil,
which cover about 24% of India' land surface. This type of soil is composed
of sediments deposited by the mighty rivers in the interior parts of India and
by the sea wave in the coastal areas of the country. The Great Plains of India
running from Punjab to Assam possess rich alluvial soil. It is also found in
Narmada and Tapti valleys in Madhya Pradesh and Orissa, Godavari valley
in Andhra. Pradesh and Cauvery valley in Tamil Nadu. It also occurs in the
deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery rivers. Alluvial soils are
generally deficient in nitrogen ana humus and thus need repeated
use of fertilizers. Such soils are suitable for growing all types of cereals,
pulses, sugarcane, vegetables, oilseeds etc. (ii) Black Soil: The second major
group is black soil. Ideal for the cultivation of cotton crop, it is frequently
referred to as black cotton soil and covers large tracts of the Deccan
plateau . This soil is also classified as Chernozem though locally known as
regur soil. It covers large areas in Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh,
Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and in Tamil Nadu. The black colour is due to
the presence of compounds of iron and aluminium. The soil is sticky when
wet and its level of fertility is well known. Possessing high moisture
retention capacity, black soil does not require much irrigation. (iii) Red Soil:
The red soil, the third major group occurs mosUy in the southern peninsula
and extends up to Jhansi in the north, Kutch in the west and Rajrnahal Hills
in the east. This soil is made up of crystalline and metamorphic rocks and is
rich in ferromagnese minerals and soluble salts but is deficient in nitrogen
~nd humus and thus needs fertilisers. It has a light texture and a porous
structure. Red soil is most suited to growth of rice, ragi, tobacco and
vegetables.
(iv) Laterite Soil: Laterites and lateritic soil are the fourth group formed
through t.he process oflaterisation. They contain tron oxides which import a
red to the soil. The soil occurs in the higher reaches of the Sahyadris,
Eastern Ghats, Rajmahal Hills and other higher areas in the peninsular
region. It can also be found on the lower lands in parts of Maharashtra,
Karnataka and in many parts of Kerala, as well as pockets of Orissa, West
Bengal and Assam Generally poor in nitrogen and mineral salts
due to heavy leaching, it is suitable for rice and ragi cultivation if manured.
(v) Forest Soil: Forest soil is rich in organic matter and humus. It is found in
t.he Himalayas and other mountain regions of the north, higher summit of
the Sahyadris, Eastern Ghats, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Manipur,
Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh. Crops like tea, coffee, spices
and tropical fruits are grown on t.his type of soil (vi, Arid and Desert Soil: It
is found in north western India. It covers the entire area west of the
Aravalli's in Rajasthan and parts of Haryana, Punjab and Gujarat. It is rich in
phosphates but poor in nitrogen and proves quite fertile if irrigated.
(vii) Saline and Alkaline Soil: Soils in many parts of the arid and se mi·arid
areas of Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh. Bihar have saline
and alkaline effervescences mainly of sodium, calcium and magnesium.
These soil are called reh or kallar or usar and are infertile. The salts are
usually confined to the upper layers and soil can be reclaimed by improving
drainage. (viii) Peaty and other Organic Soils: Peaty soils contain large
accumulations of humus, organic matter and soluble salts. These soils are
highly saline and are deficient phosphorus and potash. Marshy soU occurs in
regions of Orissa, West-Bengal and Tamil Nadu. They are also found in
central and. North Bihar a nd in Almora district of V.P.

IRRIGATION
Water is vital for realising full potential of agriculture sector and country's
development. The productivity in fields is severely affected by the vagaries
of the 8C8son. Droughts, alternating 'With floods have been a common
festure, making irrigat.ion and modern agricultural technology
indispensable. A good system of irrigation removes uncertainty about
agricultural production by reducing the dependence on rains and assuring
regular, continuous and copious water supply at the appropriate time for the
crops. It helps in having multiple crops in a year from the field,
ensuring full employment for the workers througbout the year. Assured
supply of water helps adoption of modem agricultural technology, which in
turn helps in increa8in~ productivity. Irrigation helps in more economIcal
use of land by bringing in more area, including wastelands under cultivation.
The importance of irrigation has been realised in the planning process and a
large outlay has been provided for the sector. With sustained and systematic
development of irrigation. Its potential has increased from 22.6 mha prior to
1951 to about 95.4 mha at the end of 2000. Against this, the utilisation of
irrigation potential at the end of 2000 was about 85.4 mha. Irrigation
projects with a Culturable Command Area (CCA) of more than 10,000
hectare are cla8sified as major projects and these with a CCA of more than
2,000 hectare and upto 10,000 hectare a8 medium projects. The irrigation
system is ba..sed on three sub· systems, viz., (1) Tapping adequate resources
of water; (2) Preservation and conveyance of the water made available; and
(3) Optimum utilisation of the water resources called the water mRnagement
systems. Types ofIrrigation: Three main types of irrigation are known:
(1) Well Irrigation: Open wells, dug wells, dug cum bored wells and tube
welle provide an assured supply ofwat.er _Tube·wells are very popular in
north India as power operated tube-wells can provide water for a longer
period of time and cater to a large area. (2) Tank Irrigation: Tanks provide
good storage of rain water for use in the dry season. They are found in
different sizes In south India. (3) Canol Irrigation: Canals, carryLng
water from major rivers, transfer water to the deficient areas. They form the
mllJor means of irrigation in India. accounting for t.bout 40% of the
irrigated land. Perennial cauaIs have an assured supply of water throughout
the year. While Inundate canale get water only d;rring the rainy season.
Storage canals get water from the reservoirs, conatructed specifically to store
rain water.

Command Area Development

Programme: It was initiated in 1974·75 with the objective of bridging the

gap between potential created and utilised for optimizing agricultural
production from irrigated lan~. The main assumption behind the programme
IS that the potential for improvement in the utilisation of water is maximum
and that the underperformance of irrigation systems is di· rectly linked to the
absence of any government. involvement and influence over on-farm devel·
opment activities like land shaping and levelling, construction of field
channels and drains. realignment. of field boundaries wherever necessary,
enforcement of a proper system of warabandi and fair d18tribution of
water to individual fields and supply of all inputs and services including
credit and strengthening of extension se rvices. The programme Olvera
Selection and introduction of suitable cropping pattern; Development of
ground water to supplement surface irrigation; Development and
maintenance of the main and intermediate drainage system and
modernisation, maintenance and efficient operation of the irrigation system.
Beginning with 60 major and medium irrigation projects in 1974, the
Programme included 236 irrigation projects at the end of 2002 with
Culturable Command Area (eCA) of 22.78 million hectare spread over 28
states and two union territories. The performance of CAD programme has
been found to be generally disappointing. Farmers' disputes over land
consolidations, absence of cooperation among various government
departments and the lack of an integrated approach to the problem of soil
and water management are the main resources of CAD's poor performances.
To make CAD a success, farmers' active involvement and cooperation in
development a ctivities is very essential. DrylandfRainfed Farming: Dryland
or Rainfed agriculture is practised on about 73 percent of the net cultivated
area but its contribution accounts for only about 42 percent of the total
foodgrains production. Coarse grains, pulses, cotton and oilseEl,ds are
produced in the rainfed areas. The main\constituents of dry farming
techniques are soil management, harvesting of water, new crop varieties and
new agronomic practices. Soil management includes measures relating to
soil structure, soil fertility and correction of alkalinity of the soil.
Development of modern water harvesting procedures including the use of
Aluminium foil, polymer films and widespread installation of small
water reservoirs. The new agronomic practices envisage the proper
application of nutrients. I POWER SITUATION IN INDIA I The installed
power generation capacity in the country has increased from 1,400 MW in
1947 to 1,12,058.42 MW as on 31 March 2004 comprising 77,968.53 MW
thermal, 29,500.23 MW hydro. 1,869.66 MW wind and 2,720 MW
nuclear. A capacity addition programme of 5,245.52 MW has been fixed for
the year 2004~ 05. Consdiering the fact that a large chunk of proportion of
the installed capacity will come from the public sector, the outlay for the
power sector has been raised from Rs. 45,591 crore during the Ninth Plan to
Rs. 1.43,399 crore in the Tenth Plan. This would include a gross budgetary
support of Rs. 25,000 crore and the remaining Rs. 1,18,399 crare would be
internal and extra budgetary resources. Power generation during 2003-04
was 558.134 BUs comprising 466.618 BUs thermal, 73.796 BUs hydro and
17.720 BUs nuclear. The target of power generation for 2004-05 has been
fied at 566.590 BUs. The plant load factor has shown a steady improvement
over the yea rs and has improved from 52.8 per cent in 1990-91
to 72.7 per cent in 2003-04. Most of power in Inwa is generated through·
h ydal or thermal conversion. Since the northern and eastern India have
perennial rivers, hydal -power generation is more in the area while thermal
power plants are more in western and southern India where rivers dry up
during summer season. Hydal power projects are sometimes part of multi-
purpose projects which also curse flood control, water storage, fishery and
irrigation. Damodar valley corporation waS set up to look after first such
project on Damodar river. Bhakra Beas Management board has an installed
capacity of 2730 MW and caters to the requirements of Northern states.
Nevyeli Lignite Corporation uses lignite for power generation in Tamil
Nadu. Atomic Energy plants have been set up in Tarapur, Ka lpakkam, Kota
and Narora to produce energy from nuclear fission. They contribute
about 1400 MW of energy. National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC)
has been set up to construct and manage the thermal plants of central
government. National Hydal Power Corporation (NHPC) for hydal projects
and Nuclear Power Corporation (NPC) for nuclear plants. North Eastern
Electric Power Corporation (NEEPC) implements the power projects in
North Eastern region. Power Grid 201 UGC-JRF (Paper 1}-26

RENEWABLE ENERGY POTENTIAL AND ACHlEVEMENTS

Corporation of India was set up to operate interstate and inter-regional

transmission system. Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) looks after the
electrification of villages and rural areas. To encourage private sector
investment in the power sector, major policy changes were initiated in 1991.
Procedures for cl~arances of the projects have been simplified a nd
streamlined. Liberal environment for private entrepreneur is being provided,
with some projects being given counter-guarantee and assured rate of return.
Dabhol power project in Maharashtra was the first major power sector
plant for which the State Governmentsigned a Power Purchase Agreement
and Central Government gave counter-guarantee. ~ides conventional sources
of energy, due emphasis has been given on t he nonconventional, renewable
energy sources in the country. The main work has been done on harnessing
solar, wind, small hydro !lI1d bioenergy_ Photo-voltaic and solar thermal
systems have been developed. The Sagar Island in West Bengal has been
turned into "Solar Island" as all needs of peopJe living there are met with
solar energy. In the field of wind energy development, India is third in world
with 900 MW of installed capacity. Farm projects have been set up in parts
of the country where wind· velocity is large enough. Small, mini and micro
hydal projects have been set up to fit in small budgets and local resources. r
n the bio--energy field, technology for conversion of agro - wastes to energy
have been developed. The biomass systems and improved chullah can be
adopted, even at far flung areas. The rural and far-off areas depend on wood
and agre- wastes for their energy requirement and efficient utilisation of
these will save wood and hence protect environment alRO over 25 takh
biogas plants installed in the country l:telp save 75lakh tonnes of fue l wood
every yed In the Ninth Five Year Plan there is proposal' to add additional
capacity of 3000 MW through non-conventional sources or energy. Attempts
are being made to produce energy from urban and industrial wastee wbch
is increasing day by day.
Paper 1 UGC NET
1. ―Because you deserve to know‖ is the punch-line of which newspaper?
a. The Hindu.
b. The Times of India.
c. The Indian Express.
d. The Hindustan Times.

(The answer, apparently is The Hindustan Times. Source)

2. Which Article of the Constitution of India protects the rights of minorities
to establish and administer educational institutions of their own choice?
a. Article 29.
b. Article 26.
c. Article 30.

3. Which committee‘s recommendation lead to the establishment of the

University Grants Commission?
a. S Radhakrishnan Committee.
b. Mudaliar Committee.

4. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched?

a. N. Ram : The Hindu.
b. Barkha Dutt : Zee News.
c. Pranav Roy : NDTV 24×7.
d. Prabhu Chawla : Aaj Tak.

5. Which is the following is a 24 hours English business news channel?

a. CNBC.
b. Zee News.
c. India News.
d. NDTV 24×7.

6. Which number will come in the series 8, 24, 12, ? , 18, 54:
a. 26.
b. 32.
c. 36.

7. What is a modem?
a. Operating System.
b. Digital to analog signal converter.
8. Gave a series of pH values 4, 5, 7 and 8 and asked each pH to be correctly
matched with the correct comments - moderate acid, alkaline, neutral,
dangerous.

9. Absorption of carbon dioxide in seawater leads to:

a. Salinity.
b. Raising sea level.
c. Increased plankton growth.

10. What is largest contributor to carbon dioxide emission in India?

a. Burning coal.
b. Firewood.

11. In which year was the United Nations established?

a.1944.
b.1945.
c. 1946.

12. The sides of triangle are in the ratio of 1/2 : 2/3 : 3/4 . The area of this
triangle is 54 cm. What is the length of its shortest side?

[The following three question was based on a graph. The X axis carried the
name of companies A, B, C, D, E and F. The Y axis represented their
profits; 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60 and so on. On this was plotted the lines of
profit, one each representing the year 2001 and the year 2001. This was
followed by three questions. * Here‘s a rough sketch.]

13. Which company earned maximum profit in the year 2001?

14. Which company earned minimum profit in the year 2000?

15.Which company earned maximum average profit over the years 2000 and
2001?

16. The question provided for five sections of a class, the number of students
in each section and the mean of marks for each section.

Section - No. of Students in the Section - Mean marks of the Section #

A - 10 - 30
B - 40 - 20
C - 10 - 15
D - 15 - 20
E - 20 - 10

What is the overall mean marks of all the students?

[Next three questions were from a passage on movies followed by three

straightforward question. Of course the questions won‘t make any sense
here, without the passage itself. Suffice it to say that they were child's play.
Remember that the answers were from the passage itself, and not what the
candidate thought correct or latest information as a matter of fact.]
17. What word could Yash Chopra not pronounce?
a. Zeistgeist.

18. What was the costume of the heroine in Veer Zarra?

19 .Which is the latest Yash Chopra movie?

20. Who made the movie Lamhe?

21. With which movie is associated?

a. Desh Ki Dharti

22.What dooes LAN stand for?

a. Local Area Network

23. What is the URL of an email?

a. [email protected]
b. [email protected]
c. www_mail.com
d. www.mail.com

24. Which of the following is not a research method?

a. Philosophy
b. Observation

25. Research can be grouped as the following kinds, except (options gave
types of research)
a. Action method.
b. Philosophical & historical method.
26. What is necessary to become a researcher?
a. A post-graduation degree.
b. Analytical and reasoning mind.

27. Which of the following is am not instructional tool?

a. Overhead projector.
b. Transparency.
c. Cassette.
d. Printed material.

28. Which of the following about lecture method is not correct?

a. It is passive.
b. It can give knowledge.
c. It can develop reasoning.
d. It is a one way process.

29. What is the aim of higher education; to enable students to?

a. Take decisions.
b. Pass exams.
c. Ask questions in lecture.

30. Which of the following is incorrect?

a. Sharmila Tagore is the Chairperson of National Films Development
Corporation.
b. Preity Zinta, Yash Chopra are recipients of Dada Sahib Phalke award.
c. Yash Chopra is a member of Certification Board.
d. Hema Malini is the Chairperson of Children‘s Film Society of India.

31. Which of the following statements about computers is correct:

a. Fast and accurate processing of qualitative and qualitative data.
b. Processing quantitative data only.
c. Processing qualitative data only.

MODEL UGC -NET PAPER I

This sample paper in for Paper I of the UGC NET Exam which is common
for all streams.

1. Which one of the following is the main objective of teaching?

(A) To give information related to the syllabus.

(B) To develop thinking power of students.

(C) To dictate notes to students.

(D) To prepare students to pass the examination.

2. Which one of the following is a good method of teaching?

(A) Lecture and Dictation

(B) Seminar and Project

(C) Seminar and Dictation

(D) Dictation and Assignment

3. Teacher uses teaching aids for

(A) Making teaching interesting

(B) Making teaching within understanding level of students

(C) Making students attentive.

(D) The sake of its use.

4. Effectiveness of teaching depends on

(A) Qualification of teacher

(B) Personality of teacher

(C) Handwriting of teacher

(D) Subject understanding of teacher

5. Which of the following is not characteristic of a good question paper?

(A) Objectivity

(B) Subjectivity
(C) No use of vague words

(D) Reliable.

6. A researcher is generally expected to:

(A) Study the existing literature in a field

(B) Generate new principles and theories

(C) Synthesize the idea given by others

(D) Evaluate the findings of a study

7. One of the essential characteristics of research is:

(A) Replicability

(B) Generalizability

(C) Usability

(D) Objectivity

8. The Government of India conducts Census after every 10 years. The

method of research used in this process is:

(A) Case Study

(B) Developmental

(C) Survey

(D) Experimental

9. An academic association assembled at one place to discuss the progress of

its work and future plans. Such an assembly is known as a

(A) Conference

(B) Seminar
(C) Workshop

(D) Symposium

10. An investigator studied the census date for a given area and prepared a
write-up based on them. Such a write-up is called

(A) Research paper

(B) Article

(C) Thesis

(D) Research report

Read the following passage and answer the Question Nos. 11 to 15

The constitution guarantees every citizen the fundamental right to equality.

Yet after 50 years of independence, just one perusal of the female infant
mortality figures, the literacy rates and the employment opportunities for
women is sufficient evidence that discrimination exists. Almost predictably,
this gender, bias is evident in our political system as well. In the 13th Lok
Sabha, there were only 43 women MPs out of total of 543; it is not a
surprising figure, for never has women's representation in Parliament been
more than 10 per cent.

Historically, the manifestos of major political have always encouraged

women's participation. It has been merely a charade. So, women's
organizations, denied a place on merit, opted for the last resort; a reservation
of seats for women in parliament and State Assemblies. Parties, which look
at everything with a vote bank in mind, seemed to endorse this. Alas, this too
was a mirage.

But there is another aspect also. At a time when caste is the trump card,
some politicians want the bill to include further quotas fro women from
among minorities and backward castes. There is more to it. A survey shows
that there is a general antipathy towards the bill. It is actually a classic case
of doublespeak: in public, politicians were endorsing women's reservation
but in the backrooms of Parliament, they were busy sabotaging it. The
reasons are clear: Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power.
11. The problem raised in the passage reflects badly on our

(A) Political system

(B) Social behaviour

(C) Individual behaviour

(D) Behaviour of a group of people

12. According to the passage, political parties have mostly in mind

(A) Economic prosperity

(B) Vote bank

(C) People' welfare

(D) Patriotism

13. "Trump Card" means

(A) Trying to move a dead horse

(B) Playing the card cautiously

(C) Sabotaging all the moves by others

(D) Making the final jolt for success

14. The sentence "Men just don't want to vacate their seats of power"
implies

(A) Lust for power

(B) Desire to serve the nation

(C) Conviction in one's own political abilities

(D) Political corruption

15. What is the percentage of women in the Lok Sabha

(A) 10

(B) 7. 91

(C) 43

(D) 9. 1

16. Informal communication network within the organization is knows as

(A) Interpersonal communication

(B) Intrapersonal Communication

(C) Mass Communication

(D) Grapevine Communication

17. TV Channel launched fro covering only Engineering and Technology

subject is known as

(A) Gyan Darshan

(B) Vyas

(C) Eklavya

(D) Kisan

18. In which state the maximum number of periodicals are brought out for
public information:

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Kerala

(D) Punjab

19. The main objective of public broadcasting system i. e Prasar Bharti is

(A) Inform, Entertainment & Education

(B) Entertain, Information & Interaction

(C) Educate, Interact & entertain

(D) Entertainment only

20. The competerrcy of an effective communicator can be judged on the

basis of:

(A) Personality of communicator

(B) Experience in the field

(C) Interactivity with target audience

(D) Meeting the needs of target audience.

21. Which one of the following belongs to the category of homogeneous

date:

(A) Multi-storeyed houses in a colony

(B) Trees in a garden

(C) Vehicular traffic on a highway

(D) Student population in a class

22. In which of the following ways a theory is not different from a belief?

(A) Antecedent - consequent

(B) Acceptability

(C) Verifiability

(D) Demonstratability

23. The state - "Honesty is the best policy" is

(A) A fact

(B) An value

(C) An opinion

(D) A value judgement

24. Which one is like pillar, pole and standard?

(A) Beam

(B) Plank

(C) Shaft

(D) Timber

25. Following incomplete series is presented. Find out the number which
should come at the place of question mark which will complete the series: 4,
16, 36, 64, ?

(A) 300

(B) 200

(C) 100

(D) 150

26. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two
big circles represent animals living on soil and those living in water, and the
small circle stands for the animals who both live on soil and in water, which
figure represents the relationships among them.

27. Of the following statement, there are two statements both of which
cannot be true but both can be false. Which are these two statements?

(i) All machines make noise

(ii) Some machines are noisy

(iii) No machine makes noise

(iv) Some machines are not noisy

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i) and (iii)

(D) (ii) and (iv)

28. In the following question a statement is followed by two assumptions.

(i) and (ii) . An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted.

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of
the following assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Statement: We need not worry about errors but must try to learn from our
errors.

Assumptions:

(i) Errors may take place when we are carrying out certain work.

(ii) We are capable of benefiting from the past and improve our chances of
error-free work.

(A) Only assumption (i) is implicit

(B) Only assumption (ii) is implicit

(C) Either assumption (i) or (ii) is implicit

(D) Both the assumptions are implicit

29. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered (i) and (ii)
Decide which of the arguments is 'strong' and which is 'weak'. Choose the
correct answer from the given below Should the press exercise some self-
restraint?
(i) Yes, they should not publish new items which may incite the readers to
indulge in wrong practices.

(ii) No. it is the responsibility of the press to present the truth irrespective of
the consequences.

(A) Only the argument (i) is strong

(B) Only the argument (ii) is strong

(C) Neither argument (i) nor (ii) is strong

(D) Both the arguments (i) and (ii) are strong

30. Study the argument and the inference drawn from that argument. Given
below carefully.

Argument: Anything that goes up definitely falls down. Helicopter goes up.
Inference: So the helicopter will definitely fall down.

What in your opinion is the inference drawn from the argument?

(A) Valid

(B) Invalid

(C) Doubtful

(D) Long drawn one

Four students W, X, Y, Z appeared in four papers, I, II, III and IV in a test.

Their scores out of 100 are given below.

Papers
Students
I II III IV
W 60 81 45 55
X 59 43 51 A
Y 74 A 71 65
Z 72 76 A 68
 Where 'A' stands for absent

Where 'A' stands for absent

Read the above table and answer below mentioned Questions 31 to 35

31. Which candidate has secured between 60-65% marks in aggregate

(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z

32. Who has obtained the lowest average in aggregate.

(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z

33. Who has obtained the highest average

(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z

34. In which paper the lowest marks were obtained by thecandiates

(A) I

(B) II
(C) III

(D) IV

35. Which candidate has secured the highest percentage in the papers
appeared

(A) W

(B) X

(C) Y

(D) Z

36. ICT stands for

(A) Information common technology

(B) Information & communication technology

(C) Information and computer technology

(D) Inter connected technology

37. Computer Can

(A) Process both quantitative and qualitative information

(B) Store huge information

(C) Process information and fast accurately

(D) All the above.

38. Satellite Communication works through

(A) Rader

(B) Transponder

(C) Receptor
(D) Transmitter

39. A Computer is that machine which works more like a human brain. This
definition of computer is

(A) Correct

(B) Incorrect

(C) Partially correct

(D) None of the above.

40. Information and communication technology includes

(A) E-mail

(B) Internet

(C) Education television

(D) All the above.

41. It is believed that our globe is warming progressively. This global

warming will eventually result in.

(A) Increase in availability of usable land.

(B) Uniformity of climate at equator and poles.

(C) Fall in the sea level

(D) melting of polar ice.

42. In which parts of India ground water is affected with arsenic

contamination?

(A) Haryana

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Sikkim
(D) West Bengal

43. Sunderban in Hooghly delta is known for

(A) Grasslands

(B) Conifers

(C) Mangroves

(D) Arid forests

44. Sardar Sarover dam is located on the river

(A) Ganga

(B) Godavari

(C) Mahanadi

(D) Narmada

45. Which one of the following trees has medicinal value?

(A) Pine

(B) Teak

(C) Neem

(D) Oak

46. Which one of the following is not considered a part of technical

education in India:

(A) Medical

(B) Management

(C) Pharmaceutical

(D) Aeronautical
47. Which of the following is a Central university

(A) Mumbai University

(B) Calcutta University

(C) Delhi University

(D) Madras University

48. Identify the main Principle on which the Parliamentary System Operates

(A) Responsibility of Executive to Legislature

(B) Supremacy of Parliament

(C) Supremacy of Judiciary

(D) Theory of Separation of Power

49. The reservation of seats for women in the Panchayat Raj Institutions is:

(A) 30 % of the total seats

(B) 33 % of the total seate

(C) 33% of the total population

(D) In Proportion to their population

50. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer from the code given
below:

LIST ( Institutions)

LIST II( Locations)

1. Indian Veterinary Research Institute

(i) Pune

2. Institute of Armament Technology

(ii) Izat Nagar

3. Indian Institute of Science

(iii) Delhi

4. National Institute for Educational Pannesi

(iv) Bangalore and Administrators

(A) 1(ii), 2(i), 3(iv), 4(iii)

(B) 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(ii), 4(iii)

(C) 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(iv)

(D) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i)

Source: Sample Paper based on questions provided by UGC Model Paper.

Answer Key:

1. B 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. B
11. B 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. D
21. A 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. A 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. D
31. A 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. B 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. D
41. D 42. D 43. C 44. D 45. C 46. A 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. A

GENERAL SCIENCE

PAPER I (PART ‘A’)

1. If the speed of light (3×108 m/s) and the mean radius of

the earth (6×103 km) are taken

to be the units of speed and length respectively, then the

value of the new unit of

acceleration expressed in m/s2 will be

1. 1.5 × 1010

2. 50

3. 0.02

4. 1.2 × 105

2. The minimum number of multiplications required to

evaluate the expression

a + bx + cx2 + dx3 + ex4 is

1. 4

2. 5

3. 3

4. 7

3. Consider the function

f (x)= x (1− x) for 0≤ x≤1

The function

1. attains minima at x = ½ and ¾.

2. is discontinuous in the given interval

3. is negative at a few points in the given interval.

4. has a maximum at x = ½.

4. Which of the following distributions has the smallest

variance?

5. One way to determine whether a number (n) is prime or

not is to divide it by

numbers less than itself. The number of divisions required is

1. n/2

2. n − 1

3. 2 n

4. less than n

6. The angular velocity vector of the Earth’s rotation points

1. from east to west

2. from west to east

3. from north to south

4. from south to north

7. The top of a mountain is at an elevation of 45° from one

bank of a river and at an

elevation of 60° from the other bank. If the river has a width
of 1 km, what is the height

[in km] of the mountain?

1. 1
2

2. 3

3. 3

1+ 3

4. 3

3 −1

8. On a cold day, a copper vessel feels colder to touch than

a glass bowl. What is the

reason for this?

1. Glass does not cool down as easily as copper does.

2. Glass is a poor conductor of heat compared to copper.

3. The specific heat of glass is higher than that of copper.

4. Glass radiates more heat than copper does.

9. If the distance between two bodies of masses m1 and m2

is doubled, the gravitational

force between them

1. doubles.

2. halves.

3. becomes one-fourth.

4. remains the same.

10. A cricket ball and a football are dropped simultaneously

from the top of Qutub Minar.
Which of the following best describes their subsequent
behaviour?

1. They touch the ground at the same instant.

2. They touch the ground with the same velocity.

3. The cricket ball reaches before the football.

4. The football reaches before the cricket ball.

11. A mass m (200 g) slides horizontally due to a downward

force applied by a 500 g

weight (as shown in figure). The velocity of the mass m

(ignoring friction)

12.

1. increases as a function of time with constant acceleration.

2. remains constant.

3. changes with time with increasing acceleration.

4. changes with time with decreasing acceleration.

12. The O–H bonds in water molecule are polar. The

molecule is symmetric and the H–O–H

bond angle is approximately 107°. The dipole moment

vector of the molecule is

1. zero

2. along the OH bond

3. randomly oriented

4. along the bisector of the H–O–H angle

13. You wish to observe a small organism closely, using a
convex lens. If you wish to

avoid distortion of the image, you should keep the object

1. at a distance greater than the focal length

2. less than the focal length

3. at twice the focal length

4. exactly at the focal length

14. A charged particle moving with a constant velocity

enters a magnetic field

perpendicular to its velocity. In which direction y an electric

field should be applied to

compensate the magnetic force?

1. Along the initial velocity

2. Perpendicular to the initial velocity and parallel to the

magnetic field

3. Perpendicular to both, the initial velocity and the

magnetic field

4. Along the magnetic field

15. Two pendula of lengths l1 and l2 (= 2l1) have the same

period at two different

locations. The accelerations due to gravity at these two

locations, g1 and g2, are related

by

1. g1 = g2
2. g1 = 2g2

3. g2 = 2g1

4. g2 = 4g1

16. Water rises naturally out of an artesian well because

1. the water has lots of dissolved gases

2. the water table is at the ground level

3. the water table is below the ground level

4. the water table is above the ground level

17. Although, we know from chemical evidence that life on

Earth evolved as early as 3.5

billion years ago, the most ancient available fossils are only
0.54 billion years old. This is

because

1. acidic ocean dissolved all life forms

2. early life forms were soft bodied

3. rocks older than 0.54 billion years do not exist

4. a large asteroid impact destroyed all earlier records

18. During α-decay of a radioactive atom, the mass number
reduces by 4 units and the atomic

number decreases by 2 units. How many α-particles will be

generated during the decay

of a 238

92U atom to a 206

82 Pb atom.

1. 8

2. 16

3. 10

4. 5

19. Depletion of ozone layer and formation of ozone hole in

polar regions is a phenomenon

occurring in the

1. troposphere.

2. mesosphere.

3. stratosphere.

4. thermosphere.

20. Sea levels are predicted to rise in the near future mainly
due to

1. sinking of landmass

2. increased rainfall

3. gravitational pull of the moon

4. melting of glaciers.

21. The pH value of distilled water is always below 7. This is

because

1. distillation reduces the ionic product of water.

2. during distillation inorganic salts are removed.

3. nitrogen from air gets dissolved in it.

4. CO2 from air dissolves in it.

22. Photosynthesis in water bodies is restricted to a certain

depth. This is mainly

because

1. temperature decreases with depth

2. light intensity decreases with depth

3. dissolved CO2 is available only to a certain depth

4. nutrients are available only to a certain depth

23. The velocity of P (pressure) and S (shear) seismic waves

depends on the

compressibility, shear modulus and density of the medium.

The inner core of the Earth

is inferred to be liquid using seismic wave travel time. This is

because

1. the density of the inner core is the highest.

2. the inner core has a very high compressibility.

3. both P and S waves pass through the inner core.

4. the S wave does not pass through the inner core.

24. One of the following chemicals used as food preservative

is

1. sodium benzoate

2. sodium alkylbenzene sulfonate

3. ethylene glycol

4. aspartic acid

25. Qualitative analysis of Al3+ in presence of Fe3+ and

Cr3+ is based on

1. reducing nature of Fe3+

2. oxidizing nature of Cr3+

3. amphoteric nature of Fe3+

4. amphoteric nature of Al3+ and Cr3+

26. Hydrolysis of t-butyl chloride in presence of aqueous

alkali produces t-butyl alcohol.

The rate of hydrolysis depends on

1. concentration of t-butyl chloride

2. concentration of alkali
3. amount of water

4. concentration of both alkali and t-butyl chloride

27. Which one of the following would give natural rubber

upon polymerisation?

1. CH3 – CH2 = CH2

H CH3

||

2 n-propyl– C = C–CH =CH2

CH3 CH3

||

3. H3C – C = C – CH = CH2

CH3

4. CH2 = C – CH = CH2
28. The ionization potential (IP) of hydrogen atom is 13.6
eV. The estimated second IP of

the helium atom (in eV) is

1. 6.8

2. 27.2

3. 54.4

4. 13.6

29. The following molecule has a non-zero dipole moment

1. CH4

2. CO2

3. NH3

4. BF3

30. The oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is

1. + 6

2. + 3

3. + 10

4. + 5
31.

A B (salt)

Na + H2

(alcohol)

B MeI C (ether)

C Conc. HI MeI

A NaOH/I2 iodoform

heat

The alcohol (A), salt (B) and ether (C), are respectively

1. CH3OH, CH3ONa, CH3-O-CH3

2. CH3OH, C2H5ONa, CH3-O-C2H5

3. C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5-O-C2H5

4. C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, CH3–O-C2H5

32. In any ecosystem, the primary producers such as
photosynthetic plants are the most

abundant and predators such as tigers are the least

abundant. The fundamental law

responsible for this pattern is

1. first law of thermodynamics

2. second law of thermodynamics

3. Mendel's laws of genetics

4. law of conservation of mass

33. In the Siberian forests, carbon fixation is expected to be

maximum in

1. January

2. July

3. October

4. April

34. Movement of water in a tree takes place in

1. roots only

2. in the central part of the stem

3. in the peripheral part of the stem

4. leaves only

35. Which of the following is not used as a fertilizer?

1. Ammonium nitrate
2. Ammonium phosphate

3. Urea

4. Sodium chloride

36. In DNA, Adenosine pairs with Thymine, and Guanine

pairs with Cytosine. If Adenosine

constitutes 18% and Guanine constitutes 24% of all

nucleotides in a DNA preparation, it

must be a

1. single stranded DNA

2. double stranded DNA

3. very short stretch of double stranded DNA

4. multi-chromosomal DNA

37. A bacterium which is 1 μ in diameter and divides every

20 minutes, forms a 1 mm

diameter colony in 24 hours in a growth medium with limited

nutrients. The number of

cells in the colony is approximately

1. 1000

2 . 109

3. 2 × 72

4. 272
38. Burns caused by steam are more serious than burns
caused by boiling water because

1. steam has large latent heat

2. steam has a very large specific heat compared to water

3. steam is hotter than boiling water

4. steam being a gas makes easy contact with skin

39. The largest decimal number that a four byte integer can
represent is approximately

1. 105

2. 107

3. 109

4. 1011

40. A modern personal computer is capable of multiplying

two numbers in a few

1. picoseconds

2. nanoseconds

3. microseconds

4. milliseconds
UGC Teaching Aptitude Part I

TEACHING APTITUDE

Teaching is a complex process which brings socially desirable behavioural

change in a person. Teaching is a part ofteaching-learning process. It is
required to bring certain changes in a person according to the need of his
society and environment in which he is living. 'Teaching is not an act as it is
dynamic in nature so it is termed as process. It is also not a fundamental
concept as it is greatly influenced by social and human factors. Teachlng is
both artan,d science. It is · an ' activity involving teacher and student with a
view to the development of student. The main aim of teaching is to bring
about socially desirable behavioural changes in the students and can be
achieved only if teaching is effective and based on certain values or
principles. Teaching is one of the main parts of the teaching-learning system.
So effective teaching is mostly depending on the teacher. It is a common fact
that a good teacher is born and not made. Training and research can make a
good teacher better and a better teacher best. Teacher should follow various
methods of teaching devised from time to time. A teacher encourages the
practice of thinking among students. Teacher should give to the students
the' freedom and opportunity to express their ideas. . Teaching is required to
give education to the students. Edl,lcation may be defined as the process of
drawing out least in an individual. We can define education as "the
aggregate of all processes by means of which a person develops attributes,
attitudes and other forms of behaviour of positive value in the society in
'which he lives". We can also define it as "the 'social process by which
people are subjecte.d to tHe influence of a selected and controlled
environment, so that they may attain social competence and optimum
individual development" . The complete process of education must contain
four common factors (i) Educator (teacher) (ll) Educand (Student) (iii) the
subject matter (iv) the context (setting). Now, education is the proces~ of
developi~g some abilities in an individual. Though abilities are in'born
quality, it is also a fact that these can be nurtured and developed in an
educand through various means by a n educator. Education must also be
relevant and useful to the society in which educand has to live. Since
'every individual is unique in their own way, th~ educator has to adopt
strategies and methods suitabl~ to i~dividual ·needs. Educati~n II,u-J-st
also be productive. The educational productivity (rate of efficiency of work)
can be classified as .qualitative and quantitative. For better education both
qualitative and quantitative productivity is required. Quality means here
the excellence in the part of textbook, teachets students's· aids, facilities and
other teaching aids where as quantity refers the number of teachers,
institutions, professionals, etc. Education and teaching are interrelated.
Education is a complex social cultural and ethical process designed in a
social or cultural content. It is related with social structures, cultural
environments, values, and ideas of people, society and government. All
these . factors are dynamic in nature. So teaching is also a dynamic process
and its definition changes according to place and t ime . Morrison defines it
as a disciplined social process in which teacher influences the behaviours of
the less experienced pupil and helps him develop according to the needs and
ideas ofthe society.

Smith termed it as an organised system of worker. He/she must have proper

guts to lead specific activities aimed to help the learner learn by an example
at a superior level as he is the something. leader of his pupil. He/she has to
exercise An analytical approach makes it clear that neGe!?§.ary influence
for bringing the .desired neither of the definition fulfils the purpose.
modification in behaviour. A good definition ofteaching should Teacher
works to change the behaviour of (i) Tell whether teaching is a process or
students according to the need of the society. act. He/she must also creates
situation to ·increase (ii) Clearly indicates constitutional factors. the thinking
capacity of mind of students. He (iii) Reveals objectives, and give education
to the people. Education is a (iv) Say something about its organisational
tripolar process involving educator, educant· and 'structural aspect. And
social milieu. The educand is deperident Accordirig to' this analysis we can
define variable of education whereas educator is teaching as a-tripolar
process ~nvol~ing human independent variable. Social milieu is required
or material source ' of teaching students and a for the direction of education.
Education should set of organi4ed ' activities designed and develop
intellectual, moral, aesthetic, manipulated for bringing changes in the
democratic, material and economic life to make behavious of the taught. our
country a leading force. Hard work and Since teaching is a process and' it is
mental alertness should be the rst requisite of dynamic in nature so it
changes its concept the educational training. according to time and place. It
is a professional . The teacher has to provide intellectual and activity.
TeachIng can be ' analysed and. social leadership. He is to follow a
curriculum assessed. This analysis and assessm:ent . 'but his task is beyond
this. He acts as an ideal provides feedback for further improvement in for his
students. He has to follow the way of methods of teaching. Teaching is
highly simple life with great thinking, His morale dominated by
communicaitcin 'skilL It is should be high. He must be competent. His
interactive process carried· with .purpose and efficiency and enthusiasm is
also very objectives, Teaching may have various forms as important. He
must also possess some other formal, imformal, diiectional,lnstructional .
qualities ·as he is . the pivote of educational formational; training,
conditioning, talking: system. Such as 'J.se of good means for good showing
etc. All these words single handly can't ends, clear thinking no prejudice,
ability of be synonym of teaching. Teac41ng is a much critical judgements at
the righttime, tolerance broader term, All these activities ariparts of are all
needed for a teacher. Teacher m~st be teaching at different leveL' . . ready to
impart to their students all Teaching ' has been analysed in seve'ral
information geographical, historical, political ways for understanding it, fo r
"designing social practical and strategic and scientific. teaching methods and
inaterials with a view.to The complete educational process has four
reaI is m. g speci' fi c objectives making teaching important common factors
more effective .. This modification is based on (i) teacher (ii) student (iii)
subject matter feedbacks. Teaching skill is o~e of the'.nlost(iv)setting
(context). important thing required 'for it t¢acherhlt itis ' TEACHER not the
only requirerrie~t. :Tea:cning involve~ Teacher is -a person, who, due to his
rich or interaction. So, communication: ' skill, . unusual experience in
education or both in a personality, attitude, .attribute, interest .all . giyen
field is able tocontribute ·to the growth these are also countedJor effective
teachlng. A and development of the other person who comes teacher cannot
be regarded only as a skilled in contact with him. There are four dimensions
associated with a teacher, his competence, efficacy, enthusiasm and morale.
Teacher's competence : Teacher's competence has been defined as the e~tent
to which the teacher has t~ relevant subje~t matter and the pedagogical
experties needed to impart the curriculum effectively. Teacher's efficacy: It
IS defined as the self belief in his capacity of doing what is expected
from them. Teacher's enthusiasm: A teacher must be very enthusiastic.
Teacher's Morale : It is very important in maintaining balance in the
classroo·m interaction. The various factors contributed to the morale are
psychological well being, self esteem; commitment to a cause. Knowledge
and identification with the organisational goal. The teachers morale is a
combination of psychological, physiological and environmental cause. These
four factors 'are seen in process of effective classroom interaction.
CLASSROOM INTERACTION : The classroom interaction between a
student ~nd a teacher is completely based on the climate created by teacher.
He should be able to bring the blendiness of friendship with a definite
degree of firmness. The interaction must be smooth and pleasant without any
friction for a complete:and fruitful teaching learning process. Normally,
verbalism' goes on in the name of teaclfing. Students are merely expected to
listen to th~ explanation and lectures. This is known as direct teaching. The
effectiveness of direct teaching has been questioned many times and it is
found that this type of teaching is not very effective one. For effective
teaching the active , participation of students IS very important.
This participation IS done through the classroom interaction. 'This
interaction consist of thier explanations and lectures with students ,
suggestions, ideas concepts, and questions,etc. These activ:ities of students
make important for making teaching learning process effective, democratic
and friendly. Interaction is required for the rectification of the drawbacks of
direct teaching. This interactive teaching is known as indirect teaching.
Through the interaction; the teacher analyses the· capacity and tequirement
of students and can bring subsequent changes in their behaviour according to
the requirement and can also change way of teaching. I One of the most
important thing ill classroom interaction is the communication.
Communication · will be learned in UNIT-IV in details. SUBJECT
MATTER : It is also known as curriculum. Curriculum is a "general overall
plan of the content or specific material of instruction, that an educational
institution should offer to the student by way of qualifying him for
graduation or certification". It is also a body of prescribed educational
experience under an institutional supervision, designed to provide an
individual with the best possible training and experience to fit him foy the
society of which he/she is a part, or to qualify him for a trade or profession.
It is also defined as "a subject matter, instructional materials, situations o~
experience that may , help to develop understanding, skills, appreciation and
attitudes". , Curriculum should be logical, . psychological and according to
the needs of the pupil and also the society. It should be objective in
approach. Curriculum can be of two types: (i) Teacher oriented curriculum
:''In this type of 'curriculum the process of selection of materials content is
based on the needs-of the instructor/teacher. The teacher is proficient in ,
his particular field and is considered superior. (ii) Child/student orient~d
cu~riculum : A curriculum in which the criteria for the selection. and
sequence of material, activities and experiences for any particular pupil are
the needs, maturity, interests and experiential backgrounds ofthe individual
child. In our country the NCERT is the main institution authorised for
making curriculum. Every state has . his own curriculum making bodies
known as SCERT.Some 'states follows the NCERT curriculum. All schools
affliated uses. This is the most important step of -teaching learning process.
the CBSE boards generally follow NCERT curriculum. At higher _level
every university make their own curriculum according to the
guidelines of University Grant Commission which acts for the uniformity in
curriculum at higher level in our country.

QUALITIES OF TEACHER CONTEXT (SETTING) :

Previously schoolswere not designed to successfully teach all . students.

Nowadays their motto have been changed. Their nE;W motto is 'DO
LEARN'. This setting is dynamic and flexible. This is changing in view -of
making it beneficial to society rather than for an individual. Teaching is a
process carried out in .differerit steps. There are five main steps of teaching
(i) Preparatioli : This stage is required or - intended for the preparation of
both the teacher and the students. The teacher prepare the ~tudent for a new
topic or ~ lesson in variety of ways. (ii) Presentation : At this stage the new
lesson actually begins. The students know that what they are going to learn.
The subject material should be carefully arranged by the teacher. He has to
encourage the students to observe, compare and contrast the. facts presented
to them. This stage requires mental alertness from the students. The
presentation rests in. the principle of selection of the area to be covered. It is
not necessary for a· teacher to cover up all areas of the course of study. He.
may leave some areas for students self study. (iii) -Comparison : In this
section after presentation of subject matter, the student (i) Teacher should be
mentally nad physically fit. (ii) Teacher should be keen in his wGrk and
should be enthusiastic and anxious to keep his knowledge fresh & update.
(iii) He should possess patience and tolerance and try to study the difficulties
and problem of students and try to solve them in a quite and calm
manner. (iv) He should have feelings of love and sympathy. (v) He must not
be superstitious about his students and class. (vi) He should be well dressed
and well maintained. (vii) His voice should be sweet, polite and
clear. (viii) His language should be understandable to the students.
(ix) He must not give any false promise. (x) He/she should have interest in
his profession and the knowledge must be updated. (xi) He must not have
any bad habits. (xii) Teacher must have a good communication skill and
must be a master of his area or field of teaching. (xiii) Teacher should be
trained in various methods of teaching. (xiv) He should know the child
psychology. (xv) -Teacher should be a good researcher. (xvi) He should
have a control over students - to maintain peace and order in,class. (xvii)
Teaching should be pupil central rather than subject centres. is given
opportunity to compare two or more sets of facts. This enhance the
uriderstanding of lesson among students as they compare and observe
different facts. (iv) Generalisation: This stage comes after the comparison
and observation. Different tyPes of conclusions can be drawn from
comparison and generalisation. These conclusions are systemised in a
particular (xviii) Teacher should arose interest among students about the
subject. / order to give a generalised truth. (v) Appiication : At this stage the
generalised facts are applied for various (;dx) .Teacher must be fair in
grading and marking. (xx) Teacher -should organise extra curricular
activities for –better understanding of subject matter. (xxi) Good
interpersonal relationship should be maintained. (xxii) Rewards and
punishments should b~ given according to their behaviour but usually
punishment should be avoided. (xxiii) Teacher should use modern
techniques, methods and gadgets in teaching for better understanding of
subject matter. (xxiv) Teacher should evoke curiosity of the pupils by
presenting the subject matter in an effective manner with clear explanation
leading to better understanding of the matter. (xxv) Teacher should arrange
subject matter in a logical way. (xxvi) Teacher should make a lesson plan
before presenting the lesson in the class . . (xxvii) Teacher should work as a
leader in the class. (xxviii) Teacher should maintain a democratic
atmosphere in the class so that every student will be able to put his doubt,
questions and ideas with suggestion. (xxix) Teacher should act as a role
model for his students with his character and behaviour. He way follow the
way of "simple living and great thinking". (xxx) Teacher should inspire his
pupil.

UGC Governance I

POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

Making Of The Constitution : The Constituent Assembly which had been

elected for undivided India and held its first sitting on 9th Dec.1946, re-
assembled un the 14th August 1947, as The Sovereign Constituent
Assembly for the dominion of India. In regard to its composition the
members were elected by indirect election by the members of The
Provisional Legislative Assemblies (lower house only). According to the
schemes recommended by the Cabinet, the essentials of the Schemes
were as follows: - 1. Each Province and each Indian State or group of States
were allotted the total no. of eats proportional to their re spective population,
roughly in the ratio of 1:1000000. As a result, The Provinces were to elect
292 members while the Indian States were allotted a minimum of93 seats.
2. The seats in each Province were distributed among the three main
communities, Muslims, Sikh and general, in proportion to their respective
populations. 3. Members of each community in the Provisional Legislative
Assembly elected their own representatives by the method of
proportional representations with single transferable vote. 4. The method of
selection in the case of representatives of Indian States was to be
determined by consultation. Unfortunately as a result of a partition under the
plan of June3, 1947, the territories, which fell under Pakistan and those
members who were part of'T'ht' ConstituentAssembly, ceased to be members
of the Constituent Assembly, which re ·assembled on the 31st Oct.1947. The
members of the house was reduced to 299 of these 284 was actually present
on the 26th Nov. 1949 and appended their signature to the Constitution as
finally passed. Constitutional Background: The constitution was passed by
the Constituent Assembly on 26 Nov 1949 and is fully applicable since 26
Jan 1950. Thanks to the help of Prof. K.B. Agrawal, the ICL-Edition of the
Constitution now incorporates all amendments until and includin~ e 78th
amendment (1995) [30 Aug 1995]; there are no newer amendments until
Dec 1996. Amendments after Dec 1996 have not yet been included. India is
a federal democratic republic of 25 states and seven Union Territories. Each
state is administered by a Governor appointed by the President while each
Union Territory is administered by the President through a Minister. The
bicameral parliamentiB composed of the Council of States, Rajya Sabha,
and the House of the People, Lok Sabha. The Council of States will consist
of250 members out of which the President of India will nominate 12 persons
having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of literatul"e,
art, science and social service. The remaining 238 seats are to be filled in by
the persons to be elected by the legislative assemblies of their respective
states in staggered re-elections of one-third every second year. The House of
People is composed of 550 members, Le., 530 members from the States and
20 members £l'om the Union Territories. The states of Bihar, Jammu and
Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharshtra, and Uttar Pradesh have bicameral
legislatmes while the other 23 states have unicameral legislatures. Upper
houses (Legislative Councils) are re-elected to one-third of thetr members
every two years. Legislative Assemblies are chosen by direct election. There
are some extraordinary features of the Indian system of government.
For example, the Constitution encourages the states to introduce the
prohibition. The states of Andhra Pradesh, Manipur, and Haryana have
already banned the production, possession. And consumption of alcohol.
Commencement: The provisions relating to Citizenship, elections, pl'ovi
sional Parliament, temporary and transitional positions were given
immediate effect. on The 26th Nov.1949. While the rest of the Constitution
came into force on the 26th Jan. 1950. And this date is referred to in the
Constitution as The D"lte of its Commencement.

PREAMBLE TO INDIAN CONSTITUTION

The Preamble to the IndIan ConstItutlOn reads thus;"We, the people of

India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign,
Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic and to secure to all its
citizens;Justice, social, economic and political:Liberty of thought.
expl·ession, belief, faith and worship:Equality of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all Fraternity assuring the dignity
of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation: In our Constituent
Assembly this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do hereby
adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution" . The Preamble seeks to
establish what Mahatma Gandhi described as The India of my
Dreams, " ... an India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country in
whose making they have an effective voice; ... an India ~n which all
communities shall leave wIth perfect harmony. There can be no room in
such an India for the curse of untouchability or the curse of IntoXicating
drinks and drugs. Woman will enjoy as t.he same rights as man."

SALIENT FEATURES OF CONSTITUTION OF INDIA

(1) It makes India Sovereign, Socialist, Secular. Democratic Republic.

(2) It is designed to work as Federal Government in normal times and as a
Unitary Government in an emergency. (3) It establishes India as a Secular
State. (4) It establishes a Parliamentary System of Government in India
(5) It introduces adult franchise and the system of Government in India
(6) I ndia is a U mon of 28 States and 7 U ruon Territories. (7) It abolishes
untouchability in India (8) It guarantees Fundamental Rights to all
citizens of India. (9) It lays down Directive Principles of state Policy for the
guidance of Legislature and the Executive of the country. (10) It establishes
independence of judiciary from the executiVe. (11) It declares Hindi as the
National language of India which would rep lace English as early as
possible. (12) A Union Public Service Commission has been set up to make
recruitment to various services. (13) Provision has been made for amending
the constitution. Fundamental Rights: The provisions of Part rn of our
Constitution, which enumerates the Fundamental Rights, are more elaborate
than those of any other existing written Constitutions of the World and cover
a wide range of topics. The Purpose of the Fundamental Rights are to act as
limitations not only upon the powers of the Executive but also upon the
power of the Legislature. The model haa been taken (rom the Constitutions
of The United States, though The Indian Constitutions does not gO so far,
and rather affects the compromise between the doctrines of Parliamentary
Sovereignty and Judicial Supremacy. The Constitutions itse lf classifies the
Fundamental Rights under seven groups as follows: . a. Right to Equality
b. Right to Particular freedoms c. Right against Exploitation d. Right to
freedom of religion e Cultural and educational rights f. Right to
Constitutional l'emedies g. Right to property - has been eliminated
by the 44th amendment Act. thus only six freedom now remain. in Article 19
(I ).

Fundamental Duties: A countervailing factor has been introduced by t he

42nd amendment Act of 1976, known as the Fundamental Duties. These
duties are mentioned in Art. SlA. Under thie Article, it shall be t.he duty of
every citizen of India:· I. To abide by the Constitution and respect the
national flag and the nationa l anthem; 11. To che risr. and follow the noble
ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom; III. To protect the
Sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; rv. To defend the country;
V. To promote the spir it of common brotherhood amongst all the people of
India; VI. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture; VI[. To
protect and improve the natural envtronment; VIII. To develop the scientific
temper and spirit of inquiry: IX. To safeguard Public property; X. To strive
towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
These duties are not them serves enforceable in The Courts nor their
violation, as such, punishable, nevertheless, if a Court, be fore which a
Fundamental Right is sought to be enforced, has to be read all parts of the
Constitution, it may refuse to enforce a Fundamental Right at the instance of
an individual who has patently violated any ofilie duties specified in Art,
51A. Directive Principles: PART IV of the Constitution Art. (36-51)
contains the Directive Principles of State Policy. These Principles are in the
nature of instruments of instruction to the govt. of the day to do certain
things and to achieve certain ends by their actions, in other words Directive
Principles are essentially guidelines to the State. A Directive Principle
required to be implemented by legislation and so long as there is no Law
carrying out the Policy laid down in a Directive, neither the State nor an
individual can violate any existing Law or legal right under the color of a
Directive. Further still the Directives ali'e not enforceable in the Courts and
do not create any justicable rights in favor of the individuals. In case of a
conflict between Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights of the
Constitution, the latter shall prevail. These Directive Principles may be
classified as follow s: - a) Certain ideals, particularly Economic, which
according to the framers of the Constitution, State should strive for.
b) Certain directions to the legislature and the executive intended to show in
which manner The State should exercise their legislative and executive
powers. c) Certain Rights of the citizen shall not. Be enforceable by The
Courts (Fundamental Rights) nevertheless The State Gon. Shall aim to
secure by regulations of its legislative and administrative policy. It shall be
the duty of The State to foUow t hese Principles both in the matter of
Administration as well as in the making of Laws.

Differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles

(1) Fundamental Rights are enforceable in the courts of law while Directive
Principles cannot be enforced. (2) While Fundamental Righ ts constitute
limitations upon state action, the Directive Principles are in the nature of
instructions to the Government to achieve certain ends by their decisions.
(3) Judiciary can declare any law void on the ground that it contravenes any
of the Fundamental Rights, while the same is not in the case of Directive
Principles.
(4) In the case of conflict between the Fundamental Rights and t.he Directive
Principles. the former prevail. I PARTS I PART I The Union and Its
Territory Art.( 1-4) PART II Citizenship Art.( 5- 11 ) PART TlI
Fundamental Rights Art.(12-35) PART IV Directive Principles of State
Policy Art. (36-51) PART IVA Fundamental Duties Art.. (51A) PART V
The UoionArt.. (52- 151) PART VI The States Art. (152-237) PART VII
The States in Part B of The First Schedule Art. (238) PART VI II The Union
Territories Art. (239-243) PART IX Panchayats Art. (2.13-243 zg)
PART lXA Municipalities Art. (243 243) PART X The Scheduled and
Tribal Areas Art. (244-244A) PART XI Relations Between The Union and
The States Art. (245-263) PART XU Finance Property, Contracts and
Sui .. Art. (264-300A) PART XIII Trade. Commerce and Intercourse within
the Territory of Inuis Art. (301·307) 223 PART XlV Services Under The
Union and The States Art. (308·323) PART XlVA Tribunals Art.
(323A·323B) PART}''V Elections Art. (324·329A) PART XVI Special
Provisions Relating To Certain Classes Art. (330-342)
PART XVll Official Language Art. (343-35 1) PART XVIII Emergency
Provisions Art. (352· 360) PART XIX Miscellaneous Art. (361 ·367)
PART XXAmendment of the Constitution Art. (368) :>ART XXI
Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions Art. (369-392) PART XXII
Short Title, Commencement, Authoritative Text in Hindi and Repeals
I SCHEDULES I FIRST SCHEDULE - [Article, 1 and 4] I. THE STATES
II. THE UNION TERRITORIES SECOND SCHEDULE - [Articles 59(3},
65(3}, 75(6}, 97.125, 148(3}, 158(3}, 164 (5},186 and 22J1 PART A
Provisions as to the President and the Governors of States.
PART B-[Repealed.) PART C-Provisionsas to the Speaker and the Deputy
Spe~er of the House of the People and the Chairman and the Deputy
Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker
of the Legislative Assembly and the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of
the Legislative Council of a State PART D - Provisions as to the Judges of
the Supreme Court and of the High Courts PART E - Provisions as to the
Comptroller and Auditor-General oflndia THIRD SCHEDULE - Forms of
Oaths or Affirmations [Articles 75(4), 99, 124(6), 148(2},164(3}, 188 and
219] FOURTH SCHEDULE -Allocation of seats in the qouncil of States
[Articles 4(1) and 80(2}] FIFTH SCHEDULE - Provisions as to the
Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes
[Article 244(1)] Part A – General Part B - Administrative and control of
Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes Part C - Scheduled Areas Part D -
Amendment of the Schedule SIXTH SCHEDULE - Provisions as to the
Administration of Tribal Areas in [the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
and MizoramJ [Articles 244(2) and 275(1)J SEVENTH SCHEDULE -
(Article 246) List 1-Union List List II-State List List III· Concurrent List
EIGH'1'H SCHEDULE - Languages [Articles 344(1} and 351)
NINTH SCHEDULE - Validation of certain Acta and Regulations (Article
SIB) TENTH SCHED\JLE - Provisions as to disqualification on ground of
defection [Articles 102(2} and 191(2}] ELEVENTH SCHEDULE - Powers,
authority and responsibilites of Panchayats [Article 243G) TWELTH
SCHEDULE - Powers, authority and responsibilites of Municipalities, etc.

UGC Governance II

NATURE OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION

The Constitution of I ndis proVIdes for a Federal System of Government,

though the term 'federation' has nowhere been used in the Constitution. For
resolving the controversy regarding the nature of the IncUan Federal
System, it is desirable to understand as to what is im'plied by a Federal
System; what are its special features and how far these features are
present in India.

FEDERAL FEATURES OF THE CONSTITUTION

The main federal features of the Indian Constitution are as follows:

(1) Written Constitution : The first essential feature of a Federal System is a
written Constitution which defines the stxucture, organization and powers of
the Central 8S well as the State Governments 80 that the two 'Operate with
each other's jurisdiction. The Indian Constitution is a written document
which now contains 440 Articles and 12 Schedules. It stands at he top of
hierarchy of all laws and all the authorities in India are legally bound
to respect it. (2) Rigid Constitution: Another essential feature of our
federation is a rigid Constitution which can be amended either by the joint
action of the Federal and State Legislatures or by an independent authority.
The lndian Constitution is rigid to a large extent. (3) Indep.endent Judiciary:
The existence of an independent judiciary is another important feature of the
Indian Federal System. The Supreme Court of India, which is the apex court
in India, acts 8S the guardian of the Constitution and can declare any law or
order ultra vires if it contravenes any provision of the Constitution. The
Supreme Court also ensures that the Federal and the State Governments
operate witbin the spheres allotted to them by the Constitution.
(4) Division of Powers: Another feature of a federation is statutory division
of powers between the Federal Government and the State Governments. The
Indian Constitution divides the powers on the pattern of the Canadian
Constitution. All the powers have been divided into three lists-the Union
List, the State List and the Concurrent List. The residuaJ'y powers have been
vested by the Constitution in the Central Government. (5) Bicameral
Legislature: Like other Federations, the Constitution of India also provides
for a bicameral Parliament consisting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha. While the Lok Sabha comprises representatives directly elected by
the people on the basis of universal adult franchjse, the Rajya Sabha mainly
comprises representatives of the units. (6) Supremacy of the Constitution:
The supremacy of the Constitution, another feature of federalism, IS also
prescnt in India. The Constitution of India stands at tht: top of the hierarchy
of all laws both national and state. NON-FEDERAL OR UNITARY
FEATURES In addition to the above federal features, the Constitution
contains certain non-federal or unitary features, which have led the critics of
the Indian Constitution to challenge its federal character and charge that it is
merely federal in form but unitary, in,s pirit. Some of the important unitary
features of our Constitution are as under: (1) A Strong Centre: In the first
instance, the Constitution provides for a very strong Centre, a feature of
unitary government. In the division of powers, 99 items have been included
in the Union Ust, while the State List contains only 61 items. Further, even
on the subjects contained in the Concurrent List (52 items), both the Centre
and the States have power to legislate, but the Central Government enjoys an
over-nding position. The residuary powers have also been vested in the
Centre. In short, the Constitution provides for a very strong Centre. (2) A
Single Constitution for Union and States! Unlike ot.her Federations of the
world, the States in India have not been given any right to make or unmake
their own Constitution. The framers provided a single common and unified
Constitution, both for the Centre and the States. Further, the States have not
been given any power to initiate amendments to the Constitution. a power
which exclusively vests in the Indian Parliament. This has enhanced the
power and prestige of the Centre at the cost of the States. (3) Flexibility of
the Constitution: In comparison to other federations, amendments to the
constitution can be made only with lhe consent and approval of the units. In
Indio on the other hand, the parliament can amend most of the provisions of
the Constitution singlehandedly. either by single majority or by a two third
majority. Only incase of some of the provisions the approval of the
legislatures of the majorityofthe states is also required moreover, the states
do not possess any power to initiate amendment to the constitution. All this
has contrib uted to the strengthening of the centre at the cost of the states.
(4) Single Citizenship: Usually in other federation provision for double
citizenship exit, viz., each citizen is not only the citizen of the country as
such but is also a citizen of a particular State in which he resides. The Indian
Constittltion on the other hand. creates a single citizenship of India which is
oommon to all the people of various states and Union territories. (5)
Inequality of representation in the Rajya Sabha: The Indian Constitution also
deviates from the traditional principle of providing equal representation to
the States in the Upper House of the federal legislature. Unlike the US
Senate, which accords equal representation to all the States irrespective of
their size, the Indian Constitution accords representation to the various
States in the Rajya Sabhs on the basis of their population. This means lhat
the States with larger population send more representatives in comparison to
the States with smaller population. This is a clear departure from the federal
principle. (6) Existence of Union Te rritories! Another feature, whIch is a
clear pointer to the unitary character of the Inclian Constitution , is the
existence of administrative units known as the Union Territories. These units
are directly governed by the Centr:al Government and do not enjoy any
independent powers or autonomy. (7) Special Powers of Rajya Sabha on
State Subjects: Under the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha can authorize
the Parliament to make laws even on the subjects mentioned in the
State List. The existence of this provision in the Constitution implies that the
Centre can encroach on the State List at will. (8) Emergency Provisions: The
existence of the e mergency provisic.ns in the Constitution also poses a
serious challenge to the federal character of the Indian polity. The President
of Indin is authorized to proclaim a state of emergency under Articles 352,
356 and 360. During the proclamation of emergency. the Parliament gets the
power to legislate for the whole or any part of the temtory of India with
respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State List. The Union
Government can also issue directions to the States as to the manner in which
their executive authority is to be exercised. 226 (9) Appointment of
Governors by the President{ The provision regarding the appointment of
GovemorsofStat.es by the President is also a clear violation of the federal
principles. Under the Indian Constitution, the Governors, who are the
administrative heads of the State administration, are appointed by the
President and hold office during his pleasure. The States do not have any say
in their appointment or removal. Naturally, the Governors act as the agents
of the Centre rather than as representatives of the States. This clearly gives
power to the Centre to control the administration ofilie States which is
contrary to the principles of a true federation. (10) Common All~lndia
Services: Another feature, which is a pointer to the unitary character of the
Indian Constitution, is the provision of common AlI·India Services like
LA.S., IIP.S., etc. The members of these Services are appointed by the
President of India on the recommendations of the Union Public Service
Commissiotl and are accountable to the Union Government. The States have
hardly any control over the members of these Services. (11) Single Unified
Judiciary: Unlike other federations, India possesses a single unified judiciary
with the Supreme Court at the apex. The Supreme Court not only exercises
supervision but also control over the functioning of other Courts. The writs
of the Supreme Court are observed throughout the country in all
spherescivil, constitutional and criminal. The judges of High Courts are also
independent of the States, which do not possess any power with regard to
their appointment, removal and service conditions. They are appointed by
the President and can be removM by him only after -they are impeached by
the Parliament. Further, there are no separate sets oflaws and a single ~ivil
and criminal procedure operates throughout the country. AU this is a clear
pointer to the unitary character of the Constitution and is incomplete contrast
to the position prevailing in the USA, where two separate sets of Courts
exist·one for the Centre and the other for the States. (12) Centralised
Election Machinery: The Constitution provides for an Election Commission
which is responsible for the conduct, supervision, direction and control
of the elections not only to the parliament but to the State Legislatures as
well. The members of the Election Commission are appointed by the
President in consultation with the Prime Minister and the States do
not have say in there appointment, removaJ, working or service condition.
This is yet another unitary feature of the Indian Constitution. (13) Compt
t'oller and Auditor·General: The creation of the office of the ComptroUer
and Auditor-General of India. who is responsible for the audit of the
accounts of the centre as well as the states, is also a violation of the federal
principle. The Comptroller and Auditor· General of [ndia is appointed by the
President and the States have no say in his appointment or
removal. (14) Inter-State Councils and Boards: The Constitution makes
provision for the appointment of Inter·State Councils and Boards the
settlement of disputes and differences between the centre and the State, and
among the States. The members of these Inter·State Councils and Boards are
appointed by the president and make necessary recommendations to the
president regarding the settlement of disputes. It is noteworthy that in the
appointment of the councils and boards. the stales have no say. This is a
clear encroachment on the autonomy of the units of the lndilln fcdcrutioll.
227 (16) Constitution does not Protect Territorial Integrity of States: Unlike
other federations, where the territorial integrity of the states is protected by
the Constitution. the Constitution of India does not contain any provision to
this effect. On the other hand, it specifically denies this righ t to the states'
For example, Article 3 of the Constitution aut.horises the President to
change the name, lerritory or boundary of any State without ascertaining
their wishes. The parliament can also bifurcate an existing State or combine
two or more States into one State. In other words, the very existence of the
States depends on the sweet will of the Central Government.. Conclusion: It.
is evident from the above discussion that t.hough the Indian Constitution
outwardly possesses a federal structure, in spirit, it is unitary. The framers of
the Constitution deliberately made the Centre st.rong in keeping with
the inescapable realities of the situation.

CITIZENSHIP
The Constitution of India provides for a single citizenship for the hole
oflndia. It does not lay down a permanent law relating to the Indian
citizenship but has left the matter entirely to legislation by Parliament.
However. it lays down the classes of persons who would be deemed to be
citizens of India at the commencement of the Constitution. (I) Domicile: A
person domiciled in J ndis at the commencement of the Constit.ution of
India is a citizen of India provided: (i) he was born in India; (il) either of his
parents was born in India; and (ill) he has ordinarily been resident in India
for the last five years immediately preceding the rommencement of the
Constitution. (2) Immigrants from Pakistan: Any person who has migrated
to India from Pakistan is a citizen of India provided he or either of his
parents or grand·parents were born in the pre· partition India. And (a) if he
migrated before the 19th July, 1948 and he has been ordinarily resident of
Inetia since the date of migration, (b) ifhe migrated on or after the 19th July.
1948, he has been registered as a citizen. (3) Migrants to Pakistan: A migrant
to areas now forming Pakista n after the 1st March, 1947 is not a citizen of
I.ndia. But if he returned to Inwa undel' a proper permit for resettlement or
under the authority of any law and is duly registpred, he is a citizen of India.
(4) Residents in Foreign Countries: Any person ordinarily residing out of
India is deemed to be a citizen of India ifhe or either of his parents or any of
his grand-parents was born in pre-parution India provided that he is
registered as a Ci tizen by a diplomatic or consular representative of
India.

ACQUISITION OF CITIZENSHIP- According to the Citizenship Act,

1955, the citizenship could be acquired through any of the following five
methods: (1) By Birth: All the persons born in India on or after 26th January,
1950, are treated as citizens by birth. However, the children born to foreign
diplomats posted in India are not. e ntitled to Indian ciLizenship. (2) By
Descent: A person born even outside India shall be treated as citizen of India
by descent if at the time of his birlh, his father is a citizen of India. (3)
Registration: A person can acquire citizenship of India by registration with
the appropriate authority, The persons who could acquire citizenship by
registration include (a) persons of Indian origin who have ordinarily been
resident in India for SLX months, immediately before making an 228
application for registration. A person is deemed to be of Inctian origin ifhe,
or either of his parents, or an) of his grand-parents, was born in the
undivided lndia; (b) persons oflnctian origin ordinarily resident outside
lndia; (c) women married to Indian citizens; (d) minor children of persons
who are citizens of India; (e) persons of adult age and capacity who are
citizens of Commonwealth countries or Republic of Ireland. (4) By Natura
lisation: A person can acquire citizenship of India by naturalization ifhe
fulfils the foUowing qualifications: (a) he belongs to a country where the
citizens of India are allowed to become subjects or citizens of that country
by naturalization: (b) he renounces the citizenship of his country in
accordance with the law of that country and intimates the renunciation to
the Government of India; (c) he has been residing in India or serving
the Government oi India for at least 12 months immediately preceding the
date of application; and (d) he possesses workable knowledge of an
Indian language. (5) By Incorporation of Territory: In the event of certain
territory being added to the territory of India, the Government can specify
the persons or categories of persons who shall be entitled to India.n
citizenship, by reasons of their connection with the territory.

LOSS OF CITIZENSHIP- The Act envisages three methods for the loss
of the Indian citizenship, which are as foUows: (1) By Renunciation: An
Indian citizen, who wants to become the national of another country, can
volun tarily renounce his citizenship by ma king a necessa ry declaration to
this effect in the prescribed form. It may be noted th at even the minor
children of such a person also cease to be citizens of India. (2) By
Termination: The citizenship of a person is automatically terminated if he
voluntarily acquired the citizenship of nny other country by naturalization,
registration or otherwise. However, the utizenship of a person is not
terminated if he acquires the citizenship of a country with which India is at
war, till such time as normal relations are restored between the two
countries. (3) By Deprivation: A person can be deprived of his citizenship
under the following conditions: (a) ifhe obtains the certificate of citizenship
by fraud, false rep resentation or concealment of any material fact: (b) if he
shows disloyalty or disaffection towards the lndian Constitution; (c) ifhe
assists a country with whom India is at war; (d) ifhe stays abroad for seven
consecutive years without showing any intention to continue as Indian
citizen; and (e) if he is sentenced to imprisonment for a period not less than
two years within five yea rs of naturalization or registration. It is noteworthy
that the citil.el"..ship of a person can be taken from him only if he has
acqnirnd Indian citizenship by naturaliultion, pure domicile or registration.
The persons. who are citizens of India by birth or descent., cnnnot be
deprived of their citizenship in any of the above manner.

UGC Governance III

MACHINERY OF GOVERNMENT OF THE UNION THE

EXECUTIVE:-

The Constitution provides for a parliamentary executive which consists of

the President. The Vice·President and the Council of Ministers, with the
Prime Minister at its head. THE PRESIDENT Election : The President is
elected by an electoral coUege composed of elected members of both
HOllses of Parliament and elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
by a system of proportional representation by means of 8 single transferable
vote; the voting shall be by secret ballot. Tenure of Office: The President
holds office for a period of five years [rom the day on which he enters upon
his office, He is eligible for reo election, Qualifications for Election as
President: (1) He should be a citizen of India. (2) Heshould not be less than
35 years of age. (3) He should be qualified for election as ,a member of Lok
Sabha. (4) He should not. hold any office of profit under the Government.
(5) He should not be a member of either House of Parliament or State
Legislature, Powers: (a) Executive Powers: (1) The President is the
executive head of the Sovereign, Socialist, Secular. Democratic Republic of
India. (2) He is ex·officio Supreme Commander of the defence forces. He
can declare wat' and make peace, (3) He makes all important appointments
such as those of Governors, Chief Justice, Prime Minister and Ministers. (4)
He governs the Union Territories directly through Lieutenant Governors.
(b) Legislative Powers: (1) Any Bill passed by the Parliament must receive
his assent before it becomes an Act, except in the case of Money Bills on
which prior assent is necessary. (2) President can issue Ordinances when the
Parliament is not in session. (3) He can nominate 12 members to the Rajya
Babha and 2 Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Babha. (4) He can address
either House QfParliament. (5) He can dissolve the Lok Sabha and order
fresh elections. (c) Financial Powers: (1) No Money BiD can be introduced
in Parliament without his prior assent. (2) He can appoint a Finance
Commission after every five years. (d) Judicial Powers: (1) He can grant
pardon, reprieve or remission of punishment or commute death sentence. (2)
He is not answerable to any court.oflaw. (3) He appoints Judges of Supreme
COllI't and High Courts. (e) Emergency Powers: Th~ President. can
suspend the whole Const.itution or some articles of it under emergency
<:onditions arising out of: (i) threat to the security of I.ndia or any part
thereof by war, external aggression or armed rebellion; (ii) fa.ilure of
constitutional machinery in a State; and (iii) financial emergency
Discretionary Powers: (I) If after the gem.ral election, no single party is able
to secure a majority or post·electlon splits red uce the majority to minority,
the President can use his own discretion to determine which party has the
best chances oCforming a Government. Similar is the case in the case of
death of a Prime Minister. (2) In case th£! President comes to a conclusion
that none -of the parties represented in the Parliament is to a position to
form a stable Government, he can dissolve the Lok Sabha and order fresh
elections. (3) When an advice is sent by the Council of Ministers to
the President for approval, he can once I'eturn the same to the Council of
Ministers for reconsideration under Art. 74(1) of the Constitution. However,
once an advice is reconsidered by the Council of Ministers and returned to
the President of approval, he cannot refuse to it in accordance with it.
Impeachme nt: The President may be removed form office by impeachment
for the violation of the Constitution. The charge .. for this may be preferred
in either House of Parliament. The Resolution for impeachment must be
passed by a two· thirds majority of the total membership of t.he House. The
other House will investigate the charge. If the investigating House passed by
a two-thirds majority of the total membership, a resolution that the charge
preferred against the President has been sustained, it will have the effect of
removing the President from his office.

Salary and Allowances: The President is entitled to an official rent·free

residence and draws a salary of &.50,000 per month besides various
allowances. He is entitled to pension of Rs.30,000 per month.

VICE-PRESIDENT
Method of Election: The Vice·President is elected by the members of both
Houses of Parliament at a joint session by meaDS of single transferable vote
according to the system of proportional representation. Voting is by secret
ballot. Qualifications: (1) He must be a citizen of India. (2) He must not be
less than 35 years of age. (3) He must be qualified to become a member of
the Rajya Sabba. (4) He should not be holding any orfice of profit under the
Government. (5) He should not be 8 member of either House of Parliament
or State Legislature. Terms of Office: The Vice· President holds office for a
maximum period of five years and is eligible for re-election. Functions: (1)
The Vice· President is ex·officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabhs. (2) If there
occurs any vacancy in the office of President by reason of his death,
resignation or removal. then he acts 8S President till a new President is
elected, subject to a maximum period of six months. During this period he
ceases to be the Chairman of Rajya Sabhn. (3) He also acts as the President
during the temporary abse nce of the P¥esident due to illness or any other
cause.
Removal: The Vice· President can be removed from his office by a
resolution of the Rajya Sabha by a majority of its total membership and
agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.

COUNCIL OF MINISTERS:- The Constitution provides for a Council of

Ministers with a Prime Minister as its head to aId and advise the President in
the exercise of his functions. The Prime Minister is appointed by the
President. The other Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice
of the Prime Minister. The Council of Ministers IS collectively responsible
La the Lok Sabha under Art. 75(3) of the Constitut.ion, The President is
bound by the advice of Council of Ministers. INDIAN PARLIAMENT
The Union Parliament consists of the President and two Houses· Lok Sabha
and Rajya Sabha.

RAJYASABHA:- Composition: It consisls of not more than 250 members,

out of which 238 are elected and the remaining 12 nominated by the
President for their special contribu tion to art, literature, science and social
services. The elected members are chosen by the Stote Assemblies in
accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a
single transferable vote. The allocat.ion of seats among the States is not on
the basis of equality of representation. In the case of Union Territories.
members are chosen in such a manner as the Parliament by law determines.
A candidate for election to the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) must be (i) a
citizen ofTndia: (ii) not less than 30 years of age; (iii) not holding any office
of profit under the Government: and (iv) ordinarily a resident of the State
from which he is contesting. Duration: The Council ofStat.es isa permanent.
body, not subject. to dissolu tion. The term of office for its melT!bers is six
yea rs, one·t.hird of the members retiring after every second year. Other
Provisions: The Vice· President of India is e.(·o~cio Chairman of the
Council of States. The Council elects one of ils members as Deputy
Chairman. who presides over its meetings in the absence of the
Vice·President. But whenever the Council is considering a Resolution for
the removal of the Vice· President or the Deputy Chairman from his office.
These officers shall n9t preside over the sitting of the House, nor can they
vo~ on the resolution, though t.hey are entitled to speak .. Powers and
Functions: With regard to legislative powers, the authority of the Rajya
Sabhs is co-extensive with that of the Lok Sabha. No measure can become a
law. unless it has been passed by the Rajya Sabha. It exercises control over
the Union Administration by seeking information. By means of questions
and supplementaries. By moving resolutions or motions of adjournment or
censure. Blit it cannot oust the Ministry from office. As regards the Mom~y
Bills. These cannot be introduced in the Council of States. Also when a
Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha and transmitted to the Rajya Sabha,
the iatt2r can delay the Bill for 14 days. It cannot reject the Bill

LOKSABHA
Composition: It consists of not more than 552 members, out of which 530
members are elected from States and not more than 20 members from the
Union Territories and tribal areas. The representatives from the States
8redirectly elected by the people on the basis of adult franchise. At present
there are 543 elected members. The representatives of the Union Territories
are to be chosen in such manner as the Parliament may, by law, provide. The
President can also nominate two Members to Lok Sabha to represent the
Anglo-Indian community if, in his opinion, it is not adequately represented.
[Art. 331J A member for election to Lok Sabha must be (i) a citizen of India;
(ii) not less than 25 years of age; and (iii) not holding any office of profit.
The number of seats to each State is so allotted that the ratio between the
members and population, as far as practicable, is the SRme for each State.
Each member of the House should represent not less than 51akh citizens.
Tenure: Lok Sabhs has a tenure of 5 years unless dissolved earlier. But while
a Proclamation of Emergency under Art. 352 is in operation, this period may
be extended for a period not exceeding one year ata time and not exceeding
in any case beyond a period of six months after the proclamation has ceased
to operate. Disqualification of Members of Parliament A person shall be
disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of
Parliament: (i) if he holds any such office of profit under the Government of
India or Government of State, as is declared by Parliament. by law
to disqualify its holder; (ii) if he is of unsound mllld and stands so declared
by a competent court; (iii) if he is an undischarged insolvent; (iv) if he is not
a citizen of India. or has voluntarily acquireu citizenship of a foreign State;
and (v) ifhe is so disqualified by any law made by Parliament. Powers and
Functions of Parliament (1) Its main function is to enact laws for the
good government of the counLry. (2) It can pass a vote of No-confidence
and thus dismiss the Government in power. (3) It controls the fmances of the
Union. (4) The members can elicit information by asking questions and
supplimentaries. (5) The members can move adjournment motions and thus
criticize the government. (6) It ean impeach the President in case he violates
the Conj>titution.(7) Maximum Gap between two sessions of ParUament is
6 months under Art. 85(1).

JOINT SESSION:- For Non Money Bills After a Bill has been passed by
one House of Parliament and transmitted to the other House and (a) the Bill
is rejected by the other Hom.e; or (b) the two Houses have finally disagreed
as to the amendments to be made in the Bill; or (c) more than six months
have elapsed from the date of receipt of the Bill by the other House without
the Bill being passed by it. The Parliament may. unless the Bill has lapsed
by reason of dissolution of the Lok Sabhs, notify to the Houses by message,
if they are sitting, or by public notification, if they are not sitting, his
intention to summon them to meet in a Joint session for the purpose of
deliberating and voting on the Bill. If at the joint sitting of the two Houses,
the Bill, with such amendments, if any. as are agreed to in the joint sitting, is
passed by the majority of the t-Ota1 number of members of both Houses
present and voting, it shall be deemed to have been passed by both the
Houses. For Money sms: A Money Bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha
only on the recommendations of the President. Aner a Money Bill has been
passed by the Lok Sabha. it is transmitteu to Rajya Sabha for
recommendations. The Rajya Babha must make its ~ecommendations within
14 days of the receipt of the Bill. It is up to the Lok Sabha to accept or reject
any of the recommendations. If the Lower House accepts any of the
reoommendationsofthe Hajya Sabha, the Bill is deemed to have been passed
by both the Houses with the amendment recommended by the Hajya Sabha
and accepted by the Lok Sabha.If the Lok Sabha does not accept any of the
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha, the Money Bill is deemed to have
been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the Lok
Sabha. If the Bill is not returned within 14 days, it is deemed to have been
passed by both the Houses at the expiration of the term of 14 days. It is then
transmitted to the President for assent. After this. it becomes an Act.
In the case of an amendment to Constitution, the deadlock cannot be
resolved by the joint session of the Parliament. The BiU for the amendment
of the Constitution has to be presented again to both the Houses of
.Parliament and it becomes an act only when passed by both the Houses by
requisite majority.

THE SPEAKER

Election: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the members of Lok
Sabha by a simple majority. The term of his office is co· terminus with the
life of the House itself. Power and Functions (1) He presides over the sitting
ofLok Sabha and the joint session of Parliament. (2) He decides whether a
particular Bill is a Money BUI or not Bnd his decision is £in al. (3) He
determines the order of the business in the House in consultation with the
Leader of lhe House. (4) He decides about the admissibility of questions and
Adjournment Motions, etc. (5) He appoints Chairmen of the Select
Committees. (6) He maintains proper decoru m in the Housc. He warns
disorderly members and suspends them from s ittings of the House. if any
member flouts his authority. Removal: The House of the People can remove
the Speaker at any time by a resolution passed by the majority of the
members of the time being. Such a resolution can be introduced in the House
only after a notice has been given to t.hat effect at. Least fourteen days in
advance. MONEY BILL A Bill is said to be a Money Bill if it contains only
provisions dealing with all or Bny of the following matters: (i) the
imposition, abolition. remission. alteration or regulation of any tax:
(ii) regulation of borrowing of money or creating or regulation of any tax;
(iii) custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or Contingency Fund of India
and its operation; (iv) appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Ftlnd
of India; (v) the declaring of money charged on the COl!:;oli:l.ated Fund of
India or increasing the amount of such expenditure; (vi) the receipt of money
on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or Public Account of I ndin or
cllstody or iSSlle of 8 ny such expenditure; (vii) audit of accounts of the
Union or a State; or (viii) any other matter incidental to any of the matters
referred to above.

The Privileges of Parliament are certain rights belonging to each House

collectively and some to the members individually for maintaining its
freedom, status and dignity. The following are the privileges, viz., (i)
freedom of speech in Parliament; (ii) no member of Parliament is liable to
any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by
him in Parliament or any committee thereof; and (ill) no peeson is liable in
,espeot of the publication by or under the orders of either House of
Parliament of any report, paper, votes or proceedings. Powers of Parliament:
The privileges, powers and immunities of a House of Parliament are: (i) that
no court. shall look into the validity of its proceedings; (ii) no Officer or
Member of Parliament is answerable to any court for exercise of the powels
vested in him under the Constitution; (iii) To make its own rules for
regulating its procedure and business; (iv) To regulate recruitment and
conditions of service of persons appointed to the Secretaria t of the House;
and (v) To punish any person for contempt of the House and breach of
privileges of Members, Committees and the House.
COMNUTTEESOFPARL~NT
To cope with the ever-increasing work, the Indian ParliamenT. has set up a
number of committees. These committees play an effective role in the
working of the Indian Parliament. The members of these committees are
appointed by the Speaker or are elected by the House from amongst its
members. These committees are authorized to call witnesses and collect
evidence by asking for official papers and records. The important
committees of the Lok Sabhs are as follows: (1) Business Advisory
COITlITlittee: This committee is concerned with the planning and
regulation of t~e business of the House. It also advises the H Oll~e regarding
allocation of ti.me for T.he discussion of various issues. This 'Committee is
formed at the beginning of the Lok Sabha's session and consists of 15
members. The Speaker is the Chairman of this Committee. Toensure.the
smooth workmg of the House, the leaders of the major opposition parties are
also associated with this Committee. (2) Select Conunittees on Bills: There
are a number of Select Committees of the House which collect information
on various issues and submit necessary report on the basis of the
examination of relevant material and witnesses. 'I'he Committee is dissolved
soon after it has submitted the report on the subject under reference. The
members of the Select Comrcittee are appointed by the House. The strength
of members of various Select Committees differs according to the
import.ance of the Bill. (3) Committee on Privi leges: The Committee tries
to safeguard and protect the privileges of the members of the House
and suggests appropriate action against the erring authorities. It may be
noted that the members of the Parliament have been granted certain
privileges and immunities, and any violation or denial of these is tantamount
to a crime for which legal proceedings can be instituted against the erring
authority. The Privileges Committee consists of 15 members, who
are nominated by the Speaker at the commencement of the session of the
Lok Sabha. Generally, the Deputy Speaker acts as the Chairman of this
Committee. (4) Committee on Subordinate Legislation; The Committee IS
constituted to ensure that the rule· making powers delegated to the executive
are not misused. It scrutinizes the rules and regulations enacted by the
various departments to ensure that these conform to the main law enacted by
the Parliament. Thus the Committee plays an important role in preventing
llsurpation of Parliament's powers by the executive. This Committee also
consists of 15 members who are nominated by the Speaker. The Ministers
cannot be members of this Committee. (5) Committee on Public
Undertakings: This is a Committee of both the Houses of Parliament. It
consists of22 members· 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya
Sabha. The Committee examines the working of the Public Undertakings,
including their fmancial matters. It is also the function of the Committee to
examine the reports and accounts of Public Undertakings specified in the
Rules of Procedure and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General
thereon, if any, and to examine, in the context of the autonomy and
efficiency of the Public Undertakings, whether the affairs of the
Public Undertakings are being managed in accordance with the sound
business principles and prudent commercial practice. (6) Committee on
Government Assurances: This Committee examines the various assurances
and undertakings given by the Ministers on the floor of the House to find out
how far these have been fulfilled or implemented within the stipulated time.
This Committee consists of 15 m~mbers who are nominated by the
Speaker for one year. The Ministers arc not eligible for membership of this
Committee. (7) Estimates Committee: It is very significant Committee and
performs the following functions: (i) It reports what economies,
improvements in organization, efficiency or administrative reforms,
consistent with the policy underlying the estimates, can be effected. (ii) It
suggest alternative policies to bring about efficiency and economy in
administration. (Ui) It ensures that tge money is weU laidout
within the limitS of the policy implied in the estimates. (iv) It suggests the
form in which the estimates should be presented to the Parliament. The
Estimates Committee consists of 30 members of the House on the basis of
the proportional representation and single transferable vote. The Chairman
of the Estimates Committee is appointed by the Speaker. However, if the
Deputy Speaker happens to be a member of this Committee. he ipso facto
becomes its Chairman. (8) Public Accounts Committee: This is
also a joint committee of the two Houses. It consists of 22 members - 15
from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. It may be noted that Rajya Sabha
members are only associate members and are not. entitled to vote. The
members of the Committee are elected for one year but by convention they
generaUy continue in office for at least two years. The election is held on the
basis of proportional representation through a single transferable vote. The
Ministers cannot be members of this Committee. The Chairman of the
Committee is appointed by the Speaker'from amongst its members. The
main function of the Committee is to examine the repprt of the
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India and to ascertain that the
expenditure has not exceeded the grants made by the Parliament and the
money has been spent for the purpose it was sanctioned by the
Parliament. It also sees to it that the fmaneia! rules and regulations have
been foUowed by the executive. The Committee plays an important role in
ensuring regularity and economy in expenditure.

UGC Governance IV

SUPREME COURT:- Appointment of judges: Every judge of the

Supreme Court is appointed by the President by warrant under his band and
sea l after consultation with such Judges of the Supreme Court and of the
High Courts a6 the president may deem necessary for the purpose. In case of
appoint.ment of a judge, other than chief Justice, t.he Chief Justice of India
is to be necc'3sanly consulted. A Judge of the Supreme Court remains in
office until he attains the age of65 years. No person can be appointed a
Judge of the Supreme Court unless (i) he is a citizen of India, (ii) has been
for at. least five years a Judge of High Court or has been for at least ten
years an advocate of a High Court or two or more courts in succession, (iii)
is in the opinion of the President a distinguished jurist. Privileges of Judges:
A Judge of the Supreme Court is entilled to such salaries as are specified
in the Second Schedule. Every Judge of the Supreme Comt is entitled to the
use of an official residence without rent. Also, every judge is entitled to such
privileges and allowances and to such rights.in respect of leave of absence
and pension as may, from time to time , be determined by the Parliament.
Removal of Judges: Judge of the Supreme Court can only be removed from
office by an order of the President, Parliament, supported by a majority of
not less than two-thirds of the members of that house present and voting.
Has been presented to the President in the same session for such removal on
the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity. The parliament has been
empowered to regul,ate the procedure for the presentation ofan address and
for the investigation and proof of the misbehavior or incapacity of a Judge
under Article 124. Composition: The Supreme Court is the highest court of
justice in fndia. ft consists of one chief justice and 25 other judges. There is
provision for the appointment of ad hoc judgea and even the retired judges
may be at times. when the neceSSlty arises, requested to be present. Powers
and Functions: The Supreme Court is a court of recol'd and exercises all the
powers of such a court, including th~ power to punish for the contempt of
itself. Ita malO functions may be studied under the following heads:
{l) Original Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction in
aU disputes- (a) between the Government of India and one or more States;
(b) between the Government of India and any State or States on the other;
and (e) between two or more States. Such jurisdiction, however, does not
extend to a dispute al'ising out of any treaty, agreement, coven a nt ,
engagement or sanad or any similar instrument which was executed before
the commencement of the Constitution. (2) Appellate Jurisdiction in Civil
Cases: An appeal to the Supreme Court lies from any judgement, decree or
final orders of a High court or, a certificate from a high court concerned that
the case involves a substantial question as to the interpretation of the
Constitution. (3) Jurisdiction in criminal Cases: In criminal cases an appeal
lies to the Suprema Court if the High Court (i) has given any decree or final
order in the case; (li) has withdrawn for trial before it self any case from any
court subordinate to its authority a nd ha s in s uch trial sentenced the
accused to death; or (iii) certifies that the case is a fit one for appeal to the
Supreme Court. (4) Advisory Jurisdiction: The President may refer to the
Supreme Court any question of law or fa ct of s ufficient importance for its
opinion. The President may also refer to the court disputes arising out of any
provision of treaty, agreement, co.-ensnt, engagement or sanad, etc. The
opinion 80 expressed is not binding on the President. (5) Enforcement of
Fundamental Rights: The Supreme Court has been armed with powers to
issue directions or orders or writs in the nature of habeas corpus,
mandam us, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari for the enforcement of
the Fundamental Rights conferred by the Constitution. (6) Additional
Jurisdiction: Article 138 of the Constitution provides for enlargement
of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court by Parliament with reference to any
matter contained in the Union List. It has also jurisdiction on any such
matter as the Government ofIndia and the Government of any State may, by
agreement, confer. But the Parliament has to give effect to this agreement by
passing a law. (7) Power to Review: The Supreme Court has power to
review sny judgement or order made by it, subject to any law passed by the
Parliament in this regard. (8) Supplementary Powers: Parliament may by law
confer such supplemental powers on the Supreme Court ss may appear to be
necessary and desirable for the due discharge of its functions. Guardian of
the Constitution: It is clear from the powers and functions of the Supreme
Court that it is the ultimate interpreter of the Constitution and, as such, its
guardian. The authority of the Court is further re-inforced by the provision
that "the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts
within the territory of India" (Art. 141). Further, in the exercise of its
jurisdiction, the court is authorized to pass appropriate decrees or orders in
the interests of complete justice in any case before it. Independence of
Judiciary: The independence and impartiality of the Supreme Court is the
corner-stone of democracy. Justice is said to be blind and this must be so,
especially in a democracy which professes all its citizens to be equal before
law. Our Constitution ensures the independence of the Judiciary
through the following measures: (1) Though appointed by the President~
ajudge ofthe Supreme Court can only be removed a fter an address of each
House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that
House and by a majority of not less than 2/3 of the members present and
voting and presented to the President on the ground of proved
misbehaviour or incapacity. (2) The salary and the conditions of service of a
judge of the Supreme Court cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his
appointment. (3) After retirement, a judge of the Supreme Court cannot
plead or act in any other Court or before any authority within the territory
ofIndia. (4) The salaries. etc., of the judges and administrative expenses of
the Supreme Court are chargeable on the Consolidated Fund of India and
are, therefore, not votable.

HIGHCOURTS:- Appointment of Judges: Ajudge of the High Court is

appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after
consultation with the Chief Justice ofIndia, the Governor of the State, and in
the case of appointment of a judge other than Chief Justice, the Chief Justice
of the High Court concerned. Provision has also been made for the
attendance of the retired judges at sittings of the High Courts. Qualifications:
A pErson cannot be appointed a judge of a High Court unless: (i) he is a
citizen of India; (ij) has for at least ten years held a judicial office in the
territory of India; and (iii) has for at least ten years been the advocate
of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession. Conditions of
Services: A judge of a High Court holds office until he attains the age of 62
years. He may be removed from his office in the same manner in which a
judge of the Supreme Court is removed (discllssed earlier). Every judge is
entitled to such allowances and to such rights in respect oC leave and
pension as may from time to time be determined by the Parliamentary
enactment. His allowances and other rights are not to be varied to his
disadvantage after the appointment.

THE GOVERNOR:- Appointment: The Governor of a State is appointted

by the President. Only a citizen of India, who hAS completed 35 years of
age, is eligible for appointment 88 a Governor. He need
not be a residentoCthat State for appointment as Governor. He holds office
during the pleasure ~fthe President. Subject to this, he holds office for a
period of five years. He receives asalary of Rs. 36,000 per month, and is
entitled to certain other allowances and privileges. Powers of a Governor:
(a) Legislative Powers: He summons, fixes the time and place for the
meeting of the Legislature. He addresses the meeting of the Legislature at
the commencement of session once in a year, He can send messages to the
State Legislature. Every ~ Bill passed by the Legislature must have his
assent. He has the power to promulgate an ordinance, whenever the
legislature is not in session. (b) Executive Powers: He appoints Chief
Minister of the State and the other Ministers on the advice of the Chief
Minister, He also appoints the Chairman and members of the State Public
Service Commission. He acts ss the agent of the Centre during an
emergency. (c) Financial Powers: No Money Bill can be introduced in the
Legislative Assembly of the State except on the Governor's
recommendation. The State Contingency Fund is at his disposal and he can
make advaoces out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure pending its
authorization by the State Legislature. (d) Judicial Powers: He haa the power
to grand pardons, and suspend, remit or commute sentences where the
offence is under a low relating to matters within the executive competence
ofthe State. (e) Discretionary Powers: (i) He detcrm.ines whether the
Government of a State can or cannot be carried on in accordance With the
provisions of the Constitution.lfhe feels that it cannot be SO carried on, he
can make a report to the President under Art. 356(1). (0) If after the general
elections, no single party is able to secure a clear majority or post-election
splits reduce the majority to a minority, the Governor can use his owo
disrretion to determine which party has the best chances of forming a stable
government. (iii) In case the Governor comes to conclusion that none of the
parties represented in the legislature is in a position to form a stable
government he can in his discretion dissolve the legislature and order fresh
elections. (iv) The Governor can reserve a bill or bills passed by the State
Legislature for consideration of the President. Role of Governor: Ordinarily,
the Governor has to act according to the wishes of the Council of Ministers.
No other role can fit in well in a Parliamentary set up. It is only in the
exercise of discretionary powers when he may ignore the wishes of the
Ministers. Apart from the role of Governor as a Constitutional head of the
State, the Constitution certainly visualizes another role on his part when he
acta 88 the agent of the Centre. Itis only, when so doing that the use of
discretionary powers become relevant. When the administration of State is
not carried on in accordance with th~ provisions of the Constitution, he is to
report to the Centre, During President's Rule, be runs the administration
directly with the help of the Advisers appointed by the Central Government

STATE COUNCIL OF MINISTERS:- The Constitution provides for a

Council of Ministers, with a Chief Minister at its head, to aid and advise the
Governor in the exercise of his functions. The Governor appoints the Chief
Minist.er and his Ministers. UsuaUy, all the Ministers must be members of
the Legislature ofthe State but sometimes even a non· member may be
appointed a Minister. In that case, he cannot retain his office for more than
six months without being a member of the Legislature of the State. The
Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly
of the State. STATE LEGISLATURE In every State, the Legislature
consists of the Governor and (a) in case of Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka,
V.P. and Jammu & Kashmir two Houses, namely, Legislative Council and
Legislative Assembly and (b) in other States one House, viz. , Legislative
Assembly. Legi'slative Assembly: It is a directly elected body on the basis of
adult franchise. The total number of members of the Assembly shall in no
case be more than 500 or less than 60. Its normal life is fiv(. years. A
candidate for election to the Legislative Assembly ofa State should be
(i) a citizen of India; (li) not less than 25 years of age; and (ill) not holding
an office of profit under the Government. Legislative Council: This is a
permanent body. One·third of its members l'etire every second year. Its total
members should not exceed one·third of the members of State Legislative
Assembly. Its minimum strength is 40. Only U.p.., Bihar, Maharashtra,
Karnataka and Jammu & Kashmir have Legislative Councils.

DISTRIBUTION OF LEGISLATIVE POWERS BETWEEN THE

UNION AND THE STATES:- The Constitution of India makes a division
of legislative powers between the Union and the States under Seventh
Schedule. The Union Parliament has powers to make laws for the whole or
any part of the territory of India, while the Legislature of a State can make
laws for the State concerned. Also, like the Government of India Act, 1935,
there is three· fold distribution of powers between the Union and the States:
(1) Union List: It includes 99 subjects ovel' which the Union Parliament has
exclusive power of Legislation such as Defence, Foreign Affairs, Banking,
Currency, etc. (2) State List: It comprises 61 items over which the State
Legislatures have exclusive powers of Legislation, e.g., Health, Agriculture,
etc. (3) Concurrent List: It comprises 52 items in which the Union and the
State Legislatures both can make laws, e.g., criminal law and procedure,
marriages, economic planning, education, etc. (4) Residuary Powers:
According to Art. 248 of the Constitution, the residuary powers are vested in
the Union Legislature, Le., the Parliament have the exclusive right to make
any law with regard to any matter not specified in the Concurrent or State
List. Conflict of Jurisdiction: In case of the overlapping of a matter as
between the lists, predominance has been given to the Union Legislature.
Thus, in the case of repugnancy between a law of the State and a valid
Union law, the latter will prevail and the law made by the State to the extent
of repugnancy shall he void. If, however, the legislation relates to a
concurrent subject, the State legislation may prevail, notwithstanding any
repugnancy, if the State law had been reserved for the President and received
his assent.

ADMINISTRATIVE RELATIONS BETWEEN THE UNION AND

THE STATES:- The Union Government have the power to give directions
to the Slate Governments as regards exercise of their executive r"wers in
respect of the following matters: (A) Normal Time Directions (1) To ensure
compliance with Union laws and existing laws which apply in that
State. [Art. 257J (2) To ensure that the exercise of executive powers of State
do not interfere with the executive powers of the Union. [Art. 257(I)J (3) To
ensure maintenance construction of the means and of communication of
national or military importance by the state. [Art. 257(2)] (4) To ensure
,protection of railways within the State. [Art. 257(3)J (5) To ensure drawing
and execution of schemes specified in the dirt:ctions to be essential for the
welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the State. [Art. 339(2)J (6) To ensure the
provisions of adequate facilities for instruction in the mothertongue
at the primary stage of education to children belonging to the linguistic
minorities. [Art. 350-AJ (7) To ensure the_ development of Hindi
language. [Art. 351] (8) During Emergency (1) During a proclamation of
Emergency, the Union Government is empowered to give directions to any
State as to the manner in which the executive power of the State is to be
exercised. [Art.353(a)] (2) During a proclamation of failure of
constitutional machinery in a State, the President may assume to himself all
or any of the executive powers of the State. (Art.35G(I) (3) During the
proclamation of Financial Emergency, the executive authority of the Union
extends to the giving of directions to any State: (i) to observe such canons of
financial ~ropriety as may be specified in the directions; (li) to red uce t he
salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection
with the affairs of State or Union including Judges of Supreme Court and
High Courts; and (iii) to require that all Money Bills and other financial Bills
be reserved :Cor consideration by the Preside.nt when passed by the State
Legislature. [Art. 30(4)] Sanction for Ensuring Compliance with Directives
Article 35 of the Constitution provides that in case of non-compliance of
directives given to a State by the Union, it shall be lawful for the President
to declare that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State
cannot be carried in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. On
such a declaration being made, the provisions of Art. 356 regarding failure
of constitutional machinery will come into operation and t he President will
assume to himself all or any of the executive powers and thereby have the
violated directives carried out.

FINANCIAL RELATIONS BETWEEN THE UNION AND THE

STATES:- Ideally speaking, the best system of federal finance would be
one which effected a clear-cut division of sources of the revenue between
the Federal and the State Governments so as to make each of the parties
financially independent of each other. Indian Constitution make elaborate
provisions regarding the distribution of revenues between the Centre and
the States. The financial relations between the Union and the States can be
studied under the following heads: (1) Duties levied by the Union but
Collected and Appropriated by the States: Stamp duties and duties of excise
on the medical and toilet preparations are levied by the Government of India,
but collected and appropriated by the States within which such duties are
leviable except in the Union Territories where they are coll~cted by the
Union Government. [Art. 268] (2) Taxes Levied and Collected by the Union
but Assigned to the States within which they a,re Leviable: (i) Succession
duty in respect of property other than agriculture land; (ii) Estate duty in
respect of property other than agricultural land; (ill) Terminal taxes on goods
or passengers carried by railways, sea or air; (iv) Taxes on railway
fares and freights ; (v) Taxes on transactions in stock exchanges; (vi) Taxes
on sale and purchase of newspapers, including advertisements published
therein; (vii) Taxes on the sale and purchase of goods other than newspapers,
where such purchase takes place in the cow·se of inter-state trade or
commerce. [Art. 269] (3) Taxes Levied and collected by the Union
and distributed between the Union and the States: Certain taxes are levied as
well as collected by the Union, but their proceeds are divided between the
Union and the States in a certain proportion in order to effect an equitable
distribution of the financial resources. There are: (a) taxes on income other
than agricultural income; and (b) excise duties as are included in the
Union List, excepting medicinal and toilet prepara.tions. (4) Surcharge: The
Parliament is, however, authorized to levy surcharge on the taxes mentioned
at (2) above and on income-tax for the purpose of the Union. (5) Grants-in-
Aid: Parliament may make grants-in-aid from the Consolidated Fund of
India to such States as are in need of assistance, particularly for the
promotion of welfare of tribal areas, including special grant to Assam.
(6) Loans: The Union Government may make loan to any State or give
guarantees with respect to loans raised by any States. (7) Previous Sanction
of the President: No Bill or amendment can be introduc:ed or moved
in either House of Parliament without" the previous sanction of the
President, if: (a) it imposes or varies any tax in which the States are
interested; or (b) it varies the meaning of the expression "Agricultural
Income" as defined in the Indian lncome-Tax Act; or (c) it affects the
principles on which money are distributed to the States; or (d) it imposes a
surcharge on the State taxes for the purpose of the Union. (8) According to
Article 301, freedom oftrade, commerce and intercourse throughout the
territory of India is guaranteed, but the Parliament has the power to impose
restrictions in public interest. (9) Although taxes on income, other than
agricultural income, are levied by the Union, yet the State Legislatures can
levy taxes on profession, trade, etc., provided that the total amount of such
taxes payable in respect of anyone person should not exceed Rs. 2500 per
month. (10) Provision has been made for the constitution of a Finance
Commission to recommend to the President certain measures for the
distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States.
FINANCE COMMISSION:- Constitution: Under Art. 280 of the
Constitution, provision has been made for the Constitution of a Finance
Commission within 2 years of the commencement of the Gonstitution and
thereafter after expiration of every fifth year. It consists of a chairman and
four other members appointed by the President. Functions: It is the duty of
the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to: (i) the
distribution between the Union and the States, the net proceeds of taxes,
which are divisible between the Union and the States; (ii) the principles,
which should govern the 241 UGC-JRF (Paper I}-31 grant-in-aid of
revenues to the States out of the Consolidated Funds of India;
(iii) the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to
supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the
recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the State; (iv) the
measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to
supplement the resources of Municipalities in the State on the basis of
the Finance Commission of the State; and (v) any other matter referred to the
Commission by the President in the interest of sound Finance. Report: The
President shall cause the report of the Financ;e Commission with an
explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon, to be laid before
each House of Parliament.

UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

Constitution:- The Union Public Service Commission consists of a

Chairman and other members appointed by the President and they hold
office for a period of 6 years from the date of their appointment. Functions':
The following are the main functions of the V.P.S.C.: (1) To conduct
examinations for appointment to the Services of the Union. (2) If requested
by two or more States, to assist those States in framing and operating the
scheme of joint recruitment for services for which candidates possessing
special qualifications a re required. (3) To serve all or any of the needs of a
State witb the approval of the President if requested by the Governor of a
State. (4) To advise the Union Government on: (i) all matters relating to
methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts; (ti) the principles
to be followed in making appoin~ments to civil services and posts.
and in making promotions and transfers from one service to another;
(iii) suitability of candidates for such appointments, promotions or transfers;
(iv) all disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under the Government
of India, including memorials or petitions relating thereto; , (v) any claim for
the reimbursement of expenses incurred by a Government servant in
defending legal proceedings against him for acts done in the execution
of his duties; (vi) any claim. for the award of pension for injury sustained by
a person while serving under the Govt. of India in a civil capacity;
and (vii) on any matter which the President may refer to the Commission.
ALL-INDIA SERVI CES Under Art. 312 ofthe Constitution, if the Rajya
Sabha declared by resolution supported by not less than two-third of the
members present and voting, that it is necessary or expedient to create an
All-India Service, common to the Union and the States, Parliament may by
law create such a service and regulate the recruitment and conditions of
service of person appoin.ted to any such service. The Indian Administrative
Service and Indian Police Service, w hicb were in existence at the
commencement of Constitution, are deemed to be All-India Services created
by the Parliament. The All-India Services Act was passed by
Parliament and detailed rules and regulations under the Act have since been
promulgated.
The recruitment to All-India Services, namely. LA.S., I.F.S ., I.P.8., etc., is
made by the U.P.S.C. on the basis of a competitive examination
supplemented by viva-voce test. The conditions of service of persons
appointed to those services have since been regulated by an act of
Parliament.

ATTORNEY-GENERAL OF INDIA

Appointment :- The Attorney-General af lodia is appointed by the President

under Article 76 of the Constitution. A person qualified to be ajudge of
the Supreme Court is appointed to such a post. He is the highest legal
adviser to the Gevt. Of India and is consulted in all important cases. He also
appears in the Supreme Court on behalf of the Gevt. oeIndia to conduct
important cases. Functions: The main functions of the AGI are: (i) to advise
the Union Government in legal matters; (ii) to perform such other legal
duties, which may be assigned to him by the President; and (iii) to discharge
such other functions conferred on him by or under the Constitution or any
other law for the time being in force. Terms of Office: He holds office
during the pleasure of the President and receives such remuneration as the
President may determine. Rights: In pursuance of his duties, the Attorney-
General has the right of audience in all courts in'the territory of India. He has
also a right to speak or take part in proceedings in either House of
Parliament or in the joint session of two Houses or any Committee of the
Parliament. He cannot, however, vote.

COMPTROLLER AND AUDITORGENERAL

Functions: The comptroller and AuditorG~ neral of India is appointed by

the President. His main function are : (i) to bring account of the recipes and
expenditure of the Union Government (except Railways, Defence Services
and other ministries, the accounts of which are maintained by · the
departmental authorities); (ii) to audit all expenditure from the revenues
of the Union and States; and (ill) to audit all trading manufacturing and
Profit and Loss Accounts of stores and stocks, where the President may have
required him to conduct such audit. Independence of Audit: The
independence of the Comptroller and Auditor-General has been sought to be
ensured by the following provisions of the Constitution: (1) Though
appointed by the President, the Comptr oller and Auditor-General of India
can be removed from his office only after an address of each House of
Parliament, supported by a majority of total membership of that House and
not less than 213 of the members of the House present and voting, has been
presented to the President on the grounds of (i) proved misbehaviour and (ii)
incapacity. (2) The salary and the conditions of service of the Comptroller
and Auditor-General of India cannot be varied to his disadvantage
after his appointment. (3) He is not eligible for further appointment after his
retirement, so that he may have no inducement to please the Executive of
the Union or any State. (4) The salaries, etc., of the Comptroller and
Auditor-General and his staff are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of
India and are thus non-votable. (5) The reports of the Comptroller and
AuditorGeneral relating to Accounts are submitted to the President who
causes them to be laid before the Parliamene ELECTION COMMISSION
Composition: It is a statutory body appointed under Article 324 of the
Constitution. It consists of a Chief Election Commissioner and two other
Election Commissioners. The Chief Election Commissioner is the Chairman
of the Commission. Functions: The main functions of the Election
Commission are: (i) to superintend, direct and control the preparation of
electoral rolls for the elections; (ii) to conduct all elections and by-elections
to the Parliament and State Legislatures and elections to the offices of
President and Vice-President; (iii) to advise the President! Governors
regarding the disqualification of Members 243 of Parliament or Members of
State Legislatures; and (iv) to examine the return of expenses filed by
the candidates nominated to various elections, disqualify the defaulting
candidates and their election agents and consider the representation of such
of them as apply for the removal of their disqualification.

LANGUAGE:- The official language of the Union is Hindi in

Devnagari script and international form of Indian numerals is used for
official purposes. For a period of fifteen years from the commencement of
the Constitution, English was to continue for official purposes of the
Union. If at the end of 15 years, Hindi was not able to replace English,
Parliament could provide for the use of English for specific purposes. The
Constitution also lays down that the legislature of a State may, by law, adopt
any one or more of the languages for use in the State, but Hindi is to be used
for all official purposes of the Uni9n. The need for use of English in the
proceedings of the Supreme Court, High Courts, etc., and in bills and
enactments has been recognized. The Official Language Act of 1967 has
provIded for the use of English indefinitely. It has been provided that the
Centre will carry on the correspondence with non-Hindi-speaking States in
English and witlJ, the Hindi-speaking States in Hindi.

REGIONAL LANGUAGES:- According to the Eighth Schedule of the

Indian Constitution, the following 18 languages have been recognized as
regional languages: (i) Assamese; (ii) Bengali; (iii) Gujarati; (iv) Hindi; (v)
Kannada; (vi) Kashmiri; (vii) Malayalam; (viii) Marathi; (ix) Oriya; (x)
Punjabi; (xi) Sanskrit; (xii) Sindhi; (xiii) Tamil; (xiv) Telugu; (xv) Urdu;
(xvi) Gorkhali; (xvii) Manipuri; and (xviii) Konkani. The last three
languages were intro:luced in the Constitution (71stAmendment) Bill, 1992.

ZONAL COUNCILS:- Zonal CQuncils have been est\blished by the

States Reorganisation Act, 1956 to advise on matters of common interest to
ea~h of the five zone.s into which the territories of India. has.
been divided· Northern, Southern, Eastern, Western and Central. These
Zonal Councils do not owe their origin to the Constilution but to an Act of
Parliament, having been introduced by the States Reorganisation Act, with a
view to securing co-operation and co-ordination as between the Slates, t he
Union Territories and the Union, particularly in respect of economic
and social development. If properly worked these Councils would thus foster
the "federal sentiment" by re sisting the separatist tendencies oflinguism and
provincialism. The zones covered by these councils are as under: (i) The
Central Zone, comprising the States of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh,
Uttaranchal and Chhatlisgarh. (ii) The Northern Zone, comprising t he
States of Haryana. Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan, Jammu & Kashmir
and the Union Territories of Delhi and Chandigarh. (ill) The Eastern Zone,
comprising the States of Bihar, West Bengal, Orissa, Sikkim and Jharkhancl.
(iv) The Western Zone, .comprising the States of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa
and the Union Territories of .Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu.
(v) The Southern Zone, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka,
Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and the Union Territory of Pondicherry . Besides these,
there is the North Eastern Council set up in 1971, to deal with the common
problems of Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal
Pradesh and Mizoram. Constitution: Each Zonal Council consists of
the Chief Minister and two other Ministers of each of the States in the Zone
and the Administrator in the case of a Union Territory. There is also
provision for holding joint meetings of two or more Zonal Councils. The
Union Home Minister has been nominated as the common Chairman of all
the Zonal Councils. Functions: The main functions of ZOnes) Councils are:

(a) to inquire into and advise upon disputes, which may arise among the
States; (b) to investigate and discuss subjects, in which some or all the States
or Union and one or more States have common interest; and (c) to make
recommendations upon any such subject and, in particu lar,
recommendations for better co-ordination of policy and action with respect
to that subject. Role: The Zonal Councils play multiplicity of roles in order
to achieve (i) an emotional integration of the people; (ii) arresting the growth
of acute state consciousness in the form of regionalism, linguism, etc.;
(Ui) enabling the Centre and the States in economic and social matters for
evolving the uniform policies; (iv) co-operating with each other in speedy
and successful execution of developmental plans; and (v) securing some
kind of political equilibrium between different regions of the country.
Importance: The importance of the Zonai Councils lies in the fact, they help
to further co· ordination and integration through extrac constitutional
advisory organization, without undermining the autonomy of States, thereby
fostering the "federal sentiment" by resisting the separatist tendencies of
linguism and provincialism.

AMENDMENT TO THE CONSTITUTION:- Method of Amendment

Indian Constitution provides three methods of amending the Constitution:
(1) Amendment by Special Majority: Under Article 368 of the Constitution,
the general provision for the amendment of the Constitution can be initiated
out by the introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament. If the Bill is
passed by a majority of total membership of the House and by a majority of
not less than twothirds of the members present and voting in each House and
thereafter assented to by the President, the Constitution stands amended.
(2) Amendments requiring Special Mfljority and Ratification by States:
Changes in the Constitution with regard to the following matters can be
made by the Parliament after the Bill has been passed by both the Houses of
Parliament by a majority of total membership of each House and by a
twothirds majority of the members present and voting in each House and
having been ratified by not less than one-half of the States and assented to
by the President: (i) the manner of election of the President; (ii) extent of
executive powers of the Union and the States; (iii) provisions relating to the
Supreme Court and High Courts; (iv) distributing of legislative powers
between Union and the States; (v) representation of States in Parliament;
and (vi) provisions for the amendment of the Constitution. (3) Amendment
by Simple Majority: A Bill in respect of any of the following subjects is
treated as an ordinary· Bill, that is, it is passed by a simple majority of
members present and voting: (i) admission or establishment of new States,
formation of new States, and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of
existing States (Art. 4); (ii) creation or abolition of Legislative Council
in the States (Art. 169); (iii) administration and control of Scheduled Areas
(para 7 of the Fifth Schedule); and (iv) administration of Tribal Areas in the
States of Assam, Meghalaya. Tripura and Mizoram (para 21 of the Sixth
Schedule). Though normal legislative procedure holds good so far as this
class of amendments is concerned, certain conditions. however, do attach to
the bills referred to in (i) and (ii) above, such as recommendation of the
President for introduction of such Bills in Parliament and adoption of
necessary resolution by concerned State Legislative Assembly, respectively.

NATIONAL FLAG:- The National Flag of India consists of three

horizontal bands - saffron, white and dark green with the Asoka Wheel
(having 24 spokes) in dark blue colour in the centre of the white band; all
strips being equ~l in width. It ~ is rectangular in shape, the ratio of the
length to breadth being 3:2. The emblem of the flag is an exact reproduction
of the Dharma Chaki'a on the capitol of Asoka's pillar at Sarnath. Symbolic
Representation: According to Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, the saffron colour
represents the spirit of renunciation, the white stands for truth and peace, and
green signifies growth.
NATIONAL EMBLEM:- The emblem of the Government of India is a
reproduction of the Asaka's Pillar at Sarnath. It shows three standing lions at
a base having a Dharma Chakra in the centre, a bull on the right and a horse
to the left. The words "Satyameva Jayate" , taken from Mundaka Upanishad,
meaning ''Truth Alone Triumphs", are inscribed in Devnagari at the bottom.

74TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT PANCHAYATI RAJ

(1992):- It was also passed by Parliament in Dec. 1992 in order to activate
Municipalities and to confer them statutory status. It provides for
(i) constitution of three types of municipalities. (ii) Reservation of seats in
every municipality for the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, Women
and backward classes; (iii) Devolution of powers and responsibilities
upon the municipalities with respect to preparation of plan for economic
development, levy of taxes and duties, and review of finances of the
municipalities; and (iv) Conducting election to the local bodies by
an independent State Election Commission.

NATIONAL LITERACY MISSION (NLM):- It was launched in 1988.

It aims at attaining functional literacy for 100 million persons in the age-
group of 15-35 (including age-group 9·14 . were Non·Formal education is
not in operation) in a time·bound manner. The most important development
has taken place Wlder NLM is the near ascending of campaign made in adult
education programme in the country.

MINORITIES COMMISSION:- Status: It was set up as a statutory

Commission for Minorities in 1992. Composition: It consists of a Chairman
and six other members. Functions: Its main functions are (1) evaluation of
the working of various safeguards for the minorities provided in the
Constitution; (ii) making recommendations for the effective implementation
of safeguards for the protection of the interests of minorities by the Central
Government or State Governments; (iii) reviewing of implementation of
policies pursued by the Un ion and State Governments; (iv) looking into
specific complaints regarding deprivation of rights and safeguards;
(v) making surveys and research; (vi) suggesting appropriate and legal
welfare measures in respect of any minority requiring special protection;
(vii) making periodic or special reports to the Central Government on any
matter pertaining to t he minorities and in particular difficulties confronted
by them; and (viii) making recommendations regarding any other matter
referred to it by the Central Government.
Habeas Corpus: Habeas Corpus is a writ provided in the Constitution. It
gives facilities to the prisoners for obtaining speedy trial or release on bail.

Ombudsman: Ombudsman, a Swedish Jprd, stands for "an officer

appointed by the legislature to handle complaints against administrative and
judicial action". Although appointed by the legislature, t he office of
Ombudsman is a constitutional post and the incumbent is politically
independent of the legislature. Created for the redressal of citizen's
grievances, the institution of·Qmbudsman is typically Scandinavian.

Writ of Mandamus: Mandamus is an order from a superior court to a

lower court or tribunal or public authority to perform an act. which falls
within its duty. It is issued to secure the performance of public duties and to
enforce private rights withheld by the public authorities. This writ cannot be
claimed as a matter of right. I t is the discretionary power of a court to issue
such writs.

UGC Higher Education I

HIGHER EDUCATION SYSTEM IN INDIA:- India has one of the

largest 'Higher Education System' in the wo.ld. Main players in the
higher education system in the country are: University Grants Commission
(UGC) is responsible for coordination, determination and maintenance of
standards, release of grants. Professional Councils are responsible for
recognition of courses, promotion of professional institutions and providing
grants to undergraduate programmes and various awards. The statutory
professional councils are: All Inclia Council for Technical Education
(AIeTE), Distance Education Council (DEC), Indian Council for Agriculture
Research (lCAR), Bar Council of [odis (BCI), National Council for Teacher
Education (NCTE) Rehabilitation Council of India (ReI), Medical
Council of India (MCr), Pharmacy Cotmcil of India (Pcn, In!!!an Nursing
Council o NC), Dentist Council of India (DCl), Central Council of
Homeopathy (CCH), Central Council of Indian Medicine (CCIM) Central
Government is responsible for major policy relating to higher education in
the country. It provide grants to the uae and establishes central universities
in the country. The Central Government is also responsible for declaration of
Educational Institutions as 'Deemed to be University' on the
recommendation of the UGC. Presently there are sixteen (16) Central
Universities in the country. In pursuance of the Mizoram Accord, another
Central University in the State .of Mizoram is planned. There are 37
Institutions which have been declared as Deemed to be Universities by the
Govt. of [nelia as per Section of the UGe Act, 1956. State Governments are
responsi ble for establishment of State Univer s ities and colleges, and
provide plan grants for their develo,PpIent and non-plan grants for their
maintenance. The coordination and cooperation between the Union and the
States is brought about in the field of education through t.he Central
Advisory Board of Education (CABE). Special Constitutional responsibility
of the Central Government: Education is on the 'Concurrent list' subject to
Entry 66 in the Union List of the Constitution. Thip gives exdusive
Legislative Power to the Central Govt. for co-ordination and determination
of standards in Institutions of higher education or research and scientific and
technical institutions.

ACADEMIC QUALIFICATION FRAMEWORK

DEGREE STRUCTURE:- There are three principle levels of

qualifications within the higher education system in the country. These are:
Bachelor' Undergraduate level Master's f Post-graduate level Doctoral f Pre-
doctoral level Diploma courses are also available at the undergraduate and
postgraduate level. At the undergraduate level, it varies between one to
three years in length, postgraduate diplomas are normally awarded after one
year's study. Bachelor's degree in arts, commerce and sciences is three years
of education (after 12 years of school education). In some places there
are honours and special courses available. These are not necessarily longer
in duration but indicate greater depth of study. Bachelor degree in
professional field of study in agriculture, dentistry, engineering, pharmacy,
technology and veterinary medicine generaUy take four years, while
arch.itectw'e and medicine. it takes five and five and a half years
respectively. There are other bachelor degrees in education, journalism and
librarian-ship that are second degrees. Bachelor's degree in law can either be
taken as an integrated degree lasting five years or three-year course as a
second degree. Master's degree is normally of two-year I duration. It could
be coursework based without t hesis or research a lone. Admission to
p08tgradua~ programmes in engineering and technology is done on the basis
of Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering or Combined Medical Test
respectively. A pre-doctoral programme - Master of Philosophy (M.Phil ) is
taken after c;ompletion of the Master's Degree. This can either be
completely research based or can include course work as well Ph.D. is
awarded two year after the M.Phil. or three years after the Master's degree.
Students are expected to write a substantial thesis based on original research,
generally takes longer.

NEW INITIATIVES, VOCATIONALIZATION AT

THE FlRSfDEGREE LEVEL:--- In conformity with the National Policy

on Education, 1986, a tiCheme to provide career orientation to education at
the first degree level was l aunch~d in 1994-95. Under the scheme. a
university I college could introduce one to three vocational courses in 35
identified subjects. Autonomous Colleges: 138 collegea have been
functioning as autonomous colleges in eight states in the country. National
Eligibility Test (NET) is being conducted by the UGC since 1989 for
eligibility
for lect ureship. Around 50000 students appear for the test every year. Pass
percentage is around 5%. Eight State Level Tests have been accredited 8S
par with NET. System of Governance of Hig her Education Institutions: The
Universities are of various kinds: with a single faculty, or multi-faculties;
teaching or affiliating, or teaching cum aff.tliating, single campus or
multiple campus. Most of the Universities are affiliating universities. which
prescribe to the affiliat.ed colleges the course of study, hold examinations
and award degrees, while undergraduate and to some extent post, the
colleges affiliated to them impart graduate instruction. Many of the
university along with their affiliated colleges have grown rapidly to the
extent of becoming uamanageable. Therefore, as per National Policy on
Eaucation, 1986, a scheme of autonomous colleges was promoted. In the
autonomous colleges, whereas the degree continues to be awarded by the
University, the name of the college is also included. The colleges develop
and propose new courses of study to the university for approval. They are
also fully responsible for con duct of examination. There are at present 126
autonomous colleges in the country.

Focus of Ninth Plan: Thrust areas are: measures for quality improvement
and modernization of syllabi. renewal of infrastructure, extra-budgetary
resource mobilization and greater attention to issues in governance. Issues of
access and relevance would receive attention. Conferment of grater
autonomy to deserving colleges and professional upgradation of teachers
through Academic Staff Colleges would be given priority. Emphasis is being
placed on consolidation and optimal utilization of the existing infrastructure
through institutjonal networking. restructuring expansion. so as to only meet
the demand of the unserved areas with a focus on women and under
privileged seCtiOIUl. The Open University system, which has been growing
in popularity and size. Is striving to diversify courses and offerings and
gain wider acceptability by upgrading its quality. It would focus more
sharply on the educational needs of women and rural society, as well as
professional training of in-service employees.

CENTRAL UNIVERSITIES:- * President of India is the Visitorofall

Central Universities. * PresidentNisitor nominates some members to the
Executive Committee/Board of ManagementlCourtiSelection Committees of
the University as per the pl'ovisions made in the relevant University Act. *
Ministry provides secretariat service for appointment of Vice-
ChancellorfExecutlve Committee NomineeslCourtNomineeslSelectJon
Committee Nominees etc. by the President. Indira Gandhi National Open
University (IGNOU) Established in 1985 for introduction and promotion of
Open University and distance education system. Major objectives include
widening of access to higher education. IGNOU programmes telecast on
Doordarshan Network six days a week. Its jurisdiction is through out the
oountry.lt can set up Study Centres outside the country .·This was allowed
vide amendment of the IGNOU Act in 1997. Distance Education Council
(DEC) under IGNOU has the responsibility for coordination and
maintenance of standards in open and distance education system in the
country. University Of Hyderabad, Established in 1974 for post-graduate
teaching and research, 20 Km from the City of Hyderabad on the Old
Hyderabad - Bombay road. It has a City campus· 'The Golden Threshold' -
the residence ofthe late Sarojini Naidu. The University has Eight Schools of
Studies and a Centre for Distance Education offering post·graduate diploma
in five disciplines. University or Delhi, Established in February 1922 as a
unitary and residential university. It has 14 faculties, 82 teach.ing
departments and 78 colleges spread over national Capital Territory of Delhi.
A new State University - Indraprashtha Vishwavidhlaya bas come up in
Delhi as an affiliating University. Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi
Visbwavidyalaya, Wardha Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi
Vishwavidyalaya Act (at Wardha) was passed by the Parliament in
December, 1996. Univ~I' .. i.LY came into existence with effect from 29th
December 1997. It has international cbaracter. Four schools proposed under
this University. For the time being the University is operating from its
temporary office at Delhi. Babasaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar University,
Lucknow Established 8S a State University in 1994 at Lucknow, it was
notified as a Central University on 10th January 1996. It aims to provide
instructional and research facilities in new and frontier areas of learning. Has
three schools and three centres. (School of Ambedkar Studies, School for
Information Science and Technology and School fo :, Environmental
studies and Centre for Rural Technology, Centre for Vocational Studies and
Centre for Human Rights.) Pondicherry University Established in 1985 8S a
teaching-cum affiliating university. It has jurisdiction over the Union
Territory of Pondicherry and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It also has a
Community College. Affiliated institutions of which 13 are located in
Pondicherry, 3 in Karaikal, 2 in Mahe. 1 in Yanam and 3 in Andaman &
Nicobar Islands. Visva Bharati, Santiniketan It is an unitary teaching and
residential University. Founded by Guru Rabindranath Tagore. Incorporated
as a Central University by t.he Visva Bharati Act, 1951 . Itsjurisdiction
is restricted to the area known as Santiniketan in the District of Birbhum,
West Bengal. It imparts education from the Primary School level to Post-
Graduate and Doctorate levels. It has 12 institutes - 8 at Santiniketan, 3 at
Sriniketan and 1 at Kolkata. Rural Segment of the University (Sriniketan)
created CAREER (Centre for Advanced Rural Education, Extenuation and
Research) and CSV (Centre for Science in Villages). For creating facilities
in the housing technology Nirman Bhawan (Building Centre) was
established under the sponsorship of HUDCO. Millia lslamia, Jamia Nagar,
New Delhi Functioned 8S a Deemed University since 1962. Acquired ytatus
of a Central University in December, 1988 by an Act. of Parliament
Imparts education from Nursery stage to p~st: graduate & Doctorate levels.
It has six Faculties and Eight Centres Rnd Five Schools. AJ, Kidwai Mass
Communication Research Centre (AJKMCRC) providefJ training at Post·
graduate level in Mass Communication, producing educational material on
different educational aspects/subjects for the UGC, INSAT Programme.
Aligarb Muslim University, Aligarh Established in 1920 8S a fully
residential Central University. It maintains four Hospitals, six Colleges
(including Medical, Dental and Engineering Colleges), two Polytechnics and
eight Schools. Offers six diploma courses exClusively for women. 18562
students (including school strength) were in rolls. Banaras Hindu
University, Varanasi Came into existence in 1916 as a teaching and
residential University. It consists of three Institutions· Institute of Medical
Sciences,
Institute of Technology and Institute of Agricultural Sciences. It has
faculties with 121 academic departments and 4 inter·disciplinary schools. It
maintains a constituent Mahila Mahavidyalaya and three School level
institutions. lOOO·Bedded Modern Ayurvedic Medicine Hospital. Jawahar
La! Nehru University, New Delhi It came into existence in 1969. It is
primarily concerned with Post·graduate Education and Research. It has 7
schools consisting of 24 Centres of Studies and a separate Centre for
Bio·Technology. Maulana Azad National Urdu University The University
Act was passed by the Parliament in 1997 and it came into existence on 9th
January, 1998. Its Administrative Office has been set up at Hyderabad. It has
Regional Officers at Delhi, Patna and Bangalore. lt'saim is to promote and
develop Urdu language and to impart vocational and technical education in
Urdu medium through conventional and distance education system.
ASSAM UNIVERSITY, Dorgakona, Assam Established as a
teaching·cum·affiliating University on 21.1.1994. Though the act was
passed in 1989. It has Jurisdiction over the districts ofCachar, Karimganj,
Karhi, angling and Hailakandi in the State of Assam. Nagaland University,
Kohima
Established as a teaching-cum· affiliating University on 6.9.1994. Though
the act was passed in 1989. Its Headquarters is at Lumami, Nagaland. It. has
jurisdiction over the whole of the State of Nagaland. It has 39 colleges
affiliated. It has campuses in Kohima, Lumami and Medsiphema (School of
Agricultural Sciences and Rural Development· SASRD), 25 Departments
and 4 Schools of Studies. Tezpur University, Nappam, Assam A
non·affiliating unitary Central University set up in 1994 under an Act of
Parliament, Tezpur University Act, 1993. It's aims is to offer employment-
oriented and inter· disciplinary courses, mostly at post-graduate
level. It has 11 Departments under 4 schools of studies and 6 centres of
Studies.
North-Eastern Hill University, Shillong Established in 1973 at Shillong by
an Act of Parliament. North Eastern Hill University Act, 1973. It has a
Campus at Aizwal and a centre in Tura. Its jurisdiction is over the States of
Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram. Its Headquarters at Shillong.
Post· graduate Departments and four Centres of Studies under its six schools
of studies and an under-graduate college. It has 58 Under graduate Colleges
and 8 professional course colleges and North-Eastern Regional Institute
olScienee and Technology (NERJST) affiliared. It has a Regional
Sophisticated Instrumentation Selitre (RSIC).

UGC Higher Education II

UNIVERSITY GRANTS COMMISSION (UGC)

Objective: The government established University Grants Commission

(UGC) by an Act of Parliament in 1956. It discharges the Constitutional
mandate of coordination" determination, and maintenance of standards of
teaching, examination and research in the ' field of University and Higher
Education. UOC serves 8S a vita l link between the Union and State
Governments and the institutions of higher learning. It monitors
developments in the field of collegiate and university education; disburses
grants to the univers ities and colleges: advises Cent.ral and State
Governments on the measures necessary for the improvement of university
ed ucation; and fram es regulations such as those on the minimum standards
of instruction.

Composition
Commission comprises of the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and ten other
members appointed by the Central Government. 'The Chairperson is selected
from among persons who are not officers of the Central Government or any
State Government. Of the ten members, two are from amongst the officers of
the Central Government to represent it. Not less than four. selected from
among persons who are, at the time they are selected, shall be a teacher in
the Universities. Others are selected from among eminent educationists,
academics and experts in various fields. Chairperson is appointed for a term
of 5 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Vice·Chairperson is appointed for a term of 3 years or until the age of 65
yesrs, whichever is earlier. The other members are appointed for a term of 3
years. The Chairperson. Vice· Chairperson and members can be appointed
for a maximum of two terms. Funding UGC has no funds ofits own. It
receives both Plan and Non·Plan grants from the Central Government to
carry out the responsibilities assigned to it by law. It allocates and disburses
full maintenance and development grants to all Central Universities,
Colleges affiliated to Delhi and Banaras Hindu Universities and some of the
institutions accorded the sta tus of 'Deemed to be Universities'. State
Universlties, Colleges and other institutions of higher education, receive
support only from the Plan grant for development schemes. Besides, it
provides financial assistance to Universities and co lle ges under various
schemesl programmes for promoting relevance, quality and excellence as
also promoting the role of social change by the Universities. Regional
Offices· Si." Regional Offices Name of Regional Office States Southem
Regional Office: Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Karnataka, Pondicherry, Tamil
Nadu.

NorthemRegional Office: Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab,

Haryana. Uttar Pradesh. Central Regional Office: Madhya Pradesh,
Rajasthan. Eastern Regional Office :.West Bengal, Biha!', Orissa, Sikkim.
North Eastern Regio/wl Office: Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Arunachal
Pradesh, Tripura, Nagaland. Western Regional Office : Goa, Gujarat,
Maharashtra. Inter University Centres (lUes) Under Section 12 (ccc) of the
UGC Act, the Commission has established the follOwing Inter
- University Centres to provide common facilities, se rvi ce and programmes
to Universities since heavy investment in infrastructure and inputs have
made it beyond the reach of individual .Universities to obtain
these facilities:· Nuclear Science Centre. New Delhi: Accelerator oriented
research ruc for Astronomy and Astrophysics, Pune: State-of·the·art
instrumentation for research in astronomy IUC for DAE facilities, Indore:
Use of facilities of Department of Atomic Energy Information ond Library
Network (INFLIBNET), Ahmedabad: Networking of libraries through
electronic medis Consortium for Educational Communication (CEe), New
Delhi : To dissemi nate Countrywide programme through television
216 National Assessment & Accreditation Council (NACC), Bangalore: To
assess and accredit public & Private institutions of higher learning
National Facilities UGC has also set up the following Centres as National
facilities in selected Universities:Western Regional Instrumentation Centre,
Bombay: Design and development of indigenous equipment and training to
staff in instrumentation. Regional Instrumentation Centre, Indian Institute of
Science, Bangalore: Design and development of indigenous equipment and
training to staff in instrumentation. Chennai : Research and dissemination of
knowledge and oorganization of training programme in crystal growth.
M.S.T. Radar Centre SriVenkateswara Tirupati: Studies in atmospheric
Dynamics to enable teachers to use MSTfRadar facility. Eastern Centre for
Radio Astr'ophysics, Calcutta University: Research in Astrophysics Japal -
Rangapur observatory, Osmania University. Hyderabad: Science Research
Observatory Centre for Science Education & Communication, New Delhi:
Popularization of Science
INDIAN EDUCATION SYSTEM Institution Types & Credentials Types
of higher education institutions: University Institute of Technology
College Open University School leaving adult higher education Credentials:
Higher Secondary School Certificate Secondary School Certificate
Diploma Bachelor's Degree Postgraduate Diploma Master's Degree
Master of Philosophy Post-Master Degree Doctorate Doctor of Laws
Doctor of Literature Doctor of Science

Structure of education system

Pre-higher education::- Duration of compulsory education: Age of entry:

6 Age of exit: 14 Structure of school system: Primary Type of school
providing this education: Lower Primary School (Standards I To V)
Length of program in years: 5 Age level from : 6 to 11 Middle Type of
school providing this education: Middle School (Standards V1 To Vllt)
Length of program in years: 3 Age level from: 11 to 14 Secondary Type of
school providing this education: Secondary School (Standards IX To X)
Length of program in years: 2 Age level from: 14 to 16 Certificate/diploma
awarded: Secondary School Certificate Senior Secondary Type of school
providing this education: Higher Secondary School (Standards Xl To XlI)
Length of program in years: 2 Age level from: 16 to 18 Certificate/diploma
awarded: Higher Secondary School Certificate Vocational Secondary Type
of school providing this education: Secondary schools Length of program in
years: 3 Age level from: 16 to 18 Certificate/diploma awarded: Higher
Secondary School Certificate

School education::--- School education in India is a two-tier system,

the first ten years covering general education followed by two years of
senior secondary education. Primary education is divided into two stages:
the first five years constitute the prlmary stage (Standards I-V) and the next
three years, the upper primary stage or middle school (Standards VI-VIII).
Secondary education usually lasts between two and four years. After two
years, pupils who have completed ten years of education (Standard X)
take the Secondary School Certificate. Pupils then enter higher secondary
schools or Junior Colleges and complete a further two years of education
(Standards XI and XTI). Courses focus on university preparation. Public
examinations are held at the end of Standard IX either by individual states or
by Central Boards and lead to the award of the Higher Secondary School
Certificate (also called All india Senior School Certificate or Indian School
Certificate or Pre-University Course).Vocational education is offered in two
years at Higher and Technical Schools and lead to the Certificate of
Vocational Education (CVE).
Higher education::- Higher ed ucation is provided by: (1) Universities
-including agricultural universities and medical universities· divided into
Central Universities, funded directly by the Ministry of Human Resources
Development, and State Universities, set up and funded by various states. (2)
"Deemed to be universities", single-faculty, multi subjects institutions
which enjoy the same academic status and privileges of a university; and (3)
Institutions of National Importance , university-level institutions funded
by the central government. These include the Indian Institutes of
Technology. Most universities belong to the affiliating and teaching type in
which departments impart instruction at the postgraduate level and undertake
research. Agricultural universities stress research and extension work.
Finally, there are technological universities and ten open universities. There
are also research institutions, administered by the Indian Council of Social
Science Research, and research laboratories, as well as more than tO,OOO
colleges. most of which are afftliated to universities. Unive rsities are
governed by statutory bodies such as the Academic Council. The
Senate/Court and the Executive CounciU Syndicate. Funding for State
universities largely comes from the State governments and the University
Grants Commission. Higher education falls mainly under its jurisdiction.
The Association of Indian Universities (AIU) represents univer si ties and
has the responsibility for all matters within the higher education sector other
than funding . Professional institutions are coordinated by different bodies.
The All-India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), established in
1987, is responsible for the coordination of technica l and manage ment
Educa ti on institutions. Bodies such as State Councils of Higher Education
were established r ece ntly. Non-university level: On completion of Standard
X, students may opt for (1) Further secondary school studies leading
to the Higher Secondary School Certificate ; (2) Craftsman or apprenticeship
courses offered in Industrial Training Institutes through the Craftman
Training Scheme and Apprenticeship Scheme and leading to Trade
Certificates or (3) Entering a Polytechnic where they are offered one to
three-year diploma courses in all subjects except Medicine. There are over
1200 Polytechnics in l!ldia. Although planned to train technicians, an
increasing number now offer oour8es leading to degrees and even post-
graduate diplomas and certificates. Access to cou rses for the Higher
National Diploma (HND) requires Standard XII. University level studies:
First stage: Bachelor: First degree generally require three years' fulltime
study leading to Bachelor of Arts, Science and Commerce degrees. Entrance
to &n Honours course may require a higher pass mark in the higher
secondary or pre· university examinations. An Honours degree does not
generally involve longer study hut indicates greater specialization. In
professional subjects: courses last for four to five and a half years. the
Bachelor of Laws (LLB) can either be taken as an integrated flrst degree
course (five years) or as a two to three-year course taken as
a second degree. Second stage: Master's Degree: A Master's Degree in Arts,
Science and Commerce generally requires two years of study after a first
degree. Most. are cow·seworkbased without a thesis. The Indian Institutes of
Technology offer three semester studies leading to ME, MSc (Engg) and
MTech degrees. Master's courses in Engineering and Technology normally
require two years' study after a first professional degree. Candidates must
qualify through the Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering Colleges. I n
Medicine and Surgery, the MaFlter's degree takes two years after
MBBSfBDS. The Master of Technology is awarded after a study period of
three semesters. Students must complete a research project which usually
takes one semester. The Master of Computer Applications (MCA) is
awarded after three years' study beyond the Bachelor's Degree. Third stage:
Master of Philosophy, PhD: One and a half-year MPhil programmes are
open to those who have completed their second stage postgraduate degree. It
is a preparatory programme for ~octoral level studies. Some universities
admit MBBSIBE degree holders to PhD courses. The PhD programme
involves two years' study beyond tt;le MPhil or a minimum of three years'
stutly beyond the Master's degree and the submission of a thesis,
as well as an oral examination. Fourth stage: DSc. Dlitt: The Doctor of
Science (DSc) and the Doctor of Literature (Dlitt) degrees are awarded by
some universities two to three years after the PhD for original contributions.

Teacher education: Training of preprimary and primary/basic school

teachers

Teachers for lower primary classes (Standards I to V) are trained in Teacher

Training Institutes (also called Junior Basic Training Institutes or Primary
Teacher Colleges) attached to State departments of education. The course
usually lasts for two years and leads to a Diploma or· a Teacher Training
Certiflcate. Upper primary school teachers are trained in two years and the
course leads to a Diploma. They must have passed the Higher Secondary
School-Leaving Certificate. Training of secondary school teachers Teachers
at lower secondary level (Standards IX and X) are graduates who havE'
completed a one-year Bachelor of education at a college affiliated to a
university. Teache-rs at the higher secondary level (Standards XI and XU)
are postgraduates who have usually completed a Master's degree followed
by a one-year Bachelor in Education. Four Regional Colleges of Education
offer a combined fOUT-year integrated programme leading to a Bachelor's
degree. Training of higher education teachers Teachers at colleges of
education must hold an M.Ed and a PhD. Studies for these are undertaken at
a number of universities. Non-traditional studies: Distahce higher education
Since its inception in 1962 at the University of Delhi, distance education has
grown considerably. There are now some sixty InstituteslDirectorates of
distance education attached to conventional universities and ten Open
Universities, including Indira Gandhi National Open University· with over
150 regional centers throughout India. Distance education programmes
cover about one hundred DegreelDiploma courses. Many conventional
universities also offer correspondence courses, which are sometimes
supplemented by contact classes.

Lifelong higher education:-

Universities and colleges offer adult and continuing education with

assistance from the ugc. Programmes include Population Eucation, Legal
Literacy, Science Encation and Technology Transfer. There are also evening
colleges which provide courses at undergraduate level and, in some areas,
postgraduate courses are also offered. Other forms of non-formal education
Non-university level post-secondary education consists of one-year
Certificate courses and two- to three-year Diploma courses in various
technical and commercial fields. They are conducted by industrial
training institutes and polytechnics administered through the state
departments oftechnical education.

NATIONAL BODIES

Administration & co-ordination:- Responsible authorities: Ministry of

Human Resources Development, Science and Technology Head: Arjun
Singh Shastri Bhavan New Delhi 110001 Association of Indian Universities
AIU House, 16 Kotla Marg, New Delhi 110002 University Grants
Corrunission Bahadur Shah Zafar Marg, New Delhi 110002 Role of
governing body: Coordinates the work of the universities; establishes
equivalences of degrees; acts as a bureau of information; conducts research
on university development.

VOCATIONAL COURSES COVERED

UNDER APPRENTICES ACT 1961

Agriculture 1. Poultry Production 2. Fisheries/Fish Processing

3. Dairying 4. Sericulture 5. Apiculture 6. Floriculture 7. Plant Protection
8. Agricultural Ctiemicals 9. Inland Fisheries 10. Plantation Crops and
Management 11. Seed Production Technology 12. Swine Production
13. Vegetable Seed Production 14. Medicinal and Aromatic Plant Industry
15. Sheep and Goat Husbandry 16. Repair and Maintenance of Power
Driven Farm Machinery 17. Veterinary Pharmacist-cum-Artificial
Insemination Assistant 18. Agro Based Food Industry (Animal based) 19.
Agro Based Food Industry (Crop based) 20. Agro Based Food Industry
(Feed based)

History of Computers:

1. First Generation (1939-1954) - vacuum tube

• 1937 - John V. Atanasoff designed the first digital electronic computer
• 1939 - Atanasoff and Clifford Berry demonstrate in Nov. the ABC
prototype
• 1941 - Konrad Zuse in Germany developed in secret the Z3
• 1943 - In Britain, the Colossus was designed in secret at Bletchley Park to
decode German messages
• 1944 - Howard Aiken developed the Harvard Mark I mechanical computer
for the Navy
• 1945 - John W. Mauchly and J. Presper Eckert built ENIAC at U of PA for
the U.S. Army
• 1946 - Mauchly and Eckert start Electronic Control Co., received grant
from National Bureau of Standards to build a ENIAC-type computer with
magnetic tape input/output, renamed UNIVAC in 1947 but run out of
money, formed in Dec. 1947 the new company Eckert-Mauchly Computer
Corporation (EMCC).
• 1948 - Howard Aiken developed the Harvard Mark III electronic computer
with 5000 tubes
• 1948 - U of Manchester in Britain developed the SSEM Baby electronic
computer with CRT memory
• 1949 - Mauchly and Eckert in March successfully tested the BINAC
stored-program computer for Northrop Aircraft, with mercury delay line
memory and a primitive magentic tape drive; Remington Rand bought
EMCC Feb. 1950 and provided funds to finish UNIVAC
• 1950- Commander William C. Norris led Engineering Research Associates
to develop the Atlas, based on the secret code-breaking computers used by
the Navy in WWII; the Atlas was 38 feet long, 20 feet wide, and used 2700
vacuum tubes
• 1951 - S. A. Lebedev developed the MESM computer in Russia
• 1951 - Remington Rand successfully tested UNIVAC March 30, 1951, and
announced to the public its sale to the Census Bureau June 14, 1951, the first
commercial computer to feature a magnetic tape storage system, the eight
UNISERVO tape drives that stood separate from the CPU and control
console on the other side of a garage-size room. Each tape drive was six feet
high and three feet wide, used 1/2-inch metal tape of nickel-plated bronze
1200 feet long, recorded data on eight channels at 100 inches per second
with a transfer rate of 7,200 characters per second. The complete UNIVAC
system weighed 29,000 pounds, included 5200 vacuum tubes, and an offline
typewriter-printer UNIPRINTER with an attached metal tape drive. Later, a
punched card-to-tape machine was added to read IBM 80-column and
Remington Rand 90-column cards.
• 1952 - Remington Rand bought the ERA in Dec. 1951 and combined the
UNIVAC product line in 1952: the ERA 1101 computer became the
UNIVAC 1101. The UNIVAC I was used in November to calculate the
presidential election returns and successfully predict the winner, although it
was not trusted by the TV networks who refused to use the prediction.
• 1954 - The sage aircraft-warning system was the largest vacuum tube
computer system ever built. It began in 1954 at MIT's Lincoln Lab with
funding from the Air Force. The first of 23 Direction Centers went online in
Nov. 1956, and the last in 1962. Each Center had two 55,000-tube
computers built by IBM, MIT, AND Bell Labs. The 275-ton computers
known as "Clyde" were based on Jay Forrester's Whirlwind I and had
magnetic core memory, magnetic drum and magnetic tape storage. The
Centers were connected by an early network, and pioneered development of
the modem and graphics display.

2.Second Generation Computers (1954 -1959) - transistor

• 1950 - National Bureau of Standards (NBS) introduced its Standards
Eastern Automatic Computer (SEAC) with 10,000 newly developed
germanium diodes in its logic circuits, and the first magnetic disk drive
designed by Jacob Rabinow
• 1953 – Watson Junior led IBM to introduce the model 604 computer, its
first with transistors, that became the basis of the model 608 of 1957, the
first solid-state computer for the commercial market. Transistors were
expensive at first, cost $8 vs. $.75 for a vacuum tube. But Watson was
impressed with the new transistor radios and gave them to his engineers to
study. IBM also developed the 650 Magnetic Drum Calculator, the first by
IBM to use magnetic drum memory rather punched cards, and began
shipment of the 701 scientific "Defense Calculator" that was the first of the
Model 700 line that dominated main frame computers for the next decade
• 1955 - IBM introduced the 702 business computer; Watson on the cover of
Time magazine March 28
• 1956 - Bendix G-15A small business computer sold for only $45,000,
designed by Harry Huskey of NBS
• 1959 - General Electric Corporation delivered its Electronic Recording
Machine Accounting (ERMA) computing system to the Bank of America in
California; based on a design by SRI, the ERMA system employed Magnetic
Ink Character Recognition (MICR) as the means to capture data from the
checks and introduced automation in banking that continued with ATM
machines in 1974

3. Third Generation Computers (1959 -1971) - IC

• 1959 - Jack Kilby of Texas Instruments patented the first integrated circuit
in Feb. 1959; Kilby had made his first germanium IC in Oct. 1958; Robert
Noyce at Fairchild used planar process to make connections of components
within a silicon IC in early 1959; the first commercial product using IC was
the hearing aid in Dec. 1963; General Instrument made LSI chip (100+
components) for Hammond organs 1968
• 1964 - IBM produced SABRE, the first airline reservation tracking system
for American Airlines; IBM announced the System/360 all-purpose
computer, using 8-bit character word length (a "byte") that was pioneered in
the 7030 of April 1961 that grew out of the AF contract of Oct. 1958
following Sputnik to develop transistor computers for BMEWS
• 1968 - DEC introduced the first "mini-computer", the PDP-8, named after
the mini-skirt; DEC was founded in 1957 by Kenneth H. Olsen who came
for the SAGE project at MIT and began sales of the PDP-1 in 1960
• 1969 - Development began on ARPAnet, funded by the DOD
• 1971 - Intel produced large scale integrated (LSI) circuits that were used in
the digital delay line, the first digital audio device

4. Fourth Generation (1971-1991) - microprocessor

• 1971 - Gilbert Hyatt at Micro Computer Co. patented the microprocessor;
Ted Hoff at Intel in February introduced the 4-bit 4004, a VSLI of 2300
components, for the Japanese company Busicom to create a single chip for a
calculator; IBM introduced the first 8-inch "memory disk", as it was called
then, or the "floppy disk" later; Hoffmann-La Roche patented the passive
LCD display for calculators and watches; in November Intel announced the
first microcomputer, the MCS-4; Nolan Bushnell designed the first
commercial arcade video game "Computer Space"
• 1972 - Intel made the 8-bit 8008 and 8080 microprocessors; Gary Kildall
wrote his Control Program/Microprocessor (CP/M) disk operating system to
provide instructions for floppy disk drives to work with the 8080 processor.
He offered it to Intel, but was turned down, so he sold it on his own, and
soon CP/M was the standard operating system for 8-bit microcomputers;
Bushnell created Atari and introduced the successful "Pong" game
• 1973 - IBM developed the first true sealed hard disk drive, called the
"Winchester" after the rifle company, using two 30 Mb platters; Robert
Metcalfe at Xerox PARC created Ethernet as the basis for a local area
network, and later founded 3COM
• 1974 - Xerox developed the Alto workstation at PARC, with a monitor, a
graphical user interface, a mouse, and an ethernet card for networking
• 1975 - the Altair personal computer is sold in kit form, and influenced
Steve Jobs and Steve Wozniak
• 1976 - Jobs and Wozniak developed the Apple personal computer; Alan
Shugart introduced the 5.25-inch floppy disk
• 1977 - Nintendo in Japan began to make computer games that stored the
data on chips inside a game cartridge that sold for around $40 but only cost a
few dollars to manufacture. It introduced its most popular game "Donkey
Kong" in 1981, Super Mario Bros in 1985
• 1978 - Visicalc spreadsheet software was written by Daniel Bricklin and
Bob Frankston
• 1979 - Micropro released Wordstar that set the standard for word
processing software
• 1980 - IBM signed a contract with the Microsoft Co. of Bill Gates and Paul
Allen and Steve Ballmer to supply an operating system for IBM's new PC
model. Microsoft paid $25,000 to Seattle Computer for the rights to QDOS
that became Microsoft DOS, and Microsoft began its climb to become the
dominant computer company in the world.
• 1984 - Apple Computer introduced the Macintosh personal computer
January 24.
• 1987 - Bill Atkinson of Apple Computers created a software program
called HyperCard that was bundled free with all Macintosh computers. This
program for the first time made hypertext popular and useable to a wide
number of people.

5. Fifth Generation (1991 and Beyond)

• 1991 - World-Wide Web (WWW) was developed by Tim Berners-Lee and
released by CERN.
• 1993 - The first Web browser called Mosaic was created by student Marc
Andreesen and programmer Eric Bina at NCSA in the first 3 months of
1993. The beta version 0.5 of X Mosaic for UNIX was released Jan. 23 1993
and was instant success. The PC and Mac versions of Mosaic followed
quickly in 1993. Mosaic was the first software to interpret a new IMG tag,
and to display graphics along with text. Berners-Lee objected to the IMG
tag, considered it frivolous, but image display became one of the most used
features of the Web. The Web grew fast because the infrastructure was
already in place: the Internet, desktop PC, home modems connected to
online services such as AOL and Compuserve
• 1994 - Netscape Navigator 1.0 was released Dec. 1994, and was given
away free, soon gaining 75% of world browser market.
• 1996 - Microsoft failed to recognized the importance of the Web, but
finally released the much imporoved browser Explorer 3.0 in the summer.

CSIR NET JRF: Key points to know for Paper-I

• Which metal is always found in free state in nature-Gold.

• Bauxite is an ore of-Aluminum.
• Material used for bleaching pulp is-Sodium Hypo -chlori
• Which gas is leaked in Bhopal gas tragedy-Methyl Isocyanides.
• The chemical name of table salt is-Sodium Chloride.
• Chemical name of Vitamin C is –Ascorbic Acid.
• Bone is used as fertilizer because it contains the plant nutrient-Phosphorus.
• Baking soda is-Sodium Bicarbonat.
• Plaster of Paris is made from-Gypsum.
• Which element is common in all acids-Hydrogen.
• Which element is common in all organic compounds is -Chlorine.
• What is the function of Green leaves in plants –Photosynthesis.
• Which is largest Gland in human body Liver
• Which is largest Organ in human body –Skin
• Which is longest Bone in human body –Femur
• Which Gland is called the master Gland –Pituitary
• How many Bones in adult human body –206
• How many Bones in child‘s body –300
• What is the temperature of normal human body –36.9C.
• Which is the helps in clotting in blood –Vitamin K.
• Total volume of blood in normal adult human body 5-6iiters.
• Red blood corpuscles(RBC)are formed in the bone marrow
• The largest part of the human brain is the –cerebrum
• What is main component of the bone and teeth –Calcium Phosphate
• The main constituent of hemoglobin is –Transport Oxygen
• The main function of Hemoglobin is - Transport Oxygen.
• Malaraia is a disease which effect the –Spleen
• Leukemia is a disease of the –Blood.
• Rickets is a disease of the –Bones.
• ECG is used for the diagnosis of ailments of –Heart.
• Food is normally digested in the –Small intestines.
• The main function of the kidney is –To remove waste product from body
• The human cells contains –46 Chromosomes
• Acquired immune-deficiency syndrome(AIDS)is caused by –Virus
• The light with the longest wave length in the visible spectrum is – Red.
• In the electric bulb, the gas used is – Inert.
• Centigrade and Fahrenheit scales resemble at ( –40C).
• Study of insects is called – Entomology.
• The inner layer of the skin is called – Dermis
• Nucleus of an atom has – Neutrons and Protons
• Marsh gas is – Methane
• In fireworks the green flame is produced because of – Barium
• Nuclear fission is caused by the impact –Neutron
• Atom Bomb is based on principal of – Nuclear Fission.
• Glass is made from the mixture of – Sand and Salt.
• Permanent hardness of water may be removed by the addition of – Sodium
Carbonate.
• P.V.C is obtained by the polymerization of – Vinylchtoride
• The pursuit form of iron is – Cast Iron
• The element found on the surface of the moon is –Titanium
• One joule is equivalent to-10 ergs
• The most efficient engine is –Electric
• Wisdom teeth normally grow during the age of- 17- 30 years
• The yellow colures of urine is due to the presence of –Urochrome.
• Life of RVC in human blood is of –120 days.
• How many teeth are known as milk teeth in human beings – 20.
• Colure of the skin due to presence of -Melanin
• Bile juice secreted by -Lactro meter
• The smallest cell in the human body are –Blood cells.
• Food is mainly digested in –small intestine.
• The number of ribs in human body is –24
• The smallest bone in the human body is – Stirrup
• Total number of bones in human skill are- 30
• The hitting element in an electric iron is made of –Tungsten.
• A nuclear reactor uses as fuel –Uranium.
• The Velocity of light was first measured by –Roemer.
• The purity of milk is checked by –Lactro meter.
• The hottest part of the flame lies in its –Non luminous Zone.
• The first life came on this earth –In Water
• An object weights maximum in –Vacuum
• Which is the semiconductor –Silicon
• Ic Chips for Computers are usually made of –Silicon
• A device used for converting AC into DC is
• called-Rectifier.
• The volume Urine produced in an adult human every 24 hours is-1.5Liters.
• The average Gestation period of Sheep is –150 days.
• The Smallest possible unit of a comical compounds is –Molecule
• The Vitamin which contains Cobalt is –B12
• The first metal to used by man was Copper
• All acid essentially contain the element –Hydrogen
• The main active continent of tea and coffee is –Caffeine.
• Pencil lead is made up of –Graphite.
• The human body contains the maximum amount of –water.

CSIR NET JRF: Key Points to know for Paper-I

• Which gases ifs filled in balloons –Helium.
• Rickets occurs due to the deficiency of –Vitamin A
• Rocket launched station in Life-expectancy –Sriharikota
• A lemon is sour is because of –Citric acid
• Animals having hair and giving birth to young ones are called –Mammals
• Resistance in Series –R=R1+R2+R3+R………..
• Resistance in Parallel –1/R=1/R1+1/R2+1/R3
• Sound travels the fastest in –Steel
• Tuberculosis (T.B) is caused by –Bacteria
• Temperature –C/100=F-32/180=K-273.15/100
• Cow‘s milk is slightly yellowish in hue due to –Riboflavin
• The blue color of the sky is due to –Scattering of light
• Clinical thermometer range –95F to 110F
• Gold is a noble metal because it –is chemically less reactive
• Which of the following is a bad conductor of electricity -Rubber
• RDX is an explosive
• In oxygen things burn –Brightly
• What is water is composed of –Oxygen and Hydrogen
• Domestic electric fitting are connected in Parallel
• Cooking utensils are made up of metals because metals –are good
conductors of heat
• The voltage of the domestic electricity is –220 volt
• The voltage of electicity used in factories is –440 volt
• Which is the major source of the energy in human diet –Starch
• A satellite is kept in circular orbit due to the gravitational –force of the
earth
• Hair, on our body, are meant to –Be a organs of defence
• Velocity of a body is –Rate of changes of its position
• Dialysis is done when –Kidneys fail
• The speed of the Rocket Launcher is –Greater than ---11.6 KM per second
• The color of carrot is red is due to –the presence of pigments
• An instrument to measure the density of liquid –Hydrometer
• The blood pressure of a normal human being is –120 /80 mm /Hg
• During sleep, man‘s blood pressure –Fluctuates
• Copper is mainly used in –Electric wires
• It is known as the silent killer –Blood pressure
• Human body‘s weight on the earth is maximum at –Poles
• Which gas helps in extinguishing fire –Carbon dioxide
• Marble is the changed form of –Limestone
• Insulin is given for the treatment of –Diabetes
• If a magnet is divided into two pieces –Both the pieces become
independent magnets
• Dehydration is loss of –Water
• Which part of body typhoid affects –Intestines
• One pound is equivalent to –453 gms
• Diamonds are made up of –Carbon
• Hydrophobia may effect a person suffering from –Dog bite
• Carbon-dioxide as compared to air is –Heavier
• Distance traveled by light in one year is called –Light year
• One is germicide –Potassium permanganate
• Jaundice is a disease of –Liver
• Food poisoning is Caused by –Micro- organism
• Formation of rust on iron is what kind of phenomenon –Chemical
• The good conductor of electricity –Copper
• Mercury is used in thermometers because it –Expands uniformly
• Considered a balanced diet –Milk
• Scientific study of micro-organs –Microbiology
• Pollutes the environment –Carbon monoxide
• Which bone related to head –Skull
• When a piece of ice floats on water, its level –Remains the same
• Nights are cool when –The nights are clear and the days are cloudy
• Who discovered the steam engine –James Watt
• Who invented Telephone –Graham Bell
• Who discovered X-rays –Roentgen
• Who discovered Radium –Marie Curie
• Who discovered Penicillin –Alexander Fleming
• Who discovered the cure for rabies –Louis Pasteur
• The inventor of Television is –J. L. Baird
• Phosphorus is a –Non –metal
• A plant with green leaves placed in red light with apprear –Black
• Light from the sun reaches us in nearly –8 Minute
• The Common refrigerant used in domestic refrigerator is –Freon /ammonia
• A Fuse wire is characterized by –high resistance and how melting point
• Which metal is commonly used as an electromagnet –Iron
• When ice melts in the beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker with
–remain the same
• The dynamo converts- electrical energy into mechanical energy
• The oil in the wick of an oil lamp rises up due to –capillary action
• The flying of birds is a proof of Newton‘s –first law
• When milk is churned cream gets separated due to -centrifugal
• A red light used in traffic signal because –It has longest wavelength and
can be easily noticed from a long distance
• The most convenient color combination that can be used for vehicle
running day and night is –red and green
• Metals are good Conductor of electricity because –they contains free
electron
• The phenomenon of total internal reflection may occur when light is
passing from –glass to air
• The velocity of sound is maximum in –a solid
• The mirage is seen in the hot desert because –the density of layer of air
increase with altitude
• The best conductor of heat among liquid is –mercury
• Sound of frequency below 20Hz are called –Infrasonics

CSIR NET JRF: Key Points to know for Paper-I: Free Study Material

• A man standing at the finish line is recording the time of a race

competition by means of a stop watch. He must start the watch when –He
sees flash of light coming from starting gun
• If a shell from a canon bursts in the air, the total kinetic energy –increase
• The pitch of sound is measured by its –frequency
• Alternating current is converted to direct current by a –rectifier
• When iron and wood are exposed to sunlight, the iron rod become hot
quickly because of –the greater thermal conductivity of iron
• In diesel engines, ignition takes place by –Compression
• Cloudy nights are warmer because –Clouds prevent radiation of heat from
the ground into the air
• A electric bulb produce a loud sound when broken because –the air rushes
into partial vaccum in the bulb
• What is the approximate velocity of sound in air –800m/s.
• In deserts, clouds do not precipitate because of –low humidity.
• The ink of a pen leaks out in an aeroplane because –pressure of ink inside
is more than the ambient pressure
• Coating of iron with zinc is known as –Galvanization
• A piece of rock was brought from moon to earth, then –Its weight alone
changed
• Which of the following is not a primary colour –Black
• Which falls down faster in a vacuum –All with fall down at same speed in
a vacuum because there will be no air resistance.
• Atmospheric pressure is measured by using an instrument call a/an –
barometer
• The process of transfer of heat by matter but without actual movement of
particle then selves is called –Conduction
• In an electric kettle water becomes hot by –Convection
• Tea will cool most easily in a –Metal cup
• The source of solar energy is –Nuclear fusion
• A radar that detect the presence of an enemy aircraft uses –Radio waves
• Light year is a unit of –Distance
• What is normal temp, of a human body –370 c
• A Celsius and a Fahrenheit thermometer give the same reading at a
particular temp. - -400C
• In which atmospheric layer are the communication satellites located ? –
Ionosphere
• In an earthen pot , cooling of water depends upon the –All the above
• A fuse wire used to –Prevent an unduly high electric current from passing
through a circuit
• The nucleus of an atom consists of –Proton + electron
• What happen if water is cooled from 80C to 0C ? –its volume decrease up
to 40C and then Increase
• Which of the following is a good conductor of heat but bad conductor of
electricity –Mica
• A sudden fall in a barometer reading indicates –Storm
• Sound travel with a different speed in different media. In what order does
the velocity of sound increase in these media ? –Air, water and iron
• Which part of the sun is visible during total solar eclipse ? –Corona
• When a pencil is partly immersed in water in a beaker and held in a
slanting position, the immersed portion appears –Bent towards the water
surface
• The three primary colour are –Blue, green, and red
• Which part of a camera is analogous to the retina in the human eye ? –Film
• When a person walking in bring sunlight enter a dark room, he is not able
to see clearly for a little while because –the iris unable to dilate the pupil
immediately
• In electric fittings, the wires are earthed because –In case of a short circuit,
current passes to the earth.
• To an astronaut, the outer space appears –Black
• Which of the following metal is used in aircraft ? -Palladium
• A transformer is used to –Increase of decrease AC voltage
• The element used in an electric filament is –Tungsten
• The sky is blue in colour due to –dispersion
• When a ship floats on water –The mass of water displaced is equal to the
mass of the ship